Official Paper

UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 9th Oct 2020 Shift 2 (Previous Year Paper)

50 questions · 60 minutes · with answers · free

Paper 1 (50 questions)

1

Through which of the following methods of research 'cause and effect relationship' is focused?

  1. ((a))

    Historical method

  2. ((b))

    Experimental method

  3. ((c))

    Ex post facto method

  4. ((d))

    Case study method

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Experimental method

Research is a systematic investigation to search for new facts in any branch of knowledge. It helps to arrive at new conclusions.

William C. Emory in the book 'Business Research Methods' defines, "research is any organised inquiry designed and carried out to provide information for solving a problem."

Methods of research:

Experimental method:

  • Experimental research is a study that adheres to a specific research design.
  • It includes a hypothesis, a variable that can be manipulated by the researcher, and variables that can be measured, calculated, and compared.
  • It is undertaken when a researcher wishes to trace the cause and effect relationship between defined variables.
  • Experimental research is undertaken mostly in a controlled environment.

Therefore, in the Experimental method research 'cause and effect relationship' is focused.

Historical method:

  • Historical research involves studying, understanding, and interpreting past events.
  • The purpose of historical research is to reach insights or conclusions about past persons or occurrences.
  • It entails more than simply compiling and presenting factual information; it also requires interpretation of the information.

Ex post facto research:

  • Ex post facto research design is a method in which groups with qualities that already exist are compared on some dependent variable.
  • It is a category of research design in which the investigation starts after the fact has occurred without interference from the researcher.

Case study method:

  • A case study is a research approach that is used to generate an in-depth, multi-faceted understanding of a complex issue in its real-life context.
  • It is an established research design that is used extensively in a wide variety of disciplines, particularly in social sciences.
  • It aims to analyze specific issues within the boundaries of a specific environment, situation, or organization.
2

The scope of 'creativity' and 'imagination' is largest in which of the following steps of research?

  1. ((a))

    Defining and deciding the procedures for sampling

  2. ((b))

    Identifying and defining the research problem

  3. ((c))

    Data analysis using quantitative methods and interpretation

  4. ((d))

    Hypothesis making and hypothesis testing

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Hypothesis making and hypothesis testing

'Creativity' and 'Imagination' in research:

  • Creativity and imagination in research refer to the capacity of the researcher to be curious and open-minded immersing him in the complexity of a place or people.
  • The scope of 'creativity' and 'imagination' is largest in hypothesis making and hypothesis testing i.e. while exploring and investigating a topic beyond what is given, creating an unimagined future together with organization and/or communities.
  • It is about moving away from logic and promoting a variety of rich meanings and knowledge related to the topic being investigated.
  • There are a combination of design approaches with an epistemology of social construction that can offer new possibilities in framing, reframing, and doing research that value and endorse creativity and imagination.

Therefore, the scope of 'creativity' and 'imagination' is largest in hypothesis making and hypothesis testing steps of research.

Basic steps in research process:

  • Identifying and defining the research problem
  • Reviewing literature
  • Hypothesis making and hypothesis testing
  • Choosing the study design
  • Defining and deciding the procedures for sampling
  • Collecting data
  • Data analysis using quantitative methods and interpretation
  • Writing the report.
3

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): A society garners commonality through its language, customs, history and geography.

Reason (R): A society's unity through commonality is facilitated by its communication system and culture. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. ((b))

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the NOT correct explanation of (A)

  3. ((c))

    (A) is true but (R) is not false

  4. ((d))

    (A) is false but (R) is not true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

In sociological terms, society refers to a group of people who live in a definable territory and share the same culture. On a broader scale, society consists of the people and institutions around us, our shared beliefs, and our cultural ideas.

Assertion (A): A society garners commonality through its language, customs, history, and geography.

Explanation:

  • Sociologists have defined society from two angles: In abstract terms, as a network of relationships between people or between groups, and In concrete terms, as a collection of people or an organization of persons.
  • “A society may be defined as a network of interconnected major groups viewed as a unit and sharing a common culture” (J.H. Ficther, Sociology, 1957).
  • “A society is a group of interacting individuals sharing the same territory and participating in a culture.” (Ian Robertson, Sociology, 1977).
  • A society is an enduring social group that demonstrates cooperation, shared values, and fellowship. Societies, in general, relate to the practical systems, conventions, and shared meaning that allow people to live in the same place peacefully and cooperatively.
  • Thus, a society garners commonality through its language, customs, history, and geography. The assertion is correct.

Reason (R): A society's unity through commonality is facilitated by its communication system and culture. 

Explanation:

  • A society is a group of individuals involved in persistent social interaction, or a large social group sharing the same spatial or social territory, typically subject to the same political authority and dominant cultural expectations.
  • Communication systems contribute to trust, inclusion, and greater relevance in society.
  • Sociologists define society as the people who interact in such a way as to share a common culture.
  • The cultural bond may be ethnic or racial, based on gender, or due to shared beliefs, values, and activities.
  • The term society can also have a geographic meaning and refer to people who share a common culture in a particular location.
  • For example, people living in arctic climates developed different cultures from those living in desert cultures. In time, a large variety of human cultures arose around the world.
  • Thus, a society's unity through commonality is facilitated by its communication system and culture. The reason is correct.

A society garners commonality through its language, customs, history, and geography which in turn are determined and defined by its communication system and culture. Thus, both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

4

The simple interest on a certain sum of money for 2 years at the rate of 6% per annum comes to Rs. 300. The compounded interest at the same rate, for the same time and on the same sum of money would be:

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 310

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 308

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 307

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 309

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rs. 309

Given:

SI = Rs 300

Rate, (R) = 6% p.a.

