UPSSSC Lekhpal Mains Official Paper (Held On: 21 May, 2026) (Previous Year Paper)

उपकार-अनुचित का सही उत्तर है: उपकार-अनुचित

Key Points

• विलोम शब्द-युग्म 'उपकार-अनुचित' सही नहीं है क्योंकि ये एक-दूसरे के विपरीतार्थक नहीं हैं।
• 'उपकार' का सही विलोम शब्द 'अपकार' होता है।
• 'अनुचित' का सही विलोम शब्द 'उचित' होता है।
• परिभाषा - जो शब्द किसी दूसरे शब्द का उल्टा या विपरीत अर्थ व्यक्त करते हैं, उन्हें विलोम शब्द या विपरीतार्थक शब्द कहा जाता है।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information

कुछ महत्वपूर्ण विलोम शब्द -

'निपात' के प्रयोग वाले वाक्य का सही उत्तर है- आप भी आइएगा।

मुख्य बिंदु (Key Points)

• दिए गए वाक्य में 'भी' शब्द का प्रयोग किया गया है, जो कि एक 'निपात' है।
• वे अव्यय शब्द जो किसी शब्द या पद के बाद लगकर उसके अर्थ में विशेष बल (Emphasis) भर देते हैं, उन्हें निपात या 'अवधारक' कहते हैं।
• उदाहरण 1: राम ने ही रावण को मारा था। (यहाँ 'ही' निपात है)
• उदाहरण 2: तुम तक ने उसे नहीं पहचाना। (यहाँ 'तक' निपात है)

अन्य विकल्प -

महत्वपूर्ण बिंदु (Important Points) 
 निपात के प्रमुख भेद-

1. स्वीकारात्मक निपात (हाँ, जी, जी हाँ)
2. नकारात्मक निपात (नहीं, जी नहीं)
3. निषेधात्मक निपात (मत)
4. प्रश्नबोधक निपात (क्या)
5. विस्मयादिबोधक निपात (क्या, काश)
6. तुलनाबोधक निपात (सा)
7. अवधारणाबोधक निपात (ठीक, लगभग, करीब)
8. आदरबोधक निपात (जी)
9. बलदायक/सीमाबोधक निपात (ही, भी, तो, तक, भर, मात्र)

अतिरिक्त जानकारी (Additional Information)

'नमस्ते' के संधि-विच्छेद का सही उदाहरण/उत्तर है- नम: + ते

मुख्य बिंदु

• 'नमस्ते' का सही संधि-विच्छेद 'नमः + ते' है। इसमें विसर्ग का मेल 'त' वर्ण से हो रहा है।
• व्याकरणिक नियम के अनुसार, यदि विसर्ग (:) के बाद 'त' या 'स' आए, तो विसर्ग के स्थान पर 'स्' (आधा स) हो जाता है।
• इस प्रकार, नमः + ते = नम + स् + ते = नमस्ते।
• इसी नियम के अन्य उदाहरण: निः + तेज़ = निस्तेज, मनः + ताप = मनस्ताप।

अन्य विकल्प -

महत्वपूर्ण बिंदु 
 संधि के मुख्य भेद-

1. स्वर संधि
2. व्यंजन संधि
3. विसर्ग संधि

अतिरिक्त जानकारी

दिए गए विकल्पों में से अशुद्ध वाक्य का सही उत्तर है- कोई डॉक्टर को बुला दो। (विकल्प 4)।

मुख्य बिंदु

• 'कोई डॉक्टर को बुला दो' वाक्य में सर्वनाम संबंधी अशुद्धि है।
• हिंदी व्याकरण के नियमानुसार जब अनिश्चयवाचक सर्वनाम 'कोई' के साथ कारक चिह्न (परसर्ग) 'को' प्रयुक्त होता है, तो उसका तिर्यक् रूप 'किसी' हो जाता है।
• अतः इस वाक्य का शुद्ध रूप होगा— "किसी डॉक्टर को बुला दो।"

अतिरिक्त जानकारी

महत्वपूर्ण बिंदु

सर्वनाम संबंधी प्रमुख अशुद्धियाँ एवं उनके नियम:

1. मूल रूप बनाम तिर्यक् रूप: जब सर्वनाम के साथ परसर्ग (ने, को, से, के लिए आदि) आता है, तो सर्वनाम अपने मूल रूप में न रहकर तिर्यक् रूप ले लेता है। जैसे: 'कोई ने' के स्थान पर 'किसी ने', तथा 'कोई को' के स्थान पर 'किसी को' का प्रयोग होता है।
2. निजवाचक सर्वनाम का प्रयोग: 'अपने आप' या 'स्वयं' के स्थान पर अन्य शब्दों का अनावश्यक प्रयोग अशुद्ध माना जाता है (जैसे- 'मैं मेरे घर जा रहा हूँ' के स्थान पर 'मैं अपने घर जा रहा हूँ' शुद्ध है)।
3. अनावश्यक सर्वनाम: वाक्य में जहाँ संज्ञा पहले से स्पष्ट हो, वहाँ अनावश्यक रूप से उसी के लिए सर्वनाम दोहराने से बचना चाहिए।

दिए गए विकल्पों में सिंह का पर्यायवाची नहीं है का सही उत्तर है: गयन्द

Key Points

• सिंह शब्द का पर्यायवाची 'गयन्द' नहीं होगा।
• 'गयन्द' शब्द 'हाथी' का पर्यायवाची है।
• परिभाषा - ऐसे शब्द जिनके अर्थ समान हों, उन्हें पर्यायवाची या समानार्थी शब्द कहा जाता है।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information

कुछ महत्वपूर्ण संबंधित शब्द -

'अध्यात्म' शब्द के संधि-विच्छेद का सही उत्तर है- अधि + आत्म

Key Points

• अध्यात्म शब्द का सही संधि-विच्छेद 'अधि + आत्म' है।
• इसमें यण स्वर संधि का प्रयोग हुआ है।
• यण संधि के नियमानुसार, यदि इ, ई, उ, ऊ या ऋ के बाद कोई असमान स्वर आए, तो इ/ई का 'य्', उ/ऊ का 'व्' और ऋ का 'र्' हो जाता है।
• यहाँ अधि (इ) + आत्म (आ) के मेल से 'या' बना है, जिससे शब्द 'अध्यात्म' बना।
• अन्य उदाहरण: इति + आदि = इत्यादि, प्रति + एक = प्रत्येक।

अन्य विकल्प -

Important Points 

 संधि के मुख्य भेद-

1. स्वर संधि (दो स्वरों का मेल)
2. व्यंजन संधि (व्यंजन के साथ स्वर या व्यंजन का मेल)
3. विसर्ग संधि (विसर्ग के साथ स्वर या व्यंजन का मेल)

Additional Information

दिए गए वाक्यों में से अशुद्ध वाक्य का सही उत्तर है- चार आदमी के बैठने की व्यवस्था करो।

मुख्य बिंदु

• दिए गए वाक्य 'चार आदमी के बैठने की व्यवस्था करो' में वचन संबंधी अशुद्धि है। यहाँ 'चार' एक बहुवचन संख्यावाचक विशेषण है।
• व्याकरणिक नियम के अनुसार, यदि किसी संख्यावाचक विशेषण के बाद संज्ञा आए और उसके साथ कोई परसर्ग (कारक चिह्न जैसे- 'के') लगा हो, तो संज्ञा का रूप तिर्यक ��हुवचन में प्रयुक्त होता है।
• अतः शुद्ध वाक्य होगा- 'चार आदमियों के बैठने की व्यवस्था करो।'
• अन्य उदाहरण: 'पाँच लड़कों को बुलाओ' (न कि पाँच लड़का को) और 'सात दिनों के बाद' (न कि सात दिन के बाद)।

अन्य विकल्प -

महत्वपूर्ण बिंदु 
 वाक्य अशुद्धि के प्रमुख भेद-

1. संज्ञा/वचन संबंधी अशुद्धि
2. लिंग संबंधी अशुद्धि
3. कारक/परसर्ग संबंधी अशुद्धि
4. क्रिया/काल संबंधी अशुद्धि
5. पदक्रम संबंधी अशुद्धि

अतिरिक्त जानकारी

'नरेश धीरे-धीरे बोलता है ।' वाक्य में रेखांकित शब्द 'धीरे-धीरे' का सही उत्तर है- रीतिवाचक

मुख्य बिंदु

• वाक्य में 'धीरे-धीरे' शब्द क्रिया 'बोलना' के होने के ढंग या रीति का बोध करा रहा है, इसलिए यह रीतिवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण है।
• जिन अव्यय शब्दों से क्रिया के होने की रीति या विधि का पता चलता है, उन्हें रीतिवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण कहते हैं। इसकी पहचान के लिए क्रिया के साथ 'कैसे' लगाकर प्रश्न किया जाता है।
• अन्य उदाहरण: वह तेज़ दौड़ता है। (कैसे दौड़ता है? - तेज़), वह अचानक आ गया।

अन्य विकल्प -

महत्वपूर्ण बिंदु 

 अर्थ के आधार पर क्रिया-विशेषण के भेद-

1. कालवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण
2. स्थानवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण
3. परिमाणवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण
4. रीतिवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण

अतिरिक्त जानकारी

'बहती गंगा में हाथ धोना' मुहावरे का सही अर्थ है- अवसर का लाभ उठाना

मुख्य बिंदु

• 'बहती गंगा में हाथ धोना' का अर्थ है किसी शुभ अवसर या अनुकूल परिस्थिति का अपने पक्ष में उपयोग कर लेना।
• व्याकरणिक दृष्टि से, मुहावरा एक ऐसा वाक्यांश है जो अपने साधारण अर्थ को छोड़कर किसी विशेष अर्थ को प्रकट करता है।
• उदाहरण: जब मेले में सभी दुकानदार भारी छूट दे रहे थे, तो मैंने भी सस्ती किताबें खरीदकर बहती गंगा में हाथ धो लिया।

अन्य विकल्प -

महत्वपूर्ण बिंदु 
 मुहावरे की विशेषताएँ-

1. मुहावरा पूर्ण वाक्य न होकर एक वाक्यांश होता है।
2. मुहावरे का प्रयोग प्रत्यक्ष अर्थ में न होकर लक्ष्यार्थ (विशेष अर्थ) में होता है।
3. इसका प्रयोग हमेशा वाक्यों के क्रिया रूप के साथ जुड़कर होता है।

अतिरिक्त जानकारी

'झरना' का सही उत्तर है: वारि

Key Points

• दिए गए विकल्पों में 'वारि' शब्द 'झरना' का पर्यायवाची नहीं है।
• 'वारि' का सही अर्थ 'जल' या 'पानी' होता है।
• 'झरना' के पर्यायवाची शब्द — प्रपात, सोता, निर्झर, स्रोत, उत्स।
• परिभाषा - पहाड़ या किसी ऊँचे स्थान से गिरने वाली प्राकृतिक जलधारा को झरना या प्रपात कहते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information

कुछ महत्वपूर्ण संबंधित शब्द -

The correct answer is March 1950.

Key Points

• The Planning Commission of India was established on 15 March 1950 by a Cabinet Resolution of the Government of India.
• It was a non-constitutional and non-statutory body, meaning it was not created by the Constitution nor by an Act of Parliament, but by an executive order.
• The establishment of the commission was based on the recommendations of the Advisory Planning Board, which was constituted in 1946 under the chairmanship of K.C. Neogy.
• The primary objective of the commission was to promote a rapid rise in the standard of living of the people by efficient exploitation of the resources of the country, increasing production, and offering opportunities to all for employment in the service of the community.
• The Prime Minister of India served as the Ex-officio Chairman of the Planning Commission. The first Chairman was Jawaharlal Nehru.
• It was responsible for formulating India's Five-Year Plans, which dictated the economic direction of the country for decades.

Additional Information

• Evolution and Dissolution:
• The Planning Commission functioned for over six decades before being replaced by the NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) on 1 January 2015.
• The NITI Aayog was established to provide a bottom-up approach to planning, contrasting with the top-down approach of the Planning Commission.
• The National Development Council (NDC):
• The National Development Council was established in August 1952 to strengthen and mobilize the effort and resources of the nation in support of the Plan.
• It served as the apex body for decision-making and deliberations on development matters in India, presided over by the Prime Minister.
• The First Five-Year Plan:
• The First Five-Year Plan was launched for the period 1951-1956 and focused mainly on the agricultural sector to address the food grain shortage post-partition.
• It was based on the Harrod-Domar model with some modifications.
• Last Deputy Chairman:
• The last Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission was Montek Singh Ahluwalia, who served until the commission's dissolution in 2014.

Important Points

• Functions of the Commission:
• Making an assessment of the material, capital, and human resources of the country, including technical personnel.
• Formulating a Plan for the most effective and balanced utilization of the country's resources.
• Determining priorities and defining stages in which the Plan should be carried out.
• Indicating the factors that tend to retard economic development and determine the conditions which should be established for the successful execution of the Plan.
• Constitutional Context:
• While the Planning Commission itself was non-constitutional, Economic and Social Planning is a subject mentioned in the Concurrent List (Entry 20) of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India.
• The Article 39 of the Directive Principles of State Policy also influenced the planning process, aiming for the distribution of ownership and control of material resources to subserve the common good.

The correct answer is Risk = (Hazard × Vulnerability × Exposure) ÷ Coping Capacity

Key Points

• According to the United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR) and the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), Disaster Risk is the product of the interaction between three main factors: Hazard, Exposure, and Vulnerability, which is then offset by the Coping Capacity.
• Hazard refers to a process, phenomenon, or human activity that may cause loss of life, injury, or other health impacts, property damage, social and economic disruption, or environmental degradation.
• Exposure refers to the presence of people, livelihoods, environmental functions and services, infrastructure, or economic, social, or cultural assets in places that could be adversely affected.
• Vulnerability is the susceptibility of a community, system, or asset to the damaging effects of a hazard due to physical, social, economic, and environmental factors.
• Coping Capacity represents the ability of people, organizations, and systems to face and manage adverse conditions, emergencies, or disasters using available skills and resources.
• The logic of the relationship is that Risk increases with higher intensity of hazards, more exposed elements, and greater vulnerability, but it is reduced when the Coping Capacity of the system increases.

