UPSSSC PET Official Paper (Held On: 07 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Bharti Dayal.

Key Points

• Bharti Dayal is a renowned Indian painter who specializes in the traditional art form of Madhubani painting, also known as Mithila art.
• Her artwork reflects the vibrant culture and heritage of Mithila (a region in Bihar), using natural dyes and intricate patterns typical of Madhubani painting.
• She has received numerous accolades, including the National Award for Excellence in Madhubani Art in 2006 and the Bihar Ratna award.
• Bharti Dayal’s contribution to Madhubani art includes innovations that blend traditional themes with contemporary aesthetics to appeal to modern art enthusiasts.
• Her work has been displayed in various national and international exhibitions, promoting Indian traditional art forms globally.

Additional Information

• Sudarshan Kamat
• There is no notable association of Sudarshan Kamat with the Madhubani art form or other renowned Indian traditional art forms.
• This name might be fictional or unrelated to the context of famous Indian artists.
• Hrishikesh Sharma
• Hrishikesh Sharma is not a recognized name in the field of Madhubani painting or traditional Indian art.
• He could be a fictional or unrelated figure in this context.
• Spoorthi Rao
• Spoorthi Rao is also not associated with Madhubani painting or Indian traditional art.
• This name may be fictional or unrelated to the topic of the question.  pp

The correct answer is Annie Besant.

Key Points

• Annie Besant was a prominent British socialist, theosophist, women's rights activist, writer, and orator who became a major figure in Indian politics.
• She became the leader of the Theosophical Society in India in 1893 and played a significant role in spreading theosophy in the country.
• Under her leadership, the Theosophical Society aimed to promote universal brotherhood, study comparative religion, and explore the hidden mysteries of life and nature.
• In 1916, she also started the Home Rule Movement in India, advocating self-government and independence for India.
• Annie Besant was instrumental in bridging Indian spirituality and Western philosophical ideas, inspiring Indian leaders like Mahatma Gandhi and Jawaharlal Nehru.

Additional Information

• M. G. Ranade:
• Mahadev Govind Ranade was a distinguished Indian scholar, social reformer, and judge of the Bombay High Court.
• He was one of the founders of the Indian National Social Conference, which worked towards social reform in India.
• Ranade advocated for women's education, widow remarriage, and the abolition of caste-based discrimination.
• Though he was not associated with the Theosophical Society, he played a key role in the social and economic reform movements in India.
• Gopalakrishna Gokhale:
• Gopal Krishna Gokhale was an Indian political leader and social reformer, widely regarded as a mentor to Mahatma Gandhi.
• He was one of the moderate leaders of the Indian National Congress and founded the Servants of India Society in 1905 to promote social and humanitarian causes.
• Gokhale was not connected to the Theosophical Society but is remembered for his contribution to Indian education and reform movements.
• Bal Gangadhar Tilak:
• Bal Gangadhar Tilak, also known as "Lokmanya Tilak," was a prominent nationalist leader and social reformer during the Indian independence movement.
• He was one of the trio of Lal-Bal-Pal and was known for his slogan, "Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it."
• Tilak was not associated with the Theosophical Society but is remembered for his fiery oratory and efforts to promote India's self-rule.
• Theosophical Society:
• The Theosophical Society was founded in 1875 in New York by Helena Petrovna Blavatsky, Henry Steel Olcott, and others to promote spiritual exploration and unity.
• The society’s headquarters in India is located in Adyar, Chennai, and it became a significant center for spiritual, religious, and philosophical discussions.
• Its objectives include fostering universal brotherhood, studying comparative religion, and investigating the mysteries of nature and human existence.

The correct answer is 4) 1 joule/1 second.

Key Points

• 1 Watt is a unit of power, and it is defined as the rate at which energy is transferred or work is done.
• It is mathematically expressed as 1 Watt = 1 joule/1 second, where joule is the unit of energy and second is the unit of time.
• Power is the rate of doing work, and a Watt indicates how much energy is consumed or produced per unit time.
• The Watt is named after James Watt, a Scottish inventor and mechanical engineer who is renowned for his work on the steam engine.
• In the International System of Units (SI), the Watt is the standard unit used to measure power.

Additional Information

• Option 1: 1 ohm/1 second
• This expression is incorrect because Ohm (Ω) is the unit of resistance and not related to power measurement.
• Resistance refers to the opposition offered by a material to the flow of electric current.
• Power is calculated using energy and time, and resistance does not directly define power.
• Option 2: 1 coulomb/1 second
• This expression represents electric current (Ampere), not power.
• Electric current is defined as the rate of flow of electric charge, where 1 Ampere = 1 coulomb/1 second.
• Although current is a factor in power calculations, it is not itself a unit of power.
• Power and its Measurement
• Power is a fundamental concept in physics and engineering, denoting the rate at which work is performed or energy is transferred.
• In electrical systems, power (P) can be calculated using the formula P = VI, where V is voltage and I is current.
• In mechanical systems, power is often calculated using P = Work/Time.
• Power can be represented in different units like Watt, kilowatt (KW), and horsepower (HP).

The correct answer is All of the above.

Key Points

• El Niño significantly impacts the Indian monsoon by warming the central and eastern Pacific Ocean, leading to weakened monsoon rains and drought-like conditions in India.
• The Tibetan Plateau, with its high-altitude surface heating during summer, creates a thermal low-pressure zone that helps attract moist monsoon winds from the Indian Ocean towards the Indian subcontinent.
• Jet Streams—particularly the Subtropical Westerly Jet Stream and the Tropical Easterly Jet Stream—play a vital role in the onset and withdrawal of monsoons in India.
• The Indian monsoon is a complex phenomenon influenced by a combination of global and regional factors, including ocean-atmosphere interactions, geographical features, and atmospheric circulations.
• These three factors—El Niño, the Tibetan Plateau, and Jet Streams—work together to determine the timing, intensity, and distribution of monsoon rainfall across the country.

Additional Information

• El Niño
• El Niño is a climate pattern characterized by the warming of sea surface temperatures in the central and eastern Pacific Ocean near the equator.
• During El Niño years, the Indian monsoon weakens due to disrupted atmospheric circulation, leading to below-average rainfall.
• It is part of the El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) phenomenon, which also includes La Niña (cooling phase).
• Tibetan Plateau
• The Tibetan Plateau acts as a heat source during summer, creating a low-pressure area that draws moist winds from the Indian Ocean.
• This high-altitude landmass is crucial for the formation of the South Asian monsoon system.
• It also influences wind patterns in the upper troposphere, which impact monsoon circulation.
• Jet Streams
• Jet streams are fast-moving air currents in the upper atmosphere that influence weather patterns globally.
• The Subtropical Westerly Jet Stream shifts northward during summer, aiding the onset of the monsoon over India.
• The Tropical Easterly Jet Stream strengthens over the Indian subcontinent during the monsoon season, supporting sustained rainfall.
• Indian Monsoon System
• The Indian monsoon is a seasonal reversal of winds caused by differential heating of land and sea.
• It is divided into two phases: the southwest monsoon (June to September) and the northeast monsoon (October to December).
• The monsoon is critical for India’s agriculture, economy, and water resources.

The correct answer is Uniform Civil Code.

Key Points

• Article 44 of the Indian Constitution is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which states, "The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout the territory of India."
• The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) aims to replace personal laws based on the scriptures and customs of each major religious community in India with a common set of laws governing personal matters like marriage, divorce, inheritance, adoption, and maintenance.
• The UCC is intended to ensure equality and justice in personal laws, irrespective of religion, gender, or caste, thus promoting national integration and secularism.
• It is a contentious issue in India due to its potential impact on religious freedom and practices, as personal laws currently vary across religious communities.
• While the UCC has not yet been implemented, it has been a subject of debate and is seen as a way to ensure uniformity in the application of laws across all citizens.

Additional Information

• Uniform Work
• This term does not relate to Article 44 of the Constitution. However, labor laws in India aim to ensure uniformity in working conditions, wages, and rights for workers.
• Examples include the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, and the Occupational Safety, Health, and Working Conditions Code, 2020.
• These laws are designed to provide fair and equal treatment to workers across industries while ensuring safety and productivity.
• Uniform Education
• The Constitution of India under Article 45 directs the State to provide free and compulsory education for children up to the age of 14.
• Efforts to standardize education include the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, which aims at ensuring equitable and quality education for all.
• However, "Uniform Education" is not mentioned in Article 44 of the Constitution.
• Uniform Wage
• Uniform wage refers to ensuring equal pay for equal work, irrespective of gender or other factors.
• The Equal Remuneration Act, 1976, mandates equal pay for men and women for the same work or work of similar nature.
• While wage equality is a key concern, it is not related to Article 44 or the Uniform Civil Code.

The correct answer is Aquifer.

Key Points

• An aquifer is an underground layer of water-bearing rock or sediment that stores and transmits groundwater.
• Aquifers are typically made of porous materials such as sand, gravel, silt, or fractured rock, which allow water to flow through them.
• Groundwater in aquifers can be extracted through wells, making them a critical source of freshwater for drinking, agriculture, and industrial use.
• Aquifers are classified into two main types: confined aquifers (covered by an impermeable layer) and unconfined aquifers (open to surface water infiltration).
• The term “aquifer” is derived from the Latin words “aqua,” meaning water, and “ferre,” meaning to carry, highlighting its role in storing and transmitting water.

Additional Information

• Basin
• A basin refers to a natural or artificial depression in the Earth's surface where water collects. It can include river basins, drainage basins, or ocean basins.
• Unlike aquifers, basins are surface structures rather than underground layers for storing groundwater.
• River basins are significant for water management as they define the area drained by a river and its tributaries.
• Watershed Area
• A watershed is an area of land that separates water flowing to different rivers, basins, or seas. It is a surface-based concept rather than underground.
• Watersheds play a critical role in water management as they influence the flow and quality of surface water.
• The boundaries of a watershed are determined by geographical features such as hills and ridges.
• Artesian Well
• An artesian well is a type of well where water flows to the surface naturally due to pressure in a confined aquifer.
• It occurs when groundwater is trapped between impermeable layers of rock, creating pressure that forces water upward when tapped.
• Artesian wells are specifically linked to confined aquifers and are a natural phenomenon distinct from general groundwater storage.

The correct answer is Bald Eagle.

Key Points

• The Bald Eagle (Haliaeetus leucocephalus) was officially declared the national bird and symbol of the United States of America in 1782 when it was placed on the Great Seal of the country.
• It symbolizes power, strength, freedom, and independence, aligning with the values and ideals of the United States.
• Native to North America, the Bald Eagle is found near large bodies of open water, where it feeds primarily on fish.
• The species was once endangered due to hunting, habitat destruction, and the use of pesticides like DDT but has made a remarkable recovery thanks to conservation efforts and the banning of DDT in 1972.
• The Bald Eagle is a revered symbol in the United States and appears on various national emblems, including currency, official seals, and passports.

Additional Information

• American Robin:
• The American Robin (Turdus migratorius) is a migratory songbird commonly found in North America.
• It is known for its orange-red breast and melodious song, often considered a harbinger of spring in the U.S.
• Though popular and widespread, it is not a symbol of national significance in the U.S.
• Peregrine Falcon:
• The Peregrine Falcon (Falco peregrinus) is one of the fastest birds, capable of reaching speeds of over 240 miles per hour during a hunting dive.
• It is found worldwide and is known for its speed, agility, and hunting prowess.
• The Peregrine Falcon was once endangered due to DDT but has since recovered due to conservation efforts.
• Golden Eagle:
• The Golden Eagle (Aquila chrysaetos) is one of the largest raptors in North America and is known for its striking golden-brown plumage.
• It is a powerful predator, often hunting mammals and birds.
• While it is a significant symbol in some cultures and countries, it is not the national bird of the United States.
• National Symbols of the United States:
• The U.S. has several national symbols that represent its heritage, values, and culture.
• Other notable symbols include the American flag, the Statue of Liberty, the Liberty Bell, and the national anthem, "The Star-Spangled Banner."

The correct answer is "Restore the Land. Unlock the Opportunities.".

Key Points

• The theme for World Day to Combat Desertification and Drought 2025 is "Restore the Land. Unlock the Opportunities."
• This theme emphasizes the need for restoring degraded land to unlock economic, social, and environmental opportunities.
• The World Day to Combat Desertification and Drought is observed annually on June 17 to raise awareness about the threats posed by desertification and drought.
• The day is organized by the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), which works towards sustainable land management and combating desertification globally.
• The 2025 theme aligns with the broader goals of sustainable development, particularly SDG 15: Life on Land, which focuses on protecting, restoring, and promoting sustainable use of terrestrial ecosystems.

Additional Information

• "Restoration. Land. Recovery.":
• This was the theme for the 2021 World Day to Combat Desertification and Drought.
• The focus was on restoring degraded land to boost economic resilience, create jobs, and increase food security following the COVID-19 pandemic.
• It highlighted the role of land restoration in addressing global challenges like climate change and biodiversity loss.
• "Her Land. Her Rights.":
• This was the theme for the 2023 World Day to Combat Desertification and Drought.
• It focused on gender equality in land restoration and emphasized the role of women in sustainable land management.
• The theme aimed to raise awareness about women’s land rights and their crucial role in combating desertification and drought.
• World Day to Combat Desertification and Drought:
• Established in 1994 by the United Nations General Assembly.
• Aims to promote public awareness of desertification and drought and their mitigation strategies.
• Supports the implementation of the UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), a key global treaty addressing these issues.

