UKPSC Combined Upper Subordinate Service 2021 Preliminary Exam (General Studies) Official Paper-I (Held On: 03 April 2022) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Guyana.

Key Points

Guyana

• A country on South America’s North Atlantic coast is defined by its dense rainforest.
• It's culturally connected to the Caribbean region.
• Its Capital, Georgetown, is known for British colonial architecture, including the tall, painted-timber St. George’s Anglican Cathedral.

Additional Information

Gabon

• A country along the Atlantic coast of Central Africa has significant areas of protected parkland.
• The forested coastal terrain of its famed Loango National Park shelters a diversity of wildlife, from gorillas and hippos to whales..

Guinea

• A country in West Africa, bordered on the west by the Atlantic Ocean.
• It's known for the Mount Nimba Strict Nature Reserve, in the southeast.
• The reserve protects a forested mountain range rich in native plants and animals, including chimpanzees and the viviparous toad.
• On the coast, the Capital City, Conakry, is home to the modern Grand Mosque and the National Museum, with its regional artefacts.

Guinea-Bissau

• A tropical country on West Africa’s Atlantic coast that’s known for its national parks and wildlife.
• The forested, sparsely populated Bijagós archipelago is a protected biosphere reserve.
• On the mainland, the capital, Bissau, is a port with Portuguese colonial buildings in its old city center.

The correct answer is Andes mountain range.

Key Points

Andes:

• It is a mountain range in South America.
• It is the longest mountain range in the world.
• The highest peak is Mount Aconcagua (6,962 m) (volcanic origin, but now it’s dormant).
• The world’s highest volcanoes are in the Andes.
• The Andes Mountains line the western edge of South America, from Venezuela all the way along Chile to South America’s southern tip (about 9,000 km in all), making them the longest mountain range in the world.
• Along that route, they cross through Ecuador, Peru, and Bolivia.
• By width, they cross into Argentina, which borders Chile.

​

Additional Information

Rocky Mountains:

• The Rocky Mountains are huge mountain ranges that extend from Canada to central New Mexico.
• They took shape during a period of intense plate tectonic activity about 170 to 40 million years ago.
• The Rocky Mountains are the largest mountain range in North America, stretching for 2,982 miles (4,799 km).

The Himalayan Mountains

• The Himalayas are geologically young and structurally fold mountains.
• These mountain ranges run in a west-east direction from the Indus to the Brahmaputra.
• They form an arc, which covers a distance of about 2,400 Km.
• The northernmost range is known as the Great or Inner Himalayas or the Himadri, lesser Himalayas, and Shivalik.

​The Alps:

• These are the highest and most extensive mountain range system that lies entirely in Europe.
• Stretching approximately 1,200 km across eight Alpine countries (from west to east)
• The mountains were formed over tens of millions of years as the African and Eurasian tectonic plates collided.
• Mont Blanc spans the French–Italian border, and at 4,809 m (15,778 ft) is the highest mountain in the Alps.
• The altitude and size of the range affect the climate in Europe; in the mountains, precipitation levels vary greatly and climatic conditions consist of distinct zones.

The correct answer is Nilgiri hills.

Key Points

Nilgiri Hills 

• Found where the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats meet.
• The Nilgiri Mountains form part of the Western Ghats in western Tamil Nadu of Southern India.
• The highest peak is Doddabetta at 2,637 metres (8,652 ft).
• The Nilgiri Hills are part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
• The highest waterfall, Kolakambai Fall, north of Kolakambai hill, has an unbroken fall of 400 ft (120 m).

Additional Information

Cardamom Hills: 

• The Cardamom Hills are a mountain range of southern India and part of the southern Western Ghats located in southeast Kerala and southwest Tamil Nadu in India.

Anaimalai Hills: 

• The range of mountains that forms the southern portion of the Western Ghats and span the border of Tamil Nadu and Kerala in Southern India.

Sahyadri Hills:

• The Eastern Ghats are a discontinuous range of mountains along India's eastern coast.
• Western Ghats also known as Sahyadri is a mountain range that runs parallel to the western coast of the Indian peninsula.

The correct answer is Banguela

Key Points

Benguela Current:

• Benguela Current, is the oceanic current that is a branch of the West Wind Drift of the Southern Hemisphere.
• It flows northward in the South Atlantic Ocean along the west coast of southern Africa nearly to the Equator.
• Merging with the westward-flowing Atlantic South Equatorial Current.

Additional Information

The Gulf Stream:

• It is a powerful current in the North Atlantic Ocean. The Gulf Stream is an intense warm ocean current.
• The Gulf Stream is the western boundary current of the N. Atlantic subtropical gyre.
• The Gulf Stream transports a significant amount of warm water (heat) poleward.
• The Gulf Stream originates in the Gulf of Mexico and stretches to the tip of Florida.

The Norwegian Current:

• It is one of two dominant Arctic inflows of water.
• It can be traced from near Shetland, north of Scotland, otherwise from the eastern North Sea at depths of up to 100 metres.
• It finally passes the Opening into the Barents Sea, a large outcrop of the Arctic Ocean.

Florida Current:

• It is a thermal ocean current that flows from the Straits of Florida around the Florida Peninsula in the North Atlantic Ocean.
• And then along the southeastern coast of the United States before joining the Gulf Stream Current near Cape Hatteras.
• Its contributing currents are the Loop Current and the Antilles Current.

The correct answer is New Guinea.

Key Points

New Guinea

• It is the world's second-largest island with an area of 785,753 km².
• Located in Oceania in the southwestern Pacific Ocean, the island is separated from Australia by the 150-kilometre-wide Torres Strait, though both landmasses lie on the same continental shelf.
• The largest island is Greenland.
• Greenland has an area of 2,166,086 square km.
• New Guinea is the second-largest island in the world.
• Madagascar is the Largest Island in Africa and the oldest geological island on Earth.

Borneo

• A giant, rugged island in Southeast Asia’s Malay Archipelago, is shared by the Malaysian states of Sabah and Sarawak, Indonesian Kalimantan and the tiny nation of Brunei.
• It’s known for its beaches and ancient, biodiverse rainforest, home to wildlife including orangutans and clouded leopards.

Sumatra

• A large Indonesian island west of Java and south of the Malay Peninsula is known for its rugged tropical terrain, wildlife and smouldering volcanoes.
• To the north, the city of Banda Aceh, which was devastated by the 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami, has a museum commemorating the disaster.

The correct asnwer is Bora - Siberia.

Key Points

Bora:

• A northerly to north-easterly katabatic wind in areas near the Adriatic Sea (bordering Italy). Hence, option 2 is incorrectly matched.
• Similar nomenclature is used for north-eastern winds in other littoral areas of eastern Mediterranean and Black Sea basins.
• Bora is mainly caused by a temperature difference between the air above the land and the sea surface temperature.
• The bora increases when the air becomes colder and consequently denser at night.

Foehn 

• Foehn is strong, dusty, dry and warm local wind which develops on the leeward side of the Alps mountain ranges. Hence, option 1 is correctly matched.
• The temperature of the winds varies from 15°C to 20°C which helps in melting snow. Thus making pasture land ready for animal grazing and helping the grapes to ripe early.

Mistral:

• Italian maestrale, Cold and Dry Strong Wind in southern France that blows down from the north along the lower Rhône River valley toward the Mediterranean Sea.  Hence, option 3 is correctly matched.

Khamsin:

• Chamsin or Hamsin more commonly known in Egypt as Khamaseen (listen)), is a dry, hot, sandy local wind affecting Egypt.  Hence, option 4 is correctly matched.
• Similar winds, blowing in other parts of North Africa, the Arabian Peninsula and the entire Mediterranean basin.

Important Points

Siberia:

• A vast Russian province encompassing most of Northern Asia, with terrain spanning tundra, coniferous forest and mountain ranges including the Ural, Altai and Verkhoyansk.

The correct answer is Amazon.

Key Points

The Amazon River:

• Amazon River in South America is the largest river by discharge volume of water in the world.
• The second longest river in the world in comparison to the Nile.
• The Amazon river originates in the Andes Mountains of Peru.
• It flows through the countries of Peru, Bolivia, Venezuela, Colombia, Ecuador, and Brazil.
• Amazon river discharges its water into the Atlantic Ocean.
• There are no bridges across the entire width of the Amazon river.​

​

Additional Information

The Nile:

• It is a major north-flowing river in northeastern Africa. It flows into the Mediterranean Sea.
• The Nile is the longest river in Africa and has historically been considered the longest river in the world.

The Mississippi River:

• It is the second-longest river and chief river of the second-largest drainage system on the North American continent.

The Yangtze:

• Yangzi, known as the Chang Jiang, is the longest river in Asia, the third-longest in the world
• The longest in the world to flow entirely within one country.
• It rises at Jari Hill in the Tanggula Mountains and flows 6,300 km in a generally easterly direction to the East China Sea.

The correct answer is Dolomite.

Key Points

Dolomite is a sedimentary carbonate rock.

Metamorphic Rocks

• Metamorphic rocks are rocks that have been changed from their original form by immense heat or pressure.
• They are formed when physical and chemical changes occur to igneous, sedimentary, or other metamorphic rocks.
• Metamorphic rocks are almost always harder than sedimentary rocks.
• They are generally as hard and sometimes harder than igneous rocks.
• They form the roots of many mountain chains and are exposed to the surface after the softer outer layers of rocks are eroded away.

Foliated metamorphic rocks:

• These rocks are produced by exposure to heat and pressure which makes them appear layered.
• Phyllite and gneiss are examples of foliated metamorphic rocks.

Non-foliated metamorphic rocks: 

• These rocks don’t have layers.
• Marble and quartzite are examples of non-foliated metamorphic rocks.

Examples of Metamorphic Rocks : gneiss, quartzite, marble, schist, soapstone, and phyllite

Additional Information 

• Igneous rocks are formed from solidified magma or lava.
• Magma is thought to be generated within the layer of partially molten rock underlying Earth’s crust at a depth below about 60 kilometers (40 miles).
• Lava is liquid magma on the Earth’s surface, and the solidified rock is formed by cooled lava.
• Some examples of igneous rocks are Granite, gabbro, basalt, etc.