Additional Information

• The Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction (2015−2030) is the global roadmap for reducing disaster risk and losses, emphasizing the shift from disaster management to disaster risk management.
• In India, the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), established under the Disaster Management Act, 2005 and chaired by the Prime Minister, uses these frameworks to formulate policies and guidelines.
• Resilience is another critical term, defined as the ability of a system to resist, absorb, and recover from the effects of a hazard in a timely and efficient manner, often strengthened by improving Coping Capacity.

The correct answer is 2 – 10%.

Key Points

• Photosynthetically Active Radiation (PAR) designates the spectral range of solar radiation from 400 to 700 nanometers that photosynthetic organisms are able to use in the process of photosynthesis.
• Of the total incident solar radiation that reaches the Earth, less than 50% of it is actually PAR. This light is critical as it provides the energy required for carbon fixation in plants.
• The producers in an ecosystem (green plants and photosynthetic bacteria) capture only a small fraction of this available energy. Specifically, plants capture only 2-10% of the PAR.
• This small amount of energy (2-10% of PAR) is the fundamental power source that sustains the entire living world, driving the metabolic activities of all organisms across different trophic levels.
• The efficiency of energy capture is relatively low because a significant portion of light is reflected, transmitted through the leaves, or lost as heat energy during the biological process.

Additional Information

• Energy Flow in Ecosystem:
• The flow of energy in an ecosystem is always unidirectional, moving from the Sun to producers and then to various consumers.
• In accordance with the First Law of Thermodynamics, energy can be transformed but neither created nor destroyed. In ecosystems, solar energy is transformed into chemical energy by plants.
• The Second Law of Thermodynamics states that during energy transfer, there is a constant dissipation of energy as heat, which increases the entropy of the system.
• 10% Law of Energy Transfer:
• Proposed by Raymond Lindeman in 1942, this law states that during the transfer of organic food energy from one trophic level to the next higher level, only about 10% of the transferred energy is stored as flesh.
• The remaining 90% is lost during transfer, broken down in respiration, or lost to incomplete digestion by higher trophic levels.
• Productivity Metrics:
• Gross Primary Productivity (GPP): The total rate at which solar energy is captured by the producers during photosynthesis.
• Net Primary Productivity (NPP): The energy remaining after respiratory losses (R) are subtracted from GPP. It is expressed as NPP = GPP − R. This is the actual biomass available for consumption by heterotrophs (herbivores and decomposers).
• Spectral Significance:
• Within the PAR range, Blue (around 430-450 nm) and Red (around 640-680 nm) wavelengths are most effectively absorbed by Chlorophyll a and Chlorophyll b for the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis.
• Green light is largely reflected or transmitted, which is why most plants appear green to the human eye.

The correct answer is Robert T. Paine.

Key Points

• The term keystone species was coined by the American ecologist Robert T. Paine in 1969.
• He developed this concept while studying the intertidal ecosystems of Mukkaw Bay in Washington State, USA.
• Through his field experiments, he demonstrated that the removal of a top predator, the ochre sea star (Pisaster ochraceus), led to a collapse in species diversity within the ecosystem.
• He observed that in the absence of the sea star, its primary prey, the California mussel (Mytilus californianus), outcompeted other species for space, effectively creating a monoculture.
• A keystone species is defined as an organism that has a disproportionately large effect on its natural environment relative to its abundance or biomass.

Additional Information

• Robert T. Paine (1933–2016):
• He was a professor at the University of Washington and is considered one of the most influential ecologists of the 20th century for introducing experimental methods to the field.
• Types of Keystone Species:
• Keystone Predators: Species like the Grey Wolf in Yellowstone National Park help control prey populations, preventing overgrazing.
• Ecosystem Engineers: Species like Beavers modify the physical environment by building dams, which creates new habitats for other organisms.
• Mutualists: Organisms like Bees are critical for pollination, supporting the reproduction of numerous plant species.
• Michael E. Soulé:
• He was a prominent biologist known as the father of conservation biology and was a co-founder of the Society for Conservation Biology in 1985.
• James A. Estes:
• An ecologist famous for his research on Sea Otters as a keystone species in kelp forest ecosystems, demonstrating how they protect kelp by preying on sea urchins.
• Trophic Cascade:
• This ecological phenomenon occurs when the addition or removal of top predators involves reciprocal changes in the relative populations of predator and prey through a food chain, which often has dramatic effects on ecosystem structure.

The correct answer is Option 3 – NTPC NETRA, Greater Noida.

Key Points

• India's first MWh-scale Vanadium Redox Flow Battery (VRFB) system was inaugurated at NTPC NETRA in Greater Noida, Uttar Pradesh.
• The project represents an important step towards the development of large-scale energy storage technology in India.
• A Vanadium Redox Flow Battery is a type of rechargeable flow battery in which energy is stored in vanadium-based electrolytes.
• Unlike conventional batteries, the energy and power capacity of a flow battery can be scaled relatively independently by increasing the amount of electrolyte and the size of the cell stack.
• The technology is particularly useful for integrating renewable energy sources such as solar and wind because it can store electricity when generation exceeds demand and supply it when required.
• Hence, the correct answer is Option 3 – NTPC NETRA, Greater Noida.

Additional Information

• VRFB: Vanadium Redox Flow Battery is an electrochemical energy-storage system that uses different oxidation states of vanadium ions in electrolytes.
• Working principle: During charging, electrical energy is converted into chemical energy by changing the oxidation states of vanadium ions. During discharge, the reverse electrochemical reactions generate electricity.
• Major advantage: VRFBs can undergo a large number of charge-discharge cycles with relatively low degradation, making them suitable for long-duration energy storage.
• NTPC NETRA: NETRA is NTPC's Research and Development (R&D) centre located at Greater Noida, Uttar Pradesh.
• The deployment of MWh-scale VRFB technology at NETRA demonstrates NTPC's efforts towards energy storage, renewable-energy integration and clean-energy technologies.

Important Points

• Technology → Vanadium Redox Flow Battery (VRFB)
• Scale → MWh-scale
• Location → NTPC NETRA, Greater Noida
• State → Uttar Pradesh
• Purpose → Large-scale/long-duration energy storage and renewable-energy integration
• NTPC NETRA → NTPC's R&D centre

The correct answer is MGNREGA − 1999.

Key Points

• Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA): This act was passed by the Parliament of India in September 2005 and came into effect on February 2, 2006. It was initially known as the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) and was renamed in 2009. The year 1999 is incorrectly associated with it because in 1999, a different scheme called Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY) was launched. Hence, statement 1 is incorrectly matched.
• National Extension Service (NES): It was launched on October 2, 1953, to provide a framework for rural development and to assist the Community Development Programme by providing technical and social services to rural communities through extension officers. Hence, statement 2 is correctly matched.
• Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP): This scheme was first introduced by the Government of India during 1978−79 in selected blocks and was later expanded to cover the entire country by October 1980. It aimed at providing self-employment assets to those living below the poverty line. Hence, statement 3 is correctly matched.
• Community Development Programme (CDP): Launched on October 2, 1952, the CDP was the first major initiative for the holistic development of rural India. It focused on improving agriculture, infrastructure, and health systems in villages. Hence, statement 4 is correctly matched.

Additional Information

• MGNREGA Details: This is a social security measure that guarantees the right to work. It provides at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work. At least one-third of the beneficiaries under the scheme must be women. If work is not provided within 15 days of applying, applicants are entitled to an unemployment allowance.
• Community Development and NES: The Community Development Programme (1952) and the National Extension Service (1953) were significant steps in rural administration. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) was later appointed to examine their working, which eventually led to the recommendation of a three-tier Panchayati Raj system in India.
• Evolution of Poverty Alleviation Schemes: Several schemes like IRDP, TRYSEM (Training of Rural Youth for Self-Employment), and DWCRA (Development of Women and Children in Rural Areas) were merged in April 1999 to form the Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY). This explains the presence of the year 1999 in the context of rural development history.
• Implementation Agencies: Most of these rural development programmes are implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development. For MGNREGA, the Gram Panchayats are the primary authorities responsible for planning and implementing the works at the village level.

Important Points

• The World Bank once termed MGNREGA as a stellar example of rural development and social protection.
• The CDP was started with 55 pilot projects across various states with the help of the Ford Foundation and the US Government.
• The Integrated Rural Development Programme was eventually restructured into the National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM), now known as Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana (DAY-NRLM), to promote self-employment through Self Help Groups (SHGs).

The correct answer is Lohna Uttar Gram Panchayat, Madhubani, Bihar.

Key Points

• National Panchayati Raj Day (NPRD) is celebrated across India every year on April 24 to commemorate the institutionalization of the Panchayati Raj System.
• The national-level celebration for National Panchayati Raj Day 2025 was hosted at Lohna Uttar Gram Panchayat, situated in the Jhanjharpur block of the Madhubani district in Bihar.
• This event serves as a platform for the Ministry of Panchayati Raj to confer National Panchayat Awards, such as the Deen Dayal Upadhyay Panchayat Satat Vikas Puraskar, recognizing excellence in local governance.
• The selection of Lohna Uttar Gram Panchayat highlights the central government's focus on empowering Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) in Bihar and promoting sustainable development goals at the grassroots level.
• During the 2025 event, various digital initiatives under the e-Panchayat mission and progress reports on rural infrastructure were showcased to strengthen Decentralized Planning.

Additional Information

• Historical Significance: The date April 24 marks the day the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 came into force in 1993. The first ever National Panchayati Raj Day was observed in 2010.
• Constitutional Status: The amendment added Part IX to the Constitution of India, titled The Panchayats, covering Articles 243 to 243-O, and introduced the 11th Schedule containing 29 functional items.
• Evolution of the System: The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) first recommended a three-tier Panchayati Raj system. Rajasthan was the first state to adopt the system in Nagaur district on October 2, 1959.
• Structure of PRIs: The system consists of the Gram Panchayat at the village level, the Panchayat Samiti at the intermediate (block) level, and the Zila Parishad at the district level.
• Women Empowerment in Bihar: Bihar was the pioneer state in India to implement 50% reservation for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions through the Bihar Panchayati Raj Act, 2006.

Important Points

• Gram Sabha: It is the foundation of the Panchayati Raj system, consisting of all persons whose names are included in the electoral rolls for the Panchayat at the village level.
• State Election Commission: Under Article 243-K, every state is required to constitute a State Election Commission to ensure free and fair elections for local bodies every 5 years.
• Finance Commission: Article 243-I mandates the formation of a State Finance Commission every five years to review the financial position of the Panchayats and recommend the distribution of taxes between the State and the Panchayats.
• Key Committees: Apart from Balwant Rai Mehta, other significant committees include the Ashoka Mehta Committee (1977), G.V.K. Rao Committee (1985), and the L.M. Singhvi Committee (1986), which recommended constitutional recognition for Panchayats.

The correct answer is Mir Jafar.

Key Points

• The Battle of Plassey was fought on 23 June 1757 between the British East India Company and the Nawab of Bengal, Siraj-ud-Daulah.
• Mir Jafar, who served as the Commander-in-Chief (Mir Bakshi) of the Nawab's army, betrayed Siraj-ud-Daulah by striking a secret deal with Robert Clive.
• Following the British victory, which was largely made possible by Mir Jafar's refusal to fight, he was appointed as the Nawab of Bengal in 1757.
• He became the first puppet Nawab under the British East India Company, marking the effective beginning of British colonial rule in India.
• As part of the agreement, Mir Jafar granted the British the Zamindari of the 24 Parganas and paid a massive sum of money as compensation for the attack on Calcutta.

Additional Information

• Siraj-ud-Daulah: He was the last independent Nawab of Bengal. His defeat at Plassey was a result of internal conspiracies involving his own officials and the wealthy banker Jagat Seth.
• Robert Clive: The British military leader who orchestrated the victory at Plassey. He was later appointed the Governor of Bengal twice and is credited with laying the foundations of the British Empire in the Indian subcontinent.
• Mir Madan and Mohanlal: Unlike the conspirators, these two commanders remained loyal to Siraj-ud-Daulah and fought bravely against the British until they were killed in action.
• Mir Qasim: When Mir Jafar was unable to meet the increasing financial demands of the British, he was deposed in 1760 and replaced by his son-in-law, Mir Qasim.
• Rai Durlabh: He was another high-ranking official in the Nawab's court who joined the conspiracy with the British and Mir Jafar to overthrow Siraj-ud-Daulah.

Important Points

• The Battle of Plassey is historically significant because it transformed the British East India Company from a mere trading entity into a dominant political power in India.
• The Black Hole Tragedy of 1756 was used by the British as a major justification for the military expedition against the Nawab that led to the battle in 1757.
• The victory gave the British access to the vast resources and revenues of Bengal, which they used to fund further military conquests across the Indian subcontinent.
• The subsequent Battle of Buxar in 1764 further consolidated this power, leading to the Treaty of Allahabad in 1765 where the Mughal Emperor granted Diwani Rights (revenue collection) to the Company.

The correct answer is None of the above.

Key Points

• The first space mission to successfully land humans on the Moon was Apollo 11, conducted by NASA (National Aeronautics and Space Administration) of the United States. Since Apollo 11 is not mentioned in the given options, the correct choice is None of the above.
• The mission was launched on July 16, 1969, from the Kennedy Space Center in Florida using the massive Saturn V rocket.
• On July 20, 1969, the Lunar Module, named Eagle, carrying Neil Armstrong and Buzz Aldrin, landed in the Sea of Tranquility on the lunar surface.
• Neil Armstrong became the first human to step onto the Moon's surface, followed shortly by Buzz Aldrin. Armstrong famously uttered the words, 'That is one small step for [a] man, one giant leap for mankind.'
• The mission fulfilled the national goal set by President John F. Kennedy in 1961 to land a man on the Moon and return him safely to Earth before the end of the decade.
• The crew spent approximately 21 hours and 36 minutes on the lunar surface before lifting off to rejoin the Command Module, Columbia, which was piloted by Michael Collins in lunar orbit.