Given:

Total registered from Bangalore = 1200

Ratio of male : female (Bangalore) = 5 : 7

Total registered from Nagaland = 800

Ratio of male : female (Nagaland) = 5 : 3

Formula used:

Part = Total × (Required ratio / Sum of ratio)

Calculations:

Male from Bangalore = 1200 × 5 / (5 + 7)

⇒ Male from Bangalore = 1200 × 5 / 12 = 500

Female from Nagaland = 800 × 3 / (5 + 3)

⇒ Female from Nagaland = 800 × 3 / 8 = 300

Required percent = (500 / 300) × 100 = 166.66%

∴ Required percentage ≈ 166.66%.

Given:

Registered from Chennai = 1800

Registered from Hyderabad = 2500

Registered from Delhi = 950

Formula used:

Average = (Sum of observations) ÷ (Number of observations)

Calculations:

Total registered = 1800 + 2500 + 950 = 5250

Average = 5250 ÷ 3

⇒ Average = 1750

∴ The average number of people registered = 1750.

Given:

Total registered from Bangalore = 1200

Ratio of male : female (Bangalore) = 5 : 7

Total registered from Delhi = 950

Ratio of male : female (Delhi) = 11 : 8

Total registered from Patna = 700

Ratio of male : female (Patna) = 4 : 3

Total registered from Nagaland = 800

Ratio of male : female (Nagaland) = 5 : 3

Formula used:

Difference = Larger value − Smaller value

Calculations:

Female from Bangalore = 1200 × 7 / (5 + 7)

⇒ Female from Bangalore = 1200 × 7 / 12 = 700

Female from Delhi = 950 × 8 / (11 + 8)

⇒ Female from Delhi = 950 × 8 / 19 = 400

Total female (Bangalore + Delhi) = 700 + 400 = 1100

Male from Patna = 700 × 4 / (4 + 3)

⇒ Male from Patna = 700 × 4 / 7 = 400

Male from Nagaland = 800 × 5 / (5 + 3)

⇒ Male from Nagaland = 800 × 5 / 8 = 500

Total male (Patna + Nagaland) = 400 + 500 = 900

Required difference = 1100 − 900 = 200

∴ The required difference is 200.

Given:

Total registered from Chennai = 1800

Ratio of male : female (Chennai) = 3 : 6

Fees for female = ₹200

Fees for male = ₹250

Formula used:

Total amount = (Female × Fee) + (Male × Fee)

Calculations:

Male from Chennai = 1800 × 3 / (3 + 6)

⇒ Male from Chennai = 1800 × 3 / 9 = 600

Female from Chennai = 1800 × 6 / 9 = 1200

Amount from females = 1200 × 200 = ₹240000

Amount from males = 600 × 250 = ₹150000

Total amount earned = 240000 + 150000 = ₹390000

∴ The total amount earned by the company from Chennai is ₹390000.

Given:

Total registered from Hyderabad = 2500

Ratio of male : female (Hyderabad) = 12 : 13

Total registered from Patna = 700

Ratio of male : female (Patna) = 4 : 3

Formula used:

Required ratio = Female (Hyderabad) : Male (Patna)

Calculations:

Female from Hyderabad = 2500 × 13 / (12 + 13)

⇒ Female from Hyderabad = 2500 × 13 / 25 = 1300

Male from Patna = 700 × 4 / (4 + 3)

⇒ Male from Patna = 700 × 4 / 7 = 400

Required ratio = 1300 : 400

⇒ Required ratio = 13 : 4

∴ The required ratio is 13 : 4.

The correct answer is Chandragupta Maurya.

Key Points

• Chandragupta Maurya was the founder of the Mauryan Empire, which was established in 321 BCE in ancient India.
• He united the Indian subcontinent under a centralized administration, becoming the first ruler to consolidate such a vast empire in the region.
• Chandragupta Maurya was mentored by the great scholar and strategist Chanakya (Kautilya), who played a vital role in his rise to power.
• Under his rule, the Mauryan Empire expanded to include large parts of northern and central India, as well as present-day Afghanistan and Pakistan.
• Chandragupta abdicated the throne later in life, became a Jain monk, and is believed to have died in Shravanabelagola in Karnataka while practicing Jain asceticism.

Additional Information

• Kalashoka
• Kalashoka (also known as Kakavarna) was a ruler of the Shishunaga dynasty in Magadha.
• He is known for hosting the Second Buddhist Council in Vaishali around 383 BCE.
• Although he contributed to Buddhist activities, he was not associated with the foundation of the Mauryan dynasty.
• Bimbisara
• Bimbisara was a king of the Haryanka dynasty and ruled Magadha in the 5th century BCE.
• He is considered one of the earliest known rulers of the Magadha region and was a contemporary of Lord Buddha.
• Bimbisara laid the foundation for the expansion of the Magadha kingdom but was not linked to the Mauryan dynasty.
• Ashoka
• Ashoka the Great was the grandson of Chandragupta Maurya and a prominent ruler of the Mauryan Empire.
• His reign (268–232 BCE) marked the peak of the Mauryan Empire in terms of territorial expansion and cultural influence.
• He is best known for embracing Buddhism after the Kalinga War and for promoting the spread of Buddhist principles across Asia.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Uttarakhand.

Key Points

• Garhwali is a popular folk dance form originating from the state of Uttarakhand, India.
• This dance is deeply rooted in the Garhwal region's culture, which includes traditions, rituals, and folklore of the local communities.
• Garhwali folk dances are performed during festivals, weddings, and social events to celebrate the rich heritage and joyous occasions.
• Traditional costumes, such as colorful attire and ornaments, are often worn during the dance to reflect the vibrancy of the culture.
• Garhwali dance forms are accompanied by regional music and instruments, including dhol, damau, and masakbeen, which add rhythm and energy to the performance.

Additional Information

• Himachal Pradesh:
• Himachal Pradesh is renowned for its rich cultural traditions and folk dances such as Nati, which is considered one of the most popular dance forms.
• Nati is performed during various festivals and social events and is recognized for its slow and rhythmic movements.
• The dance reflects the vibrant culture and traditions of the Himachali people.
• Jammu and Kashmir:
• The state has its own unique cultural expressions, including folk dances such as Rouf and Bhand Pather.
• Rouf is performed by women during festive occasions, especially during Eid and Ramzan, and features graceful movements.
• Bhand Pather is a traditional folk theater that includes dance, music, and storytelling, performed by Kashmiri artists.
• Uttar Pradesh:
• Uttar Pradesh is known for its classical dance forms, particularly Kathak, which has deep historical roots in the region.
• Folk dances such as Charkula, performed during festivals like Holi, and Raslila, which depicts stories from Lord Krishna's life, are popular in the state.
• These dances reflect the cultural and spiritual heritage of Uttar Pradesh.

The correct answer is Fri Aug 16 1946.

Key Points

• Direct Action Day, also known as the Day of Great Calcutta Killing, was observed on 16th August 1946.
• It was called by the All India Muslim League under the leadership of Muhammad Ali Jinnah to demand the creation of a separate nation, Pakistan.
• The day witnessed massive communal violence, particularly in Calcutta (now Kolkata), leading to thousands of deaths and injuries.
• The violence was a result of the League's call to demonstrate its strength and pressurize the British government and the Indian National Congress to accept its demand for partition.
• This event marked a significant escalation in communal tensions during the Indian freedom struggle and foreshadowed the eventual partition of India in 1947.

Additional Information

• Fri Aug 15 1947:
• This day is celebrated as India's Independence Day, marking the end of British colonial rule and the birth of an independent India.
• It is one of the most significant dates in Indian history, symbolizing the culmination of decades of struggle for freedom by leaders like Mahatma Gandhi, Jawaharlal Nehru, Sardar Patel, and others.
• Direct Action Day:
• The main theme of this question revolves around the communal unrest and political strategies during the freedom movement.
• The events of Direct Action Day highlighted the deep communal divisions and were a precursor to the eventual partition of India, which led to widespread displacement and violence.

The correct answer is Davos-Klosters, Switzerland.

Key Points

• The 55th World Economic Forum (WEF) Annual Meeting in 2025 was held at Davos-Klosters, Switzerland, a venue renowned for hosting the WEF's annual gatherings.
• Davos-Klosters has been the traditional host of the World Economic Forum since its inception in 1971, symbolizing global cooperation and economic dialogue.
• The 2025 meeting focused on global economic challenges, climate change, technology innovation, and inclusive growth.
• Leaders from various sectors, including political, business, academia, and civil society, convene annually in Davos-Klosters to address pressing global issues.
• The key themes of the 2025 WEF Annual Meeting revolved around sustainable development goals, AI governance, climate resilience, and fostering equitable global growth.

Additional Information

• Bern, Switzerland:
• Bern, the capital city of Switzerland, is known for its UNESCO World Heritage-listed Old Town and historic architecture.
• While Bern plays a significant role in Swiss politics and culture, it is not traditionally associated with hosting major global events such as the World Economic Forum.
• Zurich, Switzerland:
• Zurich is Switzerland's largest city and a major financial hub, hosting significant banking and economic institutions.
• Although Zurich is a global center for finance and commerce, it is not the designated location for the World Economic Forum's annual meetings.
• Geneva, Switzerland:
• Geneva serves as a hub for international diplomacy and is home to several global organizations, including the United Nations and the World Health Organization.
• Despite its prominence in global governance and diplomacy, Geneva does not host the World Economic Forum's annual meetings.

The correct answer is Harappan Civilization.

Key Points

• The Harappan Civilization, also known as the Indus Valley Civilization, is considered the first urban civilization in South Asia.
• It flourished between 2600 BCE and 1900 BCE in the northwestern regions of South Asia, which include present-day Pakistan and parts of India.
• The civilization is known for its advanced town planning, which included well-organized grid systems, drainage systems, and sophisticated water management.
• Key archaeological sites include Harappa and Mohenjo-Daro, which reveal the existence of complex urban centers with granaries, baths, and residential areas.
• The Harappan Civilization was characterized by its expertise in trade, crafts, metallurgy, and ceramics, as well as its use of a script that remains undeciphered.

Additional Information

• Chinese Civilization:
• The Chinese Civilization, often referred to as one of the world’s oldest civilizations, emerged along the Yellow River (Huang He) around 2000 BCE.
• It is known for its contributions to philosophy (Confucianism and Taoism), inventions such as paper and gunpowder, and early political systems like feudalism.
• While advanced, it was geographically distinct from the Harappan Civilization and emerged later than the Indus Valley Civilization.
• Egyptian Civilization:
• The Egyptian Civilization developed along the Nile River around 3100 BCE and is renowned for its monumental architecture, including pyramids and temples.
• It was characterized by a strong centralized government, hieroglyphic writing, and advancements in mathematics, medicine, and engineering.
• Although influential, it is geographically and culturally separate from South Asia.
• Mesopotamian Civilization:
• The Mesopotamian Civilization, one of the earliest civilizations, arose in the Tigris-Euphrates river valley around 3100 BCE.
• It is known for the invention of writing (cuneiform), the Code of Hammurabi (an early legal code), and advanced agricultural techniques.
• While contemporaneous with the Harappan Civilization, it is located in modern-day Iraq and is distinct from South Asia.

Given:

Least 4 digit number = 1000

Divisor = 9

Formula used:

Required number = Smallest multiple of 9 ≥ 1000

Calculations:

1000 ÷ 9 = 111.11

⇒ Next integer = 112

⇒ Required number = 112 × 9

⇒ Required number = 1008

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Given:

Total voters from town B = 13500

Percentage of voters who do not vote = 20%

Percentage of female out of total voters voted = 45%

Ratio of male : female who do not vote = 5 : 4

Formula used:

Non-voters = Total voters × Percentage / 100

Voters = Total voters − Non-voters

Calculations:

Non-voters from B = 13500 × 20 / 100 = 2700

Voters from B = 13500 − 2700 = 10800

Female voters = 10800 × 45 / 100 = 4860

Male voters = 10800 − 4860 = 5940

Male non-voters = 2700 × 5 / (5 + 4) = 1500

Female non-voters = 2700 × 4 / 9 = 1200

Total male voters (overall) = 5940 + 1500 = 7440

Total female voters (overall) = 4860 + 1200 = 6060

Required ratio = 7440 : 6060

⇒ Required ratio = 124 : 101

∴ The required ratio is 124 : 101.

Given:

Total voters from town B = 13500

Percentage of voters who do not vote = 20%

Percentage of female out of total voters voted = 45%

Formula used:

Non-voters = Total voters × Percentage / 100

Voters = Total voters − Non-voters

Calculations:

Non-voters from B = 13500 × 20 / 100 = 2700

Voters from B = 13500 − 2700 = 10800

Female voters = 10800 × 45 / 100 = 4860

Male voters = 10800 − 4860 = 5940

Required ratio = 5940 : 4860

⇒ Required ratio = 11 : 9

∴ The ratio of male to female who have voted from town B is 11 : 9.