Sedimentary rocks 

• They are formed from deposited and lithified mineral material.
• Fossils are generally found in sedimentary rock. Among the three major types of rock.
• Fossils are most commonly found in sedimentary rock.
• Mechanically formed — sandstone, conglomerate, limestone, shale, loess, etc. are examples;
• Organically formed — geyserite, chalk, limestone, coal, etc.
• Chemically formed —chert, limestone, halite, potash, etc.

The correct answer is Malwa.

The Malwa plateau lies between Aravali and Vindhya ranges.

Key Points

Malwa Plateau 

• The Malwa Plateau basically refers to the volcanic upland north of the Vindhya Range.
• Plateau region in north-central India.
• It is bounded by the Madhya Bharat Plateau and Bundelkhand Upland to the north.
• The Vindhya Range to the east and south, and the Gujarat Plains to the west.
• The Malwa Plateau ranges in elevation from about 1,650 to 2,000 feet (500 to 600 meters)
• The western part of the region is drained by the Mahi River.
• The middle section by the Chambal River, and the eastern part by the Betwa River and the headwaters of the Dhasan and Ken rivers.
• Vegetation is of the Savanna Type with Scattered Teak and Sal (Shorea robusta) forests.

Hence, it is clear that the Malwa Plateau is lies between the Aravali and Vindhyan ranges.

The correct answer is Cuba.

• Cuba is called the ‘Sugar Bowl of the World’.

Key Points

• Cuba: 
• It has the largest sugar industry which is now decaying and its position is now taken up by Brazil followed by India.
• It is an island in the Caribbean region.
• The Cuban sugar economy is the principal agricultural economy in Cuba.
• Until 1960 Cuba was the largest Sugar Exporter in the world hence, the name Sugar Bowl of the World.
• But in the year 2017-18 Year Brazil started its lead in Sugar production which was about 38.9 million metric tons.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Ravi.

Key Points

River Sutlej

• Originates from Rakshastal Lake.
• Tributaries of Sutlej : Spiti, Beas ,the Ropa, the Taiti, the Kashang, the Mulgaon, the Yula, the Wanger, the Throng and the Rupi as Right Bank Tributaries
• Whereas the Tirung, the Gayathing, the Baspa, the Duling and the Soldang are Left Bank Tributaries.
• Rakshastal Lake is located near Lake Manasarovar and Mount Kailash.
• Sutlej River is also known as Shatadru (Ancient name).
• River Sutlej is one of the major tributaries of Indus.
• Only tributary of Indus which originates from Tibet.
• Sutlej River enters India through Shipki La pass.
• The Bhakra-Nangal Dam is constructed across the Sutlej river.
• The Indira Gandhi canal is situated on the Sutlej river.

Additional Information​

• Source of some other important Rivers of India:​
• Brahmaputra - Kailash Mountain
• Indus River - Kailash Mountain
• Jhelum - Sheshnag Lake (Jammu and Kashmir)
• Chenab - Bara-la-cha Pass
• Ganga - Gangotri
• Narmada - Maikal Hills
• Son - MaikalHills

The correct answer is Koppen.

Key Points

• Koppen Climate Classification
• It was developed by German-Russian botanist - Wladimir Koppen.
• There are 29 various types of climate system according to his classification.
• He designated letters and combination of letters to each type of climate.

Additional Information 

• Thornthwaite climate classification
• It was described by  American climatologist Charles Warren Thornthwaite (1889–1963).
• According to this, vegetation was determined by Precipitation Effectiveness.
• Moisture Index was also included in this in the year 1948.
• Trewartha climate classification
• It was given by Glenn Thomas Trewartha.
• He tried to redefine the middle latitudes to be closer to vegetation zoning.
• He recognised only limited number of climate types - A, C, D, E, F and B (Dry).
• Stamp's Climate Classification of India
• Stamp uses temperature, topography, and rainfall variables to classify Indian climate.
• He uses 18oC isotherm of mean monthly temperature for January to divide India into 2 climatic regions - Temperate in north and tropical in the south.

The correct answer is Ionosphere. 

Key Points

• The atmosphere is a thick envelope of gases that surrounds the Earthbound by the force of gravity.
• It is the source of oxygen, carbon dioxide and other gases essential for life.
• It acts like a greenhouse and keeps Earth warmer and maintains an average temperature of 15⁰C throughout the surface.
• The atmosphere is classified into 2 zones on the basis of chemical composition.

Thus, the atmospheric layer not included in the homosphere is the Ionosphere.

The correct answer is Mica.

Key Points

Kodarma:

• The mica mines of the Kodarma area in the Hazaribagh district of Jharkhand contribute as a single unit the largest quantity of muscovite (locally known as “Ruby mica”) to the world.
• Koderma district is richly endowed with natural resources. Quartz, feldspar, asbestos, bluestone, white stone, and moonstone are the minerals found here.

Mica Reserve of India.

• Andhra Pradesh (41 percent)
• Rajasthan (21 percent)
• Odisha (20 percent)

The correct answer is Jamshedpur.

Key Points

• ​Jamshedpur is known as Pittsburgh of India
• Pittsburgh is an important steel city in the United States of America, and Jamshedpur is an important steel city of India.
• TISCO was started in 1907 at Sakchi (renamed Jamshedpur).

Additional Information:

• Ahmedabad is referred to as the 'Manchester of India' earlier Kanpur known as Manchester of India.
• Bangalore is referred to as the Silicon Valley of India.
• Silicon Valley is in Central California, famous for the Information technology industry.

The correct answer is Betwa.

Key Points 

• Mata Tila Dam is located in the Lalitpur district in Uttar Pradesh.
• Mata Tila Dam was built in 1958.
• It was built on the Betwa River.
• The dam has the capacity to generate about 45 MW of power.
• The maximum storage capacity of the dam is 1132 mcm.

Additional Information 

• The Sardar Sarovar dam is built on the Narmada river.
• The Ukai Dam is built on the Tapti River.
• The Gangau Dam is built on the Ken river(confluence of the Ken and Simri rivers).
• Important dams in Uttar Pradesh are:
• Dhanraul Dam.
• Dhurwara Dam.
• Parichha Dam.
• Rajghat Dam.
• Rihand Dam.

The correct answer is Guna.

Key Points

• Guna does not have which of the following gas pumping station
• The Hazira-Vijaipur-Jagdishpur (HVJ) pipeline  is India's first cross-state gas pipeline.
• The project began in 1986, with the formation of GAIL (India) Limited, with the goal of supplying gas to fertiliser facilities in Uttar Pradesh.
• The project's first phase, consisting of a 1,750-kilometer non-branched grid, was completed in 1987.
• The addition of new branches to supply gas for industrial and home usage across Rajasthan, Haryana, and the National Capital Territory, brings the overall grid length to 3,474 kilometers.
• Indraprastha Gas Limited, a newly formed company, gained control of the Delhi branch of the pipeline in 1998 in order to construct a citywide gas system.
• It has branches in Rajasthan's Kota, Uttar Pradesh's Shahajahanpur, Babrala, and other cities like Aonla, Auraiya.

​

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

• The Sex Ratio is the ratio of Males to Females in a population.
• The Sex ratio of India is 943 according to the 2011 census.

Key Points

 Tamil Nadu

• The state ranks third in the sex ratio as per the 2011 Census.
• It has 996 females to 1000 males.
• Chennai is the capital of the state.
• One of the classical languages, Tamil, is widely spoken in the state.
• Tamil Nadu is the largest producer of bananas and turmeric.

Confusion Points

• Kerela has the highest sex ratio as per the current census(1084)
• But the question is on which of the following states hence from the given option the correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

The correct answer is Tilanchong.

Key Points

• The Laccadive or Cannanore Islands are one of the three island subgroups in the Union Territory of Lakshadweep.
• Tilanchong is not part of the Laccadive island, it is part of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
• It is the central subgroup of the Lakshadweep, separated from the Amindivi Islands subgroup roughly by the 11^th parallel north and from the atoll of Minicoy (Maliku)—far to the south—by the 9 Degree or Mamala Channel.
• Formerly the Union Territory of Lakshadweep was known as Laccadive, Minicoy, and Amindivi Islands,a name that was changed to Lakshadweep by an act of Parliament in 1973.
• The name originated in the fact that while the northern group of Amindivi had stopped in 1784 being a vassal state of the Kannur Kingdom (Arakkal) in exchange for fealty to Tippu Sultan's Kingdom of Mysore, the southern group remained loyal to Kannur.

The correct answer is Cwg.

Key Points

• Cwg Climate
• This type of climate is found in most parts of the Northern Ganga Plains.
• In this type of climate, the summer temperature rises to 40°C which falls to 27°C in winter. Most of the rainfall occurs in summer and winter is dry.
• Cwg type climate is also known as 'Monsoon type with dry winters' type climate.

Additional Information​

• Koppen divided India into nine climatic regions
• Amw - Monsoon type with the short dry winter season.
• As - Monsoon type with the dry season in high sun period
• Aw - Tropical Savanah type
• BShw - Semi-arid steppe type
• BWhw - Hot desert type
• Cwg - Monsoon type with dry winters
• Dfc - Cold, Humid winters type with shorter summer
• Et - Tundra type
• E - Polar type

The correct answer is 05.

• 3 districts of Uttarakhand, Pithoragarh, Champawat, and Udhamsingh Nagar, share their border with Nepal.
• 3 districts Pithoragarh, Chamoli, and Uttarkashi share the international border of Tibet (China).
• Pithoragarh shares a border with both Nepal and Tibet.

Key Points

Uttarakhand

• The total Area of the state of Uttarakhand is 53,483 km² which is about 1.69% of the total area of the country.
• 86.07% of the total area of the state (46035 km²) is mountainous and 13.93% of the area (7448 sq km) is plain.
• Uttarakhand has Nepal in the east, Himachal Pradesh in the west, Himalayas and Tibet in the north, and Uttar Pradesh in the south.
• 3 districts of Uttarakhand, Pithoragarh, Champawat, and Udhamsingh Nagar, share their border with Nepal.
• And 3 districts Pithoragarh, Chamoli, and Uttarkashi share the international border of Tibet (China).
• 5 districts Udham Singh Nagar, Nainital, Dehradun, Pauri Garhwal, and Haridwar share the Uttar Pradesh border,

           and 2 districts Dehradun and Uttarkashi touch the border of Himachal Pradesh.