Additional Information

• Apollo 12:
• It was the second crewed mission to land on the Moon, launched in November 1969.
• The mission was commanded by Charles Conrad, with Alan Bean as the Lunar Module Pilot and Richard Gordon as the Command Module Pilot.
• Challenger:
• The Space Shuttle Challenger (OV-099) was the second orbiter of NASA's space shuttle program to be put into service.
• It completed nine successful missions between 1983 and 1985 but is most remembered for the tragic disaster on January 28, 1986, when it broke apart 73 seconds into its tenth flight, resulting in the death of all seven crew members.
• Voyager 1:
• Launched by NASA on September 5, 1977, it was designed to study the outer Solar System.
• It is currently the farthest human-made object from Earth and became the first spacecraft to enter interstellar space in August 2012.
• Sputnik 1:
• Launched by the Soviet Union on October 4, 1957, it was the first artificial Earth satellite.
• Its successful launch triggered the Space Race between the USA and the USSR during the Cold War era.
• Space Race Context:
• The Apollo program consisted of a total of six successful lunar landings between 1969 and 1972.
• A total of 12 men have walked on the Moon to date, all of whom were part of the American Apollo missions.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• A unicameral legislature is a system of government where the state legislature consists of only one house, known as the Legislative Assembly or Vidhan Sabha.
• Madhya Pradesh has a unicameral legislature, meaning it does not have a Legislative Council. The Madhya Pradesh Legislative Assembly currently consists of 230 members who are directly elected by the people. Hence, option 2 is correct.
• Uttar Pradesh possesses a bicameral legislature, which includes both the Vidhan Sabha (Lower House) and the Vidhan Parishad (Upper House). It has the largest Legislative Council in India with 100 members. Hence, option 1 is incorrect.
• Telangana, which was carved out of Andhra Pradesh in 2014, also follows a bicameral system with both a Legislative Assembly and a Legislative Council. Hence, option 3 is incorrect.
• Bihar is one of the six states in India that has a bicameral legislature. The Bihar Legislative Council was first constitutionalized under the Government of India Act 1912. Hence, option 4 is incorrect.
• The Constitution of India provides the framework for state legislatures under Part VI, spanning from Article 168 to 212.

Additional Information

• Bicameralism in Indian States:
• Currently, only six states out of 28 in India have a bicameral legislature. These are Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana, and Uttar Pradesh.
• Until 2019, Jammu and Kashmir also had a Legislative Council, but it was abolished after the state was reorganized into Union Territories.
• Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha):
• This is the Lower House of the state legislature and is similar to the Lok Sabha. Its members are directly elected for a term of 5 years.
• The maximum strength is fixed at 500 and the minimum at 60, though states like Sikkim (32) and Goa (40) are exceptions.
• Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad):
• This is the Upper House and is a permanent body that cannot be dissolved. Each member serves a 6-year term, with one-third of members retiring every two years.
• The size of the Council cannot exceed one-third of the total membership of the Assembly, and it must have at least 40 members.

Important Points

• Article 168: This article mandates the Constitution of Legislatures in States. It specifies that for every state, there shall be a legislature consisting of the Governor and one or two houses.
• Article 169: It provides the Parliament with the power to abolish or create a Legislative Council in a state. For this, the Legislative Assembly of the state must pass a resolution by a special majority (majority of the total membership and 2/3rd of members present and voting).
• Powers and Functions: In a unicameral state like Madhya Pradesh, all legislative powers, including the passing of Money Bills and Ordinary Bills, rest solely with the Legislative Assembly. In bicameral states, the Assembly still holds superior power over the Council, especially regarding financial matters.
• The state of Madhya Pradesh was formed on 1 November 1956, and its legislative seat is located in Bhopal.

The correct answer is Thailand.

Key Points

• Thailand emerged as the champions of the ICC Women's Emerging Nations Trophy 2025, marking a significant milestone for cricket in the nation.
• The team secured the title after defeating Bangladesh in a highly competitive final match held in January 2025.
• The tournament was specifically designed by the International Cricket Council (ICC) to provide a platform for Associate nations and emerging teams to showcase their talent and gain international exposure.
• Host nation Thailand utilized their home-ground advantage effectively throughout the series, demonstrating consistent performance in both batting and bowling departments.
• This victory reinforces Thailand's position as one of the most rapidly improving teams in the global women's cricketing landscape, following their historic participation in the 2020 ICC Women's T20 World Cup.

Additional Information

• The ICC Women's Emerging Nations Trophy serves as a developmental bridge, helping teams transition from regional competitions to major global qualifiers and World Cups.
• Thailand's success is often attributed to the Cricket Association of Thailand (CAT), which has invested heavily in grassroots programs for women since the early 2010s.
• Key players such as Naruemol Chaiwai and Nattaya Boochatham have been instrumental in the team's rise, bringing experience and leadership to the young squad during the 2025 campaign.
• The tournament featured participation from several teams across the Asian and African regions, highlighting the ICC's commitment to diversifying the sport beyond traditional powerhouses.
• Events like these are crucial for improving the ICC Rankings of associate members, which directly impacts their funding and eligibility for high-profile multi-nation tournaments.
• The Emerging Nations Trophy format usually involves a round-robin stage followed by knockouts, ensuring that all participating nations receive a minimum number of matches to aid their technical development.

The correct answer is Lahore Session, 1929.

Key Points

• The Indian National Congress (INC) held its historic session at Lahore in December 1929, which was a turning point in the Indian Independence Movement.
• This session was presided over by Jawaharlal Nehru, who represented the younger, more radical element within the Congress party at the time.
• The most significant outcome of this session was the adoption of the Purna Swaraj resolution, which declared Complete Independence as the ultimate goal of the Indian National Congress.
• Prior to this, the demand of the Congress was generally limited to Dominion Status within the British Empire, as proposed in the Nehru Report of 1928.
• On the midnight of 31 December 1929, Jawaharlal Nehru unfurled the Tricolour flag of India on the banks of the Ravi River amidst slogans of Inquilab Zindabad.
• The Congress Working Committee met in January 1930 and decided that 26 January 1930 should be observed as the Purna Swaraj Day or Independence Day throughout India.

Additional Information

• Karachi Session, 1931:
• This session was presided over by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel in March 1931.
• It is notable for endorsing the Gandhi-Irwin Pact and adopting resolutions on Fundamental Rights and the National Economic Programme, which laid the social and economic roadmap for free India.
• Lucknow Session, 1916:
• Presided over by Ambica Charan Mazumdar, this session saw the famous Lucknow Pact between the Congress and the Muslim League.
• It also marked the reunification of the Moderates and Extremists within the Congress after their split in 1907.
• Surat Session, 1907:
• Presided over by Rash Behari Ghosh, this session is known for the Surat Split.
• The Congress split into two groups—the Moderates and the Extremists—due to differences over the methods of the Swadeshi and Boycott movements.
• Civil Disobedience Movement:
• The Lahore Session also gave the Congress Working Committee the authority to launch a Civil Disobedience Movement.
• This eventually led to the Dandi March started by Mahatma Gandhi on 12 March 1930, marking a major escalation in the struggle against British rule.

Important Points

• The choice of 26 January as the date for the commencement of the Constitution of India in 1950 was specifically made to commemorate the Purna Swaraj declaration of 1930.
• The Lahore Session marked the emergence of Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhas Chandra Bose as the leaders of the youth and more militant nationalist sections of the Indian National Congress.
• The rejection of Dominion Status by the British Government within the stipulated one-year deadline (set during the Calcutta Session of 1928) prompted the Congress to adopt the goal of total independence.

The correct answer is Luiz Inácio Lula da Silva.

Key Points

• The Presidency of the BRICS group rotates annually among its member nations. Brazil is scheduled to hold the chair and host the 17th BRICS Summit in 2025.
• Luiz Inácio Lula da Silva, the President of Brazil, will chair the summit as the leader of the host nation. He previously served as President during the formation years of the bloc.
• The transition of the chairmanship to Brazil follows the 16th BRICS Summit, which was held in Kazan, Russia, in October 2024 under the chairmanship of Vladimir Putin.
• The 2025 Summit will be a significant event as it will continue to integrate the new members that officially joined the bloc on January 1, 2024, including Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, and the United Arab Emirates.
• Under the leadership of President Lula, the 2025 agenda is expected to emphasize Global South cooperation, poverty alleviation, and climate change initiatives, which are central themes of Brazil’s foreign policy.

Additional Information

• Origin of BRICS: The acronym BRIC was first coined by Jim O’Neill of Goldman Sachs in 2001 to highlight the economic potential of Brazil, Russia, India, and China. The first formal summit took place in Yekaterinburg, Russia, in 2009.
• Expansion: South Africa joined the group in 2010, making it BRICS. In 2023, during the 15th Summit in Johannesburg, an invitation was extended to six countries, with four (Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, UAE) joining in 2024.
• New Development Bank (NDB): Established in 2014 at the Fortaleza Summit in Brazil, the NDB serves as an alternative to the World Bank and IMF for infrastructure and sustainable development funding. It is headquartered in Shanghai, China.
• Previous Chairs: Cyril Ramaphosa (President of South Africa) chaired the group in 2023, while Xi Jinping (President of China) chaired the virtual summit in 2022.
• Strategic Importance: The BRICS bloc now represents over 40% of the world’s population and a significant share of Global GDP, aiming to promote a multipolar world order and reduce dependence on the US Dollar through de-dollarization discussions.

Important Points

• Rotational Order: The chairmanship typically follows the order of the acronym B-R-I-C-S. However, adjustments are sometimes made due to logistical or geopolitical reasons, such as Brazil taking the G20 presidency in 2024, which led to Russia hosting BRICS in 2024 and Brazil in 2025.
• Key Leaders: Currently, the prominent leaders of the founding members include Narendra Modi (Prime Minister of India), Xi Jinping (President of China), Vladimir Putin (President of Russia), and Cyril Ramaphosa (President of South Africa).

The correct answer is Research, Development and Innovation (RDI) Scheme.

Key Points

• The Research, Development and Innovation (RDI) Scheme was officially launched in November 2025 during the inaugural session of the Emerging Science, Technology and Innovation Conclave (ESTIC 2025).
• This flagship initiative is designed to create a robust scientific ecosystem by providing comprehensive support for end-to-end research, from basic discovery to final product development.
• The scheme focuses on promoting indigenous technology and self-reliance in critical sectors such as defense, healthcare, and renewable energy. Hence, the statement regarding the RDI Scheme being launched at ESTIC 2025 is correct.
• A primary objective of the RDI Scheme is to bridge the gap between academic research and industrial application, encouraging collaborations between universities and private enterprises.
• The scheme includes special provisions for early-career researchers and young innovators, providing them with grants and access to state-of-the-art laboratories across the country.

Additional Information

• Emerging Science, Technology and Innovation Conclave (ESTIC 2025):
• ESTIC 2025 serves as a premier national platform for policymakers, scientists, and industry leaders to discuss the future of disruptive technologies.
• The 2025 edition of the conclave emphasized the role of Artificial Intelligence (AI), Quantum Computing, and Green Hydrogen in shaping India's economic growth.
• Gross Expenditure on R&D (GERD):
• India aims to significantly increase its Gross Expenditure on R&D (GERD) to reach global benchmarks, with a target of 2% of the GDP in the coming years.
• Schemes like RDI are instrumental in boosting private sector investment in science and technology.
• Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF):
• The ANRF, established under the ANRF Act 2023, acts as an apex body to provide high-level strategic direction for scientific research in the country.
• It integrates various funding mechanisms to ensure that R&D projects are aligned with the national priorities of Viksit Bharat 2047.
• Deep Tech Startups:
• The government is increasingly focusing on Deep Tech startups that work on semiconductor design, biotechnology, and space exploration.
• The RDI Scheme complements the National Deep Tech Startup Policy by offering long-term patient capital and incubation support.

Important Points

• The RDI Scheme is managed under the aegis of the Ministry of Science and Technology and is implemented through various autonomous bodies like the Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB).
• Key performance indicators for the scheme include the number of patents filed, the increase in international research publications, and the commercialization of innovative products.
• The November 2025 launch marks a strategic shift towards mission-mode projects that address climate change and cybersecurity challenges.

The correct answer is Alec Jeffreys.

Key Points

• Sir Alec Jeffreys, a British geneticist, developed the technique of DNA fingerprinting in 1984 while working at the University of Leicester in the United Kingdom.
• His discovery focused on the fact that certain regions of the human genome contain repeated sequences of nucleotides, which are unique to every individual (except identical twins).
• These repetitive sequences are known as Variable Number of Tandem Repeats (VNTRs), and they serve as the biological marker for identifying individuals. Hence, the option Alec Jeffreys is correct.
• The technique was first utilized in a forensic capacity in 1986 to help solve a double-murder case and to resolve an immigration dispute involving a paternity claim.
• DNA fingerprinting relies on the high degree of polymorphism in the DNA sequences, which allows for the creation of a genetic profile that is highly specific to a person.

Additional Information

• James Watson and Francis Crick:
• They are renowned for proposing the double-helix model of DNA in 1953, which explained how genetic information is stored and replicated.
• Their work was based on the X-ray diffraction data produced by Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins.
• They were awarded the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1962.
• Linus Pauling:
• A legendary chemist who won two Nobel Prizes (one for Chemistry and one for Peace).
• He made significant contributions to understanding chemical bonds and the secondary structure of proteins (the alpha-helix).
• Although he also attempted to model the structure of DNA, his triple-stranded model was ultimately proven incorrect.
• DNA Fingerprinting in India:
• The technique was pioneered in India by Dr. Lalji Singh and Dr. V.K. Kashyap at the Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB) in Hyderabad.
• Dr. Lalji Singh is widely regarded as the Father of Indian DNA Fingerprinting.

Important Points

• Process of DNA Fingerprinting:
• Isolation of DNA: Extracting DNA from cells like blood, hair follicles, or skin.
• Digestion of DNA: Using Restriction Endonucleases to cut the DNA into fragments.
• Separation: Using Gel Electrophoresis to separate fragments based on their molecular weight.
• Southern Blotting: Transferring the separated fragments onto a synthetic membrane like nitrocellulose.
• Hybridization: Using labeled VNTR probes to bind to specific sequences.
• Detection: Using Autoradiography to visualize the specific patterns as dark bands on an X-ray film.
• Major Applications:
• It is used in forensic science for crime scene investigation to identify suspects.
• Determining paternity or maternity in legal disputes.
• Studying genetic diversity and evolutionary biology in various animal populations.
• Identifying genetic disorders and genealogical research.

The correct answer is Section 3

Key Points

• The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is constituted under Section 3 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
• Section 3(1) specifically states that the Central Government shall, by notification in the Official Gazette, establish a body to be known as the National Disaster Management Authority.
• The NDMA consists of a Chairperson and other members, not exceeding nine. The Prime Minister of India is the ex-officio Chairperson of the NDMA.
• Section 6 of the Act outlines the powers and functions of the National Authority, such as laying down policies, plans, and guidelines for disaster management.
• Section 10 deals with the powers and functions of the National Executive Committee (NEC), which assists the NDMA in the discharge of its functions.
• Section 14 provides for the constitution of the State Disaster Management Authority (SDMA) at the state level, headed by the Chief Minister.