Time, (t) = 2 years

Formula used:

SI = (P× R × t)/100

For, Compound interest

Amount, (A) = P(1 + r/100)t

CI = A – P

Here, P is principal

Calculation:

SI = (P× R × t)/100

⇒ (P × 6 × 2)/100 = 300

⇒ P = 2500

Now, 

A = P(1 + r/100)t

⇒ 2500(1 + 6/100)2

⇒ 2500 × 106/100 × 106/100 

⇒ 2809

Now, CI = A – P 

⇒ 2809 - 2500

⇒ 309

∴ The required compound interest is Rs 309

5

List I mentions the four valid means of knowledge as given by gotama while List II gives their description. Match List-I with List-II:

List – I (Valid means of knowledge)List – II (Description)
(A) Perception(I) Cognition which presupposes some other cognition
(B) Inference(II) Knowledge of the relation between a word and its denotation
(C) Comparison(III) Statement of a trustworthy person and consists in understanding its meaning
(D) Verbal testimony(IV) Non-erroneous cognition produced by the interaction of sense organs with the objects

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

  2. ((b))

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

  3. ((c))

    (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

  4. ((d))

    (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

Prama is valid knowledge. Knowledge can be valid or invalid, valid knowledge is called prama and non-valid knowledge is known as aprama. Pramana is valid means of knowledge and its important four means include perception (pratyaksa), inference (anumana), verbal testimony (sabda), and comparison (upamana). 

Valid Means Of KnowledgeDescription
Perception- Living beings see, hear, smell, taste, and feel. Through these, they come to know about the objects of the world. This is called Pratyaksa (Perception). - If the object is not subtle, distant, very near, in darkness, or covered; or unless our eyes are defective, we can all see the thing clearly and know it. - It is non-erroneous cognition produced by the interaction of sense organs with the objects.
Inference- There is smoke on the yonder hill. There must be fire over there. We have seen on countless occasions that where there is smoke there is fire. So we infer that there is fire on the hill. This is inference. - It is cognition that presupposes some other cognition. - The term anumana (inference) literally means after knowledge i.e., the knowledge that follows other knowledge.
Comparison- ‘Have you seen Mars?’ ‘No, I haven’t.’ ‘Have you not seen the pictures of Mars either?’ ‘No, I haven’t. And I do not know what Mars is. What is Mars and how does it look like?’ ‘Ah! You know nothing then? Mars is a planet. It is like our earth.’ ‘Like the earth. Ah! I understand.’ This is knowing by visible examples. - It is the knowledge that is derived from upamana (comparison). - It is defined as the knowledge between the relation of a word and its meaning or denotation. - It is also known as knowledge via analogy.
Verbal Testimony- Regarding supernatural and divine things, there is only one source of knowledge – the words of the sages. Their words are compiled in the Vedas. The Vedas are infallible. But even here we need the senses to either read or listen to the Vedas. - Testimony consists of words (sabda). So far as words are heard through our ears, they are perceived. Knowledge of words is, therefore, knowledge through perception and is quite valid. - It is defined as a statement of a trustworthy person and consists in understanding its meaning.

Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

6

The inherent cause (Samavayi) of Indian Philosophy corresponds to which of the causes given by Aristotle?

  1. ((a))

    Material Cause

  2. ((b))

    Formal Cause

  3. ((c))

    Efficient Cause

  4. ((d))

    Final Cause

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Material Cause

The "Four Causes" are Aristotle's answers to the question Why: "We do not have knowledge of a thing until we have grasped its why, that is to say, its cause." "Cause" is the traditional translation of the Greek aitia (αἰτία), in a technical sense that does not correspond to its everyday meaning. The translation of αἰτία nearest to ordinary language is "explanation".

Key Points

Aristotle argued that there are four kinds of answers to "Why" questions (Physics II:3, and Metaphysics V:2). Cause results in a change.

  1. Samavayi or the inherent cause:
  • It is the substance out of which the effect is produced.
  • For example, the threads are the inherent cause of the cloth and the clay is the inherent cause of a pot.
  • The effect inheres in its material cause. The cloth inheres in the threads.
  • The effect cannot exist separately from its material cause, though the cause can exist independently of its effect.
  • The material cause is always a substance, upadana, or the material cause.
  1. Asamavayi or non-inherent cause:
  • It inheres in the material cause and helps the production of the effect.
  • The conjunction of the threads which inheres in the threads is the non-inherent cause of the cloth of which the threads are the material or the inherent cause.
  • The color of the threads is the non-inherent cause both co-inhere in the material cause.
  • The non-inherent cause is always a quality or an action.
  • It is a formal cause defining characteristics of (e.g., shape) the thing.
  1. Nimitta or efficient cause:
  • It is the power that helps the material cause is nimitta of efficient. It is the power that helps the material cause to produce the effect.
  • The weaver is the efficient cause of the cloth.
  • The efficient cause includes the accessories, e.g., the loom and shuttle of the weaver or the staff and wheel of the potter.
  • The efficient cause may be a substance, a quality, or an action.
  1. Final Cause:
  • A final cause is that for the sake of which a thing is changing.
  • A seed's end is an adult plant. A sailboat's purpose is sailing. A ball at the top of a ramp will finally come to rest at the bottom.

Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.