• Pithoragarh, the easternmost district of Uttarakhand state, Western District Dehradun, The northern district is Uttarkashi

         and the southern district is Udham Singh Nagar.

• The border of the Pauri district touches 7 districts of the state, Which include Nainital, Almora, Chamoli, Rudraprayag,

          Tehri, Dehradun, and Haridwar.

• Pithoragarh is the district with the longest international border.​

The correct answer is Pauri Garhwal and Almora

Key Points

• Pauri Garhwal(-1.41 %) and Almora districts(-1.28 %) recorded negative population growth during 2001-2011 as per the Census of India, 2011.
• The rank of Uttarakhand in India in terms of population density as per the census 2011 is 26^th.
• The population density of Uttarakhand as per the Census 2011 is 189/ km2 (490/sq mi).

Population density

• It is the number of people per unit of area, usually quoted per square kilometre or square mile.
• The population density of Uttarakhand as per the Census 2001 was 159/km2.
• The population density (Acc to 2011) of India state that the density in 2011 has been increased from a figure of 324 to that of 382 per square kilometre.
• Population density increased at the rate of 17.54 from 2001 to 2011 in India.

The correct answer is Source region of Tons river.

Key Points

​Govind National Park

• It is located in the Uttarkashi district of the state of Uttarakhand. The park lies in the higher reaches of the Garhwal Himalayas.
• The park was established as a Wildlife Sanctuary in the year of 1955. It was declared as a National Park in the year of 1990.
• Fauna includes the Snow Leopard, Brown Bear, Musk Deer, Western Tragopan, etc.
• Within the park is the Har-ki-dun valley which is a known spot for trekking, while the Ruinsara high-altitude lake is also popular as a tourist destination.
• The park creates an upper water catchment of River Tons.
• Tons river is a significant tributary of Yamuna River and reaches the upper stretches of Garhwal.

​

The correct answer is Roorkee.

Key Points

• State Infrastructure & Industrial Development Corporation Uttarakhand Ltd., SIDCUL:
• It is a Government of Uttarakhand Enterprise.
• It is located in Dehradun, Uttarakhand.
• It was organized as a Limited Company in the year 2002.
• The primary objective of SIDCUL is to provide overall industrial development of the state by developing the necessary infrastructure and industries in the state of Uttarakhand directly or through special purpose vehicles, investments assisted companies, etc.

Selaqui, Sitarganj, and Haridwar are related where as Roorkee is not related.

The correct answer is Sub-Tropical Forests.

Key Points

Sub-Tropical Forests

• These forests are found only around Mount Abu.
• These dense forests are green throughout the year.
• The area of ​​these forests is only 0.4 per cent.
• Mango, Dhak, Jamun, Siris, Amberrati, Bell and Khair trees are found in these forests.

Additional Information

Cool Temperate Forest & Woodland:

• Includes temperate deciduous forest and woodland, temperate needle-leaved forest and woodland,

          and temperate rainforest. These forests are dominated by broad-leaved or needle-leaved tree growth forms.

Subalpine forests

• Subalpine forests are disturbance driven, with a mean disturbance return interval of 150 to 350 years.
• Although fire is the most important form of natural disturbance in these forests, wind, insects, disease,

           ungulate browsing, avalanches, landslides, extreme weather, and volcanism also play a role.

Temperate forest

• Temperate forest, vegetation type with a more or less continuous canopy of broad-leaved trees.
• Such forests occur between approximately 25° and 50° latitude in both hemispheres.

The correct answer is Six.

• If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within six months from the date of dissolution.

Key Points 

Duration of Panchayati Raj

• The Act provides for a five-year term of office to all the levels of the panchayat.
• However, the panchayat can be dissolved before the completion of its term.
• But fresh elections to constitute the new panchayat should be completed before the expiry of its five-year duration.
• In case of dissolution, the election should be within a period of six months from the date of its dissolution.

Additional Information 

• The term Panchayati Raj in India signifies the system of rural local self-government.
• It had been established after the advice of the Balwant Rai Mehta committee, which is established by the Govt. of India in 1957.
• This committee has three-tier panchayat governance such as Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, and Zila Parishad.
• As a result of this scheme the first Panchayat system introduced in Rajasthan in 1959.

Ashok Mehta committee -1977

• It gives a two-tier governance plan in 1977.
• The two-tier plan was Zila Parishad and Mandal Panchayat.

 73^rd and 74^th Constitutional Amendment,1992

• It brought back the three-tier system again.
• This amendment added a new part to the Constitution, namely, added Part IX titled The Panchayats.
• This amendment adds a Three-tier system of panchayats at the village, intermediate Mandal, and district levels except in States with a population is below 20 lakhs (Article 243B)
• The Panchayat is constituted under Article 243 to 243 (O)

The correct answer is 10^th Schedule.

Key Points

• The Tenth Schedule popularly known as the Anti-Defection Act
• It was included in the Constitution via the 52^nd Amendment Act, 1985 and sets the provisions for disqualification of elected members on the grounds of defection to another political party.
• The anti-defection law was enacted during the Rajiv Gandhi government in 1985. Parliament added it to the constitution in the year 1985.
• According to 91^st CAA, 2003, at least two-thirds of the members of a party have to be in favour of a "merger" for it to have validity in the eyes of the law.
• The Speaker or the Chairman of the respective Legislative house decide on disqualification arising out of defection.

Additional Information

• Disqualification on the ground of defection
• ​if he has voluntarily given up his membership of such a political party.
• if he votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any direction issued by the political party to which he belongs.
• Disqualification on the ground of defection is not to apply in case of a merger
• ​A member of a House shall not be disqualified where his original political party merges with another political party.

Let's look at some schedules:

The correct answer is 15.

Key Points 

Public Accounts Committee:

• Public Accounts Committee was founded in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919.
• Currently, it has 22 members, out of which 15 are from Lok Sabha and the other 7 members are from Rajya Sabha.
• The Chairman of the committee until 1966-67 belonged to the ruling party.
• However, a convention has developed since 1967 whereby the Chairman of the committee is Elected from the Opposition.
• The tenure of its chairman and members is one year.

Additional Information 

• The Committee on Public Accounts is the oldest Parliamentary Committee.
• The Speaker is empowered to appoint the Chairman of the Committee from amongst its Members.
• The Committee on Public Accounts scrutinizes the Appropriation Accounts of the Government of India and the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India thereon. While doing so,  it is the duty of the Committee to satisfy itself-
• that the money shown in the accounts as having been disbursed were legally available for, and applicable to, the service or purpose to which have been applied or charged.
• that the expenditure conforms to the authority which governs it.
• that every re-appropriation has been made in accordance with the provisions made on this behalf under rules framed by the competent authority.

The correct answer is Lahore Session 1929.

Key Points

• The Purna Swaraj declaration was promulgated by the Indian National Congress on 19 December 1929 in its Lahore session under the Presidentship of Jawaharlal Nehru.
• The Declaration was passed due to the breakdown of negotiations between leaders of the freedom movement and the British over the question of dominion status for India.
• In the Calcutta Session of Congress in 1906, Dadabhai Naoroji had placed Swaraj as a national demand.
• It was the first time that the demand for self-government or swaraj, like that of the UK and other colonies, was raised from the platform of the Congress.

The correct answer is 24 January, 1950.

Key Points

• Jana Gana Mana ” is the national anthem of India.
• It was first sung in the Calcutta Session of the Indian National Congress on 27 December 1911.
• “Jana Gana Mana” was officially adopted by the Constituent Assembly as the Indian national anthem on 24 January 1950.
• Written in highly Sanskritised (Tatsama) Bengali, it is the first of five stanzas of a Brahmo hymn composed by Nobel laureate Rabindranath Tagore.
• 27 December 2011 marked the completion of 100 years of Jana Gana Mana since it was sung for the first time.

Additional Information 

• The original poem written by Rabindranath Tagore was translated into Hindi by Abid Ali.

The correct answer is Justice Rangnath Mishra.

Key Points

• Ranganath Mishra (25 November 1926 – 13 September 2012) was the 21^st Chief Justice of India, serving from 25 September 1990 to 24 November 1991.
• He was also the first chairman of the National Human Rights Commission of India.
• He also served as a Member of Parliament in Rajya Sabha from the Congress Party between 1998 and 2004.
• He is the Second Supreme Court Judge to become a Rajya Sabha member after Baharul Islam who was also elected as an Indian National Congress member.

The correct answer is Girish Chandra Murmu.

Key Points

• Girish Chandra Murmu has been appointed as the first Lieutenant Governor of Jammu-Kashmir
• He is a 1985-batch Indian Administrative Services (IAS) officer from the Gujarat cadre.
• He was on the post of Expenditure Secretary in the Finance Ministry.
• Girish Chandra Murmu was principal secretary to Prime Minister Narendra Modi during his tenure as Gujarat Chief Minister.
• Jammu & Kashmir State has divided into two Union Territories- Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh on October 31, 2019.
• The Central Government has withdrawn the State's autonomy in August 2019.

The correct answer is Defense Minister of India.

Key Points 

 Chief of Defense Staff (CDS)

• Chief of Defense Staff (CDS) of the Indian Armed Forces ('CDS) is the military head and permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee (PC-CoSC) of the Indian Armed Forces.
• The CDS is a four-star General/Officer who acts as the Principal Military Advisor to the Defence Minister on all tri-services (Army, Navy and Indian Air Force) matters.
• The first Chief of Defence Staff took office on 1 January 2020.
• The position was created with the aim of improving coordination, tri-service effectiveness and overall integration of the combat capabilities of the Indian armed forces.
• In a significant defence policy reform notified on April 18, 2018, the government revamped the existing defence planning system by establishing a Defence Planning Committee (DPC) under the chairmanship of the National Security Adviser (NSA).
• The Chief of Defence Staff is the highest-ranking uniformed officer on active duty in the Indian Military.
• The CDS also Heads the Department of Military Affairs.
• The CDS is assisted by a deputy, vice-chief, and the Chief of Integrated Defence Staff.
• This new institutional mechanism, set up as a permanent body, is intended to “facilitate a comprehensive and integrated planning for defence matters” – a vital ingredient in defence preparedness, which was conspicuously missing in the mechanism set up in the early 2000s in the wake of the Kargil conflict.