Additional Information

• The Disaster Management Act, 2005, was passed by the Rajya Sabha on 28th November and by the Lok Sabha on 12th December 2005. It received the assent of the President of India on 23rd December 2005.
• The NDMA was formally constituted on 27th September 2006, following the notification of the Act.
• The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is the nodal ministry for disaster management at the national level.
• The primary objective of the NDMA is to coordinate the response to natural or man-made disasters and to build capacity for disaster resiliency and crisis response.
• Under Section 25 of the same Act, District Disaster Management Authorities (DDMA) are constituted at the local level, chaired by the District Collector or District Magistrate.

The correct answer is None of the above.

Key Points

• Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan was the freedom fighter famously known as the Frontier Gandhi (or Sarhadi Gandhi) due to his close association with Mahatma Gandhi and his adherence to the philosophy of non-violence.
• He was a Pashtun leader from the North-West Frontier Province (NWFP) of British India, which is now part of Pakistan.
• In 1929, he founded the Khudai Khidmatgar (Servants of God) movement, a non-violent resistance group against British colonial rule.
• The members of this movement were also known as the Red Shirts (Surkh Posh) because they wore uniforms dyed with red clay.
• He was a staunch opponent of the Partition of India and remained committed to secular and democratic values throughout his life.
• In recognition of his immense contribution to the freedom struggle, the Government of India conferred upon him the Bharat Ratna, India’s highest civilian award, in 1987. He was the first non-Indian citizen to receive this honor.

Additional Information

• Khan Abdul Jabbar Khan:
• Commonly known as Dr. Khan Sahib, he was the elder brother of Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan.
• He served as the Chief Minister of the North-West Frontier Province before and after independence and was a key figure in the Indian National Congress in that region.
• Maulana Azad:
• Abul Kalam Azad was a senior leader of the Indian National Congress and a brilliant scholar.
• He became the first Education Minister of independent India. His birthday, 11 November, is celebrated as National Education Day across the country.
• Muhammad Ali Jauhar:
• He was an Indian Muslim leader, activist, and journalist who was a founding member of the All-India Muslim League.
• He was one of the leading figures of the Khilafat Movement and played a significant role in the establishment of Jamia Millia Islamia.
• Feroz Gandhi:
• He was an Indian politician and journalist, known for his role as a Member of Parliament and for being the husband of Indira Gandhi.
• He was noted for his exposes on corruption and for promoting parliamentary transparency.

Important Points

• The Khudai Khidmatgar movement was unique because it mobilized the martial Pashtun community toward non-violent civil disobedience, inspired by Satyagraha.
• During the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1930, the Peshawar uprising (Qissa Khwani Bazaar massacre) showcased the bravery of the Red Shirts when they faced British bullets without retaliation.
• Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan is also referred to as Badshah Khan or Bacha Khan, reflecting his status as a king among his people.
• His autobiography, titled My Life and Struggle, provides deep insights into the political climate of the 20th century in the Indian subcontinent.

The correct answer is 2009.

Key Points

• The National Rural Drinking Water Programme (NRDWP) was launched by the Government of India in April 2009.
• It was a modified version of the Accelerated Rural Water Supply Programme (ARWSP), which had been the primary central government initiative since 1972-73 to support states in providing drinking water.
• The primary objective of NRDWP was to ensure that every rural person has access to adequate safe water for drinking, cooking, and other domestic basic needs on a sustainable basis.
• The programme shifted the focus from just providing 'coverage' (number of habitations) to ensuring 'water security' and the sustainability of water sources.
• It emphasized the involvement of the community, especially Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs), in the planning, implementation, and management of rural water supply schemes. Hence, the correct year of launch is 2009.

Additional Information

• Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM):
• In August 2019, the NRDWP was restructured and subsumed into a more ambitious flagship programme called the Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM).
• The goal of JJM is to provide Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) to every rural household in India by the year 2024.
• This initiative, popularly known as 'Har Ghar Jal', aims to provide at least 55 litres of water per person per day to every rural household.
• Ministry of Jal Shakti:
• The programme was originally under the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation.
• In May 2019, the Ministry of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation and the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation were merged to form the new Ministry of Jal Shakti.
• Funding Pattern:
• For NRDWP and later JJM, the funding is shared between the Centre and the States.
• For North-Eastern and Himalayan States, the ratio is 90:10.
• For other States, the ratio is 50:50.
• For Union Territories, the Central Government provides 100% of the funding.
• Quality Concerns:
• One of the critical components of the rural water programme is addressing Water Quality Affected Habitations, specifically those contaminated with Arsenic and Fluoride.
• The National Water Quality Sub-Mission (NWQSM) was launched in 2017 to specifically address these contamination issues in rural areas.

Important Points

• The United Nations Sustainable Development Goal 6 (SDG 6) aims to ensure availability and sustainable management of water and sanitation for all by 2030.
• India's Jal Jeevan Mission is a significant step toward achieving this global target ahead of time.
• As of recent data, Goa, Telangana, Haryana, and Gujarat are among the states that have achieved 100% coverage of tap water connections in rural areas.

The correct answer is Buldhana.

Key Points

• Lonar Lake, also known as Lonar crater, is a notified National Geo-heritage Monument located at Lonar in the Buldhana district of Maharashtra, India.
• It was created by a meteorite impact during the Pleistocene Epoch, approximately 52,000 years ago, making it one of the most unique geological features in the world.
• The lake is famous for being the only known hyper-velocity impact crater in basaltic rock anywhere on Earth, which attracts scientists from NASA and the Geological Survey of India for research.
• It is a saline and alkaline lake, meaning it has high concentrations of salts and a high pH level, creating a specialized ecosystem for unique micro-organisms.
• In November 2020, Lonar Lake was officially declared a Ramsar site, identifying it as a wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention.

Additional Information

• Dimensions and Structure: The crater has an average diameter of nearly 1.8 kilometers (1.1 miles) and the lake surface is about 137 meters (449 feet) below the crater rim, featuring a nearly circular shape.
• Pink Water Phenomenon: In June 2020, the lake gained global attention when the water turned pink overnight. This was attributed to the presence of large populations of Haloarchaea microbes, which produce pink pigment in high-salinity conditions.
• Planetary Comparison: Because the crater is formed in basalt, it serves as an excellent analog for studying craters on the Moon and Mars, where basaltic surfaces are common.
• Heritage and Culture: The vicinity of the lake is home to several ancient temples, including the Daitya Sudan Temple, which is a fine example of Hemadpanti style architecture from the Chalukya Dynasty, dedicated to Lord Vishnu.
• Biodiversity: The surrounding area is protected as the Lonar Wildlife Sanctuary, providing a habitat for various flora and fauna, including migratory birds like shelducks, shovellers, and black-winged stilts.

The correct answer is Option 4 – National Sovereignty.

Key Points

• At the India AI Impact Summit 2026, the human-centric vision for Artificial Intelligence was represented through the acronym M.A.N.A.V..
• The acronym reflects India's approach towards developing and deploying AI in a manner that is human-centric, inclusive, responsible and beneficial to society.
• In this framework, the letter ‘N’ stands for “National Sovereignty”.
• National Sovereignty in the context of AI highlights the importance of a nation's ability to maintain control over its AI capabilities, data, technology and strategic interests.
• This is particularly important because AI is increasingly connected with areas such as data governance, cybersecurity, critical infrastructure, economic development and national security.
• Hence, the correct answer is Option 4 – National Sovereignty.

Additional Information

• Human-centric AI: AI development should place human welfare, dignity, rights and societal interests at the centre.
• National Sovereignty: It emphasises a country's ability to develop and govern AI technologies according to its own national interests, laws and priorities.
• AI sovereignty is also associated with developing indigenous technological capabilities, securing critical data and reducing excessive dependence on external technological systems.
• India's AI policy approach emphasises using AI as a tool for inclusive development and public good while ensuring responsible and secure deployment.

Important Points

• Event → India AI Impact Summit 2026
• Theme/vision → Human-centric approach to AI
• Acronym → M.A.N.A.V.
• ‘N’ → National Sovereignty
• Focus → AI sovereignty, national capabilities, data and technological independence

The correct answer is Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha.

Key Points

• The Constituent Assembly of India held its first meeting on 9 December 1946 in the Constitution Hall (now the Central Hall of Parliament House) in New Delhi.
• Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, the oldest member of the Assembly, was elected as the temporary President (interim Chairman) to conduct the initial proceedings.
• This practice of electing the oldest member as the temporary head was modeled after the French practice, ensuring an immediate presiding officer before a permanent one could be elected.
• The first meeting was attended by 211 members. The Muslim League boycotted the session, demanding a separate state of Pakistan, which resulted in lower attendance than the total sanctioned strength.
• During this session, members presented their credentials and signed the Register, marking the formal beginning of the process to draft the Constitution of India.

Additional Information

• Permanent President: Just two days after the first meeting, on 11 December 1946, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly.
• Vice-Presidents: The Assembly had two Vice-Presidents: H.C. Mukherjee and V.T. Krishnamachari, providing administrative support to the President.
• Constitutional Advisor: Sir B.N. Rau was appointed as the Legal/Constitutional Advisor to the Assembly. He prepared the initial draft of the Constitution which was later scrutinized by the Drafting Committee.
• Objective Resolution: On 13 December 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic Objective Resolution, which outlined the ideals and principles that would guide the drafting of the Constitution. It was unanimously adopted on 22 January 1947.
• Drafting Committee: Chaired by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (the Chief Architect of the Constitution), this committee was established on 29 August 1947 to prepare the final draft based on various reports and the initial draft by B.N. Rau.

Important Points

• Timeline: The Constituent Assembly took exactly 2 years, 11 months, and 18 days to complete its task of framing the Constitution.
• Sessions and Meetings: The Assembly held 11 sessions covering a total of 165 days. The draft was considered for 114 days during these sessions.
• Adoption and Enactment: The Constitution was formally adopted and signed by the members on 26 November 1949 (celebrated as Constitution Day). However, it came into full effect on 26 January 1950 to commemorate the Purna Swaraj declaration of 1930.
• Total Strength: The total strength of the Assembly was originally 389 under the Cabinet Mission Plan, but it was reduced to 299 following the Partition of India in 1947.
• Final Meeting: The very last meeting of the Constituent Assembly took place on 24 January 1950, where Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the first President of India.

The correct answer is 4 − 1 − 2 − 3.

Key Points

• The Eastern Coast of India faces the Bay of Bengal and hosts several Major Ports that facilitate international trade. To arrange them from North to South, one must look at their respective states and latitudes.
• Haldia (4): Located in the state of West Bengal, specifically in the Purba Medinipur district. It is situated at the confluence of the Hooghly River and the Haldi River. Being in West Bengal, it is the northernmost port among the given options.
• Paradip (1): Situated in the Jagatsinghpur district of Odisha. It is an artificial, deep-water port located at the confluence of the Mahanadi River and the Bay of Bengal. Since Odisha lies south of West Bengal, this port follows Haldia in the sequence.
• Visakhapatnam (2): Located in Andhra Pradesh, it is often called the Jewel of the East Coast. It is a landlocked harbor and is situated south of Odisha. Thus, it occupies the third position in the North-to-South arrangement.
• Chennai (3): Formerly known as Madras, it is located in Tamil Nadu. It is one of the oldest artificial ports in India and is the southernmost among the four listed ports.
• The correct sequence from North to South is Haldia, followed by Paradip, then Visakhapatnam, and finally Chennai. Hence, the sequence 4 − 1 − 2 − 3 is correct.

Additional Information

• Haldia Port (West Bengal):
• It was officially commissioned in 1967 to provide a deep-water dock system and assist the Kolkata Port.
• It primarily handles petroleum products, chemicals, and heavy machinery.
• Paradip Port (Odisha):
• It was the first Major Port commissioned on the East Coast after Independence, inaugurated in 1966.
• It is a premier port for the export of iron ore and the import of coking coal.
• Visakhapatnam Port (Andhra Pradesh):
• It is the only natural harbor on the Eastern Coast of India.
• It was opened to ocean-going vessels in 1933 and is known for its Dolphin's Nose hill which protects the harbor from cyclones.
• Chennai Port (Tamil Nadu):
• Established in 1881, it is the second largest container port in India after Jawaharlal Nehru Port.
• It is an artificial harbor and serves as a major hub for automobiles, iron ore, and coal.

Important Points

• Latitudinal Distribution: The approximate latitudes for these ports are Haldia (22.02° N), Paradip (20.26° N), Visakhapatnam (17.68° N), and Chennai (13.08° N).
• Eastern Coast Ports: Apart from these four, other significant ports on the East Coast include Tuticorin (V.O. Chidambaranar) in Tamil Nadu, Ennore (Kamarajar) in Tamil Nadu, and Kolkata Port in West Bengal.
• Major Ports Authority Act: Under the Major Ports Authority Act, 2021, these ports operate with significant autonomy to improve efficiency and trade volume.

The correct answer is Biomagnification.

Key Points

• Biomagnification, also known as biological magnification, is the process by which the concentration of toxic substances increases at each successive trophic level in a food chain.
• This phenomenon occurs when certain pollutants, such as heavy metals (mercury, arsenic) or pesticides (DDT), are ingested by organisms at the base of the food chain. Hence, the correct answer is Biomagnification.
• For a substance to undergo biomagnification, it must be long-lived (persistent), mobile, soluble in fats (lipophilic), and biologically active.
• As an organism from a higher trophic level consumes multiple organisms from a lower level, it accumulates all the non-biodegradable toxins present in its prey, leading to a much higher concentration in its own tissues.
• The apex predators at the top of the food web, such as humans, eagles, and large fish, usually suffer the most significant toxicological effects due to the highest concentration of these chemicals.