7

Match List - I with List - II 

List – I (Examples of communication barrier)List – II (Types of communication barrier)
(A) Unclear printing in a newspaper(I) Psychological noise
(B) Different understanding of the message(II) Cultural stereotyping
(C) Passive audience reception of the message(III) Physical noise
(D) Prejudice against certain ethnic groups(IV) Semantic noise

 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

  2. ((b))

    (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

  3. ((c))

    (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

  4. ((d))

    (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Examples of Communication barrierTypes of Communication barrier
(A) Unclear printing in a newspaper- Physical noise is an external stimulus that distracts us from receiving the intended message sent by the computer. - Examples of physical noise include others talking in the background, startling noise, unclear printing in a newspaper, etc.
(B) Different understanding of the message- The semantic barrier refers to the different understanding of the message between the sender and the receiver. - It can be applied to the whole texts or s
(C) Passive audience reception of the message- Psychological noise consists of distractions to the speaker's message caused by a receiver's internal thoughts. - For example, passive audience reception of the message, preconceived ideas, and sarcasm.
(D) Prejudice against certain ethnic group- The barrier to cultural communication is the tendency to categorize and make assumptions about others based on their characteristics like gender, age, race, ethnicity, nationality, religion, etc. - Prejudice against certain ethnic groups is an example of cultural stereotyping.

Therefore, from the above explanation, it is clear that option 3) is the correct answer.

8

Two cities P and Q are 360 km apart from each other. A car goes from P to Q with a speed of 40km per hour and returns back to P with a speed of 50 km per hour. What is the average speed of the car?

  1. ((a))

    44.44 km per hour

  2. ((b))

    48 km per hour

  3. ((c))

    50 km per hour

  4. ((d))

    55 km per hour

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

44.44 km per hour

Given:

Distance between the two cities = 360 km

Formula used:

Average speed = Total distance/Total time

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculation:

Time taken by car A to cover distance from P to Q = 360/40 = 9 hours

Time taken by car A to cover distance from Q to P = 360/50 = 7.2 hours

Average speed = (360 + 360)/(9 + 7.2) = 44.44 km/hr

∴ The average speed of the car is 44.44 km/hr

9

In Indian logic, the presence of the middle term in the minor term is called:

  1. ((a))

    Vyapti

  2. ((b))

    Paksha - dharmita

  3. ((c))

    Linga

  4. ((d))

    Paramarsha

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Paksha - dharmita

In Indian logic, the presence of the middle term in the minor term is called Paksha - dharmita.

  1. In Indian logic inference is known as “Anumāna.”
  2. It is knowledge (mānā) that arises after (anu) other knowledge.
  3. Thus the literal meaning of anumāna is knowledge which comes after some other knowledge.
  4. The presence of the middle term in the minor term is called Paksadharmata and the invariable association of the middle term with the major term is called Vyāpti.
  5. The knowledge of Paksadharmata as qualified by Vyāpti is called Parāmarsa.
  6. And anumāna is defined as knowledge arising through Parāmarsa i.e. the knowledge of the presence of the major in the minor through the middle which resides in the minor and is invariably associated with the major.
10

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In order to ensure authenticity, a researcher has to indicate original sources from which data are called.

Statement II: In data analysis and interpretation the researcher has to evince the necessary rigour and appropriateness of procedures.

In the light of the above statements, Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Research is defined as the creation of new knowledge and/or the use of existing knowledge in a new and creative way so as to generate new concepts, methodologies, and understandings. This could include synthesis and analysis of previous research to the extent that it leads to new and creative outcomes.

Statement I: In order to ensure authenticity, a researcher has to indicate original sources from which data are culled.

Explanation:

  • Research ethics are the set of ethics that govern how scientific and other research is performed at research institutions such as universities, and how it is disseminated. Ethics are broadly the set of rules, written and unwritten, that govern our expectations of our own and others’ behavior.
  • Respecting intellectual property is one of the fundamental code of ethics to be followed while doing research.
  • A researcher should never plagiarise, or copy, other people’s work and try to pass it off as its own.
  • A researcher should always ask for permission before using other people’s tools or methods, unpublished data, or results. Not doing so is plagiarism.
  • A researcher needs to respect copyrights and patents, together with other forms of intellectual property, and always acknowledge other's contributions. Acknowledgment is the best way to avoid any risk of plagiarism.
  • Thus, in order to ensure authenticity, a researcher has to indicate original sources from which data are culled. The statement I is correct.

Statement II: In data analysis and interpretation the researcher has to evince the necessary rigor and appropriateness of procedures.

Explanation:

  • A researcher should aim to avoid bias in any aspect of his/her research, including design, data analysis, interpretation, and peer review.
  • This means that a researcher needs to report his/her research honestly and that this applies to the methods, data, and results.
  • A researcher should not make up any data, including extrapolating unreasonably from some results or do anything which could be construed as trying to mislead anyone. It is better to undersell than over-exaggerate findings.
  • The data must be appropriate, trustworthy, and adequate for drawing inferences.
  • The data must reflect good homogeneity.
  • Proper analysis should be done through statistical methods.
  • The researcher must remain cautious about the errors that can possibly arise in the process of interpreting results.
  • The researcher should be well equipped with and must know the correct use of statistical measures for drawing inferences concerning his study.
  • Thus, in data analysis and interpretation, the researcher has to evince the necessary rigor and appropriateness of procedures. Statement II is correct.

Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.