The correct answer is 1919.

Key Points

International Labour Organization (ILO) - 1919

• A specialized agency of the United Nations (UN) dedicated to improving labour conditions and living standards throughout the world.
• Established by the Treaty of Versailles, the ILO became the first affiliated specialized agency of the United Nations in 1946.
• ILO was awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace in 1969.
• The Functions of the ILO include the development and promotion of standards for national legislation to protect and improve working conditions and standards of living.
• The ILO also provides technical assistance in social policy and administration and in workforce training; compiles labour statistics and conducts research on the social problems of international competition, unemployment and underemployment; and helps to protect the rights of international migrants and organized labour

The correct answer is Legal Right.

• In 1978, the 44^th Amendment Act of 1978 of the constitution of India removed the right to property from the fundamental rights                                                           and a new article, 300 A was created defining the right to property as a legal right.

Key Points

• According to the Right to Property, a citizen can hold, acquire and dispose of any land or property.
• It is one of the valuable constitutional rights of a citizen.
• Initially, the Right to Property was a Fundamental Right of a citizen to acquire, possess and maintain a property.
• Later, the government stated that the property could be taken by the government for public welfare.
• Article 300A states that "no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law".
• The government cannot forcibly acquire any property without any legal procedure.
• The Right to Property gives an individual the opportunity to hold it, sell it and rent it.

Thus, it is clear that the Right to property is now a legal right.

The correct answer is the Home Minister of India.

Key Points

 Zonal Councils

• They are the Statutory (and not the Constitutional) Bodies.
• Established by the States Reorganisation Act of 1956.
• The act divided the country into five zones (Northern, Central, Eastern, Western, and Southern) and provided a zonal council for each zone.
• Each zonal council consists of the following members:
• the Home Minister of the Central government.
• Chief Ministers of all the States in the zone.
• Two other ministers from each state in the zone.
• The Administrator of each union territory in the zone.
• The central government Home Minister is the Common chairman of the Five Zonal Councils.
• Each Chief Minister acts as a Vice-Chairman of the council by rotation, holding office for a period of one year at a time.

The correct answer is A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1.

Key Points

• The Rajya Sabha or the Upper House of the bicameral Parliament of India has a maximum capacity of 250 members.
• Out of the capacity of 250 members, 238 are elected and 12 members are appointed by the President.
• The Vice President of India is the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha, who presides over the sessions.

The correct answer is 1986. 

Key Points

• ​The Second summit of SAARC was held in Bangalore, India in 1986.
• It was the first SAARC Summit in India.
• The outcome of the 1986 meeting:
• The Heads of State or Government welcomed the signing of MoU on the establishment of the SAARC Secretariat by the Council of Ministers and their decision to locate the Secretariat in Kathmandu.
• The first Secretary-General: Abul Ahsan of Bangladesh.
• Other meets in India:
• ​The Eighth Summit was held in New Delhi - May 1995.
• The Fourteenth Summit was held in New Delhi -  April 2007.

Additional Information

• South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation (SAARC) was established in December 1985 and its first summit was held in Dhaka, Bangladesh only in the year 1985.
• SAARC comprises eight Member States: Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
• Afghanistan was included in SAARC as the 8^th country in the year 2007.
• The Headquarters of SAARC is located in Kathmandu (Nepal).

The correct answer is The 102^nd Constitutional Amendment.

• 102^nd Constitutional Amendment, 2018 provides Constitutional status to National Commission for Backward Classes.
• Article 338B of the Indian Constitution deals with National Commission for Backward Classes.

Key Points 

National Commission for Backward Classes

• It was established under the National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993 on 14^th August 1993.
• National Commission for Backward Classes comprises of Chairman and 4 members.
• The Chairman of the National Commission for Backward Classes must be the Judge of the Supreme court or the High Court.
• The term of office of Chairman and Member is 3 years.
• The Chairman and other Members of the commission are appointed by the President of India.
• They may be Removed or Resigns by/to the President
• The First Chairman of the National Backward Commission was RN Prasad.
• The Current Chairman of the commission is Bhagwanlal Sahni.

​Additional Information:

• Article 338 of the Indian Constitution deals with National Commission for Scheduled Castes.
• Article 338A of the Indian Constitution deals with National Commission for Scheduled Tribes.

The correct answer is 6 years.

The Tenure of a member of the State Legislative Council is 6 years. 

Key Points 

• India has a Bicameral system of Legislature.
• Article 169 of the Indian Constitution provides the provisions for the creation and abolition of the Legislative council in states.
• The Legislative Council of a state shall not have more than one-third of the total strength of the State Assembly, and not less than 40 members, as per Article 171 of the Indian Constitution.
• Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra and Karnataka have Legislative Councils.
• Manner of election of members of Legislative Council-
• One-third of the MLCs are elected by the state’s MLAs.
• One-third by a special electorate comprising sitting members of local governments such as municipalities and district boards.
• One-Twelfth by an electorate of teachers and another 1/12^th by registered graduates.
• The remaining members are appointed by the Governor for distinguished services in various fields namely, literature, science, art, cooperative movement and social service.

The correct answer is Atal Bihari Vajpayee.

Key Points

• India first adopted a "No First Use" Policy after its second nuclear test, Pokhran-II, in 1998.
• In August 1999, the Indian government released a draft of the doctrine which asserts that nuclear weapons are solely for deterrence and that India will pursue a policy of "retaliation only".
• The Prime minister of India during the Pokhran-II nuclear tests held in 1998 was Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
• He was an Indian Statesman who served three terms as the Prime Minister of India, first for a term of 13 days in 1996, then for a period of 13 months from 1998 to 1999, followed by a full term from 1999 to 2004.

Additional Information 

• India had made its Nuclear Doctrine in 2003.
• The characteristics of India's Nuclear Doctrine are the following:
• According to this policy, nuclear weapons will only be used in retaliation against a nuclear attack on the Indian Territory or on Indian forces anywhere.
• India needs nuclear capabilities to build and maintain a Credible Minimum Deterrent.
• If a country invades India by a nuclear missile, the retaliation will be much massive and terrible that the enemy would not be able to recover easily.
• The right to take nuclear action against the enemy will only be taken by the elected representatives of the people.
• Nuclear weapons will not be used against non-nuclear states.
• In case of any chemical or biological attack against India or Indian security forces, then India will keep the option of nuclear attack open in its response.
• A continuance of strict controls on the export of nuclear and missile-related materials and technologies.
• India will continue to support the global initiative to create a nuclear-free world and will push forward the idea of discrimination-free nuclear disarmament.

Nuclear Command Authority:

• It comprises an Executive Council and a Political Council.
• The Chairman of the Political Council is the Prime Minister.
• It is the sole body that can authorise the use of nuclear weapons.
• The Executive Council is headed by the National Security Advisor (NSA).
• The Executive Council provides the inputs for the decision taken by the Nuclear Command Authority (NCA) and executes the instructions given to it by the Political Council.

The correct answer is April 21.

Key Points

• National Civil Services Day is celebrated on April 21 every year.
• The Government of India celebrates ‘Civil Services day’ as an occasion for civil servants to rededicate themselves to the cause of citizens and renew their commitments to public service and excellence in work.
• This date is chosen to commemorate the day when the first Home Minister of Independent India, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel addressed the probationers of Administrative Services Officers in 1947 at Metcalf House, Delhi.
• He referred to civil servants as the ‘Steel Frame of India’.
• The first such function was held in Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi -21 April 2006.

 Additional Information

Awards on National Civil Services day:

• On National Civil Services day,'Prime Minister's Award for Excellence in Public Administration' is awarded.
• A large number of districts across the country participate in this award program.
• On National Civil Services day, the officers of central and state governments are awarded by the Prime Minister of India for their extraordinary services in the field of public administration.
• The 'Prime Minister Award for Excellence in Public Administration 'is awarded in three categories:
• Category 1: It comprises eight northeastern states and the three hill states namely Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, and Jammu and Kashmir.
• Category 2: It consists of seven Union Territories
• Category 3: It consists of the rest of the eighteen states of India.

The correct answer is 2005.

Key Points 

Central Information Commission:

Established:

• ​The Central Information Commission was established by the Central Government in 2005, under the provisions of the Right to Information Act (2005).
• It is a Statutory Body.

Members:

• The Commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than Ten Information Commissioners.

Appointment:

• They are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.

Tenure:

• ​The Chief Information Commissioner and an Information Commissioner shall hold office for such term as prescribed by the Central Government or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.

Additional Information

Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019

• It provided that the Chief Information Commissioner and an Information Commissioner (of Centre as well as States) shall hold office for such term as prescribed by the Central Government.
• Before this amendment, their term was fixed for 5 years.
• It provided that the salary, allowances and other service conditions of the Chief Information Commissioner and an Information Commissioner (of Centre as well as States) shall be such as prescribed by the Central Government.
• It removed the provisions regarding deductions in salary of the Chief Information Commissioner, an Information Commissioner, the State Chief Information Commissioner and a State Information Commissioner due to pension or any other retirement benefits received by them for their previous government service.
• The RTI (Amendment) Act, 2019 was criticized on grounds of diluting the law and giving more powers to the central government.

The correct answer is 1981.