Given:

Total voters from town A = 30000

Percentage of voters who do not vote (A) = 15%

Total voters from town C = 28000

Percentage of voters who do not vote (C) = 18%

Total voters from town E = 32500

Percentage of voters who do not vote (E) = 6%

Formula used:

Non-voters = Total voters × Percentage / 100

Average = (Sum of values) ÷ Number of values

Calculations:

Non-voters from A = 30000 × 15 / 100 = 4500

Non-voters from C = 28000 × 18 / 100 = 5040

Non-voters from E = 32500 × 6 / 100 = 1950

Total non-voters (A + C + E) = 4500 + 5040 + 1950 = 11490

Average non-voters = 11490 ÷ 3 = 3830

∴ The average number of voters who have not voted from town A, C and E is 3830.

Given:

Total voters from town A = 30000

Percentage of voters who do not vote (A) = 15%

Total voters from town B = 13500

Percentage of voters who do not vote (B) = 20%

Total voters from town C = 28000

Percentage of voters who do not vote (C) = 18%

Formula used:

Voted = Total voters − Non-voters

Non-voters = Total voters × Percentage / 100

Calculations:

Non-voters from A = 30000 × 15 / 100 = 4500

⇒ Voters (A) = 30000 − 4500 = 25500

Non-voters from B = 13500 × 20 / 100 = 2700

⇒ Voters (B) = 13500 − 2700 = 10800

Non-voters from C = 28000 × 18 / 100 = 5040

⇒ Voters (C) = 28000 − 5040 = 22960

Total voters (A + B + C) = 25500 + 10800 + 22960 = 59260

∴ The total number of people who have voted from town A, B and C together is 59260.

Given:

Total voters from town E = 32500

Percentage of voters who do not vote (E) = 6%

Percentage of female out of total voters voted (E) = 40%

Total voters from town B = 13500

Percentage of voters who do not vote (B) = 20%

Percentage of female out of total voters voted (B) = 45%

Formula used:

Non-voters = Total voters × Percentage / 100

Voters = Total voters − Non-voters

Difference = Larger value − Smaller value

Calculations:

Non-voters from E = 32500 × 6 / 100 = 1950

⇒ Voters (E) = 32500 − 1950 = 30550

Female voters from E = 30550 × 40 / 100 = 12220

⇒ Male voters (E) = 30550 − 12220 = 18330

Non-voters from B = 13500 × 20 / 100 = 2700

⇒ Voters (B) = 13500 − 2700 = 10800

Female voters from B = 10800 × 45 / 100 = 4860

Required difference = 18330 − 4860 = 13470

∴ The required difference is 13470.

Given:

Year = 2022

Shirts sold by Shop A = 2000

Shirts sold by Shop B = 3600

Shirts sold by Shop C = 4000

Formula used:

Average = (Sum of observations) ÷ (Number of observations)

Calculations:

Total shirts sold in 2022 = 2000 + 3600 + 4000 = 9600

Average = 9600 ÷ 3

⇒ Average = 3200

∴ The average number of shirts sold by all shops together in 2022 is 3200.

Given:

Total shirts sold by Shop A in 2024 = 3200

Total shirts sold by Shop C in 2022 = 4000

Formula used:

Required ratio = Quantity₁ : Quantity₂

Calculations:

Required ratio = 3200 : 4000

⇒ Required ratio = 4 : 5

∴ The required ratio is 4 : 5.

Given:

Shirts sold by Shop B in 2022 = 3600

Shirts sold by Shop B in 2024 = 3400

Shirts sold by Shop A in 2022 = 2000

Shirts sold by Shop A in 2024 = 3200

Formula used:

Difference = Larger total − Smaller total

Calculations:

Total shirts sold by Shop B (2022 + 2024)

⇒ 3600 + 3400 = 7000

Total shirts sold by Shop A (2022 + 2024)

⇒ 2000 + 3200 = 5200

Required difference = 7000 − 5200 = 1800

∴ The required difference is 1800.

Given:

Shirts sold by Shop B in 2023 = 4200

Shirts sold by Shop C in 2023 = 2600

Shirts sold by Shop B in 2025 = 1800

Shirts sold by Shop C in 2025 = 3800

Formula used:

Percentage = (Required total / Base total) × 100

Calculations:

Total shirts sold (B + C) in 2023

⇒ 4200 + 2600 = 6800

Total shirts sold (B + C) in 2025

⇒ 1800 + 3800 = 5600

Required percent = (6800 / 5600) × 100

⇒ Required percent = 121.43% ≈ 121%

∴ The required percentage is approximately 121%.

Given:

Year 2021:

Shop A = 2400

Shop B = 3000

Shop C = 1600

Year 2023:

Shop A = 1800

Shop B = 4200

Shop C = 2600

Formula used:

Total = Sum of all shops

Required ratio = Total (2021) : Total (2023)

Calculations:

Total shirts sold in 2021

⇒ 2400 + 3000 + 1600 = 7000

Total shirts sold in 2023

⇒ 1800 + 4200 + 2600 = 8600

Required ratio = 7000 : 8600

⇒ Required ratio = 35 : 43

∴ The required ratio is 35 : 43.

According to the question:

1. N is more intelligent than M.

N > M

2. M is not as intelligent as Y.

3. X is more intelligent than Y but not as intelligent as N. 

N > X > Y > M 

Thus, 'N' is the most intelligent of all.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Union and its Territory.

Key Points

• Part I of the Indian Constitution is titled “The Union and its Territory”, and it encompasses Articles 1 to 4.
• Article 1 declares India as a Union of States, and it specifies the names of the states and union territories.
• Article 2 empowers Parliament to admit new states into the Union or establish new states on terms and conditions it deems fit.
• Article 3 provides provisions for the formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries, or names of existing states. This requires a bill to be passed by Parliament with prior recommendation from the President.
• Article 4 states that laws under Articles 2 and 3 are not to be considered constitutional amendments, even if they involve changes to the Constitution.

Additional Information

• Fundamental Duties (Option 1):
• These are enshrined in Part IVA of the Indian Constitution under Article 51A.
• Introduced by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
• There are currently 11 Fundamental Duties, including respecting the Constitution, cherishing national heritage, and protecting the environment.
• Citizenship (Option 3):
• Citizenship is covered under Part II of the Constitution, comprising Articles 5 to 11.
• It specifies who is considered a citizen of India at the commencement of the Constitution and empowers Parliament to regulate citizenship by law.
• The Citizenship Act of 1955 governs matters related to acquisition, termination, and other aspects of Indian citizenship.
• Fundamental Rights (Option 4):
• Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution, covering Articles 12 to 35.
• They guarantee basic rights to all citizens, such as the right to equality, freedom, protection from exploitation, religious freedom, cultural and educational rights, and constitutional remedies.
• These rights are enforceable by the courts, and any violation can be challenged in a court of law.

The correct answer is Singapore.

Key Points

• The Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) Secretariat is headquartered in Singapore, a major hub for global trade and diplomacy in the Asia-Pacific region.
• Established in 1989, APEC is a regional economic forum aimed at promoting free trade and sustainable economic growth among its 21 member economies.
• Singapore was chosen as the headquarters due to its strategic location, robust infrastructure, and active participation in global economic initiatives.
• The APEC Secretariat provides technical and administrative support for APEC’s various initiatives, working towards achieving the forum’s vision of an open and prosperous Asia-Pacific region.
• The Secretariat operates as the coordinating body for APEC’s working groups and committees, ensuring smooth communication and implementation of policies among member economies.

Additional Information

• Bangkok
• Bangkok is the capital of Thailand and serves as a key economic and cultural hub in Southeast Asia.
• While Bangkok is not the headquarters of APEC, Thailand has been an active member of APEC since its inception and has hosted APEC meetings, including the APEC Summit in 2003.
• Thailand’s focus in APEC has been on advancing digital economy and sustainable development initiatives.
• Tokyo
• Tokyo, the capital of Japan, is a leading global financial and political center.
• Japan is a founding member of APEC and has played a significant role in shaping the forum’s agenda, including its focus on trade liberalization and economic cooperation.
• Tokyo, however, is not the headquarters of APEC.
• Jakarta
• Jakarta is the capital of Indonesia and the largest city in Southeast Asia.
• Indonesia is an important member of APEC and hosted the APEC Summit in 1994, where the Bogor Goals of free and open trade and investment were established.

The correct answer is Positively charged hydrogen ions (H+).

Key Points

• When acids are dissolved in water, they ionize to release hydrogen ions (H+), which are responsible for their acidic properties.
• The hydrogen ions (H+) combine with water molecules to form hydronium ions (H3O+), making the solution acidic.
• This release of H+ ions is a defining characteristic of acids, as explained by the Arrhenius theory of acids and bases.
• Strong acids like hydrochloric acid (HCl) completely ionize in water, releasing a high concentration of H+ ions, while weak acids like acetic acid partially ionize.
• The concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution is measured using the pH scale, with lower pH values indicating higher acidity.

Additional Information

• Hydrogen gas (H2):
• Hydrogen gas (H2) is a neutral molecule and does not represent the form in which hydrogen exists when acids dissociate in water.
• It is a diatomic molecule that is formed during certain chemical reactions, such as the reaction of acids with metals (e.g., HCl + Zn → ZnCl2 + H2).
• Neutral hydrogen atoms (H):
• Neutral hydrogen atoms consist of one proton and one electron and are highly reactive.
• They do not exist freely in aqueous solutions because they tend to form bonds or ions quickly.
• Negatively charged hydrogen ions (H-):
• Negatively charged hydrogen ions, also known as hydride ions (H-), are formed when hydrogen gains an extra electron.
• These are not related to the dissociation of acids in water but are observed in some specific chemical environments, such as metal hydrides.
• Main Concept - Acids in Water:
• Acids are substances that increase the concentration of H+ ions in an aqueous solution, as per the Arrhenius definition.
• The dissociation of acids in water is a reversible reaction, and the extent of ionization depends on the strength of the acid.
• For example, hydrochloric acid (HCl) dissociates completely: HCl → H+ + Cl-, while acetic acid (CH3COOH) partially dissociates: CH3COOH ⇌ H+ + CH3COO-.

The correct answer is 1770.

Key Points

• The Bank of Hindustan was the first bank established in India in the year 1770.
• It was set up in Calcutta (now Kolkata), which was then the capital of British India.
• The bank primarily catered to the financial and trade requirements of British merchants in the country.
• The Bank of Hindustan ceased operations by the early 1830s due to financial instability and mismanagement.
• It is considered a precursor to the modern banking system in India, although it was not structured like the banks we see today.

Additional Information

• Relevance of the Bank of Hindustan:
• The Bank of Hindustan was one of the earliest attempts to introduce formal banking in India.
• It laid the foundation for subsequent banking institutions, paving the way for the establishment of Presidency Banks and eventually the Reserve Bank of India in 1935.

सही उत्तर- यमुना

Key Points

• गद्यांश में स्पष्ट उल्लेख है कि प्रभावती नायिका होने पर भी उसकी तुलना में यमुना का चरित्र अधिक प्रभावशाली है।
• यमुना का व्यक्तित्व सभी के लिए अनुकरणीय बताया गया है।
• अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प 3 है।

अन्य विकल्प:

• संयोगिता: गद्यांश में उसका उल्लेख है, परंतु उसे प्रभावती से अधिक प्रभावशाली नहीं बताया गया है।
• देव: देव पुरुष पात्र हैं, जबकि प्रश्न नारी पात्र की तुलना से संबंधित है।
• वीरसिंह: वे सेनापति हैं, किंतु उनके चरित्र की प्रभावशीलता की तुलना प्रभावती से नहीं की गई है।
• उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं: यह विकल्प गलत है क्योंकि सही उत्तर उपलब्ध है।

सही उत्तर- संयोगिता

Key Points

• गद्यांश में स्पष्ट उल्लेख है कि प्रभावती संयोगिता को स्वयंवर के अवसर पर सशस्त्र सहायता प्रदान करती है।
• इसी युद्ध में वह घायल होकर मृत्यु को प्राप्त होती है।
• अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प 4 है।

अन्य विकल्प:

• निरुपमा: गद्यांश में इसका कोई उल्लेख नहीं है।
• नीलिमानीलिमा: यह पात्र गद्यांश में वर्णित नहीं है।
• पद्मावती: इसका भी गद्यांश में कोई संदर्भ नहीं मिलता।
• उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं: यह विकल्प गलत है क्योंकि सही उत्तर उपलब्ध है।

सही उत्तर- वीरसिंह

Key Points

• गद्यांश में स्पष्ट रूप से उल्लेख है कि यमुना का प्रेम सेनापति वीरसिंह से था।
• यद्यपि दोनों का विवाह नहीं हो सका, फिर भी उनके प्रेम का उल्लेख विशेष रूप से किया गया है।
• अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प 3 है।

अन्य विकल्प:

• देव: देव प्रभावती से संबंधित पात्र हैं, यमुना से नहीं।
• महेश्वर सिंह: वे प्रभावती के पिता हैं, यमुना के प्रेमी नहीं।
• सिंहमित्र: इस पात्र का गद्यांश में कोई उल्लेख नहीं है।
• उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं: यह विकल्प गलत है क्योंकि सही उत्तर उपलब्ध है।

सही उत्तर- गंधर्व

Key Points

• गद्यांश में स्पष्ट उल्लेख है कि प्रभावती ने एक वीर नारी की तरह स्वयं राजकुमार देव के साथ गंधर्व विवाह किया।
• यह विवाह उसकी स्वेच्छा और साहस का प्रतीक है।
• अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प 1 है।

अन्य विकल्प:

• असुर: गद्यांश में इसका कोई उल्लेख नहीं है।
• आर्य: यह विवाह प्रकार गद्यांश में वर्णित नहीं है।
• प्रजापत्य: इसका भी गद्यांश में कोई संदर्भ नहीं मिलता।
• उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं: यह विकल्प गलत है क्योंकि सही उत्तर उपलब्ध है।

सही उत्तर- महेश्वर सिंह

Key Points

• गद्यांश में स्पष्ट उल्लेख है कि प्रभावती दलम के शासक महेश्वर सिंह की कन्या है।
• इसी कारण उसका विवाह उसके पिता बलवन्त से कराना चाहते थे।
• अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प 1 है।

अन्य विकल्प:

• पृथ्वीराज: गद्यांश में प्रभावती को पृथ्वीराज की पुत्री नहीं बताया गया है।
• जयसंद: जयचन्द का उल्लेख है, परंतु प्रभावती उनकी पुत्री नहीं है।
• वीरसिंह: वे सेनापति हैं, प्रभावती के पिता नहीं।
• उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं: यह विकल्प गलत है क्योंकि सही उत्तर उपलब्ध है।

सही उत्तर- ध्वनि

Key Points

• गद्यांश में स्पष्ट उल्लेख है कि परवर्ती युग में वामन ने रीति-सम्प्रदाय, कुंतक ने वक्रोक्ति-सम्प्रदाय तथा आनंद वर्द्धनाचार्य ने ध्वनि-सम्प्रदाय की प्रतिष्ठा की।
• ध्वनि को काव्य की आत्मा के रूप में स्वीकार किया गया है।
• अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प 1 है।

अन्य विकल्प:

• काव्य: यह सामान्य शब्द है, किसी विशिष्ट सम्प्रदाय का नाम नहीं है।
• रस: रस-सिद्धान्त की प्रतिष्ठा भरतमुनि ने की थी, न कि आनंद वर्द्धनाचार्य ने।
• शास्त्रीय: ऐसा कोई सम्प्रदाय गद्यांश में वर्णित नहीं है।
• उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं: यह विकल्प गलत है क्योंकि सही उत्तर उपलब्ध है।

सही उत्तर- रस-निष्पत्ति

Key Points

• गद्यांश में स्पष्ट उल्लेख है कि भारत के परवर्ती आचार्यों ने विशेषतः रस-निष्पत्ति की समस्या को लेकर अपने-अपने स्वतंत्र मत प्रस्तुत किए।
• भट्ट लोल्लट, शंकुक, भट्टनायक, अभिनव गुप्त, पंडितराज जगन्नाथ आदि ने रस-निष्पत्ति के विषय में विभिन्न मत स्थापित किए।
• अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प 3 है।

अन्य विकल्प:

• वक्रोक्ति: यह कुंतक द्वारा स्थापित सम्प्रदाय है, यहाँ इसका संदर्भ नहीं है।
• अलंकार: अलंकार को भामह, उद्भट, दण्डी आदि ने काव्य की आत्मा माना, पर यहाँ प्रश्न रस-निष्पत्ति से संबंधित है।
• निर्णयात्मक पद्धति: गद्यांश में इसका कोई उल्लेख नहीं है।
• उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं: यह विकल्प गलत है क्योंकि सही उत्तर उपलब्ध है।

सही उत्तर- रस-सिद्धांत

Key Points

• गद्यांश में स्पष्ट उल्लेख है कि भरतमुनि द्वारा रचित ‘नाट्य-शास्त्र’ में साहित्य के मानदण्ड के रूप में रस-सिद्धांत की प्रतिष्ठा की गई है।
• रस-सिद्धांत साहित्य में भाव एवं भावनाओं के उद्वेलन की प्रक्रिया का विश्लेषण करता है।
• अतः सही उत्तर विकल्��� 4 है।

अन्य विकल्प:

• सिद्धांत विवेचन: ऐसा कोई विशिष्ट उल्लेख गद्यांश में नहीं है।
• रीति संप्रदाय: इसकी प्रतिष्ठा वामन ने की थी, भरतमुनि ने नहीं।
• काव्य शास्त्र: यह सामान्य नाम है, मानदण्ड के रूप में रस-सिद्धांत को स्थापित किया गया था।
• उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं: यह विकल्प गलत है क्योंकि सही उत्तर उपलब्ध है।

सही उत्तर- अलंकार

Key Points

• गद्यांश में स्पष्ट उल्लेख है कि भामह, उद्भट, दण्डी आदि आचार्यों ने रस के स्थान पर काव्य की आत्मा के रूप में अलंकार की प्रतिष्ठा की।
• उन्होंने अलंकार को ‘सौन्दर्य’ के पर्याय के रूप में स्वीकार किया।
• अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प 4 है।

अन्य विकल्प:

• ध्वनि: ध्वनि-सम्प्रदाय की प्रतिष्ठा आनंद वर्द्धनाचार्य ने की थी।
• वक्रोक्ति: वक्रोक्ति-सम्प्रदाय की स्थापना कुंतक ने की थी।
• रीति: रीति-सम्प्रदाय की प्रतिष्ठा वामन ने की थी।
• उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं: यह विकल्प गलत है क्योंकि सही उत्तर उपलब्ध है।

सही उत्तर- क्षेमेंद्र

Key Points

• गद्यांश में स्पष्ट उल्लेख है कि क्षेमेंद्र ने ‘औचित्य संप्रदाय’ की स्थापना की।
• उन्होंने रस, अलंकार, रीति, ध्वनि आदि सभी तत्वों के उचित प्रयोग को महत्वपूर्ण माना।
• अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प 3 है।

अन्य विकल्प:

• विश्वनाथ: इन्होंने काव्य-शास्त्र पर ग्रंथ लिखे, परंतु औचित्य संप्रदाय की स्थापना नहीं की।
• लोल्लट: इन्होंने रस-निष्पत्ति पर मत प्रस्तुत किया, औचित्य संप्रदाय की स्थापना नहीं की।
• भरतमुनि: इन्होंने ‘नाट्य-शास्त्र’ की रचना की और रस-सिद्धांत की प्रतिष्ठा की।
• उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं: यह विकल्प गलत है क्योंकि सही उत्तर उपलब्ध है।

सही उत्तर है**- गुणवाचक**। 

Key Points

• गुणवाचक विशेषण - वे शब्द हैं, जो संज्ञा या सर्वनाम के गुण, दोष, रंग, आकार, स्थान, या दशा का बोध कराते हैं।
• उदाहरण के लिए: अच्छा, बुरा, लाल, बड़ा, गोल, पुराना, ठंडा, और चालाक।

गुणवाचक विशेषण के प्रमुख उदाहरण:

• गुण/दोष: अच्छा, बुरा, सुंदर, ईमानदार, दयालु, कायर, चालाक, वीर।
• रंग/रूप: लाल, नीला, काला, गोरा, सुनहरा, जामुनी।
• आकार/प्रकार: लंबा, छोटा, मोटा, गोल, चौकोर, पतला।
• स्थान/काल: पुराना, नया, प्राचीन, ग्रामीण, भारतीय, जयपुर।
• दशा/स्वाद: ठंडा, गर्म, खट्टा, मीठा, सूखा, गीला।

Additional Informationअन्य विकल्प :

• सार्वनामिक विशेषण - वे सर्वनाम शब्द हैं, जो संज्ञा से पहले आकर उसकी विशेषता या संकेत बताते हैं।
• जैसे: वह कार, यह किताब, कोईआदमी ।

संख्यावाचक विशेषण - वे शब्द हैं जो संज्ञा या सर्वनाम की निश्चित या अनिश्चित संख्या का बोध कराते हैं।

उदाहरण: एक चार कुछ सब पहलाआदि। 

• उसने चार केतली चाय बनाई।
• एक घंटा साठ मिनट के बराबर होता है।
• पहली मंजिल पर मेरा घर है।

परिमाणवाचक विशेषण - वे शब्द हैं जो संज्ञा या सर्वनाम की मात्रा, नाप या तौल का बोध कराते हैं।

जैसे - दो किलो चीनी, एक लीटर दूध, थोड़ा पानी, बहुत सारे फल आदि।

सही उत्तर है - दात्री। 

Key Points

• दाता का अर्थ - देनेवाला,दानशील।
• दात्री का मुख्य अर्थ - देने वाली (स्त्रीलिंग) होता है।
• हिंदी व्याकरण में लिंग शब्द के उस रूप को कहते हैं जिससे उसके पुरुष, स्त्री होने का बोध हो।
• हिंदी में लिंग के दो भेद होते हैं -पुल्लिंग ,स्त्रीलिंग।

Additional Informationलिंग के अन्य उदाहरण : 

सही उत्तर है - निरुपाय

Key Points

• किसी शब्द का विलोम शब्द उस शब्द के अर्थ से उल्टा या विपरीत अर्थ वाला होता है।
• विपरीत अर्थ देने वाले शब्द विलोम शब्द कहलाते हैं।
• उदाहरण :  हँसना का विलोम शब्द रोना, ख़ुशी का विलोम शब्द दुःख।

अन्य विकल्प :

Additional Information अन्य विलोम शब्द :

सही उत्तर है - गले लगाना

Key Points

• मुहावरे ऐसे वाक्यांश हैं - जो साधारण शाब्दिक अर्थ न देकर एक विशेष लाक्षणिक या सांकेतिक अर्थ प्रकट करते हैं।
• ये भाषा को अधिक प्रभावशाली संक्षिप्त और रोचक बनाने के लिए प्रयोग किए जाते हैं।
• मुहावरा मूलत: अरबी भाषा का शब्द है, जिसका अर्थ है बातचीत करना या उत्तर देना।

अन्य विकल्प :

Additional Informationअन्य मुहावरे :

सही उत्तर है - साहित्य और जीवन का घनिष्ठ संबंध है । 

Key Points

• शुद्ध वाक्य वे हैं- जो व्याकरण, लिंग, वचन और कारक के नियमों के अनुसार सही होते हैं और स्पष्ट अर्थ प्रदान करते हैं।
• अशुद्ध वाक्यों में व्याकरणिक त्रुटियाँ होती हैं, जैसे गलत शब्द प्रयोग या क्रम।

उदाहरण :

The correct answer is Intended to give impetus to indigenous industries.

Key Points

• The Swadeshi Movement, initiated in 1905, was primarily aimed at promoting indigenous industries and reducing dependence on foreign goods, particularly British products.
• It involved the boycott of British goods and the promotion of Indian-made products, aligning with the broader nationalist struggle for economic self-reliance.
• The movement encouraged the establishment of Swadeshi enterprises such as textile mills, soap factories, and banks, fostering indigenous industrial growth.
• Leaders like Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal, and Lala Lajpat Rai inspired people to support local industries and adopt self-sustaining practices.
• This focus on industrial development was a cornerstone of the Swadeshi Movement, intended to build a robust economic foundation for India.

Additional Information

• Outcomes of Swadeshi Movement:
• Intensified Nationalism: United people across regions and religions, making nationalism a mass movement and spreading it beyond elite circles.
• New Forms of Protest: Introduced passive resistance, mass boycotts, and public burning of foreign goods, influencing later Gandhian movements.
• Mass Participation: Saw significant involvement from students, women, peasants, and the middle class, bridging urban-rural divides.
• Political Consciousness: Increased political awareness and demand for Swaraj (self-rule).
• Leadership Emergence: Brought forth a new generation of leaders and strengthened revolutionary activism.
• Concession from British: Pressure led to the Morley-Minto Reforms (1909) and eventual annulment of the Partition of Bengal in 1911.

Given:

After subtracting 1 from numerator, fraction = 1 / 3

After adding 8 to denominator, fraction = 1 / 4

Formula used:

Fraction = Numerator / Denominator

Calculations:

Let the fraction = x / y

(x − 1) / y = 1 / 3

⇒ 3(x − 1) = y

⇒ y = 3x − 3    ......(1)

x / (y + 8) = 1 / 4

⇒ 4x = y + 8

⇒ y = 4x − 8    ........(2)

Equating y values:

⇒ 3x − 3 = 4x − 8

⇒ x = 5

Substitute x = 5

⇒ y = 3 × 5 − 3

⇒ y = 12

∴ The required fraction = 5 / 12

The correct answer is Nepal.