11

Online platforms make teaching and learning a sub - type of:

  1. ((a))

    Technology - induced diversion

  2. ((b))

    Complex learning culture

  3. ((c))

    Commercial collaboration

  4. ((d))

    Alternative education

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Alternative education

Online platforms make teaching and learning a sub-type of Alternative education.

  1. That COVID has changed the way we live is not news anymore. The lethal virus has led to tectonic shifts in almost every aspect of our lives – be it business, entertainment, hospitality, or education – and we’re still grappling with the repercussions of these radical changes.
  2. It’s true that online learning has transformed the education world, with platforms like Swayam enabling those living in remote parts of the world to access university courses.
  3. But, what must be understood also, is that online learning is a fundamentally elite concept.
  4. To effectively learn anything that is being taught, it presupposes that one has the means and technology required to avail of it – a well-functioning laptop, high speed, and stable internet, and an empty room to sit for ninety minutes at a time without any disruptions or disturbance.
  5. These prerequisites are both highly discriminatory and extremely exclusive – if one cannot pay for a good wifi connection, or lives in a situation where they cannot get a private, undisturbed area for themselves, online learning can be a challenge.
  6. Only those who have the right ecosystems can truly make the best of online classes.

Therefore, the online platform will not replace teaching rather it will make teaching and learning a sub-type of Alternative education.

1. Complex Learning Culture: Complex learning is the integration of knowledge, skills, and attitudes; coordinating qualitatively different constituent skills, and often transferring what was learned in school or training to daily life and work.

2. Commercial Collaboration: A Collaboration agreement is an agreement between at least two parties looking to work together on a commercial project on a collaborative or cooperative basis. The agreement spells out the specific terms and conditions of the parties' working relationship including the allocation of responsibilities and division of revenues derived from the exploitation of the work.

The online platform is a technology-induced diversion however o**ne consequence is that technology-enabled 'solutions' are imported and 'made to fit' into what are often much more challenging environments. When they don't work, or where they are too expensive to be replicated at any scale, this is taken as 'evidence' that ICT use in education in such places is irrelevant -- and possibly irresponsible.

12

In an examination it is required to get 36% of maximum marks to pass. A student got 90 marks and was declared fail by 9 marks. Calculate maximum marks.

  1. ((a))

    200

  2. ((b))

    275

  3. ((c))

    300

  4. ((d))

    225

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

275

Given:

Pass percentage = 36%

Marks got by student = 90

Concept used:

Passed marks = Obtained marks + failed marks

Calculation:

Let the maximum marks be 100x

Passed marks = 36% of 100x = 36x

Now,

Passed marks = Obtained marks + failed marks

⇒ 36x = 90 + 9

⇒ x = 99/36

⇒ x = 11/4

Maximum marks = 100x = 100 × 11/4 = 275

∴ The maximum marks in the examination is 275

13

The next two terms of the progression as 60, 30, 20, 15 are:

  1. ((a))

    10 and 5

  2. ((b))

    4 and 2

  3. ((c))

    10 and 8

  4. ((d))

    12 and 10

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

12 and 10

The pattern followed here is;

60 ÷ 2 = 30

60 ÷ 3 = 20

60 ÷ 4 = 15

60 ÷ 5 = 12

60 ÷ 6 = 10

So, next two terms are 12 and 10.

Hence, "12 and 10" is the correct answer.

14

If 5472 → 9, 6342 → 6, 7584 → 6 and 9237 → P, then P is : (→ means implies) 

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    3

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

3

LOGIC: Digit sum of number till 1 digit remaining.

In 5472 →

(5 + 4 + 7 + 2) 

= 18 

= (1 + 8) (Again digit sum of number)

= 9

In 6342 → 

(6 + 3 + 4 + 2)

= 15

= (1 + 5) (Again digit sum of number)

= 6

In 7584 →

(7 + 5 + 8 + 4) →

= 24

= (2 + 4) (Again digit sum of number)

= 6

Similarly;

In म→

= 21

= (2 + 1) (Again digit sum of number)

= 3 = म

So, value of P is 3.

Hence, "3" is the correct answer.

15

Consider the following syllogism:

(A) This hill has fire

(B) Because it has smoke

(C) Whatever has smoke, has fire

(D) This hill has smoke which is invariably associated with fire

(E) Therefore, this has fire

Which will be designated as 'Upnaya' in this syllogism?

  1. ((a))

    (A) and (B) only

  2. ((b))

    (B) and (C) only

  3. ((c))

    (D) only

  4. ((d))

    (E) only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(D) only

Syllogism

  • A syllogism is a kind of logical argument that applies deductive reasoning to arrive at a conclusion based on two or more propositions that are asserted or assumed to be true. In a form, defined by Aristotle, from the combination of a general statement and a specific statement, a conclusion is deduced.
  • An example of a syllogism is "All mammals are animals. All elephants are mammals. Therefore, all elephants are animals." In a syllogism, the more general premise is called the major premise ("All mammals are animals"). The more specific premise is called the minor premise ("All elephants are mammals").

According to Indian Philosophy, there are five-member syllogism [avayavas]

There are five members in the "nyaya" syllogism:

  1. pratijna or proposition (प्रतिज्ञा). It is the logical statement that is to be proved.
  2. hetu or 'reason' (हेतु) which states the reason for the establishment of the proposition.
  3. udaharana (उदाहरण) which gives the universal concomitance together with an example.
  4. upanaya (उपनय): the application of the universal concomitance to the present case.
  5. nigamana (निगमन): conclusion drawn from the preceding propositions.