Additional Information

• Bioaccumulation:
• It refers to the gradual accumulation of substances, such as pesticides or other chemicals, in an individual organism.
• It occurs when an organism absorbs a substance at a rate faster than that at which the substance is lost or eliminated by catabolism and excretion.
• While related to biomagnification, bioaccumulation happens within a single trophic level, whereas biomagnification happens across multiple trophic levels. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
• Eutrophication:
• It is the process by which a water body becomes overly enriched with nutrients, leading to the excessive growth of simple plant life like algae and plankton.
• The excessive growth of algal blooms depletes the dissolved oxygen in the water, which can lead to the death of other aquatic organisms such as fish.
• It is primarily caused by the runoff of nitrates and phosphates from agricultural fertilizers or sewage. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Biodiversity:
• It refers to the variety and variability of life on Earth, including the number of different species, genetic variations within species, and the variety of ecosystems.
• It is a measure of the biological health of a region and is essential for ecosystem stability and services. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• DDT Example:
• A classic example of biomagnification is the pesticide DDT. In a water ecosystem, DDT concentration might be 0.000003 ppm (parts per million).
• In zooplankton, it increases to 0.04 ppm, in small fish to 0.5 ppm, in large fish to 2 ppm, and finally in fish-eating birds, it can reach as high as 25 ppm.
• High concentrations of DDT interfere with calcium metabolism in birds, causing the thinning of eggshells and premature breaking, which led to a decline in bird populations in the mid-20th century.

The correct answer is It is a distributed ledger where records are difficult to alter retroactively.

Key Points

• Blockchain is defined as a decentralized, distributed ledger technology (DLT) that records the provenance of a digital asset. It is essentially a digital database that is shared among the nodes of a computer network.
• The most significant feature of blockchain is its immutability. Once a transaction is recorded in a block and added to the chain, it becomes extremely difficult to change or delete without the alteration of all subsequent blocks, which requires the consensus of the network majority. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Unlike traditional data storage systems that rely on a central server or authority (like a bank or government), blockchain operates on a Peer-to-Peer (P2P) architecture. This removes the risk of a single point of failure. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Although blockchain gained fame through Bitcoin, its applications are vast and diverse, ranging from Supply Chain Management and Electronic Health Records to Voting Systems and Smart Contracts. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Blockchain is a purely digital technology. It stores data in a digital format using complex mathematical algorithms and cryptographic hashing to ensure security and transparency. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Origin and History:
• The concept of blockchain was first outlined in 1991 by Stuart Haber and W. Scott Stornetta. However, the first real-world application was conceptualized in 2008 by a person (or group) using the pseudonym Satoshi Nakamoto.
• In 2009, Nakamoto launched Bitcoin, the world's first cryptocurrency, which utilized blockchain as its public transaction ledger.
• Structure of a Block:
• Every block in a blockchain contains three main elements: the data (transaction details), a nonce (a random number used in mining), and a hash (a unique digital fingerprint).
• Each block also contains the hash of the previous block, creating a secure link that forms the chain.
• Consensus Mechanisms:
• To validate transactions without a central authority, blockchains use consensus algorithms.
• Proof of Work (PoW): Requires miners to solve complex puzzles (used by Bitcoin).
• Proof of Stake (PoS): Validators are chosen based on the number of coins they hold (used by Ethereum 2.0).
• Types of Blockchains:
• Public Blockchains: Open to anyone (e.g., Bitcoin, Litecoin).
• Private Blockchains: Permissioned networks controlled by a single organization.
• Consortium Blockchains: Managed by a group of organizations instead of a single entity.

Important Points

• Smart Contracts: These are self-executing contracts where the terms of the agreement are written directly into lines of code. They automatically execute transactions when predefined conditions are met, primarily on the Ethereum platform.
• Transparency: In public blockchains, every transaction is transparent and can be viewed by anyone with access to the network, although the identities of the users remain pseudonymous.
• Security: The cryptographic nature of the technology makes it highly resistant to hacking. To successfully attack a blockchain, one would need to control more than 51% of the network's computing power, which is computationally expensive and nearly impossible for large networks.

The correct answer is Co-extinction processes.

Key Points

• The Evil Quartet is a term used in ecology to describe the four major factors responsible for the accelerated rates of species extinction and biodiversity loss in the modern era.
• The concept was popularized by the ecologist Jared Diamond in 1984 to highlight how human activities are drastically altering the ecosystem and leading to a sixth mass extinction.
• The four causes included in this quartet are Habitat loss and fragmentation, Over-exploitation, Alien species invasions, and Co-extinctions.
• Co-extinction processes refer to the phenomenon where the extinction of one species leads to the inevitable extinction of another species that is obligatorily dependent on it. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• A classic example of co-extinction is the relationship between host fishes and their specific parasites; if the host becomes extinct, the parasite species also vanishes. Similarly, in plant-pollinator mutualism, the loss of a specific pollinator (like a specific bee or bird) can lead to the extinction of the plant it pollinates.

Additional Information

• Habitat Loss and Fragmentation:
• This is the primary cause of biodiversity loss. Large habitats are broken into small fragments due to human activities like agriculture and urbanization.
• The Amazon rain forest, often called the Lungs of the planet, is being cut and cleared for soya bean cultivation or for conversion to grasslands for raising beef cattle.
• Historically, tropical rain forests covered more than 14% of the Earth's land surface, but they now cover less than 6%.
• Over-exploitation:
• When the biological harvest exceeds the reproductive capacity of a population, it leads to extinction. In the last 500 years, species like the Steller's sea cow and the passenger pigeon were lost due to human greed.
• Many marine fish populations around the world are currently over-harvested, endangering the continued existence of commercially important species.
• Alien Species Invasions:
• Introduction of non-native species into a new geographical area can cause the decline or extinction of indigenous species because the alien species may lack natural predators.
• For instance, the Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria in East Africa led to the extinction of more than 200 species of cichlid fish in the lake. Other examples include Parthenium (carrot grass) and Lantana.
• Biodiversity Data and Surveys:
• According to the IUCN Red List (2004), approximately 784 species have gone extinct in the last 500 years, including 338 vertebrates and 87 plants.
• Current estimates suggest that more than 15,500 species worldwide are facing the threat of extinction.

The correct answer is Griffith Taylor.

Key Points

• Griffith Taylor, a prominent Australian geographer, introduced the concept of Neo-Determinism, which is popularly known as Stop-and-Go Determinism.
• This concept was developed as a middle ground between the two extreme geographical philosophies of the early 20th century: Environmental Determinism and Possibilism.
• Taylor used the analogy of a traffic controller (policeman) to explain the theory. He stated that humans are like the drivers of a car, while nature is the traffic signal. The signal (nature) can permit, slow down, or stop progress, but it does not dictate the final destination.
• The philosophy asserts that humans can accelerate, slow, or stop the rate of development of a region, but they cannot deviate from the broad environmental limits without facing disastrous consequences.
• It emphasizes that nature is not a passive agent, nor is it a complete master; rather, it provides a framework within which human choice and technology operate.

Additional Information

• Environmental Determinism:
• This school of thought, championed by scholars like Friedrich Ratzel and Ellen Churchill Semple, suggests that the physical environment (climate, topography, soil) strictly determines human behavior, culture, and social development.
• Friedrich Ratzel, often called the Father of Modern Geography, authored the book Anthropogeography and proposed the organic theory of the state (Lebensraum).
• Ellen Churchill Semple, a disciple of Ratzel, furthered these ideas in the United States, famously stating in 1911 that man is a product of the earth's surface.
• Possibilism:
• Developed as a reaction to determinism, this school argues that the environment provides a range of possibilities for human action, and humans choose based on their culture and technical skills.
• The leading proponent was the French geographer Paul Vidal de la Blache, who emphasized the role of genre de vie (way of life).
• Alexander von Humboldt:
• A legendary German explorer and polymath from the 18th and 19th centuries, Humboldt is considered one of the founders of modern geography.
• His monumental work, Cosmos (published between 1845 and 1862), aimed to describe the physical universe as a single, unified whole.
• He contributed significantly to climatology, biogeography, and the empirical study of nature.

Important Points

• Griffith Taylor's ideas were often controversial during his time, particularly his views on race and environmental capacity in Australia, which he detailed in his 1951 book, Geography in the Twentieth Century.
• The Stop-and-Go Determinism model remains relevant in modern discussions regarding Sustainable Development, as it highlights the necessity of respecting ecological thresholds while pursuing economic growth.
• While Possibilism focuses on human agency and Determinism focuses on nature's control, Neo-Determinism balances both by acknowledging human ingenuity within environmental constraints.

The correct answer is B.D. Jatti.

Key Points

• Basappa Danappa Jatti, popularly known as B.D. Jatti, served as the Acting President of India from 11 February 1977 to 25 July 1977.
• He assumed the responsibilities of the President following the sudden death of the incumbent President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed on 11 February 1977.
• At the time of this transition, B.D. Jatti was serving as the fifth Vice-President of India (1974–1979).
• Under Article 65 of the Constitution of India, the Vice-President is mandated to act as the President in the event of the death, resignation, or removal of the President until a new one is elected.
• He administered the oath of office to the Morarji Desai-led Janata Party government after the 1977 General Elections, which marked the first non-Congress government at the Centre.

Additional Information

• Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed:
• He was the fifth President of India (1974–1977) and the second President to die in office.
• His tenure is most notably associated with the proclamation of the Internal Emergency in June 1975.
• Neelam Sanjiva Reddy:
• He was elected as the sixth President of India in July 1977, succeeding the acting term of B.D. Jatti.
• He remains the only person to be elected to the office of the President unopposed and was the youngest President at the time of his assumption.
• Zakir Husain:
• He served as the third President of India from 1967 to 1969 and was the first Indian President to die in office.
• His death led to V.V. Giri becoming the first Acting President of India.
• R. Venkataraman:
• He served as the eighth President of India from 1987 to 1992.
• Before his presidency, he served as the Vice-President and held various ministerial portfolios, including Finance and Defence.

Important Points

• Acting Presidents in India:
• There have been three instances of an Acting President in Indian history: V.V. Giri (1969), Justice M. Hidayatullah (1969), and B.D. Jatti (1977).
• Justice M. Hidayatullah is the only Chief Justice of India to have served as the Acting President when both the offices of the President and Vice-President were vacant simultaneously in 1969.
• Constitutional Framework:
• Article 62 of the Constitution requires that an election to fill a vacancy caused by death must be held as soon as possible, and in no case later than six months from the date of occurrence of the vacancy.
• B.D. Jatti was also a former Chief Minister of Mysore State (now Karnataka) from 1958 to 1962 and served as the Governor of Odisha before becoming Vice-President.

The correct answer is Aditya-L1.

Key Points

• Aditya-L1 is India’s first dedicated space-based mission designed to study the Sun.
• The mission was successfully launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) on September 2, 2023, using the PSLV-C57 launch vehicle.
• The spacecraft is positioned in a halo orbit around the Lagrange point 1 (L1) of the Sun-Earth system, which is located approximately 1.5 million kilometers from Earth.
• The primary objective of Aditya-L1 is to observe the solar corona, photosphere, and chromosphere to understand solar activities and their effect on space weather in real-time.
• Placing the satellite at the L1 point provides the major advantage of continuously viewing the Sun without any occultation or eclipses, allowing for uninterrupted monitoring of solar events.

Additional Information

• NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation):
• It is an independent regional navigation satellite system developed by India (ISRO).
• It is designed to provide accurate position information services to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary.
• It consists of a constellation of seven satellites and a network of ground stations operating 24/7.
• HysIS (Hyper-spectral Imaging Satellite):
• Launched in November 2018, it is an Earth observation satellite.
• Its primary goal is to study the Earth’s surface in the visible, near-infrared, and shortwave infrared regions of the electromagnetic spectrum.
• It provides valuable data for agriculture, forestry, and geological environments.
• GAGAN (GPS Aided GEO Augmented Navigation):
• This is a Space-Based Augmentation System (SBAS) jointly developed by ISRO and the Airports Authority of India (AAI).
• It provides satellite-based navigation assistance to the aviation sector to ensure safety and precision during flights over Indian airspace.
• It helps in better Air Traffic Management and reduces the workload of pilots and controllers.

Important Points

• Lagrange Points: These are specific locations in space where the gravitational forces of a two-body system (like the Sun and Earth) create pockets of stability. There are five such points (L1 to L5).
• Aditya-L1 Payloads: The mission carries seven scientific payloads, including the Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC) and the Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (SUIT).
• Mission Duration: The spacecraft is expected to remain operational and provide data for at least five years.
• Solar Corona: This is the outermost layer of the Sun's atmosphere, which is much hotter than the solar surface, a phenomenon Aditya-L1 aims to investigate.

The correct answer is Gause’s Rule.

Key Points

• Gause’s Rule, also widely known as the Competitive Exclusion Principle, was formulated by the Russian biologist G.F. Gause in 1934.
• The principle states that two closely related species competing for the same limiting resources cannot coexist indefinitely in the same ecological niche.
• In such a competitive environment, the species that possesses even a slight advantage over the other will survive in the long term, while the other will be excluded.
• The eventual outcome of this competition is either the local extinction of the less fit species or an evolutionary shift toward a different ecological niche to avoid direct competition. Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.
• This principle is fundamental in community ecology as it explains how species diversity is maintained and how niches are partitioned within an ecosystem.

Additional Information

• Hardy-Weinberg Principle:
• This is a principle in population genetics which states that allele frequencies in a population remain constant (in equilibrium) from generation to generation unless specific evolutionary forces act upon them.
• These forces include mutation, natural selection, non-random mating, genetic drift, and gene flow. It serves as a null model to study the process of evolution.
• Allen’s Rule:
• Proposed by Joel Asaph Allen in 1877, this rule states that endothermic animals from colder climates tend to have shorter limbs, ears, and other appendages than those from warmer climates.
• This is an adaptation to minimize heat loss by reducing the surface area to volume ratio, helping the animal retain body heat in freezing temperatures.
• Liebig’s Law of the Minimum:
• Originally applied to agriculture and plant growth, it states that growth is controlled not by the total amount of resources available, but by the scarcest resource, known as the limiting factor.
• For instance, if a plant has plenty of sunlight and water but lacks a specific nutrient like phosphorus, its growth will be limited by the availability of phosphorus regardless of the abundance of other factors.
• Resource Partitioning:
• This is a mechanism that allows species to avoid Gause’s Rule. Closely related species may evolve to use different food sources, different foraging times, or different habitats within the same area, allowing them to coexist by minimizing direct competition.

The correct answer is Government securities.