Key Points

• Dhaulagiri is the seventh-highest mountain in the world, with an elevation of 8,167 meters (26,795 feet) above sea level.
• It is located in the north-central region of Nepal in the Dhaulagiri mountain range, which is part of the Himalayas.
• The name "Dhaulagiri" is derived from the Sanskrit words "Dhawala" (white, dazzling, or beautiful) and "Giri" (mountain), meaning "The White Mountain."
• The Dhaulagiri massif includes several peaks, with the main summit being the highest. It is separated from the Annapurna range by the Kali Gandaki Gorge, which is one of the deepest gorges in the world.
• The mountain was first climbed on May 13, 1960, by a Swiss-Austrian expedition team led by Max Eiselin.

Additional Information

• The Himalayas are a mountain range in Asia, separating the plains of the Indian subcontinent from the Tibetan Plateau.
• They are home to the world’s highest peaks, including Mount Everest (8,848 meters) and K2 (8,611 meters).
• Nepal contains the largest section of the Himalayas and is often referred to as the land of mountains.

Given:

Let Meena’s age = x years

Square of age is 9 more than 8 times her age

Calculations:

x² = 8x + 9

⇒ x² − 8x − 9 = 0

⇒ (x − 9)(x + 1) = 0

⇒ x = 9 or x = −1

⇒ Reject −1 (age cannot be negative)

∴ Meena’s age = 9 years.

The correct answer is Fire-and-Forget Anti-Tank Guided Missile.

Key Points

• The Nag missile is a Fire-and-Forget Anti-Tank Guided Missile developed by the Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO) under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Program (IGMDP).
• It is designed to destroy modern main battle tanks equipped with advanced armor protection using its high-explosive anti-tank (HEAT) warhead.
• The Nag Mark 2 is an upgraded version of the Nag missile and boasts advanced seeker technology, enhanced target acquisition capabilities, and a longer range.
• The missile has a range of approximately 4-5 kilometers and employs an Imaging Infrared (IIR) seeker for precise targeting, even in adverse weather conditions.
• It can be launched from both ground-based platforms like the Nag Missile Carrier (NAMICA) and helicopter platforms under the Helicopter-launched Nag (HELINA) program.

Additional Information

• Air-to-Air Missile
• Air-to-air missiles are designed to be fired by aircraft to engage and destroy enemy aircraft during aerial combat.
• They can be short-range (infrared-guided) or long-range (radar-guided).
• Examples include Astra, India's indigenously developed Beyond Visual Range (BVR) air-to-air missile, and the AIM-120 AMRAAM used by the United States.
• Submarine-Launched Ballistic Missile (SLBM)
• SLBMs are ballistic missiles launched from submarines, giving nations a strategic deterrent capability.
• They are capable of carrying nuclear warheads and can travel thousands of kilometers.
• India's K-15 Sagarika and K-4 missiles are examples of indigenously developed SLBMs under the Advanced Technology Vessel (ATV) program.
• Surface-to-Air Missile (SAM)
• SAMs are designed to target and destroy enemy aircraft or missiles from the ground.
• They are equipped with radar guidance or infrared targeting systems.
• India's Akash missile is an example of an indigenously developed surface-to-air missile with a range of 25-30 kilometers.
• Anti-Tank Guided Missiles (ATGMs)
• ATGMs are missiles designed to destroy tanks and other armored vehicles.
• They can be launched from various platforms, including handheld launchers, vehicles, and helicopters.
• India has developed several ATGMs, including the Nag, HELINA, and MPATGM (Man-Portable Anti-Tank Guided Missile).

The correct answer is Thorium.

Key Points

• Monazite sands are known to contain Thorium, a radioactive element. These sands are primarily found in coastal areas of India, particularly in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Odisha.
• Thorium is used as a nuclear fuel and is considered an alternative to Uranium due to its abundance and lower radioactive waste.
• India has one of the largest reserves of Monazite in the world. About 70% of the global thorium reserves are found in India.
• Monazite is a phosphate mineral primarily composed of rare earth elements such as cerium, lanthanum, and thorium.
• Thorium extraction from Monazite sands plays a crucial role in India’s nuclear energy program, particularly in the development of advanced nuclear reactors.

Additional Information

• Mica:
• Mica is a silicate mineral commonly used in electrical and electronic industries due to its insulating properties.
• It is primarily found in Jharkhand, Bihar, and Rajasthan in India.
• Unlike Monazite, Mica does not contain radioactive elements like Thorium or Uranium.
• Copper:
• Copper is a non-ferrous metal widely used in electrical wiring, plumbing, and manufacturing industries.
• India has significant reserves of copper ore, particularly in Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and Jharkhand.
• Copper is not associated with Monazite sands as it is extracted from sulfide ores like chalcopyrite.
• Uranium:
• Uranium is a radioactive element used as a nuclear fuel. It is primarily found in sedimentary rocks and underground deposits.
• In India, Uranium deposits are found in Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh, and Meghalaya.
• Although Uranium is used in nuclear reactors, it is not extracted from Monazite sands, which primarily contain Thorium.

The correct answer is Vardhamana Mahavira.

Key Points

• Vardhamana Mahavira is regarded as the 24th and last Tirthankara of Jainism.
• He was born in Kundagrama (now in Bihar, India) in 599 BCE and attained nirvana in 527 BCE.
• Mahavira is credited with organizing Jainism into its current form and propagating the five ethical principles: Ahimsa (non-violence), Satya (truth), Asteya (non-stealing), Brahmacharya (celibacy), and Aparigraha (non-possessiveness).
• He attained Kevala Jnana (omniscience) after 12 years of rigorous penance and became a spiritual teacher.
• Mahavira emphasized the importance of self-discipline, meditation, and non-violence as the path to liberation (moksha).

Additional Information

• Neminatha
• Neminatha is regarded as the 22nd Tirthankara of Jainism.
• He is believed to have lived during the Dvapara Yuga and was a contemporary of Lord Krishna, according to Jain texts.
• Neminatha renounced the world on his wedding day, inspired by compassion for animals that were to be slaughtered for the feast.
• He achieved Kevala Jnana and preached the principles of Jainism to his followers.
• Parshvanatha
• Parshvanatha is the 23rd Tirthankara of Jainism and is believed to have lived around the 9th century BCE.
• He is known for his teachings on the four vows: Ahimsa, Satya, Asteya, and Aparigraha, which were later expanded by Mahavira to five vows.
• Parshvanatha's symbol is the serpent, and he is often depicted with a serpent hood over his head.
• His spiritual teachings laid the foundation for Mahavira's reforms in Jainism.
• Rishabhanatha
• Rishabhanatha, also known as Adinatha, is recognized as the first Tirthankara of Jainism.
• He is believed to have lived millions of years ago and introduced the concept of agriculture, irrigation, and other essential skills for human civilization.
• Rishabhanatha is symbolized by a bull, and his teachings focused on leading a life of righteousness and self-restraint.

The correct answer is Right against Exploitation.

Key Points

• The Right against Exploitation is guaranteed under Articles 23 and 24 of the Indian Constitution and is a fundamental right.
• Article 23 prohibits human trafficking, forced labor, and begar (a form of unpaid, coerced labor).
• Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below 14 years of age in factories, mines, or other hazardous occupations.
• These provisions aim to protect the vulnerable sections of society, especially children and marginalized workers, from exploitation.
• Violation of these rights is a punishable offense under Indian law, ensuring strict enforcement and compliance.

Additional Information

• Right to Freedom
• Guaranteed under Articles 19 to 22 of the Constitution of India.
• It includes several freedoms, such as:
• Freedom of speech and expression (Article 19).
• Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms.
• Freedom to form associations or unions.
• Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India.
• Freedom to reside and settle in any part of India.
• Freedom to practice any profession or trade.
• It also includes protection in respect of conviction for offenses (Article 20) and protection of life and personal liberty (Article 21).
• Employment of Children
• Article 24 specifically addresses child labor and prohibits the employment of children below 14 years in hazardous industries.
• The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, supplements Article 24 by outlining regulations and prohibitions regarding child labor.
• It is part of the broader Right against Exploitation but is not a standalone right by itself.
• Right to Equality
• Guaranteed under Articles 14 to 18 of the Constitution.
• It ensures equality before the law and prohibits discrimination based on religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
• It also abolishes untouchability (Article 17) and prohibits titles (Article 18).

The correct answer is June 23.

Key Points

• The International Olympic Day is celebrated every year on June 23 to commemorate the founding of the International Olympic Committee (IOC).
• It was first introduced in 1948 by the International Olympic Committee to promote the Olympic ideals of sportsmanship, fair play, and international unity.
• The day marks the anniversary of the revival of the Olympic Games in 1894 by Pierre de Coubertin, who is known as the founder of the modern Olympics.
• Various activities are organized globally on this day, such as runs, exhibitions, cultural performances, and discussions to promote physical fitness and healthy living.
• The theme of the International Olympic Day often revolves around the values of the Olympic Movement, such as respect, excellence, and friendship.

Additional Information

• Olympic Movement 
• The Olympic Movement promotes the practice of sports and physical activity as a means of improving health, building character, and fostering international peace.
• The modern Olympic Games, held every four years, are the most prominent event of the Olympic Movement.
• The five rings on the Olympic flag represent the union of the five continents and the meeting of athletes from around the world at the Olympic Games.

Given:

Time = 20 minutes

1 hour = 60 minutes

Calculations:

Required percent = (20 / 60) × 100

⇒ Required percent = 331/3%

∴ 20 minutes is 331/3% of an hour.

The correct answer is Kolkata.

Key Points

• The Saha Institute of Nuclear Physics (SINP) is located in Kolkata, West Bengal, India.
• It was founded in 1949 under the guidance of the renowned Indian physicist Meghnad Saha.
• The institute focuses on basic research in physics and allied disciplines, including biophysical sciences, theoretical physics, and atomic energy.
• It is an autonomous institute under the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), Government of India.
• The SINP has made significant contributions to nuclear physics, astrophysics, and particle physics through its cutting-edge research and development programs.

Additional Information

• Mumbai:
• Mumbai is home to several renowned research institutions, including the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC), which is India's premier nuclear research facility.
• BARC conducts research in various fields such as nuclear science, engineering, and technology.
• However, the Saha Institute of Nuclear Physics is not located in Mumbai.
• Chennai:
• Chennai is known for its prestigious institutions like the Indian Institute of Technology Madras (IIT Madras) and the Institute of Mathematical Sciences (IMSc).
• The IMSc specializes in research in theoretical physics, mathematics, and theoretical computer science.
• While Chennai is a hub for scientific research, the Saha Institute of Nuclear Physics is not situated here.
• Pune:
• Pune hosts several prominent research centers, such as the National Centre for Radio Astrophysics (NCRA), which is part of the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR).
• The city is also known for the Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA), which focuses on astronomy and astrophysics research.

The correct answer is Green Revolution.

Key Points

• The Green Revolution refers to the period when agriculture in India was transformed through the adoption of modern methods such as high-yield variety (HYV) seeds, fertilizers, and irrigation technologies.
• It was initiated in the 1960s under the guidance of agricultural scientist Norman Borlaug and Indian scientist M.S. Swaminathan.
• The Green Revolution aimed to increase food production and ensure food security, particularly for wheat and rice crops, using advanced farming techniques.
• India achieved self-sufficiency in food grain production during this period, reducing its reliance on imports and addressing widespread famine.
• It is considered one of the most significant agricultural transformations globally, leading to increased productivity and economic growth in rural areas.

Additional Information

• Red Revolution:
• The Red Revolution refers to the increased production of meat and tomato in India.
• It was aimed at improving the livestock sector and boosting the availability of proteins in the Indian diet.
• This revolution contributed to the diversification of agricultural practices in India.
• Blue Revolution:
• The Blue Revolution is associated with the development and growth of aquaculture and fishery production in India.
• It was initiated to enhance fish production and promote sustainable water resource management.
• The National Fisheries Development Board (NFDB) played a key role in implementing this revolution.
• It helped India become one of the leading fish-producing nations in the world.
• White Revolution:
• The White Revolution in India is linked with the increased production of milk and dairy products.
• This revolution was spearheaded by Dr. Verghese Kurien under the Operation Flood initiative launched by the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB).
• India became the largest producer of milk globally, ensuring better nutrition and rural livelihoods through dairy farming.

The correct answer is Avadh.

Key Points

• The annexation of Avadh (Oudh) by Lord Dalhousie in 1856 was considered one of the most unjust acts of British aggression in India.
• Dalhousie justified the annexation by citing misgovernance and maladministration by the Nawab of Avadh, Wajid Ali Shah, although the Nawab was known for his artistic and cultural contributions.
• The annexation was carried out under the policy of "Doctrine of Lapse" and the pretext of misrule, despite Avadh being under British suzerainty and paying regular tributes.
• The annexation led to widespread discontent among the local population and contributed significantly to the outbreak of the 1857 Revolt, as many soldiers in the British Indian Army were natives of Avadh.
• The act was widely criticized for being unethical and undermining the sovereignty of Indian rulers, further exacerbating tensions between Indians and the British administration.