These five propositions of the Indian syllogism are called 'members' or avayavas (अवयव, limb). the following is a typical nyaya syllogism:

  1. this hill has fire (pratijna).
  2. because it has smoke (hetu).
  3. whatever has smoke has fire, e.g., an oven (udaharana).
  4. this hill has smoke which is invariably associated with fire (upanaya).
  5. therefore this hill has fire ( nigamana ).

Therefore Option 3 is the correct answer.

16

Identify the correct sequence of mass media functions:

(A) Entertainment 

(B) Information

(C) Transmission of culture

(D) Social integration

(E) Education

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A), (C), (D), (E), (B)

  2. ((b))

    (B), (C), (E), (D), (A)

  3. ((c))

    (B), (E), (A), (C), (D)

  4. ((d))

    (C), (D), (E), (A), (B)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(B), (E), (A), (C), (D)

Mass media are tools to transfer information, concepts, and ideas to both general and specific audiences. Using mass media can be counterproductive too if the channels used are not audience-appropriate, or if the message being delivered is too emotional, arousing, or controversial.   

The sequence of mass media functions:

(A) Information:

  • Mass communication exists to observe and inform.
  • Mass media keeps citizens informed of news and events.
  • During periods of crisis, mass media announcements offer warnings and instructions.

(B) Education:

  • Information educates people around the globe.
  • With the help of mass media, people from diverse locations are able to learn about various aspects that were not in their reach earlier.

(C)Entertainment:

  • Long before the advent of mass media people were forced to entertain themselves by participating in activities or live events.
  • The advent of mass communication-enabled viewers to see and hear and learn in real time from wherever they are.

(C) Transmission of culture:

  • The media serves as transmitters of cultural messages, letting the masses understand that what is considered an acceptable form of behaviour.
  • Transmission of culture evolves, as what once was taboo can become the norm when enough people embrace it and when the media report on it.

(D) Social integration:

  • Mass media helps people socially integrate using various social media platforms like Twitter, Facebook, etc.
  • Users can be fed farfetched stories that look like real news when in fact they are anything.
  • Although a company is an important part of mass media, it is not a news site.

Therefore, (B), (E), (A), (C), (D) is the sequence of mass media functions.

17

Which of the following are true in respect of communication?

It is a 

(A) filtering process

(B) barrierless process

(C) life - long process

(D) universal process

(E) collective process

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A), (B), (C) only

  2. ((b))

    (B), (C), (D) only

  3. ((c))

    (C), (D), (E) only

  4. ((d))

    (D), (E), (A) only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(C), (D), (E) only

"Communication is the transfer of information from one person to another, whether or not it elicits confidence. But the information transferred must be understandable to the receiver" – G.G. Brown.

Communication is giving, receiving, or exchanging ideas, information, signals, or messages through appropriate media, enabling individuals or groups to persuade, to seek information, to give information, or to express emotions.

Key Points

1. Communication Is A Life-Long Process

  • Communication is a life long learning process beginning at birth. We communicate in many different ways like listening, speaking, gesturing, reading, and writing. Communication abilities help children to learn, form social relationships, express feelings, and participate in everyday activities.
  • Even before a child is born, he or she communicates. A baby's kicking, rolling, hiccuping - all of these movements communicate something to the mother.
  • As soon as they are born, babies communicate feelings of displeasure by crying or by physically turning away from something they don't like.
  • Communication is a very important social need of a person which is nurtured by him as long as he lives.

2. Communication Is A Universal Process:

  • Communication is a fundamental, universal process that serves to connect senders and receivers of messages through space and time.
  • Something that is universal relates to everyone in the world or everyone in a particular group or society.
  • All creatures on the earth, from worms to humans, are communicating with each other for their better existence.

3. Communication Is A Collective Process:

  • Communication is essentially a collaboration of thoughts.
  • It is not defined by one factor, rather, it is a conglomerate of multiple factors.
  • “Communication is the intercourse by words, letters or messages”- Fred G. Meyer.
  • According to Claude Shannon, communication is 'one mind-affecting other'. Thus, it is a collaborative and collective process.

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

1. Filtering occurs when the message's recipient allows the message to pass through multiple individuals before reaching its final, intended party. Filtering often can alter the original message, limit its effectiveness or render it incomprehensible. It is a barrier to effective communication that should be avoided. 2. Communication is not a barrier-less process. Communication barriers are something that prevents us from correctly getting and accepting the messages others use to communicate their information, thoughts, and ideas. Some of the examples of communication barriers are information overload, choosy perceptions, workplace gossips, semantics, gender differences, etc. Barriers are undesirable but are not completely avoidable.

18

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion (A): Use of ICT in research facilitates access and accuracy of research findings.

Reason (R): A researcher does not have to follow various styles of referencing and format while writing a thesis.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. ((b))

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the NOT correct explanation of (A)

  3. ((c))

    (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

  4. ((d))

    (A) is correct but (R) is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(A) is correct but (R) is not correct

Assertion (A): Use of ICT in research facilitates access and accuracy of research findings.

Explanation: 

  • ICT tools are mainly used by researchers for their ability to ease the knowledge-gathering process and to enhance resource development.
  • Researcher in general values creativity and originality, thus the ICT tools which provide the most open situations with great autonomy to the researcher can really help in identifying and solving research problems in the most creative ways.
  • The use of ICT tools for making research data and information available are plenty in numbers today, but the best use of ICT tools would be to improve cognitive skills and thus help discriminate, analyze and create information rather than simply accumulate (Boyer Commission, 1996).
  • As usually research process deals with a large amount of complex information and requires a lot of skills to analyze and organize these well, any ICT tool which helps the researcher give meaning and precision along with adding value to the information generated would be rated above the ones which help in just gathering information.