Key Points

Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981:

• The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted on May 16, 1981, and amended in 1987 to provide for the prevention, control, and abatement of air pollution in India.
• It was passed under Article 253 of the Constitution of India, in accordance with the decisions of the Stockholm Conference.
• Aim: To provide means for the prevention, control, and abatement of air pollution and preserve the quality of air.
• It demarcated high pollution areas as air pollution control areas and no industrial plant shall be operated in these areas without prior consent of the State Pollution Control Board.
• The Central and State Water Boards have been entrusted with the task of controlling and preventing air pollution.
• It laid guidelines regarding emission control and empowered the State Government and the respective Board(s) to give instructions to ensure emission standards for automobiles.

Important Points 

• Initially, noise pollution was not included in the act.
• Later, in 1988, by an amendment, noise pollution was considered a form of environmental pollution and thus included.

The correct answer is 1977.

Key Points

• Representation of women members in Lok Sabha and their participation in general elections as contestants are increasing.
• The freshly elected 17^th Lok Sabha has 78 women Members of Parliament (MPs), highest ever since independence. Out of the 716 women candidates who contested elections, 78 have been elected, which is 14% of the house. This is higher than 2014 where there were 62 women MPs in the house.
• 15^th Lok Sabha had 10.86% of women membership with 13^th Lok Sabha too being close to it in having 9.02% of women members.
• Since 1996, the Lower House always had at least 40 women elects.
• The lowest number of women elected to the Lok Sabha was in 1977 when only 19 women reached the Lower House, which was only 3.50% of the total Lok Sabha seats (542 at that time).
• As far as women contestants is concerned, the highest number of women aspirants, 599, were in fray in 1996, followed by 556 women candidates in 2009 and 355 in 2004.
• It was in 1980 for the 7^th Lok Sabha when the women contestants crossed the mark of 100 as prior to that the number of women contestants was always below 100.

The correct answer is Attorney General of India.

Key Points

 ​Attorney General of India:

• According to Article 76(1), the President shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed  Judge of the Supreme Court to be Attorney-General for India.
• **The Attorney General has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament **or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a member but without a right to vote.
• He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a Member of Parliament.
• According to Article 76(4), the Attorney-General shall hold office during the pleasure of the President and shall receive such remuneration as the President may determine. Hence, Attorney General can be removed by the president at any time.

The correct answer is 2006. 

Key Points

• The Uttaranchal (Change of Name) Act, came into existence in 2006.
• In August 2006, Union Council of Ministers assented to the demands of the Uttaranchal Legislative Assembly and leading members of the Uttarakhand statehood movement to rename Uttaranchal state as Uttarakhand.
• Legislation to that effect was passed by the Uttaranchal Legislative Assembly in October 2006, and the Union Council of Ministers brought in the bill in the winter session of Parliament.
• The bill was passed by Parliament and signed into law by then President A. P. J. Abdul Kalam in December 2006, and since 1 January 2007 the state has been known as Uttarakhand.

Additional Information

• Uttarakhand's name is derived from the Sanskrit words Uttara (उत्तर) meaning 'north', and khaṇḍa (खण्ड) meaning 'land', altogether simply meaning 'Northern Land'.
• The name finds mention in early Hindu scriptures as the combined region of "Kedarkhand" (present day Garhwal) and "Manaskhand" (present day Kumaon). Uttarakhand was also the ancient Puranic term for the central stretch of the Indian Himalayas.

The correct answer is 9-11-2000.

Key Points 

Uttarakhand 

• It came into existence after being separated from Uttar Pradesh. On November 9, 2000, the state of Uttaranchal—the 27^th state of India—was carved out of Uttar Pradesh, and in January 2007 the new state changed its name to Uttarakhand, meaning “northern region,” which was the traditional name for the area.
• Lack of development in the geographically unique area( 93% of the area in the state is hill region and 64% of the total area of the forest) area rising unemployment gave impetus to the age-old demand for a separate state.
• Three things which actually became Reasons for Strong Resentment among the masses was poor development of the hill, increasing unemployment and time taking distance from hills to Lucknow in case one has to approach officials in the state capital.

Additional Information 

• Capital: Dehradun
• State Animal: Alpine musk deer

The correct answer is Trivendra Singh Rawat.

Key Points

• On 4 March 2020, the chief minister of Uttarakhand, Trivendra Singh Rawat announced in the Legislative Assembly of the state during budget session that Bhararisain (14 km from Gairsain) would be declared the summer Capital of the state.
• Official notification to this effect was issued on 8 June 2020 by the government after the then governor, Baby Rani Maurya gave her assent to the move.
• The Gairsain division was announced in March 2021.
• It was proposed to be the third administrative division of the state after Garhwal and Kumaon, and would include the districts of Almora, Bageshwar, Chamoli and Rudraprayag.
• However, the status was put on 'hold' by Uttarakhand Cabinet in April 2021.

The correct answer is George William Traill.

Key Points

• George William Traill, the second British Commissioner of Kumaon (serving from 1815 to 1835), is credited with introducing the Revenue Police system in the region around 1830. Under this unique system, revenue officials such as Patwaris and Kanungos were vested with policing powers, including the authority to investigate crimes and maintain law and order, in addition to their revenue collection duties. This was primarily due to the low crime rate and the difficult geographical terrain of the hilly areas, which made maintaining a regular police force expensive and impractical.
• Why other options are incorrect
• Lt. Col. Gardiner: Edward Gardner was the first Commissioner of Kumaon (1815) and is known for implementing the first revenue settlement, but he did not establish the long-term revenue police framework.
• Sir Henry Ramsay: Known as the "King of Kumaon," Ramsay served as Commissioner much later (1856–1884). While the system was formalized and expanded during the later British era (e.g., the Scheduled Districts Act of 1874), its origin lies with Traill.
• Daniel Ibbotson: He was a later administrator and did not introduce the system in the early colonial period of Kumaon and Garhwal.

The correct answer is 5.

Key Points

• The total number of  Lok Sabha constituencies from Uttarakhand is 5. 

1. Almora (SC)

2. Garhwal

3. Nainital

4. Haridwar

5. Tehri

Additional Information

• The Lok Sabha (meaning "House of the People") is the Lower House of the Parliament of India.
• Members are elected for Five years with first-past-the-post voting.
• The number of seats, allocated to the state/union territory are determined by the population of the state/union territory.

The correct answer is on foreign exchange transactions.

Key Points

Tobin tax

• It is a proposed tax on Short-Term Currency Transactions.
• A Tobin tax is designed to deter only speculative flows of hot money—money that moves regularly between financial markets in search of high short-term interest rates.
• It is not meant to impact Long-Term Investments.
• The shorter the investment cycle (i.e., the time between buying and selling a currency), the higher the effective rate of tax—thus providing market-based incentives for lengthening the term structure of investments.

The correct answer is the Agricultural Produce Market Committee Act enacted by States

Key Points

Agricultural Produce Market Committee:

• Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) under the State Government regulates the notified agricultural produce and livestock.
• Agriculture is a State subject under Schedule 7 of the Indian Constitution.
• The whole geographical area in the State is divided and declared as a market area (Yard Mandis) wherein the markets are managed by the Market Committees constituted by the State Governments.
• Once a particular area is declared a market area and falls under the jurisdiction of a Market Committee, no person or agency is allowed freely to carry on wholesale marketing activities.
• Buyers, too, need to obtain individual licenses from each APMC to transact.
• It is a part of government policy toward food security, remunerative prices to farmers, and fair prices to consumers

Additional Information

  Essential Commodities Act, 1955

• The main objective is to ensure the Affordability of essential commodities for the poor by restricting hoarding. To make this happen, this act controls the production, supply and distribution of, and trade and commerce in certain goods which are treated as essential commodities.
• It however affects the development of agricultural markets by creating distortions in the market.
• It does not distinguish between firms that genuinely need to hold stocks owing to the nature of their operations and firms that use them for speculation.
• The impositions by the Act are ineffective in controlling the price volatility.
• In the long term, the ECA Disincentivizes the development of storage infrastructure thereby leading to increased volatility in prices following production or consumption shocks.
• The conviction rate under the ECA is at 2-4%, which indicates that raids under the act may only lead to harassment of traders. The Act while penalizing manipulative hoarding also ends up punishing the consumption smoothening that the storage facilities provide.

The correct answer is It is a statutory body.

Key Points 

National Development Council (NDC) 

• It is the apex body for decision-making and discussions on development matters in India presided over by the Prime Minister.
• National Development Council was set up on August 6, 1952.
• It is Non-constitutional and non-statutory. (Option 2 is correct and option 3 is incorrect )
• The secretary of the Planning Commission is also the secretary of the NDC.
• It should meet at least twice a year. (Option 4 is correct)
• Composition:

1. Prime Minister
2. All the Union Cabinet Ministers
3. Chief Ministers of all States or their substitutes (Option 1 is correct)
4. Representatives of the union territories and
5. The members of the Planning Commission.

Additional InformationFunctions:

• To empower and mobilize the effort and resources of the nation in support of the Plan.
• To promote common economic policies in all vital spheres, and
• To ensure the balanced and rapid development of all parts of the country.

The correct answer is Strengthening of capital market.

Key Points

​11^th Five-Year Plan: 

• Its duration was from 2007 to 2012, under the leadership of Manmohan Singh.
• It was prepared by C. Rangarajan.
• Its main theme was “Rapid and More Inclusive Growth”.
• Assessment:
• India has recorded an average annual economic growth rate of 8%, farm sector grew at an average rate of 3.7% as against the 4% targeted.
• The industry grew with an annual average growth of 7.2% against the 10% targeted.
• Objectives:
• Rapid and inclusive growth.
• Empowerment through education and skill development.
• Reduction of gender inequality.
• Environmental sustainability.
• To increase the growth rate in agriculture, industry, and services to 4%,10% and 9% respectively.
• Provide clean drinking water for all by 2009.

Additional Information 

• The Constitution came into force on 26 January 1950.
• Subsequently, Planning Commis­sion was set up on 15 March 1950 and the plan era started from 1 April 1951 with the launch­ing of the First Five Year Plan (1951-56).
• All Five Year Plans:

The correct answer is It grants loans to only member countries.

Key Points

International Monetary Fund (IMF)

• Working areas:
• Foster global monetary cooperation.
• Facilitate international trade.
• Reduce poverty around the world.
• To secure financial stability by eliminating or minimizing the exchange rate stability.
• To promote high employment through economic assistance and sustainable economic growth.