Key Points

• Repo Rate, short for Repurchase Rate, is the interest rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends liquidity to commercial banks against the collateral of Government securities and other approved securities.
• In this transaction, banks sell Government securities to the Central Bank with an agreement to repurchase them at a specified future date and at a predetermined price.
• This rate is a primary tool of the Monetary Policy used by the RBI to control the money supply and inflation within the Indian economy.
• When the RBI increases the Repo Rate, borrowing for commercial banks becomes more expensive, which eventually leads to higher interest rates for retail and corporate loans, thereby reducing liquidity in the market.
• Conversely, a reduction in the Repo Rate encourages banks to borrow more, injecting more money supply into the system to stimulate economic growth. Hence, the correct answer is Government securities.

Additional Information

• Reverse Repo Rate:
• This is the rate at which the RBI borrows money from commercial banks by parking their excess liquidity with the Central Bank.
• It is always kept lower than the Repo Rate and helps in absorbing excess cash from the banking system.
• Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
• Established on April 1, 1935, based on the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission.
• It was nationalized on January 1, 1949, and acts as the Lender of Last Resort for all commercial banks in India.
• The RBI operates under the RBI Act, 1934, and is headquartered in Mumbai.
• Monetary Policy Committee (MPC):
• The MPC is a 6-member body (3 from RBI and 3 appointed by the Govt) responsible for fixing the benchmark interest rates in India.
• The Governor of RBI acts as the ex-officio Chairperson of the MPC.
• Bank Rate:
• It is the rate at which the RBI is prepared to buy or rediscount bills of exchange or other commercial papers.
• Unlike Repo Rate, the Bank Rate does not involve a repurchase agreement or collateral like Government securities.

Important Points

• Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF):
• This framework was introduced by the RBI in June 2000 following the recommendations of the Narasimham Committee.
• It allows banks to manage their day-to-day liquidity requirements through Repo and Reverse Repo auctions.
• Marginal Standing Facility (MSF):
• Introduced in the year 2011-12, it is a window for banks to borrow from the RBI in an emergency situation when inter-bank liquidity dries up.
• Banks can borrow overnight funds by dipping into their Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) quota up to a certain percentage at a rate higher than the Repo Rate.
• Inflation Management:
• The RBI uses the Repo Rate to maintain Retail Inflation (CPI) within the target band of 4% (± 2%) as mandated by the Government of India.

The correct answer is Glasgow, United Kingdom.

Key Points

• The 26th Conference of the Parties (COP26) was held in Glasgow, Scotland, United Kingdom, from October 31 to November 13, 2021.
• The conference was hosted by the UK in partnership with Italy, after being postponed for a year due to the COVID-19 pandemic.
• It served as the 26th United Nations Climate Change conference and brought together nearly 200 countries to discuss the urgent need for climate action.
• The main objective of COP26 was to accelerate action towards the goals established in the Paris Agreement and the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
• At the conclusion of the summit, the Glasgow Climate Pact was signed, which specifically mentioned the phase-down of unabated coal power and inefficient fossil fuel subsidies for the first time in such a treaty.

Additional Information

• India at COP26: Prime Minister Narendra Modi presented a five-point agenda termed Panchamrit. This included reaching a non-fossil energy capacity of 500 GW by 2030 and achieving the target of Net Zero emissions by the year 2070.
• Dubai, United Arab Emirates: This city hosted COP28 in 2023. A major focus of this summit was the first Global Stocktake, assessing the progress made since the Paris Agreement.
• Paris, France: This city hosted COP21 in 2015, which led to the landmark Paris Agreement. The agreement aimed to limit global warming to well below 2 degrees Celsius, preferably to 1.5 degrees Celsius, compared to pre-industrial levels.
• Madrid, Spain: The COP25 summit took place here in December 2019. Although it was held in Spain, it was conducted under the presidency of Chile because of civil unrest in the original host country.
• UNFCCC: The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change is an international environmental treaty established in 1992 at the Rio Earth Summit. Its primary task is to stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere to prevent dangerous human interference with the climate system.

Important Points

• The COP26 summit resulted in the Glasgow Leaders Declaration on Forests and Land Use, where over 100 countries pledged to end and reverse deforestation by 2030.
• The conference also highlighted the Global Methane Pledge, led by the US and EU, aiming to cut methane emissions by at least 30% by 2030.
• Climate finance remained a critical topic, as developed nations were urged to fulfill their $100 billion annual commitment to assist developing nations in climate mitigation and adaptation efforts.
• The COP is the supreme decision-making body of the UNFCCC and meets every year unless the parties decide otherwise.

The correct answer is S.C. Dube.

Key Points

• Shyama Charan Dube (S.C. Dube) was a renowned Indian sociologist and anthropologist who contributed significantly to the study of rural society and modernization in India.
• He conducted a comprehensive and systematic field study of Shamirpet, a village located near Hyderabad (in the present-day state of Telangana), which led to the publication of his landmark book 'Indian Village' in 1955.
• In 1958, he wrote the book 'India’s Changing Villages', which specifically analyzed the impact of the Community Development Programmes (CDP) and the human factors involved in rural change and modernization. Hence, the statement regarding S.C. Dube is correct.
• Dube’s approach was distinct because he moved away from the purely descriptive anthropological tradition to a more analytical sociological perspective, focusing on the social structure, caste hierarchy, and economic life of the village.
• He emphasized that the Indian village was not a 'little republic' or an isolated unit, but was intricately linked to the wider social and political system of the country.

Additional Information

• A.R. Desai (Akshay Ramanlal Desai):
• He was a prominent Marxist sociologist who focused on the structural-functional aspects of Indian society.
• His most famous work is 'Social Background of Indian Nationalism' (1948), where he analyzed the growth of the national movement through a socio-economic lens.
• Desai also wrote extensively on Rural Sociology in India and was a critic of the capitalist path of development.
• M.N. Srinivas (Mysore Narasimhachar Srinivas):
• A giant in Indian sociology, he is best known for his concept of 'Sanskritization', 'Westernization', and the 'Dominant Caste'.
• He conducted fieldwork in the village of Rampura in Karnataka and authored the classic 'The Remembered Village' (1976).
• He advocated for the 'Field View' over the 'Book View' to understand the realities of the Indian social system.
• Yogendra Singh:
• He is well-known for his analytical work on the Modernization of Indian Tradition (1973).
• Singh’s work focused on the sociology of knowledge and the complex interplay between traditional Indian values and modernizing forces like democracy and industrialization.
• Village Studies in India:
• The 1950s and 1960s marked a significant era of Village Studies in India, where sociologists sought to understand the impact of post-independence reforms on rural life.
• Key contributors to this field included McKim Marriott (Kishan Garhi), F.G. Bailey (Bisipara), and Robert Redfield, who influenced Indian scholars with concepts like 'Little Tradition' and 'Great Tradition'.

Important Points

• S.C. Dube served as the President of the Indian Sociological Society from 1975 to 1976.
• His study of Shamirpet was one of the first attempts to use a multi-disciplinary team, including experts from different fields, to study a single village unit.
• The book 'India’s Changing Villages' is particularly cited for its critique of how bureaucratic structures often fail to understand the psychological and cultural needs of the rural population during development projects.

The correct answer is National Biogas and Manure Management Programme.

Key Points

• The National Biogas and Manure Management Programme (NBMMP) is a Central Sector Scheme that provides for the setting up of family-type biogas plants.
• It is primarily aimed at rural and semi-urban households that have adequate livestock to provide the necessary cattle dung for the plant.
• The program is implemented by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) to provide clean fuel for cooking and lighting purposes.
• The NBMMP aims to reduce the drudgery of women and children involved in collecting firewood and to improve sanitation in rural areas by linking toilets with biogas plants.
• One of the major outputs of this programme is enriched organic manure (digested slurry), which helps in maintaining soil fertility and reducing the use of chemical fertilizers.

Additional Information

• GOBAR Dhan Scheme:
• Launched in 2018 under the Swachh Bharat Mission (Grameen), the Galvanizing Organic Bio-Agro Resources Dhan (GOBAR-DHAN) scheme focuses on managing and converting cattle dung and solid waste into biogas and compost.
• It aims to support villages in keeping their surroundings clean and increasing the income of farmers.
• SATAT Initiative:
• The Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation (SATAT) was launched by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas in 2018.
• It promotes the production of Compressed Bio-Gas (CBG) from various waste streams like agricultural residue and municipal solid waste for use in the automotive sector.
• Biogas Technology:
• Biogas is produced through a process called anaerobic digestion, where microorganisms break down organic matter in the absence of oxygen.
• The gas consists mainly of Methane (CH₄) and Carbon Dioxide (CO₂), with small amounts of hydrogen sulfide and moisture.
• Biogas-based Power Generation Programme (BPGP):
• This programme focuses on setting up biogas plants for power generation and thermal energy applications with a capacity range of 3 kW to 250 kW.
• It is designed for commercial, institutional, and industrial sectors to utilize organic waste efficiently for energy needs.

The correct answer is Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes.

Key Points

• The MISHTI scheme, which stands for Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes, was officially announced by the Union Finance Minister, Nirmala Sitharaman, during the presentation of the Union Budget 2023-24.
• The primary objective of this initiative is to undertake mangrove plantation along India's extensive coastline and on salt pan lands to enhance the ecological health of the coastal regions.
• This initiative is implemented through the convergence of several existing government schemes, specifically leveraging funds from MGNREGS (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme) and the CAMPA (Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority) Fund.
• The MISHTI program is planned for implementation over a period of five years, spanning from 2023-24 to 2027-28, covering approximately 540 sq km of area across 11 States and 2 Union Territories.
• The scheme not only focuses on environmental conservation but also aims at providing tangible incomes to local communities by promoting eco-tourism and sustainable livelihood opportunities linked to mangrove ecosystems.

Additional Information

• Ecological Importance of Mangroves:
• Mangroves are salt-tolerant vegetation that grows in the intertidal zones of tropical and subtropical sheltered coasts.
• They act as a natural bio-shield against extreme weather events such as cyclones, storm surges, and tsunamis, significantly reducing the impact on inland human settlements.
• These ecosystems are vital carbon sinks, often referred to as Blue Carbon ecosystems, as they can sequester carbon at rates much higher than terrestrial forests.
• Mangrove Cover in India:
• As per the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2021, India's mangrove cover stands at 4,992 sq km, which accounts for about 0.15% of the country's total geographical area.
• West Bengal hosts the largest share of mangroves in India (predominantly in the Sundarbans), followed by Gujarat and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
• Global Commitments:
• The MISHTI initiative aligns with India's Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) under the Paris Agreement, which includes creating an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of CO₂ equivalent through additional forest and tree cover by 2030.
• India recently joined the Mangrove Alliance for Climate (MAC) at the COP27 summit held in Egypt in November 2022, reinforcing its commitment to mangrove conservation.
• Implementation Framework:
• The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) is the nodal ministry for the execution of the MISHTI scheme, involving the active participation of State Forest Departments and local Coastal Communities.

Given:

Investment by NRIs = ₹ 8,000 crore

Formula Used:

Value of 1% Share = Given Investment Amount ÷ Given Percentage Share

Required Investment = Value of 1% Share × Total Required Percentage Share

Calculation:

According to the Bharat Bonds subscription pie chart,

⇒ Share of NRIs = 33%

⇒ Since 33% = ₹ 8,000 crore

⇒ Value of 1% subscription = 8,000 ÷ 33

⇒ Share of Companies = 2%

⇒ Share of FII = 11%

⇒ Combined percentage of Companies and FII = 2% + 11% = 13%

⇒ Combined investment amount = (8,000 ÷ 33) × 13

⇒ Combined investment amount = 1,04,000 ÷ 33

⇒ Combined investment amount ≈ ₹ 3,151.52 crore

Comparing the calculated value (₹ 3,151.52 crore) with the given options:

(1) ₹ 4,872.62 crore

(2) ₹ 3,051.51 crore

(3) ₹ 4,798.34 crore

(4) ₹ 5,082.45 crore

None of the provided numeric options match the calculation.

∴ The correct answer is None of the above.

Given:

The following table represents the percentage distribution of subscriptions for Bharat Bonds by different categories of investors:

Total subscription for Bharat Bonds = ₹ 55,000 crore

Formula Used:

Difference in investment = (Difference in percentage shares ÷ 100) × Total Subscription

Difference in percentage = Percentage share of NRIs − Percentage share of Public

Calculation:

According to the pie chart,

⇒ Percentage share of funds invested by NRIs = 33%

⇒ Percentage share of funds invested by Public = 18%

⇒ Difference in percentage share = 33% − 18% = 15%

Now, calculate the monetary difference based on the total subscription of ₹ 55,000 crore:

⇒ Difference in funds = 15% of ₹ 55,000 crore

⇒ Difference = (15 ÷ 100) × 55,000

⇒ Difference = 15 × 550

⇒ Difference = ₹ 8,250 crore

∴ The correct answer is ₹ 8,250 crore.

Given:

The pie chart represents the percentage distribution of subscriptions generated for Bharat Bonds from various sources:

Total subscription value = ₹ 55,000 crore

Formula Used:

Combined Percentage = Percentage of Category A + Percentage of Category B

Investment Amount = (Combined Percentage ÷ 100) × Total Investment

Calculation:

According to the data extracted from the pie chart,

⇒ Percentage share of Pension funds = 32%

⇒ Percentage share of the Public = 18%

⇒ Combined percentage share = 32% + 18% = 50%

Now, we calculate the combined investment amount based on the total investment of ₹ 55,000 crore:

⇒ Combined Investment = 50% of ₹ 55,000 crore

⇒ Combined Investment = (50 ÷ 100) × 55,000

⇒ Combined Investment = 0.5 × 55,000

⇒ Combined Investment = ₹ 27,500 crore

∴ The correct answer is ₹ 27,500 crore.

Given:

The following table represents the percentage distribution of Subscription Generated for Bharat Bonds from different sources as per the pie chart:

Difference between funds contributed by the Public and Pension funds = ₹ 5,000 crore

Formula Used:

Difference in Percentage = |Percentage of Pension Funds − Percentage of Public|

Total Funds Subscribed = (Difference in Funds Value ÷ Difference in Percentage) × 100

Calculation:

According to the pie chart,

⇒ Percentage of funds from Pension Funds = 32%

⇒ Percentage of funds from Public = 18%

⇒ Difference in percentage = 32% − 18% = 14%

As per the question, this 14% difference corresponds to ₹ 5,000 crore.