Thus, the use of ICT in research facilitates access and accuracy of research findings. 

Reason (R): A researcher has to follow various styles of referencing and format while writing a thesis with the intent of deriving support from ICT.

Explanation:

  • A researcher has to follow various styles of referencing and format while writing a thesis, not with the intent of deriving support from ICT.
  • Referencing allows you to acknowledge the contribution of other writers and researchers in your work.
  • Any university assignments that draw on the ideas, words, or research of other writers must contain citations.
  • Referencing is also a way to give credit to the writers from whom you have borrowed words and ideas.
  • By citing the work of a particular scholar, you acknowledge and respect the intellectual property rights of that researcher.
  • As a student or academic, you can draw on any of the millions of ideas, insights, and arguments published by other writers, many of whom have spent years researching and writing. All you need to do is acknowledge their contribution to your assignment.

Thus, (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

19

Alive Devadatta is either in his house or elsewhere, Alive Devadatta is not in his house. Therefore alive Devadatta is elsewhere. The above is an example of which kind of pramana?

  1. ((a))

    Perception and inference (Pratyaksha and Anuman)

  2. ((b))

    Comparison (Upmana)

  3. ((c))

    Verbal testimony (Shabda)

  4. ((d))

    Implication (Arthapatti)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Implication (Arthapatti)

Alive Devadatta is either in his house or elsewhere, Alive Devadatta is not in his house. Therefore alive Devadatta is elsewhere. The above is an example of Arthapatti Pramana.

  • Arthapatti, (Sanskrit: “the incidence of a case”) in Indian philosophy, the fifth of the five means of knowledge (pramana) by which one obtains accurate knowledge of the world.
  • Arthapatti is knowledge arrived at through presumption or postulation.
  • The implication, in logic, is a relationship between two propositions in which the second is a logical consequence of the first.
  • Here, the first proposition states that Devadatta is alive and is not in his house. Now since we know that he is not dead and is not in his house, so we can formulate the second proposition that he must be elsewhere.

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

1. Perception/Pratyaksha

  • (Sanskrit: “that which is before one’s eyes”). Direct perception takes place through our sensory organs directly like smelling through the nose, seeing by the eyes, hearing via ears, tasting through the tongue, and feeling touch by the skin. Indirect perception is knowledge based upon memory.2.

2. Inference/Anumana

  • (Sanskrit: “measuring along with some other thing” or “inference”). There is smoke on the yonder hill. There must be fire over there.
  • We have seen on countless occasions that where there is smoke there is fire. So we infer that there is fire on the hill.
  • This is inference. It is cognition that presupposes some other cognition.
  • The term anumana (inference) literally means after knowledge i.e., the knowledge that follows other knowledge.

3. Comparison/Upamana

  • ‘Have you seen Mars?’ ‘No, I haven’t.’ ‘Have you not seen the pictures of Mars either?’ ‘No, I haven’t. And I do not know what Mars is. What is Mars and how does it look like?’ ‘Ah! You know nothing then? Mars is a planet. It is like our earth.’ ‘Like the earth. Ah! I understand.’
  • This is knowing by visible examples. It is the knowledge that is derived from upamana (comparison).
  • It is defined as the knowledge between the relation of a word and its meaning or denotation. It is also known as knowledge via analogy.

4. Verbal Testimony/Shabda

  • Regarding supernatural and divine things, there is only one source of knowledge – the words of the sages.
  • Their words are compiled in the Vedas. The Vedas are infallible. But even here we need the senses to either read or listen to the Vedas.
  • Testimony consists of words (sabda). So far as words are heard through our ears, they are perceived.
  • Knowledge of words is, therefore, knowledge through perception and is quite valid.
  • It is defined as a statement of a trustworthy person and consists in understanding its meaning.
20

To differentiate a primary storage from a secondary storage in a computer system, which of the following statements is correct?

  1. ((a))

    Primary storage is slower, more expensive and persistent.

  2. ((b))

    Primary storage is faster, more expensive and persistent.

  3. ((c))

    Primary storage is faster, less expensive and persistent.

  4. ((d))

    Primary storage is slower, less expensive and persistent.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Primary storage is faster, more expensive and persistent.

Memory in a computer system is required for storage and retrieval of the instructions and data. A system uses a variety of devices for storing these instructions and data that are required for its operation.

The following two kinds of memory systems:

  1. Primary (main) Memory: Primary memories are used mainly for primary storage. It stores programs and data which are currently needed by the CPU. The primary memory is a static device. There is no rotating part in it. Examples include RAM, ROM, etc.
  2. Secondary Memory: It is the storage that the CPU cannot access directly. it's content firstly needs to be copied into ram and then transferred to CPU. It stores data that can be easily retrieved only by the main memory and used by the processor. Example, hard disk.

Difference between Primary and Secondary memory:

Primary memorySecondary memory
Primary memory is temporary.Secondary memory is permanent.
Primary memory is directly accessible by Processor/CPU.Secondary memory is not directly accessible by the CPU.
Nature of Parts of Primary memory varies, RAM- volatile in nature. ROM- Non-volatile.It’s always Non-volatile in nature.
Primary storage is faster, more expensive, and persistent.Secondary memory devices are less expensive, slower when compared to primary memory devices.
The memory devices used for primary memory are semiconductor memories.The secondary memory devices are magnetic and optical memories.
Primary memory is also known as Main memory or Internal memory.Secondary memory is also known as External memory or Auxiliary memory.
Examples: RAM, ROM, Cache memory, PROM, EPROM, Registers, etc.Examples: Hard Disk, Floppy Disk, Magnetic Tapes, etc.