Additional Information 

• Came into force in 1945, the IMF is governed by and accountable to the 190 countries that make up its near-global membership.
• Headquarters- Washington, D.C
• The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an organization of 190 countries, working to foster global monetary cooperation, secure financial stability, facilitate international trade, promote high employment and sustainable economic growth, and reduce poverty around the world.

The correct answer is ​​An appreciation of a currency.

 Key Points

• Currency Appreciation is an increase in the value of one currency in relation to another currency.
• Currencies appreciate against each other for a variety of reasons, including government policy, interest rates, trade balances, and business cycles.
• Appreciation is directly linked to demand.
• If the value appreciates (or goes up), demand for the currency also rises (or less supply of domestic currency in the global market).
• In contrast, if a Currency Depreciates, it loses value against the currency against which it is being traded.

Additional Information

• In a Floating Rate Exchange System, the value of a currency constantly changes based on supply and demand in the forex market. 
• If a country is fixing the exchange rate, official adjustments to the fixed exchange rate are called currency revaluation and devaluation.
• In the short run, currency Appreciation and Depreciation are driven by changes in demand and supply for a currency in the foreign exchange market.
• The demand and supply of currency depend on a country’s imports and exports, international financial transactions, speculations on the foreign exchange market, and, under “dirty float,” government interventions in the foreign exchange market.
• In the long run, currency appreciations and depreciations are determined by the inflation rate and economic growth of the country.
• When a nation's currency appreciates, it can have a number of different effects on the economy. 
• Exports decrease: If the Indian Rupee appreciates, foreigners will find Indian goods more expensive because they have to spend more on those goods.
• Hence it decreases the competitiveness of the domestic exports in the foreign markets and eventually leads to a reduction in the gross domestic product (GDP), which is definitely not a benefit.
• Cheaper imports: With the appreciation of the Indian rupee, imports become cheaper.
• As a result demand for foreign goods increases in the Indian markets while the demand for local products fall.

The correct answer is 1 only.

Key Points 

• Inflation redistributes wealth from creditors to debtors i.e. lenders suffer and borrowers benefit out of inflation.
• Bondholders have lent money (to debtor) and received a bond in return.
• So he is a lender, he suffers (Debtor benefits from inflation).

​​​

Additional Information 

• What is Inflation?
• Inflation refers to the rise in the prices of most goods and services of daily or common use, such as food, clothing, housing, recreation, transport, consumer staples, etc.
• Inflation measures the average price change in a basket of commodities and services over time.
• The opposite and rare fall in the price index of this basket of items is called ‘Deflation’.
• Inflation is indicative of the decrease in the purchasing power of a unit of a country’s currency. This could ultimately lead to a deceleration in economic growth.
• However, a moderate level of inflation is required in the economy to ensure that production is promoted.
• Who measures Inflation in India?
• Inflation is measured by a central government authority, which is in charge of adopting measures to ensure the smooth running of the economy.
• In India, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation measures inflation.
• In India, inflation is primarily measured by two main indices — WPI (Wholesale Price Index) and CPI (Consumer Price Index) which measure wholesale and retail-level price changes, respectively.
• The CPI calculates the difference in the price of commodities and services such as food, medical care, education, electronics etc, which Indian consumers buy for use.

The correct answer is Both (2) and (3).

Key Points

1991 Economic Reforms:

• The 1991 economic reforms refer to the economic liberalization of the country’s economic policies with the goal of making the economy more market and service-oriented and expanding the role of private and foreign investment.
• It was part of a general pattern of economic liberalization and modernization occurring across the world in the late 20^th century.

Major outcomes of the reforms:

• 1991 reforms ushered in an era of high growth, declining poverty, a burgeoning, aspirational middle class and the very real possibility of a seat on the global stage.
• By the first decade of the 21^st century, India began to be seen as one of the fastest-growing emerging markets.
• The 1991 reforms unleashed the energies of Indian entrepreneurs, gave untold choices to consumers and changed the face of the Indian economy.
• Far from poverty increasing, for the first time, there was a substantial reduction in it.
• From 1992 to 2005, foreign investment increased 316.9%, and India’s GDP grew from $266 billion in 1991 to $2.3 trillion in 2018.

The correct answer is Employees of the company. 

Key Points 

• “Sweat Equity” shares mean equity shares issued by a company to its Employees or Directors at a discount or for consideration other than cash.
• In other words, it refers to the allotment of equity shares to employees as compensation for the efforts and hard work in providing intangibles, like growth or success, for the company.
• The issuing of sweat equity allows the company to attract and retain its employees by rewarding them for their contribution.

Additional Information 

• Equity shares are also known as ordinary shares. The holders of Equity shares are members of the company and have voting rights.
• Preference shares are the shares that promise the holder a fixed dividend, whose payment takes priority over that of equity share dividends. Preference shareholders do not have voting rights.
• A person having the debentures is called a debenture holder.
• A debenture is a form of loan procured by the company from the public.

The correct is All of these.

Key Points

National Food Security Mission:

• It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme which was launched in 2007.
• It Aims to increase the production of rice, wheat, pulses, coarse cereals, and commercial crops, through area expansion and productivity enhancement.
• It works toward restoring soil fertility and productivity at the individual farm level and enhancing the farm-level economy.
• It further aims to augment the availability of vegetable oils and reduce the import of edible oils.

 Additional Information

Eight components under NFSM:

1. NFSM- Rice
2. NFSM-Wheat
3. NFSM-Pulses
4. NFSM-Coarse Cereals (Maize, Barley)
5. NFSM-Sub Mission on Nutri Cereals
6. NFSM-Commercial Crops
7. NFSM-Oilseeds and Oil palm
8. NFSM-SeedVillage Programme.

The correct answer is 'Progressive'.

Key Points

• Progressive Tax System in India:
• A progressive tax system is one where the tax rate increases as the taxable income increases. In other words, higher income earners pay a higher percentage of their income in taxes compared to lower income earners.
• This system is designed to reduce income inequality by placing a larger tax burden on those who have the ability to pay more.
• In India, income tax is a prime example of a progressive tax. The tax slabs increase with higher income brackets, ensuring that those with higher incomes contribute more to the government’s revenue.

Additional Information

• Other Types of Tax Systems:
• Degressive Tax: In this system, the tax rate decreases as the taxable amount increases. This means lower income earners pay a higher percentage of their income in taxes compared to higher income earners. India does not follow this system.
• Proportional Tax: Also known as a flat tax, this system charges the same percentage of tax on all income levels. Regardless of how much a person earns, they pay the same tax rate. India does not employ this tax system.
• Regressive Tax: This system imposes a higher tax burden on lower income earners relative to their income. Lower income earners pay a higher percentage of their income compared to higher income earners. Examples include certain consumption taxes like sales tax, which is the same for everyone regardless of their income level.

The correct answer is fifth** Plan.**

Key Points

Rolling Plan

• It was started in 1978.
• The rolling plan concept was coined by Gunnar Myrdal.
• This plan was rejected again by the Indian National Congress government when it came to power in 1980 and a new sixth plan was made.
• The main advantage of the rolling plans is that they are flexible.
• The Rolling Plan is a plan in which every year the performance of the plan is assessed and a new plan is made next year based on this assessment.
• Thus, both the allocation and targets are revised during this plan.
• In India, the Janta Government terminated the fifth five-year plan in 1977-78 and launched its own sixth five-year plan for the period 1978-83 and called it a Rolling Plan.​

The correct answer is Both (1) and (2) are correct.

Key Points 

Net National Product or NNP 

• It is the market value of all the finished goods and services that are produced by citizens of a nation, living Domestically and Internationally during a year.
• The net national product can be calculated by the following formula:
• NNP = GNP – Depreciation
• NNP = GDP + Income from Abroad - Depreciation
• Net National Product is also referred to as the value that is obtained by subtracting depreciation from the gross national product (GNP).
• Net national product considers all the goods, products, and services that are manufactured by the country’s citizens, irrespective of their location, or in other words, net national product considers products that are produced domestically and also from overseas.
• NNP is one of the important metrics for determining the actual growth of a nation.
• NNP of an economy is the GNP after deducting the loss due to depreciation
• It measures how much the country is able to consume in a given period of time.

Additional Information​ 

• When the net national product (NNP) of a country declines or falls, then the businesses consider moving to industries that are deemed to be recession-proof.
• The Depreciation that is calculated refers to the wear and tear of the capital assets and the depreciation of human capital is observed when there is workforce turnover.
• The extent of workforce turnover helps in understanding the resources that will be required to be spent by the companies in order to find new employees.
• This concludes the concept of NNP which is one of the indicators of the economic health of a nation.

The correct answer is The purchase of bonds or stocks issued by Pharma Company overseas.

Key Points

Foreign Direct Investment (FDI):

• Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is considered a significant source of non-debt financial resources for economic development.
• A non-resident entity can invest in India except in those sectors/activities which are prohibited.
• FDI is an investment made by a company or individual in the business of another country in the form of either establishing a new business or acquiring an existing business.
• FDIs are mainly made in Open Economies as opposed to tightly controlled closed economies.
• FDIs are made for a longer period as the foreign investor controls and owns the companies in which they have invested.
• As per the Organisation of Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), the threshold for an investment to be considered as FDI is 10 per cent or more ownership stake.

Additional Information

Foreign Portfolio Investment:

• ​FPI is an investment made by a company or an individual in the stock markets or debt markets of another country. FPI investors merely purchase equities/shares/bonds/debentures of foreign-based countries.
• FPIs are mainly made with the objective of making quick profits by buying and selling shares, bonds and debentures.

The correct answer is it has no way to solve trade disputes among member nations.