⇒ 14% of Total Funds = ₹ 5,000 crore

⇒ Total Funds = (5,000 ÷ 14) × 100

⇒ Total Funds = 5,00,000 ÷ 14

⇒ Total Funds = 2,50,000 ÷ 7

⇒ Total Funds ≈ 35,714.2857 crore

Rounding to the nearest whole number,

⇒ Total Funds ≈ ₹ 35,714 crore

∴ The correct answer is ₹ 35,714 crore.

Given:

Total contribution by FII = ₹ 33,000 crore

Formula Used:

Value of 1% = Total Category Value ÷ Category Percentage

Required Value = (Sum of Required Percentages) × Value of 1%

Calculation:

According to the data provided in the pie chart,

⇒ Subscription percentage for FII = 11%

⇒ Given, 11% of total subscription = ₹ 33,000 crore

⇒ Value of 1% subscription = 33,000 ÷ 11

⇒ Value of 1% subscription = ₹ 3,000 crore

We need to find the total funds contributed by NRIs and Banks together:

⇒ Subscription percentage for NRIs = 33%

⇒ Subscription percentage for Banks = 4%

⇒ Combined percentage for (NRIs + Banks) = 33% + 4% = 37%

⇒ Combined fund contribution = 37 × 3,000 crore

⇒ Combined fund contribution = ₹ 1,11,000 crore

∴ The correct answer is ₹ 1,11,000 crore.

Given:

Formula Used:

Combined Total = Value₁ + Value₂

Ratio = (Combined Graduates in Town A and B) : (Combined Postgraduates in Town A and E)

Calculation:

According to the table,

⇒ Number of Graduates in Town A = 16500

⇒ Number of Graduates in Town B = 24000

⇒ Combined number of Graduates in Towns A and B = 16500 + 24000 = 40500

⇒ Number of Postgraduates in Town A = 18450

⇒ Number of Postgraduates in Town E = 18000

⇒ Combined number of Postgraduates in Towns A and E = 18450 + 18000 = 36450

⇒ Required Ratio = 40500 : 36450

⇒ Dividing by 10 → 4050 : 3645

⇒ Dividing both sides by 405 → (4050 ÷ 405) : (3645 ÷ 405)

⇒ Simplified Ratio = 10 : 9

∴ The correct answer is 10 : 9.

Given:

Formula Used:

Percentage Higher = ((Value₁ − Value₂) ÷ Value₂) × 100

Calculation:

According to the question,

⇒ Number of Graduates in Town F = 10200

⇒ Number of Postgraduates in Town F = 8000

⇒ Difference = 10200 − 8000 = 2200

⇒ Percentage Higher = (2200 ÷ 8000) × 100

⇒ Percentage Higher = (22 ÷ 80) × 100

⇒ Percentage Higher = 0.275 × 100 = 27.5%

∴ The correct answer is 27.5%.

Given:

Formula Used:

Total Population = Sum of populations of all towns

Difference = |Total Graduates − Total Postgraduates|

Calculation:

According to the question,

⇒ Total number of Graduates = 16500 + 24000 + 20200 + 15150 + 22250 + 10200

⇒ Total number of Graduates = 108300

⇒ Total number of Postgraduates = 18450 + 20000 + 16250 + 10500 + 18000 + 8000

⇒ Total number of Postgraduates = 91200

⇒ Required Difference = 108300 − 91200

⇒ Difference = 17100

∴ The correct answer is 17100.

Given:

Formula Used:

Average = (Sum of all observations) ÷ (Total number of observations)

Calculation:

According to the table, the number of postgraduates in the specified towns are:

⇒ Town A = 18450

⇒ Town C = 16250

⇒ Town E = 18000

⇒ Town F = 8000

Total number of postgraduates in these four towns:

⇒ Sum = 18450 + 16250 + 18000 + 8000

⇒ Sum = 60700

Number of towns = 4

Average number of postgraduates:

⇒ Average = 60700 ÷ 4

⇒ Average = 15175

∴ The correct answer is 15175.

Given:

Formula Used:

Total Residents = Sum of Graduates and Postgraduates in the specified Towns

Calculation:

According to the table, we need to find the sum for towns A, D, and F:

⇒ Total residents in Town A = 16500 + 18450 = 34950

⇒ Total residents in Town D = 15150 + 10500 = 25650

⇒ Total residents in Town F = 10200 + 8000 = 18200

Now, calculate the combined total for all three towns:

⇒ Combined Total = 34950 + 25650 + 18200

⇒ Combined Total = 78800

∴ The correct answer is 78800.

The correct answer is Keibul Lamjao National Park.

Key Points

• Keibul Lamjao National Park is recognized as the world's only floating national park, located in the Bishnupur district of the state of Manipur, India.
• The park is an integral part of Loktak Lake, which is the largest freshwater lake in Northeast India.
• It is characterized by unique floating islands of vegetation called Phumdis, which are a heterogeneous mass of vegetation, soil, and organic matter in various stages of decomposition.
• The park was originally declared a Wildlife Sanctuary in 1966 and was subsequently notified as a National Park in 1977 to preserve the natural habitat of the endangered Sangai deer.
• The Sangai (Cervus eldi eldi), also known as the brow-antlered deer or dancing deer, is endemic to this park and is the State Animal of Manipur.

Additional Information

• Loktak Lake:
• It was designated as a wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention on 23 March 1990.
• Due to ecological stress, it was also listed under the Montreux Record in 1993, which is a register of Ramsar sites where changes in ecological character have occurred or are likely to occur.
• Kaziranga National Park:
• Located in the state of Assam, it is a UNESCO World Heritage Site famous for hosting two-thirds of the world's population of Great One-horned Rhinoceroses.
• It was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2006 and is situated on the banks of the Brahmaputra River.
• Manas National Park:
• This park is also located in Assam and serves as a Project Tiger Reserve, an Elephant Reserve, and a Biosphere Reserve.
• It is known for rare species like the Assam Roofed Turtle, Hispid Hare, and Golden Langur.
• Namdapha National Park:
• Situated in Arunachal Pradesh, it is the largest protected area in the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity hotspot.
• It is famous for being the only park in the world to harbor four feline species of big cats: the Tiger, Leopard, Snow Leopard, and Clouded Leopard.

Important Points

• The Sangai deer is classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. Its survival is heavily dependent on the Phumdi ecosystem of the Keibul Lamjao National Park.
• The total area of the national park is approximately 40 square kilometers, though the floating portion varies in thickness and stability depending on the season and water levels of Loktak Lake.
• The local Meitei community shares a deep cultural and social bond with the Sangai and the lake ecosystem, often featuring them in Manipuri folklore and traditional dances.
• Conservation efforts are ongoing to manage the water levels and the health of the Phumdis, as the construction of the Ithai Barrage has affected the natural seasonal cycle of the floating islands.

The correct answer is 2nd September, 2023.

Key Points

• The High-Level Committee (HLC) on Simultaneous Elections, popularly known as the 'One Nation, One Election' committee, was formally constituted by the Government of India on September 2, 2023.
• The committee was chaired by the former President of India, Shri Ram Nath Kovind. The Ministry of Law and Justice (Legislative Department) issued the official notification for its formation.
• The primary objective of this committee was to examine the feasibility of holding simultaneous elections to the House of the People (Lok Sabha), State Legislative Assemblies, Municipalities, and Panchayats.
• The committee included distinguished members such as Union Home Minister Shri Amit Shah, Shri Ghulam Nabi Azad, Shri N.K. Singh (Chairman of the 15th Finance Commission), Dr. Subhash C. Kashyap, Shri Harish Salve, and Shri Sanjay Kothari.
• The formation of the committee was a significant step toward addressing the challenges of frequent election cycles, such as high expenditure and the repeated imposition of the Model Code of Conduct (MCC), which often halts developmental work.

Additional Information

• Historical Context: Simultaneous elections were the norm in India during the initial years after independence. They were held in 1951-52, 1957, 1962, and 1967. However, this cycle was disrupted due to the premature dissolution of some Legislative Assemblies in 1968 and 1969, and the Lok Sabha in 1970.
• Constitutional Provisions: Implementing simultaneous elections would require amendments to several articles of the Constitution of India, including Article 83 (Duration of Houses of Parliament), Article 85 (Dissolution of Lok Sabha), Article 172 (Duration of State Legislatures), Article 174 (Dissolution of State Legislatures), and Article 356 (President's Rule).
• Benefits of One Nation, One Election:
• Reduction in Cost: It significantly reduces the massive financial burden on the Exchequer and political parties.
• Administrative Efficiency: It prevents the diversion of security forces and government officials from their primary duties for prolonged periods.
• Governance Continuity: It ensures that developmental programs are not interrupted by the frequent implementation of the Model Code of Conduct.
• Submission of Report: The Ram Nath Kovind Committee submitted its comprehensive report to the President of India, Smt. Droupadi Murmu, on March 14, 2024. The report spans over 18,626 pages and was prepared after extensive consultations with political parties, experts, and stakeholders.

Important Points

• Law Commission Recommendations: Prior to this committee, the Law Commission of India (170th Report in 1999) and the NITI Aayog (Discussion Paper in 2017) had also recommended examining the possibility of returning to a simultaneous election schedule.
• Membership Details: Shri Adhir Ranjan Chowdhury (Leader of the single largest opposition party in Lok Sabha) was initially named as a member but he declined to serve on the committee. Shri Arjun Ram Meghwal, the Minister of State (Law and Justice), attended the meetings as a Special Invitee.
• Proposed Timeline: The committee recommended a two-step approach: first, synchronizing Lok Sabha and State Assembly elections, followed by local body elections (Municipalities and Panchayats) within 100 days of the general elections.
• Single Electoral Roll: One of the key recommendations of the committee is the introduction of a single electoral roll and single voter ID card for all levels of elections to be prepared by the Election Commission of India in consultation with State Election Commissions.

The correct answer is Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

Key Points

• The Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) notifications are issued by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) under the powers conferred by Section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Hence, option 4 is correct.
• The primary objective of the CRZ notification is to protect and conserve the coastal environment, ensure the livelihood security of the fisherfolk and other local communities, and promote sustainable development based on scientific principles.
• The first CRZ notification was issued in 1991. Since then, it has undergone several revisions to balance developmental needs with environmental conservation.
• This legislation allows the Central Government to restrict and regulate the location of industries, operations, or processes in the coastal stretches to prevent ecological degradation.
• The CRZ rules apply to the coastal stretches of India, including the territorial waters and the land between the High Tide Line (HTL) and the Low Tide Line (LTL).

Additional Information

• Environment (Protection) Act, 1986:
• Enacted under Article 253 of the Constitution of India, this act was prompted by the Bhopal Gas Tragedy of 1984.
• It serves as an umbrella legislation designed to provide a framework for Central Government coordination of the activities of various central and state authorities established under other laws, such as the Water Act and Air Act.
• It empowers the government to set standards for the quality of the environment and the emission or discharge of environmental pollutants.
• Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Classification:
• CRZ-I: These are ecologically sensitive areas such as mangroves, coral reefs, sand dunes, and turtle nesting grounds. Minimal human activity is allowed here.
• CRZ-II: This includes areas that have been developed up to or close to the shoreline, primarily within municipal limits or other legally designated urban areas.
• CRZ-III: This covers rural areas and areas that do not fall under CRZ-I or CRZ-II. It is further divided into CRZ-III A and CRZ-III B based on population density.
• CRZ-IV: This comprises the water area from the Low Tide Line to 12 nautical miles on the seaward side and the water area of tidal influenced water bodies.
• Related Environmental Legislations:
• Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Enacted for the protection of wild animals, birds, and plants. It established Schedules of protected species and provides for the declaration of National Parks and Sanctuaries.
• Indian Forest Act, 1927: A colonial-era law that deals with the classification of forests into Reserved, Protected, and Village forests, and regulates the transit of forest produce.
• Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974: The first major environmental law in independent India, it established the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) to monitor water quality.

Important Points

• Shailesh Nayak Committee: The Ministry constituted this committee in 2014 to examine the concerns raised by State Governments regarding the CRZ 2011 notification. Its recommendations led to the CRZ 2019 notification.
• CRZ 2019 Notification: It introduced a No Development Zone (NDZ) of 20 meters for all islands close to the mainland and for backwater islands in the mainland.
• Regulation of Activities: Prohibited activities in the CRZ include the setting up of new industries (with certain exceptions), manufacture or handling of hazardous substances, and discharge of untreated waste and effluents from industries or settlements.
• Enforcement: The Coastal Zone Management Authorities (CZMAs) at the State and Union Territory levels are responsible for the implementation and enforcement of CRZ provisions.

The correct answer is 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.

Key Points

• The Preamble of the Indian Constitution was amended for the first and only time by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
• Through this amendment, three new words were inserted into the Preamble: 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity'.
• The amendment was enacted during the National Emergency (1975−1977) under the government led by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
• This amendment is famously known as the 'Mini-Constitution' because it brought about massive changes to various parts of the Constitution of India.
• The changes were largely based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee, which was appointed to suggest changes to the Constitution in 1976.

Additional Information

• Preamble of India:
• The Preamble is based on the 'Objective Resolution', drafted and moved by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru on 13th December 1946, and adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22nd January 1947.
• It serves as the Introduction or Preface to the Constitution, embodying the fundamental values and philosophy on which the Indian State is built.
• 44th Amendment Act, 1978:
• This act was passed by the Janata Party government to undo several changes made by the 42nd Amendment Act.
• One of its major features was the removal of the 'Right to Property' from the list of Fundamental Rights, making it a mere legal right under Article 300A.
• It also provided that the National Emergency could only be proclaimed on the ground of 'armed rebellion' instead of 'internal disturbance'.
• 39th Amendment Act, 1975:
• Enacted during the Emergency, this amendment placed the election of the President, Vice-President, Prime Minister, and Speaker of the Lok Sabha beyond the jurisdiction of the courts.
• It was essentially aimed at protecting Indira Gandhi's election from being challenged in court.
• 25th Amendment Act, 1971:
• This amendment curtailed the Fundamental Right to Property and gave primacy to certain Directive Principles of State Policy (Article 39(b) and (c)) over Fundamental Rights (Articles 14, 19, and 31).
• It established that any law made to implement these Directive Principles could not be declared void on the ground of inconsistency with Fundamental Rights.

Important Points

• The Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) is a landmark judgement of the Supreme Court of India that outlined the Basic Structure Doctrine.
• The court ruled that while the Parliament has wide powers to amend the Constitution under Article 368, it cannot alter its 'basic structure', which includes the Preamble's core values.
• Following this case, the court upheld that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution and can be amended as long as the basic structure remains intact.