Therefore, option 2 is the correct answer.

21

Given below are two statements: 

Statement I: 'SWAYAM' an initiative of Government of India, aims at promoting the self - help groups in rural areas.

Statement II: 'e - Tantra' is an initiative to spread education in Embedded systems and Robotics by IIT, Mumbai through MHRD - NMECIT.

In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Both Statement I and Statement II are false

SWAYAM:

  • SWAYAM or Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds is a program initiated by the Government of India and designed to achieve the three cardinal principles of Education policy viz., access, equity, and quality.
  • The aim of this effort is to take the best teaching-learning resources to all, including the most disadvantaged.
  • The courses hosted on SWAYAM are in 4 quadrants - 1) video lecture, 2) specially prepared reading material that can be downloaded/printed, 3) self-assessment tests through tests and quizzes and 4) an online discussion forum for clearing the doubts.

e-Yantra:

  • Project e-Yantra, not e- Tantra is an initiative to spread education in embedded systems and Robotics by IIT Bombay sponsored by Ministry of Human Resource Development through the National Mission on Education through ICT (NMEICT).
  • Its major objective is to provide hands-on learning to engineering students who have limited access to labs and mentors.
  • In 2002, Prof. Kavi Arya started the distance education program at IIT Bombay and started teaching Embedded systems, as the Program Co-ordinator.
  • The goal of e-Tantra is to complement Higher Education systems worldwide and solve local problems across a variety of domains like Agriculture, Disaster, Manufacturing, Defence, Home, Smart cities, and Service industries through technology.
  • The mission of this project is to create the next generation of engineers with a practical outlook to help in providing pragmatic solutions to real-world problems.

Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

22

Given below are two statements: 

Statement I: Search engines are also known as web browsers.

Statement II: 189.365.250.2 is an example of a valid IP address.

In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Both Statement I and Statement II are false

The correct answer is Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

Key Points

  • A search engine is a software designed to carry out web searches, which means to search the World Wide Web in a systematic way for particular information specified in a textual web search query.
  • A web browser is a software application used to access information on the World Wide Web.
  • Simply, a web browser gives access to the internet and a search engine allows to search the internet once access is granted.
  • Thus, a search engine is not the same thing as a web browser, though the two are often confused.
  • An Internet Protocol address is a numerical address assigned to each device connected to a computer network that uses Internet Protocol for communication.
  • An IP address serves two main functions: network interface identification and location addressing.
  • A valid IP address must be in the form of A.B.C.D, where A, B, C, and D are numbers from 0 to 255.
  • The numbers cannot be 0 prefixed unless they are 0.14609 successful submissions.
  • In Statement II, the IP address has a number that is more than 255 i.e. 365.
  • Thus it is incorrect.

Therefore, both Statement I and Statement II are false.

23

Match List - I with List - II 

List – I (Computer Components)List – II (Description)
(A) RAM(I) Brain of the Computer
(B) DVD – ROM(II) Performs all computations and comparison operations
(C) ALU(III) Can be written only once
(D) CPU(IV) Holds programs currently being run on the computer

Choose the correct option from those given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

  2. ((b))

    (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

  3. ((c))

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

  4. ((d))

    (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Computer ComponentsDescription
(A) RAM- Random Access Memory allows your computer to perform its everyday tasks like loading applications, browsing the internet, editing a spreadsheet, etc. - It holds programs currently being run on the computer and allows users to switch among these programs.
(B) DVD - ROM- Digital Versatile Disk - Read Only Memory is used to permanently store data files. - DVD - ROM can be written only once and read arbitrarily many times. - They are widely used to distribute large software applications that exceed the CD - ROM capacity.
(C) ALU- Arithmetic Logic Units enable computers to perform all computations and comparison operations, mathematical operations on binary numbers. - They can be found at the heart of every digital computer and are one of the most important functions of a CPU.
(D) CPU- The Central Processing Unit is the brain of the computer. - The CPU is constantly following instructions of computer programs that tell it which data to process and how to process. - The CPU is also known as the processor or microprocessor.

Therefore, from the above explanation, it is clear that option 3) is the correct answer.

24

Consider the following incomplete sentences:

3G is a ______ range wireless technology. Some activities that require ____ bandwidth cannot be carried out by using 3G. 

Bluetooth is a ______ range wireless technology which is used to connect devices together for data transfer. Bluetooth is a ______ cost means of data transfer.

Complete the above sentences by choosing the correct words in order from the following list:

(A) Long

(B) Low

(C) Short

(D) High

  1. ((a))

    (A), (D), (C), (B)

  2. ((b))

    (C), (D), (A), (B)

  3. ((c))

    (C), (B), (A), (D)

  4. ((d))

    (A), (B), (C), (D)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A), (D), (C), (B)

3G:

  • 3G is the third generation of wireless mobile telecommunications technology.
  • It is based on a set of standards used for mobile devices and mobile telecommunications use services and networks that comply with the International Mobile Telecommunications (IMT-2000) specifications.
  • 3G is a long-range wireless technology.
  • Some activities that require high bandwidth cannot be carried out by using 3G.
  • Each generation is characterized by new frequency bands, higher data rates, and non-backward-compatible transmission technology.