Additional Information

• Jaipur
• Jaipur was never annexed under Lord Dalhousie's policies.
• It remained a princely state under British suzerainty and was ruled by the Kachwaha dynasty during British rule.
• Jaipur played a significant role in the cultural and architectural heritage of India, with iconic structures such as the Hawa Mahal and Amer Fort.
• Satara
• Satara was annexed by Dalhousie in 1848 under the "Doctrine of Lapse."
• The policy stated that if a ruler of a princely state died without a male heir, his state would be annexed by the British Empire.
• Satara's annexation marked one of the earliest implementations of this controversial policy, leading to resentment among Indian rulers.
• Jhansi
• Jhansi was annexed by the British under the Doctrine of Lapse after the death of Raja Gangadhar Rao in 1853.
• Rani Lakshmibai, the queen of Jhansi, fiercely opposed this annexation and became a prominent leader in the 1857 Revolt.
• The annexation of Jhansi highlighted the unfairness of the Doctrine of Lapse and fueled nationalist sentiments against British rule.

The correct answer is Carbon dioxide and water vapour.

Key Points

• When methane (CH₄), the main component of natural gas, burns in the presence of oxygen (O₂), it undergoes complete combustion to produce carbon dioxide (CO₂) and water vapour (H₂O).
• The chemical reaction for the combustion of methane is: CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O.
• This process is exothermic, meaning it releases energy in the form of heat and light, making methane an efficient fuel source.
• The carbon dioxide produced is a greenhouse gas, and its release during combustion contributes to global warming.
• Water vapour, another product, is harmless and plays a role in the natural water cycle.

Additional Information

• Combustion of Methane
• Combustion is a chemical reaction where a fuel reacts with oxygen to release energy in the form of heat or light.
• Methane is a hydrocarbon belonging to the family of alkanes and is the simplest molecule in this group.
• Natural gas, primarily composed of methane, is widely used as a clean fuel due to its high energy efficiency and minimal pollutants upon combustion.
• Complete combustion of hydrocarbons like methane produces carbon dioxide and water vapour, while incomplete combustion can result in harmful substances like carbon monoxide and soot.

The correct answer is Deepak Iyer.

Key Points

• Deepak Iyer was appointed as the Vice President and General Manager for India and South Asia Beverages by PepsiCo in January 2025.
• He brings extensive leadership and operational experience, having previously held top positions in multinational companies operating in India.
• PepsiCo made this strategic appointment to strengthen its beverage portfolio and expand its market presence in the India and South Asia regions.
• Deepak Iyer's role includes overseeing PepsiCo’s beverage operations, marketing strategies, and business growth in these regions.
• This appointment aligns with PepsiCo's vision to enhance its market competitiveness and meet evolving consumer preferences in the region.

Additional Information

• Ramesh Chauhan
• Ramesh Chauhan is the founder of Bisleri International, known for building India's largest packaged water brand, Bisleri.
• He is a key figure in the Indian beverage industry and played a significant role in introducing carbonated drinks like Thums Up, Gold Spot, and Limca before selling them to Coca-Cola.
• Although he is a prominent name in the beverage sector, he is not associated with PepsiCo's leadership team.
• Sanjeev Chaddha
• Sanjeev Chaddha is a seasoned executive in the food and beverage industry and has previously held leadership roles in PepsiCo.
• He served as the CEO of PepsiCo’s Asia, Middle East, and Africa (AMEA) region but is not linked to the position of VP and GM for India and South Asia Beverages.
• His contributions to PepsiCo include successfully steering the company’s operations in emerging markets.
• Nitin Bhandari
• Nitin Bhandari is not directly associated with PepsiCo or its operations in India and South Asia.
• He is recognized for his contributions to digital platforms and technology-driven ventures rather than the food and beverage industry.

The correct answer is Athens.

Key Points

• The modern Olympic Games were first held in Athens, Greece, in 1896.
• The event marked the revival of the Olympics, inspired by the ancient games held in Olympia, Greece.
• Athens was chosen as the host city to honor the games' historical origins in Greece.
• The 1896 Olympics featured 14 nations, 241 athletes, and 43 events in nine different sports, including athletics, swimming, and wrestling.
• The games were organized by the International Olympic Committee (IOC), which was established in 1894 under the leadership of Pierre de Coubertin.

Additional Information

• Rome
• Rome was scheduled to host the 1908 Olympic Games, but the city could not due to the 1906 eruption of Mount Vesuvius and financial constraints.
• Eventually, Rome hosted its first Olympics in 1960, which featured notable athletes such as Wilma Rudolph and Cassius Clay (later Muhammad Ali).
• The 1960 Olympics also marked the introduction of the Paralympic Games.
• Paris
• Paris hosted the Summer Olympics twice: in 1900 and 1924.
• The 1900 Olympics were the first to allow female participants in events like tennis and golf.
• The 1924 Paris Olympics were also significant as they introduced the Olympic motto, "Citius, Altius, Fortius" (Faster, Higher, Stronger).
• Paris is set to host the Summer Olympics for the third time in 2024.
• London
• London has hosted the Olympics three times: in 1908, 1948, and 2012.
• The 2012 London Olympics introduced many advancements, including sustainability-focused venues and the use of technology for broadcasting events globally.
• It was also notable for being the first Olympics where all participating countries had female athletes on their teams.
• Olympic Games
• The Olympic Games are a leading international sporting event featuring both summer and winter sports competitions.
• The games are held every four years, with summer and winter games alternating by two years.
• The ancient Olympics, held in Olympia, Greece, were primarily a religious festival honoring Zeus, and they ceased in 393 AD.
• The modern Olympics were revived by Pierre de Coubertin in 1896 to promote international unity and sportsmanship.

The correct answer is Marx and Engels.

Key Points

• Marx and Engels argued that private property is the root cause of social and economic inequality, exploitation, and class struggle in society.
• In their famous work "The Communist Manifesto" (1848), they proposed the abolition of private property as a solution to end class conflicts and create a classless society.
• They emphasized that private property leads to the concentration of wealth and power in the hands of the bourgeoisie (capitalist class), resulting in the oppression of the proletariat (working class).
• Marx's theory of historical materialism highlights that economic systems evolve, and the abolition of private property is essential for transitioning to socialism and eventually communism.
• Marx and Engels envisioned a society where the means of production would be collectively owned, ensuring equitable distribution of resources and eliminating socio-economic disparities.

Additional Information

• Marshall
• Alfred Marshall was an influential economist known for his contributions to microeconomics and the study of supply and demand.
• He is considered the father of neoclassical economics and authored the book "Principles of Economics" (1890).
• Marshall focused on individual markets and consumers rather than the abolition of private property.
• He did not see private property as the root cause of socio-economic problems but rather emphasized the importance of market equilibrium and efficiency.
• Simon
• Claude Henri de Rouvroy, Comte de Saint-Simon, was a French political theorist and early socialist thinker.
• Saint-Simon advocated for the reorganization of society based on industrial and scientific advancements rather than the abolition of private property.
• He believed in empowering technocrats and industrialists to lead society but did not directly attribute private property to societal evils.
• His ideas laid the foundation for later socialist movements but differed significantly from Marx's radical approach.
• Adam Smith
• Adam Smith, often referred to as the father of modern economics, authored the landmark book "The Wealth of Nations" (1776).
• Smith supported private property and free-market capitalism, arguing that they drive economic growth and innovation.
• He introduced the concept of the "invisible hand," suggesting that self-interest in a free market leads to societal benefits.
• Smith's perspective was diametrically opposed to Marx and Engels' views on private property.

Given:

Total number of satellites = 12000

Ireland = 20%

Belgium = 25%

Norway = 30%

Formula used:

Number of satellites = Total × Percentage / 100

Average = (Sum of values) ÷ Number of values

Calculations:

Satellites by Ireland = 12000 × 20 / 100 = 2400

Satellites by Belgium = 12000 × 25 / 100 = 3000

Satellites by Norway = 12000 × 30 / 100 = 3600

Total satellites = 2400 + 3000 + 3600 = 9000

Average = 9000 ÷ 3 = 3000

∴ The average number of satellites launched by Ireland, Belgium and Norway is 3000.

Given:

Total number of satellites = 12000

Percentage of satellites launched by Canada = 15%

Ratio of Remote : Communication satellites (Canada) = 3 : 2

Formula used:

Number of satellites = Total × Percentage / 100

Part = Total × (Required ratio / Sum of ratio)

Calculations:

Total satellites launched by Canada = 12000 × 15 / 100 = 1800

Communication satellites = 1800 × 2 / (3 + 2)

⇒ Communication satellites = 1800 × 2 / 5 = 720

∴ The number of communication satellites launched by Canada is 720.

Given:

Total number of satellites = 12000

Percentage of satellites launched by Romania = 10%

Ratio of Network : Agriculture satellites (Romania) = 7 : 8

Formula used:

Number of satellites = Total × Percentage / 100

Calculations:

Total satellites launched by Romania = 12000 × 10 / 100 = 1200

Agriculture related satellites = 1200 × 8 / (7 + 8)

⇒ Agriculture satellites = 1200 × 8 / 15 = 640

∴ The number of agriculture related satellites launched by Romania is 640.

Given:

Total number of satellites = 12000

Belgium = 25%

Norway = 30%

Formula used:

Number of satellites = Total × Percentage / 100

Calculations:

Satellites launched by Belgium = 12000 × 25 / 100 = 3000

Satellites launched by Norway = 12000 × 30 / 100 = 3600

Required percent = (3000 / 3600) × 100 = 83.33%

∴ The number of satellites launched by Belgium is 83.33% of those launched by Norway.

Given:

Total number of satellites = 12000

Ireland = 20%

Romania = 10%

Satellites launched by India = 20% more than Ireland

Formula used:

Number of satellites = Total × Percentage / 100

Increase = Original × (1 + Increase% / 100)

Difference = Larger − Smaller

Calculations:

Satellites launched by Ireland = 12000 × 20 / 100 = 2400

Satellites launched by India = 2400 × (1 + 20 / 100)

⇒ India = 2400 × 1.2 = 2880

Satellites launched by Romania = 12000 × 10 / 100 = 1200

Required difference = 2880 − 1200 = 1680

∴ The required difference is 1680 satellites.

The correct answer is Sarnath.

Key Points

• The Buddha delivered his first sermon, known as the Dhammacakkappavattana Sutta, at Sarnath, near Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh.
• This event is also referred to as the “Turning of the Wheel of Dharma” or the beginning of the Buddhist Sangha (community of monks).
• The sermon was delivered to five ascetics who were Buddha's former companions: Kondanna, Vappa, Bhaddiya, Mahanama, and Assaji.
• Sarnath is one of the four major pilgrimage sites for Buddhists, along with Lumbini, Bodh Gaya, and Kushinagar.
• The sermon emphasized the Four Noble Truths and the Eightfold Path as the way to end suffering and attain enlightenment.

Additional Information

• Lumbini
• Lumbini, located in present-day Nepal, is the birthplace of Siddhartha Gautama, who later became the Buddha.
• It is one of the most sacred places for Buddhists and is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• The Maya Devi Temple at Lumbini marks the exact spot where Queen Maya Devi gave birth to Prince Siddhartha.
• Kushinagar
• Kushinagar, located in Uttar Pradesh, India, is the place where the Buddha attained Mahaparinirvana (final liberation) after his death.
• It is an important pilgrimage site, with several stupas and temples built to commemorate the Buddha’s passing.
• The Mahaparinirvana Temple and the Ramabhar Stupa are significant landmarks in this region.
• Bodh Gaya
• Bodh Gaya, located in Bihar, India, is the place where Siddhartha Gautama attained enlightenment under the Bodhi tree and became the Buddha.
• The Mahabodhi Temple complex in Bodh Gaya is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and a major pilgrimage destination for Buddhists worldwide.
• The Bodhi tree and the Vajrasana (diamond throne) are considered sacred and central to the site.

Given:

3x − 14 = 4

Calculations:

3x − 14 = 4

⇒ 3x = 4 + 14

⇒ 3x = 18

⇒ x = 18 ÷ 3

⇒ x = 6

∴ The value of x = 6.

The correct answer is Srinagar.

Key Points

• Shalimar Bagh is a famous Mughal garden located in Srinagar, the summer capital of Jammu and Kashmir, India.
• It was built by Emperor Jahangir in 1619 for his wife, Nur Jahan, during the Mughal era.
• The garden is situated on the banks of Dal Lake, offering stunning views of the water and surrounding mountains.
• Shalimar Bagh is designed in the Persian-style Charbagh layout, divided into three terraces, each serving different purposes and adorned with fountains, canals, and lush greenery.
• The name "Shalimar" means "Abode of Love," reflecting its historical significance as a symbol of love and architectural brilliance of the Mughal period.

Additional Information

• Lucknow
• Lucknow, the capital city of Uttar Pradesh, is famous for its Awadhi architecture, culture, and cuisine.
• It is home to iconic landmarks such as the Bara Imambara, Chota Imambara, and Rumi Darwaza.
• The city is also known for its Chikan embroidery, a traditional hand embroidery style.
• Agra
• Agra, located in Uttar Pradesh, is renowned for the Taj Mahal, a UNESCO World Heritage Site and one of the Seven Wonders of the World.
• It was the capital of the Mughal Empire during the reign of Akbar, and several other monuments like the Agra Fort and Fatehpur Sikri are found here.
• Agra is also famous for its traditional sweets, particularly Petha.
• Delhi
• Delhi, the capital of India, is known for its rich history and cultural heritage.
• It is home to several UNESCO World Heritage Sites, including the Red Fort, Qutub Minar, and Humayun's Tomb.
• Delhi also hosts the famous Mughal Garden, located within the Rashtrapati Bhavan (President's House).