The correct answer is Safai ka Sanchar.

Key Points

• The Swabhav Swachhata Sanskaar Swachhata 2024 campaign was launched as part of the Swachhata Hi Seva (SHS) initiative to commemorate the 10th anniversary of the Swachh Bharat Mission.
• This campaign is built around three key pillars designed to transform difficult and dirty spots (Cleanliness Target Units) and promote a culture of cleanliness.
• Pillar 1: Swachhata Ki Bhaagidari (Public Participation, Awareness & Advocacy): This pillar focuses on mobilizing citizens through various activities like Human Chains, Cleanliness Marathons, and community workshops to make swachhata a Jan Andolan. Hence, Statement 2 is a correct pillar.
• Pillar 2: Sampoorna Swachhata including Swachhata Lakshit Ekay (SCTUs): This pillar involves the identification and time-bound transformation of difficult and dirty spots, often referred to as black spots or Cleanliness Target Units (CTUs), across urban and rural India. Hence, Statement 1 is a correct pillar.
• Pillar 3: SafaiMitra Suraksha Shivir: This pillar is dedicated to the welfare of SafaiMitras (sanitation workers), providing them with preventive health check-ups, safety equipment, and access to social security schemes like PM-JAY and PMSBY. Hence, Statement 4 is a correct pillar.
• The option Safai ka Sanchar is not a recognized pillar of the 2024 campaign framework. Hence, Statement 3 is the correct answer as it is not a pillar.

Additional Information

• Campaign Duration: The Swachhata Hi Seva 2024 campaign was observed from 17th September (marking the birthday of PM Narendra Modi) to 2nd October 2024 (Gandhi Jayanti).
• Organizing Ministries: The campaign is a joint initiative led by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) and the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation (DDWS) under the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
• Swachh Bharat Diwas: The culmination of the campaign on 2nd October is celebrated as Swachh Bharat Diwas, honoring the vision of Mahatma Gandhi for a clean India.
• Cleanliness Target Units (CTUs): A major highlight of the 2024 campaign was the mapping of nearly 7.5 lakh CTUs across the country, focusing on spots that were neglected and hard to clean, such as garbage vulnerable points and drainage lines.
• SafaiMitra Welfare: Under the SafaiMitra Suraksha Shivir, local bodies organize camps to ensure that every sanitation worker is enrolled in insurance schemes and receives Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) kits to prevent occupational hazards.

Important Points

• Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM): Launched on 2nd October 2014, the mission aimed to eliminate Open Defecation and improve Solid Waste Management.
• SBM-U 2.0 and SBM-G Phase II: The current phase focuses on Garbage Free Cities and ODF Plus status for villages, emphasizing Grey Water Management and Plastic Waste Management.
• Jan Andolan: The core philosophy of the campaign is to move from government-driven cleanliness to people-driven cleanliness, emphasizing that hygiene is a Sanskaar (habit/value).

The correct answer is Kaushal Panjee.

Key Points

• Kaushal Panjee (translated as Skill Register) is a specialized web and mobile-based application designed to facilitate the registration of rural youth under the Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) and Rural Self Employment Training Institutes (RSETI).
• Developed by the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD), the tool acts as a bridge between the rural job seekers and the Project Implementation Agencies (PIAs) that provide vocational training.
• It allows candidates to browse through a list of available trades, training centers, and job melas scheduled in their respective districts or states, ensuring accessibility to information at the grassroots level.
• The tool generates a unique Registration ID for every applicant, which serves as a mandatory reference for all future processes including counseling, training enrollment, and tracking post-placement benefits.
• It supports the government's mission of Skill India by digitizing the mobilization process and ensuring a transparent database of skilled human resources in rural India.

Additional Information

• Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY):
• Launched on 25th September 2014, this scheme is a part of the National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM).
• It focuses specifically on the rural poor youth between the ages of 15 and 35 years, with an upper age limit of 45 years for Women, SC/ST, and Persons with Disabilities (PWD).
• The scheme is unique for its mandatory placement requirement, where PIAs must ensure that at least 70% of the trained candidates are placed in jobs with a minimum salary.
• UMANG (Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance):
• Developed by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and the National e-Governance Division (NeGD).
• It provides a single platform for all Indian citizens to access pan-India e-Gov services from Central, State, and Local Government bodies.
• e-Shram Portal:
• Launched by the Ministry of Labour and Employment in August 2021.
• It aims to create a National Database of Unorganized Workers (NDUW) including migrant workers, gig workers, and platform workers to deliver social security benefits.
• Kaushal Bharat:
• This is the digital portal for the Skill India Mission managed by the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) under the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE).
• It focuses on schemes like Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) rather than the rural-specific DDU-GKY.

Important Points

• The Kaushal Panjee tool is available in multiple regional languages to ensure that language barriers do not hinder the registration process for rural candidates.
• It allows Project Implementation Agencies (PIAs) to upload details of their training centers and current vacancies, making it a live demand-supply matching platform.
• The technical support and data management for this platform are often handled by the National Institute of Rural Development and Panchayati Raj (NIRD&PR), which serves as the central nodal agency for DDU-GKY monitoring.
• Candidates can use the GPS-enabled mobile app to find the nearest training center from their current location, further improving the reach of the Rural Skill Development initiatives.

The correct answer is World Bank.

Key Points

• The Poverty and Equity Briefs (PEBs) are specialized reports released by the World Bank to provide a concise overview of the poverty and inequality situation in various countries.
• These briefs highlight the latest available estimates for poverty, inequality, and shared prosperity for more than 190 countries and territories across the globe.
• The reports are typically updated twice a year, coinciding with the Spring Meetings and the Annual Meetings of the World Bank Group and the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
• The primary objective of these briefs is to monitor and report progress toward the World Bank’s twin goals: ending extreme poverty by 2030 and promoting shared prosperity by increasing the incomes of the poorest 40 percent of the population in every country.
• The data used in these briefs is sourced from the Global Monitoring Database (GMD), which is the World Bank’s central repository of harmonized household survey data.

Additional Information

• World Bank Group:
• Established in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference, it is headquartered in Washington, D.C., USA.
• It consists of five institutions, including the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) and the International Development Association (IDA).
• As of 2023, Ajay Banga serves as the President of the World Bank Group.
• International Poverty Line:
• The World Bank currently uses an international poverty line of $2.15 per person per day (based on 2017 Purchasing Power Parity prices) to define extreme poverty.
• This threshold was updated in September 2022 from the previous $1.90 level to reflect changes in the cost of living globally.
• Gini Index:
• Included in the Poverty and Equity Briefs, the Gini Index is a statistical measure used to represent the income inequality or wealth inequality within a nation or a social group.
• A Gini coefficient of 0 expresses perfect equality, while a coefficient of 100 expresses maximal inequality.

Important Points

• International Monetary Fund (IMF): While often working alongside the World Bank, the IMF focuses on global monetary cooperation and financial stability. It is well-known for publishing the World Economic Outlook (WEO) and the Global Financial Stability Report.
• Reserve Bank of India (RBI): India’s central bank, established in 1935, is responsible for monetary policy. Key reports from the RBI include the Financial Stability Report and the Consumer Confidence Survey.
• World Trade Organization (WTO): Established in 1995 following the Marrakesh Agreement, the WTO deals with the global rules of trade between nations. It publishes the World Trade Report annually.
• Data Dissemination: The Poverty and Equity Briefs serve as a critical tool for policymakers, researchers, and the public to understand socio-economic trends and the impact of shocks (such as COVID-19 or inflation) on the most vulnerable populations.

The correct answer is C. Rajagopalachari.

Key Points

• Chakravarti Rajagopalachari, popularly known as Rajaji, served as the second Governor-General of Independent India from June 21, 1948, to January 26, 1950.
• He was the first and only Indian to hold the position of Governor-General of India, succeeding the last British official in that role.
• He held this office during the transitional period after Lord Mountbatten left India, until the Constitution of India came into effect and the office was replaced by the President of India.
• He was a distinguished statesman, lawyer, and Indian independence activist who played a pivotal role in the freedom struggle alongside Mahatma Gandhi.
• His appointment marked a significant milestone in Indian history as it transferred the highest constitutional post of the Dominion of India to an Indian national.

Additional Information

• Chakravarti Rajagopalachari:
• He was born on December 10, 1878, in Thorapalli in the Madras Presidency (present-day Tamil Nadu).
• He was one of the first recipients of India's highest civilian award, the Bharat Ratna, in 1954.
• He served as the Chief Minister of Madras State from 1952 to 1954 and implemented several social reforms, though he also faced criticism for his Kula Kalvi Thittam educational policy.
• In 1959, he founded the Swatantra Party, which championed free-market principles and individual liberty against the socialist policies of the Jawaharlal Nehru government.
• He was a prolific writer and is well-remembered for his English translations and retellings of the Mahabharata and the Ramayana.
• Lord Mountbatten:
• He was the last Viceroy of British India and became the first Governor-General of Independent India on August 15, 1947.
• He served in this capacity until June 21, 1948, overseeing the partition of the subcontinent.

Important Points

• Vinoba Bhave: He was a non-violence activist and the spiritual successor of Mahatma Gandhi. He is best known for starting the Bhoodan Movement (Land Gift Movement) in 1951 and was the first individual Satyagrahi. He received the first Ramon Magsaysay Award in 1958.
• Jayaprakash Narayan: Famously known as Lok Nayak, he was a socialist leader who played a crucial role in the Quit India Movement. He is particularly remembered for leading the Total Revolution (Sampoorna Kranti) in the mid-1970s against the government of Indira Gandhi.
• Lal Bahadur Shastri: He was the second Prime Minister of India (1964–1966). He led the country during the Indo-Pakistan War of 1965 and gave the iconic slogan 'Jai Jawan Jai Kisan'. He was posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna.
• Chronology of Governance: Following the adoption of the Constitution on January 26, 1950, Dr. Rajendra Prasad became the first President of India, effectively ending the era of Governors-General.

The correct answer is PRANA.

Key Points

• PRANA, which stands for Portal for Regulation of Air-pollution in Non-Attainment cities, was launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
• The portal was officially inaugurated on September 7, 2021, by the Union Minister Bhupender Yadav to mark the International Day of Clean Air for Blue Skies.
• It was developed under the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) to monitor the progress of air pollution control activities in 132 non-attainment cities across India.
• The portal facilitates real-time monitoring of the implementation status of city-specific action plans and tracks both physical and financial progress under the NCAP framework.
• PRANA provides a transparent platform for the public and stakeholders to access air quality data and updates regarding government initiatives to reduce pollution levels.

Additional Information

• National Clean Air Programme (NCAP):
• Launched in January 2019, it is a comprehensive strategy to tackle air pollution at the national level.
• The primary goal was to achieve a 20% to 30% reduction in Particulate Matter (PM10 and PM2.5) concentrations by 2024, with 2017 as the base year. This target has since been updated to a 40% reduction by 2026.
• It targets 132 non-attainment cities that consistently failed to meet the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) over a period of 5 years.
• SAFAR (System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting And Research):
• It is a real-time air quality monitoring system developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune, and operated by the India Meteorological Department (IMD).
• It provides location-specific information on air quality and weather in major metropolitan cities like Delhi, Mumbai, Pune, and Ahmedabad.
• UMANG (Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance):
• A mobile application developed by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and National e-Governance Division (NeGD).
• It provides a single platform for Indian citizens to access various pan-India e-Gov services ranging from central to local government bodies.

Important Points

• Pollutants Monitored: The NCAP and PRANA portal focus on reducing major pollutants including PM10, PM2.5, SO2, and NO2 to improve overall public health.
• Implementing Agency: The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) serves as the nodal agency at the central level for the coordination and implementation of the National Clean Air Programme.
• Funding and Support: The program receives financial support from the Fifteenth Finance Commission and the MoEFCC to strengthen the monitoring network and implement city-specific mitigation measures.
• Non-Attainment Cities: These are identified based on ambient air quality data obtained under the National Air Quality Monitoring Programme (NAMP) between 2011 and 2015.

The correct answer is Subhas Chandra Bose.

Key Points

• The All India Forward Bloc was a left-wing nationalist political party in India that emerged as a faction within the Indian National Congress in 1939.
• It was founded by Subhas Chandra Bose on 3 May 1939, following his resignation from the presidency of the Indian National Congress at the Tripuri Session. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The primary objective behind the formation of the Forward Bloc was to bring all the radical and left-wing elements of the Congress party under one banner to struggle for complete independence with a socialist vision.
• Subhas Chandra Bose felt that the Congress leadership was becoming too hesitant and was not preparing for a mass struggle against the British as the Second World War approached.
• The first All India Conference of the Forward Bloc was held in Nagpur in June 1940, where the party declared itself as a socialist political party and demanded the immediate formation of a National Government.

Additional Information

• Subhas Chandra Bose:
• Affectionately known as Netaji, he was born on 23 January 1897 in Cuttack, Odisha.
• He passed the Indian Civil Service (ICS) examination in 1920 but resigned in 1921 to join the nationalist movement.
• He was elected the President of the Haripura Session in 1938 and the Tripuri Session in 1939.
• He later led the Indian National Army (Azad Hind Fauj) and established the Provisional Government of Free India in Singapore in 1943.
• Mahatma Gandhi:
• The Father of the Nation, he led major movements like Non-Cooperation (1920), Civil Disobedience (1930), and Quit India (1942).
• He opposed the Forward Bloc's militant approach, preferring the path of Ahimsa (Non-violence) and Satyagraha.
• Jawaharlal Nehru:
• The first Prime Minister of independent India and a close associate of Bose in the early years, though they later differed on tactical approaches.
• He presided over the Lahore Session (1929) where Purna Swaraj was declared.
• Bhagat Singh:
• A charismatic revolutionary who founded the Naujawan Bharat Sabha in 1926 and was a key member of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA).
• He was executed on 23 March 1931, long before the Forward Bloc was established.

Important Points

• The Forward Bloc was declared illegal by the British government in June 1942 following the outbreak of the Quit India Movement.
• The party played a significant role in organizing peasant movements and labour unions across India, particularly in Bengal and Bihar.
• Prominent leaders associated with the party besides Bose included Sheel Bhadra Yaajee, Sardul Singh Caveeshar, and Hemantha Kumar Bose.