Key Points

 World Trade Organisation

• An international organisation to set the rules for global trade which was set up in 1995 as a successor to the General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs (GATT) and has 157 members, (as of 1 September 2012)
• Major economic powers such as the US, EU and Japan have managed to use the WTO to frame rules of trade to advance their own interests.
• The developing countries often complain of non- procedures and being pushed around by big powers.
• WTO has no way to solve trade disputes among member nations.
• It is Criticised for "only serves the interests of multinational corporations, undermines local development, penalizes poor countries, [and] is increasing inequality", and have argued that some agreements about agriculture and pharmaceutical goods have led to restricted access to food and healthcare, thus causing large numbers of deaths.
• Several factors are alleged to contribute to these conditions, including but not limited to: the Most Favoured Nation rule (MFN), National Treatment policies, and failure to regard the infant industry argument.

The correct answer is just equal to the interest payment.

Key Points

• Primary deficit is defined as fiscal deficit minus interest payments on previous borrowings. The primary deficit shows the borrowing requirements of the govt. for meeting expenditure excluding interest payment.
• Gross Primary deficit = Fiscal deficit – Interest payments.
• Therefore, the primary Deficit can be zero, if Fiscal Deficit = Interest Payments. Hence, Option 1 is the correct answer.
• Net Primary deficit = Fiscal deficit + Interest received – Interest payments.
• It shows the total amount that the central government needs to borrow.

 Additional Information

• There are three ways by which the central government finances deficit. These are:
• Borrowing from Public and Foreign Governments.
• Withdrawing Cash Balances held with the Reserve Bank of India (R.B.I.).
• Borrowing from the Reserve Bank of India (R.B.I)
• The Government ordinarily prefers to borrow either from its citizens or from foreign governments instead of withdrawing cash balances held with the R.B.I. or borrowing from it.
• The two ways to finance a deficit increase the supply of money. The increase in the supply of money increases the prices in an economy.
• On the other hand, borrowing domestically from the public has no effect on the supply of money and consequently on prices because when the government borrows, the money held by people is transferred to the government with no change in the supply of money.
• However, the money supply would increase when the government borrows from foreign countries. The last two ways to finance a deficit increase the supply of money.
• Any money that flows out of the R.B.I. increases the supply of money in economy and increases the prices in the domestic economy

The correct answer is  HDR 2010.

Key Points

Gender Inequality Index (GII)

• An index for Measurement of Gender Disparity was introduced in the 20^th Human Development Report -2010 by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
• It shows the percentage of potential human development loss due to gender inequality and ranges from 0 representing “no lost opportunity” to 1 representing complete opportunity loss.
• India has moved up four positions since 2019 to become the third-most innovative lower-middle-income economy in the world, according to the report. India, at 48, also retains the highest rank in the central and southern Asia region.

Additional Information

There are Three critical dimensions to the GII :

• Reproductive health - GII's dimension of reproductive health has two indicators :
• Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR), the data for which come from UNICEF's State of the World's Children, and
• Adolescent fertility rate (AFR), the data for which is obtained through the UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs, respectively.
• Empowerment - The empowerment dimension is measured by two indicators :
• The share of parliamentary seats held by each sex, which is obtained from the International Parliamentary Union, and
• Higher education attainment level, which is obtained through the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) and Barro-Lee data sets. The GII index of higher education evaluates women's attainment of secondary education and above.
• Labour market participation - The labour market dimension is measured by women's participation in the workforce. This dimension accounts for paid work, unpaid work, and actively looking for work. The data for this dimension is obtained through the International Labour Organization databases.

Important Points 

GII Dimensions & Indicators :

The correct answer is 131.

India was ranked 131 in the Human Development Report 2020 of UNDP. 

Key Points 

 Human Development Index:

• HDI is an initiative of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
• The HDI was created to emphasize that people's social and economic factors should be the ultimate criteria for assessing the development of a country, not economic growth alone.
• It was created by Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq in 1990.

HDI major indicators:

• Health (Life expectancy at birth).
• Education (Expected years of schooling).
• Standard of living (Gross national income per capita).

Human Development Index 2019:

• 189 countries were covered.
• Norway topped the list with a score of 0.954.
• Niger was the lowest-ranked country with a score of 0.377.
• India ranked 129 with a score of 0.647.​

Hence, the Birth rate is not an indicator of HDI.

The correct answer is 2020.

Key Points

MSME Development (MSMED) Act, 2006 classifies MSMEs based on the

• Investment in plant and machinery for manufacturing units
• Investment in equipment for service enterprises.

Micro. Small and Medium Enterprises Classification 2020

• The centre also removed the distinction between the manufacturing and services sector in MSME definition.

Here’s a table with the current definition of MSMEs and the revised definition announced by the government:

The correct answer is Government Securities.

Key Points

• Gilt-edged  Securities are high-grade bonds issued by certain National Governments.
• “Government security” means a security created and issued by the Government for the purpose of raising a public loan or for any other purpose.
• Gilt-edged securities are favoured by investors who seek predictable returns, with little risk of default.
• These investments carry similar traits as United States Treasury securities.

Important Points 

• "Security" refers to a fungible, negotiable financial instrument that holds some type of monetary value.
• It represents an ownership position in a publicly-traded corporation via stock.
• The four types of security are debt, equity, derivative, and hybrid securities.

The correct answer is World Bank Group,

Key Points

• The Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA) is a member of the World Bank Group.
• MIGA  mandate is to promote cross-border investment in developing countries by providing guarantees (political risk insurance and credit enhancement) to investors and lenders.
• MIGA  guarantees protect investments against noncommercial risks and can help investors obtain access to funding sources with improved financial terms and conditions

Additional Information ​World Bank is composed of 5 institutions:​​

World Bank (1945)

• Headquarter-  Washington
• The President of the World Bank Group is David Malpass.
• There are 189 members of the world bank.
• World Banks important publications are the Ease of Doing Business Report, World Development Report and Human Capital Index.

The correct answer is Value Added Tax.

Key Points

Goods and Service Tax(GST) 

• ​GST is an indirect tax used in India on the supply of goods and services.
• It is a destination-based tax.
• GST replaced the Value Added Tax.
• It is a single tax on the supply of goods and services, right from the manufacturer to the end consumer.
• Goods and Service Tax(GST) was implemented in India on 1 July 2017 by Finance Minister Arun Jaitley.
• Goods and services are divided into five different tax slabs for collection of tax- 0%, 5%, 12%, 18%, 28%.
• It subsumed Indirect taxes that were levied on the sale of goods or provision of services by either Central or State governments.
• GST Council is the governing body of GST having 33 members.
• The Council is currently headed by Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman assisted by the Finance Ministers of all the states of India.

The correct answer is H.A.L.

Key Points

Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL):

• Established on 23 December 1940, HAL is one of the oldest and largest aerospace and defence manufacturers in the world today.
• An Indian state-owned aerospace and defence company, Headquartered in Bengaluru, India

Additional Information

The Central Building Research Institute (CBRI):

• At Roorkee, Uttarakhand, India, is a constituent establishment of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research, India.
• Vested with the responsibility of generating, cultivating and promoting building science and technology in the service of the country.

 ONGC :

• In the year 1956, has established its Head Quarters in Dehradun.

BHEL:

• Ranipur is a town in the Haridwar district in the state of Uttarakhand, India. It is the township developed by Public sector Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL).

The correct answer is 2005.

Key Points

• The Uttarakhand Value added Tax, 2005 forms the legal framework of regulations governing regulating VAT in Uttarakhand.
• It came into force from 1^st October 2005.
• VAT was introduced value added tax (VAT) into the Indian taxation system from 1 April 2005. The existing general sales tax laws were replaced with the Value Added Tax Act (2005) and associated VAT rules.
• A few states (Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh) opted to stay out of VAT taxation system during the initial introduction of VAT but adopted it later.
• As of 2 June 2014, VAT has been implemented in all the states and union territories of India except Pondicherry, Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep Island.

The correct answer is 9.

Key Points

• In 09 hill districts (Bageshwar, Champawat, Nainital, Almora, Pithoragarh, Chamoli, Rudraprayag, Pauri, Tehri) of Uttarakhand, the tea development program is being conducted under a self-run scheme, special component scheme, MNREGA.
• In 28 development blocks of 09 hill districts (Bageshwar, Champawat, Nainital, Almora, Pithoragarh, Chamoli, Rudraprayag, Pauri, Tehri) of Uttarakhand, the tea development program is being conducted under a self-run scheme, special component scheme, MNREGA.

Additional Information

• Presently the tea being manufactured by the Board is being registered and sold under the brand name Uttarakhand Tea.
• The organic/inorganic orthodox black and green tea is being manufactured by the board and sold locally through its showrooms, shopkeepers or through the postal service and Kolkata Oxen House.

The correct answer is District Co-operative banks.

District Co-operative banks are the lowest among all other banks in Uttarakhand.

Key Points

 District Co-operative Central Bank (DCCB)

• It is a rural cooperative bank operating at the district level in various parts of India.
• It was established to provide banking to the rural hinterland for the agricultural sector with the branches primarily established in rural and semi-urban areas.

Private banks

• These are banks owned by either the individual or a general partner with a limited partner.
• Private banks are not incorporated. In any such case, creditors can look to both the "entirety of the bank's assets" as well as the entirety of the sole-proprietor's/general-partners' assets.

Regional bank

• It is a depository institution, i.e. a bank, savings and loan, or credit union, which is larger than a community bank, which operates below the state level, but smaller than a national bank, which operates either nationally or internationally.
• Currently, in India, there are 12 banks in number that are Nationalised, and their names are Punjab National Bank, Bank of Baroda, Bank of India, Central Bank of India, Canara Bank, Union Bank of India, Indian Overseas Bank, Punjab, and Sind Bank, Indian Bank, UCO Bank, and Bank of Maharashtra, State Bank Of India.

The correct answer is Johann Gregor Mendel.

Key Points 

Gregor Mendel 

• He was a Mathematician and Biologist from the Austrian Empire (now Czech republic).
• He is called as Father of Genetics for his extensive research and observations done on pea plants and their characteristics.
• He coined the terms Recessive and Dominant and used statistical models to learn the behaviour of the plant.
• He developed the Principle of Inheritance that explained the Transmission of Genes.
• His observations were later verified with experiments that laid the foundation of the Modern Field of Genetics.

The correct answer is Wetlands of International Importance.