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

• The Vizhinjam International Seaport is located in Thiruvananthapuram district, Kerala, along the southwest coast of India.
• It is a deep-water, multipurpose, greenfield port project developed by the Adani Group in partnership with the Government of Kerala.
• The port is designed to handle large container ships with a capacity of up to 24,000 TEUs (Twenty-foot Equivalent Units), making it one of the largest container transshipment hubs in India.
• The strategic location of Vizhinjam Seaport, close to the international shipping route, enhances its potential to compete with global hubs like Colombo, Singapore, and Dubai.
• The port's features include a natural draft depth of up to 20 meters, which reduces the need for dredging and makes it an environmentally sustainable infrastructure project.

Additional Information

• Lakshadweep
• Lakshadweep is a group of 36 islands located in the Arabian Sea, known for its stunning coral reefs and marine biodiversity.
• It is India's smallest Union Territory and plays a significant role in marine tourism and ecological conservation.
• There are no major international seaports in Lakshadweep due to its geographical size and limited infrastructure.
• Tamil Nadu
• Tamil Nadu has several significant seaports, such as Chennai Port, Tuticorin Port (V.O. Chidambaranar Port), and Ennore Port (Kamarajar Port).
• It is a major maritime hub in India, contributing significantly to trade and commerce through its ports.
• However, Vizhinjam International Seaport is not situated in Tamil Nadu but in Kerala.
• Maharashtra
• Maharashtra is home to India's largest container port, the Jawaharlal Nehru Port (Nhava Sheva Port), located near Mumbai.
• Other significant ports include Mumbai Port and Ratnagiri Port, which are vital for trade and shipping activities.
• While Maharashtra has prominent ports, Vizhinjam International Seaport is not located in this state.

Given: First day of a leap year is Wednesday

So, on 31st December in the same year will → Wednesday + 1 (odd day) → Thursday

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Key PointsIn case of Leap year:

Last day → 1st Day + 1 odd day

In case of Ordinary year:

Last day → 1st Day (same)

Additional Information

 And,

Note : Multiple of 400 years i.e 800, 1200, 1600, 2000 will also have 0 odds days.

The correct answer is United Nations Conference on Trade and Development.

Key Points

• The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) was established in 1964 as a permanent intergovernmental body.
• It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
• The primary goal of UNCTAD is to support developing countries in accessing the benefits of a globalized economy more fairly and effectively.
• UNCTAD aims to help countries use trade, investment, finance, and technology as vehicles for inclusive and sustainable development.
• It conducts research, policy analysis, and provides technical cooperation to assist nations in formulating strategies for economic development and integration into the global economy.

Additional Information

• Key Areas of Focus of UNCTAD:
• Trade & Integration: Helping countries diversify economies, move up value chains, and integrate into the global trading system.
• Investment & Enterprise: Attracting investment and making it more development-friendly, supporting local firms.
• Technology & Innovation: Increasing access to digital technologies, promoting entrepreneurship, and leveraging innovation.
• Debt & Finance: Reducing exposure to financial volatility and debt for developing nations.
• Sustainable Development: Supporting the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), including climate adaptation, resource efficiency, and consumer protection.
• Transport & Logistics: Facilitating efficient cross-border movement of goods and services.

The correct answer is 15 December 2024.

Key Points

• The UK officially became the 12th member of the CPTPP on 15 December 2024.
• This marked the first time a European country joined the CPTPP trade bloc.
• The accession took effect after the necessary ratifications by CPTPP member states.

Additional Information

• The Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP) is a free trade agreement involving 11 countries: Australia, Brunei, Canada, Chile, Japan, Malaysia, Mexico, New Zealand, Peru, Singapore, and Vietnam.
• The agreement promotes trade liberalization by reducing tariffs and non-tariff barriers among its members.
• The CPTPP is considered a landmark trade agreement, covering a wide range of economic activities, including goods, services, investment, and intellectual property.
• The UK is the first non-founding member to join the agreement, showcasing its post-Brexit strategy to strengthen trade relations beyond Europe.

The correct answer is Sweden.

Key Points

• The currency of Sweden is the Krona, abbreviated as SEK in international currency codes.
• The Swedish Krona has been in use since 1873, replacing the Riksdaler.
• The term "Krona" translates to "crown" in English, and it is divided into 100 öre, though coins of öre have been discontinued.
• Sweden is a member of the European Union but has opted to retain its own currency rather than adopting the Euro.
• The Sveriges Riksbank, Sweden’s central bank, is responsible for issuing and regulating the Swedish Krona.

Additional Information

• South Africa
• The currency of South Africa is the South African Rand (ZAR), introduced in 1961 to replace the South African Pound.
• The Rand is further divided into 100 cents and is named after the Witwatersrand, the ridge where Johannesburg is located and where most of South Africa's gold deposits were found.
• South Africa is part of the Common Monetary Area (CMA), which includes Eswatini, Lesotho, and Namibia, where the Rand is commonly used alongside local currencies.
• Myanmar
• Myanmar uses the Kyat (MMK) as its official currency, which was first introduced in 1852.
• The Kyat is divided into 100 pyas, although pya coins are rarely in use due to inflation.
• Myanmar's economy has faced challenges such as currency instability and reliance on informal exchange rates.
• Uganda
• The currency of Uganda is the Ugandan Shilling (UGX), which replaced the East African Shilling in 1966.
• The Ugandan Shilling is divided into 100 cents, though cents are no longer in use due to inflation.
• It is one of the most stable currencies in East Africa, supported by Uganda's growing economy.

The correct answer is Being nocturnal and excreting concentrated urine.

Key Points

• Desert animals often exhibit nocturnal behavior, becoming active during the night when temperatures are lower, which helps reduce water loss through evaporation.
• They excrete highly concentrated urine and dry feces, minimizing water loss from their bodies.
• Their kidneys are adapted for water retention, allowing them to conserve water effectively in arid environments.
• Desert animals, such as kangaroo rats, can derive water from the metabolic breakdown of food, particularly fats.
• Many desert species have specialized adaptations, such as burrowing into cool underground spaces during the day, to conserve water and avoid overheating.

Additional Information

• Adaptations in desert animals
• Desert animals have evolved specialized adaptations to survive in harsh, water-scarce environments.
• These adaptations include physiological changes (e.g., concentrated urine), behavioral strategies (e.g., nocturnal activity), and anatomical features (e.g., water-efficient skin).
• Such mechanisms help them minimize water loss and survive in extreme temperatures and arid conditions.

The correct answer is 1952.

Key Points

• The Community Development Programme (CDP) was launched in India on 2nd October 1952.
• The programme aimed to bring about the overall development of rural areas through community participation and multi-sectoral initiatives.
• It focused on areas such as agriculture, irrigation, education, health, housing, and rural industries to improve the living standards of rural populations.
• The initiative was designed as a pilot project based on the recommendations of the Grow More Food Enquiry Committee (1951).
• The Community Development Programme served as the foundation for future rural development programmes in India, including the Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) and Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA).

Additional Information

• MGNREGA's Core Principles & Guarantees:
• Legal Right to Work: Entitles every rural household to 100 days of wage employment in a financial year for unskilled manual labor.
• Demand-Driven: The program is triggered by demand from job seekers, unlike older allocation-based schemes.
• Unemployment Allowance: If work isn't provided within 15 days, applicants are legally entitled to an unemployment allowance.
• Timely Wages: Wages must be paid within 15 days of work completion.

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

• Rajasthan does not have a bicameral legislature; it has a unicameral legislature consisting of only the Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha).
• A unicameral legislature means there is only one legislative body responsible for making and passing laws in the state.
• Bicameral legislatures, on the other hand, consist of two houses: the Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) and the Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad).
• India has only a few states with bicameral legislatures. Rajasthan is not among them, as it abolished its Legislative Council in 1969.
• Currently, only six Indian states have bicameral legislatures: Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana, and Uttar Pradesh.

Additional Information

• Uttar Pradesh
• Uttar Pradesh has a bicameral legislature, consisting of the Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) and the Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad).
• The Legislative Assembly is the lower house, while the Legislative Council is the upper house.
• The Legislative Council acts as a revising chamber and provides a check on the Legislative Assembly's decisions.
• Telangana
• Telangana has a bicameral legislature, which includes the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council.
• The Legislative Assembly is directly elected by the people, while the Legislative Council is partly elected and partly nominated.
• Telangana was formed in 2014, and it retained its bicameral system, which was already in place when it was part of Andhra Pradesh.
• Maharashtra
• Maharashtra also has a bicameral legislature, consisting of the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council.
• The Legislative Council in Maharashtra is known for representing various constituencies, including graduates, teachers, and local authorities.
• The Legislative Council plays a significant role in reviewing and revising legislation passed by the Legislative Assembly.
• Bicameral Legislature in India
• In India, bicameral legislatures exist at both the central and state levels.
• The Parliament of India has two houses: Lok Sabha (House of the People) and Rajya Sabha (Council of States).
• At the state level, only a few states have bicameral legislatures, with the Legislative Council serving as the upper house and the Legislative Assembly as the lower house.
• The primary function of the Legislative Council is to act as a reviewing body and provide a broader perspective on legislative matters.

The correct answer is Placenta.

Key Points

• The placenta is a disc-shaped organ that develops during pregnancy and connects the foetus to the uterine wall of the mother.
• It facilitates the transfer of nutrients, oxygen, and waste products between the mother and the foetus through the umbilical cord.
• The placenta produces hormones such as human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), progesterone, and oestrogen to maintain pregnancy and support the foetus's growth.
• The maternal blood supply flows into the placenta, enabling nutrient exchange without direct mixing of maternal and foetal blood.
• The placenta also acts as a protective barrier, preventing harmful substances from reaching the foetus, though some substances like alcohol and certain medications can cross it.

Additional Information

• Uterus:
• The uterus, also known as the womb, is a muscular organ located in the female pelvis.
• It houses and supports the developing foetus during pregnancy but does not directly provide nutrients to the foetus.
• The uterine lining (endometrium) thickens during pregnancy to help anchor the placenta and provide an environment for foetal growth.
• Oviduct:
• The oviduct, or fallopian tube, is the site of fertilization where the sperm meets the egg.
• Once fertilization occurs, the zygote travels through the oviduct to the uterus for implantation.
• It does not play a role in providing nutrients to the growing foetus after implantation.
• Amniotic Sac:
• The amniotic sac is a fluid-filled sac that surrounds and protects the developing foetus during pregnancy.
• Amniotic fluid within the sac provides cushioning and maintains a stable temperature for the foetus.
• While it provides physical protection, it does not supply nutrients to the foetus.

The correct answer is High birth rate.

Key Points

• A wide base in a population pyramid indicates a high birth rate, as it represents a large percentage of young individuals in the population.
• Countries with high birth rates typically have a significant proportion of their population in the younger age groups, leading to rapid population growth.
• This demographic structure is common in developing countries, where access to education, healthcare, and contraception may be limited.
• High birth rates are also associated with socioeconomic factors, such as cultural practices, low female literacy levels, and limited employment opportunities for women.
• Such countries often face challenges related to resource allocation, including education, healthcare, and job creation, due to the growing population.

Additional Information

• Balanced population structure:
• A balanced population structure is characterized by an equal or near-equal distribution of population across different age groups.
• This is typically seen in countries with stable birth and death rates, often associated with developed nations.
• Such countries have a steady workforce and a sustainable dependency ratio, ensuring economic stability.
• Aging population:
• An aging population refers to a higher proportion of elderly individuals compared to younger age groups, typically due to low birth rates and high life expectancy.
• This demographic trend is common in developed countries and presents challenges such as increased healthcare costs and labor shortages.
• Countries with aging populations often need policies to support the elderly, such as pension systems and healthcare infrastructure.
• Low fertility rate:
• A low fertility rate indicates that the average number of children born to a woman is below the replacement level of 2.1 children per woman.
• This is often observed in countries with higher education levels, better access to contraception, and urbanization.
• While low fertility rates can slow population growth, they may also lead to an aging population and workforce challenges in the long term.

The correct answer is Union Ministry of Jal Shakti.

Key Points

• The Annual Groundwater Quality Report 2024 was released by the Union Ministry of Jal Shakti, which oversees water resources, river development, and Ganga rejuvenation in India.
• The report was compiled by the Central Ground Water Board (CGWB), an organization under the Ministry responsible for monitoring and managing groundwater resources in the country.
• The purpose of the report is to evaluate the status of groundwater quality across India and identify regions with contamination or water quality issues.
• The Ministry of Jal Shakti was established in 2019 by merging the Ministry of Water Resources, River Development, and Ganga Rejuvenation with the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation.
• It plays a critical role in ensuring sustainable and equitable water resource management and addressing water scarcity challenges across the nation.