Key PointsThe Ramsar Convention-1971:

• An international treaty for the Conservation and Sustainable use of Wetlands
• The Convention on Wetlands is an intergovernmental treaty that provides the framework for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources.
• The Convention was adopted in the Iranian city of Ramsar in 1971 and came into force in 1975.
• Since then, almost 90% of UN member states, from all the world’s geographic regions, have acceded to becoming “Contracting Parties”.
• India is a party to the Ramsar Convention. India signed under it on 1^st February 1982.
• Chilika Lake (Orissa) and Keoladeo National Park (Rajasthan) were recognized as the first Ramsar Sites of India
• Sundarbans is the largest Ramsar Site of India
• On 2^nd February 2021, India’s first Centre for Wetland Conservation and Management has been set up in Chennai.

Additional Information

Three Pillars of Convention:

• The Contracting Parties commit to:
• work towards the wise use of all their wetlands;
• designate suitable wetlands for the list of Wetlands of International Importance (the “Ramsar List”) and ensure their effective management;
• cooperate internationally on transboundary wetlands, shared wetland systems, and shared species.

The Montreux record:

• The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution, or other human interference.
• It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List.

The correct answer is ​Benjamin List and David MacMillan. 

Key Points

The Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2021 was awarded jointly to Benjamin List and David W.C. MacMillan.

• For the development of Asymmetric Organocatalysis.
• Organocatalysts bind to the reacting molecules to form short-lived intermediates that are more reactive than the substrate molecules on their own.
• Being chiral, the catalyst transfers its handedness to the substrate, controlling which side of the intermediate can react further.
• While organocatalysts are used widely in research and discovery, they haven’t quite found their way into large-scale production yet.

Benjamin List

David W.C. MacMillan

The current answer is Glasgow.

Key Points 

• The 2021 United Nations Climate Change Conference, more commonly referred to as COP26, was the 26^th United Nations Climate Change conference, held at the SEC Centre in Glasgow, Scotland, United Kingdom, from 31 October to 13 November 2021.
• The President of the conference was UK cabinet minister Alok Sharma.
• The result of COP26 was the Glasgow Climate Pact, negotiated through consensus of the representatives of the 197 attending parties.

 Important Points

• India had committed to increasing the share of non-fossil fuel sources to 40% and creating a carbon sink of 2.5-3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent in the 2015 Paris climate summit.

The correct answer is Giant Panda.

Key Points 

• In 1958, WWF's giant panda logo began from a Panda named Chichi.
• The giant panda has been the symbol of WWF since its formation in 1961.
• Pandas live mainly in temperate forests high in the mountains of southwest China
• The giant panda is perhaps the most powerful symbol in the world when it comes to species conservation.
• While its numbers are slowly increasing, the giant panda remains one of the rarest and most endangered bears in the world.

Additional Information 

• ​WWF is an acronym for World Wide Fund for Nature and it was founded in 1961.
• It is an international organization aimed at the conservation of the environment.
• In North America, it is called the World Wildlife Fund.
• The WWF provides money for conservation initiatives around the world.
• WWF works in the 6 major areas of climate, food, forests, freshwater, oceans and wildlife.
• They focus on the conservation of tigers, elephants, gorillas, giant pandas, sea turtles, polar bears, rhinos and whales.
• It aims to check the degradation of the earth’s natural environment and create a future in which human beings live in harmony with nature.
• Headquarters - Rue Mauverny, Gland, Vaud, Switzerland

The correct answer is Bharat Ratna.

Key Points

Highest Civilian Award:

• ‘Bharat Ratna’, the highest civilian Award of the country, was instituted in the year 1954.
• Any person without distinction of race, occupation, position or sex is eligible for these awards.
• The recommendations for Bharat Ratna are made by the Prime Minister himself to the President.
• The number of annual awards is restricted to a maximum of three in a particular year.

Important Points 

• The first-ever awardees to receive this award were Chandrasekhara Venkata Raman, C. Rajagopalachari and Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan in 1954.
• In fact, our former President, Shri A. P. J Abdul Kalam is also a recipient of this esteemed honor (1997).
• Two non-Indians received Bharat Ratna - Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan (1987) and Nelson Mandela (1990).

Thus, the Bharat Ratna is the highest civilian award in India.

Additional Information 

• Ashoka Chakra is one of the country's highest awards for gallantry during peacetime.
• Padma Awards one of the highest civilian Awards in the country are conferred in three categories, namely, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri.
• The Awards are given in various disciplines/ fields of activities,
• Art, social work, public affairs, science and engineering, trade and industry, medicine, literature and education, sports, civil service, etc.
• Padma Vibhushan is awarded for exceptional and distinguished service.
• Padma Bhushan for distinguished service of a high order.
• Padma Shri for distinguished service in any field.
• The awards are announced on the occasion of Republic Day every year.
• These awards are conferred by the President of India.

The correct answer is Electromagnetic waves.

Key Points 

• The waves used in common TV remote control are Infrared Rays.
• Infrared (IR), sometimes called infrared light, is electromagnetic radiation (EMR) with wavelengths longer than those of visible light.
• Infrared Rays are Electromagnetic waves.
• It is therefore invisible to the human eye.
• IR is generally understood to encompass wavelengths from the nominal red edge of the visible spectrum around 700 nanometers (frequency 430 THz) to 1 millimetre (300 GHz) (although the longer IR wavelengths are often designated rather as terahertz radiation).
• Black-Body Radiation from objects near room temperature is almost all at infrared wavelengths.
• As a form of electromagnetic radiation, IR propagates energy and momentum, with properties corresponding to both those of a wave and of a particle, the photon.

 Additional Information 

• An X-ray, or X-radiation, is a penetrating form of high-energy electromagnetic radiation. Most X-rays have a wavelength ranging from 10 picometers to 10 nanometers, corresponding to frequencies in the range 30 petahertz to 30 exahertz and energies in the range 124 eV to 124 keV.
• Ultraviolet (UV) is a form of electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength from 10 (with a corresponding frequency around 30 PHz) to 400 nm (750 THz), shorter than that of visible light, but longer than X-rays. UV radiation is present in sunlight and constitutes about 10% of the total electromagnetic radiation output from the Sun. It is also produced by electric arcs and specialized lights, such as mercury-vapour lamps, tanning lamps, and black lights.
• A Gamma-ray, or gamma radiation, is a penetrating form of electromagnetic radiation arising from the radioactive decay of atomic nuclei. It consists of the shortest wavelength electromagnetic waves and so imparts the highest photon energy.

The correct answer is A type of agriculture (cultivation).

Key Points 

Jhum cultivation:

• Also called Slash and Burn Agriculture is a form of crop-growing farming activity.
• In the North-East states of India, Agriculture is primarily based on Jhum cultivation.
• Britishers wanted tribal groups or jhum cultivators to settle down and become peasant cultivators.
• In fact, jhum cultivators who took to plough cultivation often suffered, since their fields did not produce good yields.
• So the jhum cultivators in north-east India insisted on continuing with their traditional practice.

Additional Information

• List of local names of shifting cultivation:

The correct answer is Conductor.

Key Points

Concept:

Additional Information

• A conductor having some appreciable resistance is called a Resistor.
• Appreciable resistance means capable of being perceived or measured.
• In other words, all conductor produce some resistance but it is negligible under normal condition.

The correct answer is Vaccum.

Key Points

Light:

• Light is a form of energy, which produces the sensation of vision in our eyes.
• Light travels faster in vacuum.**
• The objects around us reflect light. The reflected light reaches our eyes and make that thing visible to us.
• Luminous objects like Sun, stars, electric bulbs etc have their own light and they are considered a source of light.
• Non Luminous objects are those objects which do not have their own light but reflect the light coming from some source.
• Light travels in a straight line in a given medium.

Additional Information

• Transparent object: The object that allows light to pass through them or the objects across we can see are transparent objects. Examples: Glass, Water.
• Translucent object: The object that partially allows light to pass through them are translucent objects. Example:  Filter Paper.
• Opaque object: The object across which light cannot pass are called opaque objects, for example, cardboard, books, etc.

The correct answer is Earthworm.

Key Points

Earthworms are useful in several ways for farmers-

• Earthworms make the soil porous by digging burrows in the soil. Hence they are called Friends of the Farmers.
• The nitrogenous wastes and other waste products of the earthworms form food for plants. This process of increasing the fertility of the soil by earthworms is called Vermicomposting.
• Some tribals in India use earthworms as medicine to cure jaundice, piles, diarrhoea, bladder stones, etc.
• The earthworms reduce both the acidity and alkalinity of the soil and create optimum conditions for plant growth.
• The density of earthworms in the soil is considered to be a good indicator of healthy soil because they increase the soil's water-holding capacity and moisture content.

Thus, Earthworms are known as "The True Friends of the farmers ' or 'The Natural ploughers.

Additional Information

Different organisms use different types of organs to remove excreta.

• Unicellular Animals / Amoeba – Diffusion through the surface of the body.
• Platyhelminthes/ Flatworms – Flame cells
• Roundworms/Earthworms – Nephridia
• Arthropods/ Cockroaches – Malpighian tubules
• Crustaceans / Prawns – Antennal glands / Green Glands
• Vertebrates – Kidney

The correct answer is Vitamin C

Key Points

Additional Information 

• Vitamins were first discovered by FG Hopkins.
• The term Vitamin was coined by C Funk.
• There are two types of Vitamins:

1. Fat-Soluble- Vitamin A, D, E, and K.
2. Water-Soluble - Vitamin B and C.

• Natural sources of Vitamin D are - Sunlight, fish, eggs, and mushrooms.

The correct Answer is Liquid nitrogen.

Semen stored in liquid nitrogen (-196 C) as the cooling medium.

Key Points

• Artificial Insemination involves the collection of semen from a healthy bull of the desired breed, its storage at low temperature, and introduction into female cattle of other breeds for bringing about fertilization using sterilized equipment.
• Advantages of A.I. are:
• Up to 3000 females can be fertilized from semen collected from one bull.
• The semen can be stored for a long period and transported over a long distance.
• The economical and high success rate of fertilization.