Additional Information

• Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare
• This Ministry is primarily responsible for agricultural development, farmer welfare, and policy formation in India.
• It handles schemes like Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana, PM Kisan Samman Nidhi, and Soil Health Card Scheme.
• While it plays a role in water management for irrigation, it does not compile groundwater quality reports.
• Ministry of Earth Sciences
• This Ministry focuses on meteorology, oceanography, and geosciences, including weather forecasting and climate research.
• It oversees institutions like the India Meteorological Department (IMD) and the National Centre for Seismology (NCS).
• Groundwater quality management does not fall under its jurisdiction.
• Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
• This Ministry is responsible for environmental conservation, climate change policies, and the management of forests and wildlife.
• It handles pollution control, biodiversity conservation, and environmental impact assessments.
• While it addresses water pollution, it does not focus specifically on groundwater quality monitoring.

The correct answer is 1.7 × 10-8 ohm-meter.

Key Points

• The resistivity (ρ) of a material is calculated using the formula: ρ = R × A / L, where R is resistance, A is the area of cross-section, and L is the length of the wire.
• Given values: R = 2 × 10-2 ohms, A = 1.7 × 10-6 m², and L = 2 m.
• Substituting the values into the formula: ρ = (2 × 10-2) × (1.7 × 10-6) / 2.
• The calculation gives ρ = 1.7 × 10-8 ohm-meter, which is the resistivity of copper.
• This value corresponds to the typical resistivity of copper, a highly conductive material commonly used in electrical wiring.

Additional Information

• Option 1: 3.4 × 10–8 ohm-meter
• This value is incorrect because it is double the calculated resistivity of copper for the given dimensions and resistance.
• Such a value might result from a miscalculation, such as not halving the product of resistance and area when dividing by the length.
• Option 3: 2 × 10-2 ohm-meter
• This value is incorrect as it represents the resistance (R) of the wire, not the resistivity (ρ).
• Resistance is a property of the wire as a whole and depends on its dimensions, while resistivity is a material-specific property.
• Option 4: 1.7 × 10-6 ohm-meter
• This value is incorrect and too large for copper's resistivity.
• It might result from a miscalculation involving incorrect scaling of the given parameters.
• Resistivity (ρ)
• Resistivity is a fundamental property of a material that quantifies how strongly it resists the flow of electric current.
• It is expressed in ohm-meters (Ω·m) and depends only on the material, not on its shape or size.
• Metals like copper and silver have very low resistivity, making them excellent conductors of electricity.

The correct answer is 1945.

Key Points

• The Simla Conference was convened in June-July 1945 by the British Viceroy of India, Lord Wavell, to discuss the future political framework of India.
• The purpose of the conference was to reach an agreement between the Indian National Congress, the All-India Muslim League, and other Indian political leaders on the formation of an interim government.
• The plan proposed by Lord Wavell, known as the Wavell Plan, suggested reconstitution of the Viceroy's Executive Council to include more Indian members.
• The conference failed due to differences between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League, particularly over the demand for separate electorates for Muslims.
• This conference set the stage for subsequent events leading to India’s independence, including the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946.

Additional Information

• Cabinet Mission to India (1946):
• Sent by the British government to facilitate an orderly transfer of power, the Mission proposed a three-tier federal structure. Though initially accepted by both the League and Congress, disagreements over provincial groupings led to its failure, after which the Muslim League observed "Direct Action Day".
• Indian Independence Act (1947):
• This was the final legislative step taken by the British Parliament, which implemented the Mountbatten Plan and formally established the two independent dominions of India and Pakistan from August 15, 1947.

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) Tasteless → Absence of taste, not a taste itself

Option 2) Salty → Type of taste

Option 3) Sour → Type of taste

Option 4) Sweet → Type of taste

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is South Africa.

Key Points

• The ICC World Test Championship (WTC) 2025 final was won by South Africa, marking a significant achievement in their cricketing history.
• South Africa displayed exceptional consistency throughout the WTC 2023-2025 cycle, showcasing their strength in both batting and bowling departments.
• The team’s success in the WTC 2025 final was attributed to standout performances by key players such as Kagiso Rabada, Aiden Markram, and Quinton de Kock.
• South Africa's victory in the WTC 2025 final has further solidified its position as one of the leading teams in Test cricket globally.
• The championship is a part of the ICC’s effort to bring more context and competition to Test cricket, with the top two teams playing the final after a two-year league cycle.

Additional Information

• India:
• India was the runner-up in the inaugural WTC (2019-2021) and has been a dominant force in Test cricket under the leadership of players like Virat Kohli and Rohit Sharma.
• India’s strong bowling lineup, including players like Jasprit Bumrah and Ravichandran Ashwin, has been instrumental in their success.
• Although India reached the final in the WTC 2023-2025 cycle, they fell short in the ultimate match.
• Sri Lanka:
• Sri Lanka has been a competitive side in Test cricket, with players like Dimuth Karunaratne and Dhananjaya de Silva leading the charge in recent years.
• Their performances in the WTC cycles have been commendable, but they have yet to reach the finals of the championship.
• West Indies:
• The West Indies, once a dominant force in Test cricket, have struggled to maintain consistency in recent years.
• Despite having talented players like Jason Holder and Kraigg Brathwaite, they have not been able to qualify for the top positions in the WTC points table.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• Indirect Speech: "He said that he would do his best" is the correct conversion of the direct speech "I shall do my best."
• Key Conversions:
• Pronoun "I" becomes "he":
• The pronoun changes to match the subject of the reporting clause.
• "shall" changes to "would":
• In indirect speech, "shall" is converted to "would" to match the tense.
• Reporting verb: "said that" is used to introduce the indirect statement.
• Punctuation and Format:
• Direct speech is converted into a statement without quotation marks.
• The sentence structure follows the rules of reported speech.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "He said that he would do his best."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "He said that I would do his best."
• Incorrect pronoun usage. "I" does not match the subject in the indirect speech.
• Option 3: "He said that he would do my best."
• Incorrect possessive pronoun. "my" does not match the context.
• Option 4: "He said that I shall do my best."
• Incorrect conversion of "shall" to "would" as per the rules of indirect speech.
• Option 5: "None of the above."
• Incorrect choice, as Option 1 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

The correctly spelled word is 'Gracious'.

• Meaning: 'Gracious' is an adjective meaning courteous, kind, and pleasant. (दयालु)
• Example: She was a gracious host, making everyone feel welcome at the party.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Gracious' (Option 1).

Additional Information

Let's review the incorrect options:

• Graccious: This spelling is incorrect as it includes an extra 'c'.
• Gratious: This spelling is incorrect as it replaces 'c' with 't'.
• Grecious: This spelling is incorrect as it includes 'e' instead of 'a'.

The correct answer is: Option 4: Defeat.

Key Points

• The word "Victory" means success in a struggle, contest, or battle. It refers to achieving a win or triumph. (जीत)
• Example: The team celebrated their victory after winning the championship match.
• "Defeat" refers to the opposite of victory; it means failure to win or overcome in a struggle, contest, or battle. (हार)
• Example: The army faced a crushing defeat in the final battle.
• Hence, we can conclude that the opposite of "Victory" is "Defeat."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4: Defeat.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Splendid (शानदार): Something that is magnificent or very impressive.
• Example: The view from the top of the mountain was absolutely splendid.
• Virtuous (सदाचारी): Having or showing high moral standards.
• Example: She is known for her virtuous behavior and kindness toward everyone.
• Reward (इनाम): A thing given in recognition of service, effort, or achievement.
• Example: The company gave her a reward for her outstanding performance.
• None of the above (इनमें से कोई नहीं): This is used when none of the other options provided are correct.
• Example: If none of the above answers seem correct, select this option.

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Key Points

• Benefit of reading fiction:
• The passage states that reading fiction can improve empathy by allowing readers to experience life from different perspectives.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect, as teaching history is more related to non-fiction.
• Option 3: Incorrect, as the passage does not mention spelling improvement as a main benefit.
• Option 4: Incorrect, since memorizing facts is not highlighted as a primary benefit of reading fiction.
• Option 5: Incorrect, because Option 2 is correct.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Key Points

• Main idea of the passage:
• The passage highlights how reading is a powerful habit that helps people improve their vocabulary, communication skills, empathy, concentration, and overall knowledge.
• It emphasizes the lifelong and wide-ranging benefits of reading various types of books.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect, as the passage states reading benefits people of all ages, not just students.
• Option 2: Incorrect, both fiction and non-fiction are shown as valuable.
• Option 4: Incorrect, the passage does not claim social media is harmful, only that reading has benefits.
• Option 5: Incorrect, as Option 3 best summarizes the passage.

The correct answer is 1,028 hymns.

Key Points

• The Rig Veda is the oldest and most important Veda in Indian culture and is considered the foundation of Vedic literature.
• It contains a collection of 1,028 hymns (suktas) arranged in 10 books or mandalas.
• The hymns in the Rig Veda are written in Vedic Sanskrit and are dedicated to various deities such as Agni (fire), Indra (rain and thunder), and Soma (a ritual drink).
• The Rig Veda provides insights into the social, economic, and religious practices of the early Vedic period.
• It is believed to have been composed between 1500 BCE and 1200 BCE and was orally transmitted before being written down.

Additional Information

• The Four Vedas:
• Rigveda (Book of Mantras): The oldest Veda, containing hymns and prayers to various deities like Indra and Agni, including the famous Gayatri Mantra.
• Yajurveda (Book of Rituals): Contains sacrificial formulas and prose mantras recited during rituals.
• Samaveda (Book of Chants): Melodies and chants for public worship, forming the basis of Indian classical music.
• Atharvaveda (Book of Magic/Wisdom): Includes spells, charms, and wisdom for daily life, attributed to the sage Atharvan.

Given statement: Vinod introduces, Vishal as the son of the only brother of his father's wife.

Thus, Vinod is Vishal's cousin.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is July 28, 2000.

Key Points

• The National Agricultural Policy of India was officially presented in Parliament on July 28, 2000, by the Ministry of Agriculture.
• The policy aimed to achieve a growth rate of 4% annually in the agriculture sector while ensuring sustainable agricultural practices.
• It focused on improving food security, enhancing agricultural productivity, and promoting equitable distribution of resources.
• The policy emphasized diversification of agriculture to include horticulture, floriculture, and livestock, aiming to enhance farmers' income.
• Special attention was given to ensuring the development of rural infrastructure, better credit facilities for farmers, and the promotion of research and development in agriculture.

Additional Information

• The National Agricultural Policy was formulated with the objective of achieving sustainable development in agriculture and ensuring food security for the growing population.
• It addressed challenges such as declining agricultural productivity, lack of infrastructure, and the need for modernization in farming techniques.
• Emphasis was placed on equitable access to resources, environmental conservation, and promoting export-oriented agriculture.

The correct answer is Cowpea.

Key Points

• Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully sprouted cowpea seeds in space during one of its experiments, marking a significant advancement in space-based agricultural research.
• Cowpea was chosen due to its resilience and ability to grow in extreme conditions, making it suitable for experiments in microgravity environments.
• The experiment contributes to the understanding of how plants respond and adapt to the unique conditions of space, such as microgravity and radiation.
• This achievement highlights India's growing capabilities in space science and its commitment to exploring sustainable solutions for long-term space missions.
• Such advancements pave the way for future agricultural innovations aimed at supporting human life in extraterrestrial environments.

Additional Information

• Maize
• Maize is one of the most widely grown cereal crops worldwide and is essential for food, feed, and industrial purposes.
• It is not typically used in space experiments due to its larger seed size and specific growth requirements.
• Maize requires substantial water and nutrients, making it less suitable for testing in controlled environments like space.
• Rice
• Rice is another staple crop globally and has been tested in space by other space agencies such as NASA.
• Rice experiments in space have focused on understanding the impact of microgravity on its germination and growth.
• However, ISRO’s recent milestone focused on cowpea, not rice, for its experiment.
• Wheat
• Wheat has been a subject of research in space agriculture due to its importance as a staple food crop.
• It has been grown in controlled environments on Earth to simulate space conditions, but it was not the focus of ISRO’s recent experiment.

The correct answer is 500.

Key Points

• Article 170 of the Indian Constitution deals with the composition of State Legislative Assemblies.
• The Constitution specifies that the maximum number of members in a State Legislative Assembly can be 500, while the minimum number is 60.
• These numbers ensure proportional representation based on the population of the respective states.
• However, some states like Sikkim, Mizoram, and Goa have fewer than 60 members due to special circumstances and smaller populations, as permitted by the Constitution.
• The seats in the Legislative Assembly are allocated based on the population as determined by the last Census.

Additional Information

• Lok Sabha (House of the People)
• Maximum Strength: 552 (530 from States, 20 from UTs, up to 2 nominated by President - Anglo-Indian community, though this nomination provision is now abolished).
• Current Strength: 543 elected members.
• Elected By: Direct adult suffrage (general public).
• Rajya Sabha (Council of States) 
• Maximum Strength: 250.
• Current Strength: 245 (233 elected from States/UTs, 12 nominated by President).
• Elected By: Indirectly by elected members of State Legislative Assemblies.
• Nature: A permanent body, not subject to dissolution.