Bluetooth:

  • Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over a short distance using UHF radio waves in industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands.
  • Bluetooth is a low-cost means of data transfer.
  • Bluetooth replaces the cables connecting electronic devices, allowing people to have conversations with a headset, use a wireless mouse and synchronize information from a mobile phone to a PC.

Therefore, option 1) is the correct order of words.

25

Arrange the following fuels in decreasing order in terms of the amount of carbon dioxide emitted per unit of energy output from their combustion:

(A) Natural gas

(B) Coal (lignite)

(C) Gasoline (without ethanol)

(D) Propane

 Choose the correct option from those given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A) > (B) > (D) > (C)

  2. ((b))

    (B) > (A) > (C) > (D)

  3. ((c))

    (B) > (C) > (D) > (A)

  4. ((d))

    (D) > (B) > (C) > (A)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(B) > (C) > (D) > (A)

The emission of carbon dioxide varies from different fuels in relation to the energy they produce when burned. To analyze the emissions across these different fuels, the amount of CO2 emitted per unit of energy output is compared. 

Pounds of CO2 emitted per million British thermal units of energy for various fuels:

Coal (anthracite)228.6
Coal (bituminous)205.7
Coal (lignite)215.4
Coal (sub-bituminous)214.3
Diesel fuel and heating oil161.3
Gasoline (without ethanol)157.2
Propane139.0
Natural gas117.0
  • The amount of CO2 produced when a fuel is burnt is a function of the carbon content of the fuel.
  • The amount of energy output or the heat content produced when a fuel is burned is determined by the amount of carbon (C) and hydrogen (H) content of the fuel.
  • The heat is produced when C and H combine with oxygen (O) during combustion.
  • Natural gas is primarily methane which has a higher energy content relative to other fuels, and thus it has lower CO2-to-energy content.
  • Water and various elements such as sulfur, noncombustible elements in some fuels, reduce their heating values and increase their CO2-to-heat contents.

Therefore, (B) > (C) > (D) > (A) is the decreasing order in terms of the amount of carbon dioxide emitted per unit of energy output from their combustion.

26

The aims and objectives of which of the following have co-benefits with Sustainable Development Goals?

(A) International Solar Alliance

(B) Montreal Protocol

(C) Paris Agreement

(D) Convention on Biodiversity

(E) National Action Plan on Climate Change

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A), (B), (C) (E) only

  2. ((b))

    (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) 

  3. ((c))

    (A),(C) (E) only

  4. ((d))

    (B), (C), (D) (E) only

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) 

In September 2015, the General Assembly adopted the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development that includes 17 Sustainable Goals (SDGs). Built on the principle of "leaving no one behind", the new Agenda emphasizes a holistic approach to achieving sustainable development for all.

There are 17 Sustainable Development Goals-

  • GOAL 1: No Poverty
  • GOAL 2: Zero Hunger
  • GOAL 3: Good Health and Well-being
  • GOAL 4: Quality Education
  • GOAL 5: Gender Equality
  • GOAL 6: Clean Water and Sanitation
  • GOAL 7: Affordable and Clean Energy
  • GOAL 8: Decent Work and Economic Growth
  • GOAL 9: Industry, Innovation and Infrastructure
  • GOAL 10: Reduced Inequality
  • GOAL 11: Sustainable Cities and Communities
  • GOAL 12: Responsible Consumption and Production
  • GOAL 13: Climate Action
  • GOAL 14: Life Below Water
  • GOAL 15: Life on Land
  • GOAL 16: Peace and Justice Strong Institutions
  • GOAL 17: Partnerships to Achieve the Goal

Aims and objectives of organizations that co-benefits with Sustainable Development Goals are as follows:

(A) International Solar Alliance:

  • International Solar Alliance (ISA) consists of 121 countries mostly located between the tropic of cancer and the tropic of Capricorn.
  • These countries are located at the shortest distance from the Sun that is why solar energy is available in large quantity throughout the year.
  • The ISA has set a target of 1 TW of solar energy by 2030.
  • The main aim of ISA is to bring those countries on a platform that supports clean energy, a sustainable environment, clean public transport, and a clean climate.

(B) Montreal Protocol:

  • The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is the landmark multilateral environmental agreement that regulates the production and consumption of nearly 100 man-made chemicals referred to as ozone-depleting substances (ODS).
  • The Montreal Protocol phases down the consumption and production of the different ODS in a step-wise manner, with different timetables for developed and developing countries.
  • If implemented successfully, the ozone layer is projected to recover by the middle of this century, and if not then ozone depletion would have increased tenfold by 2050.
  • It has been estimated, for example, that the Montreal Protocol is saving an estimated two million people each year by 2030 from skin cancer.

(C) Paris Agreement:

  • The Paris Agreement is a legally binding international treaty on climate change.
  • It is an agreement within the United Nations Framework Convention on climate change dealing with greenhouse gas emissions mitigation, adaptation, and finance signed in 2016.
  • It was adopted by 196 parties at COP 21 in Paris, on 12 December 2015 and entered into force on 4 November 2016.
  • The Paris Agreement's central aim is to strengthen the global response to the threat of climate change by keeping a global temperature rise to well below 2, preferably 1.5ºC, compared to industrial levels.

(D) National Action Plan on Climate Change:

  • National Action Plan on Climate Change is a Government of India's program launched in 2008 to mitigate and adapt to the adverse impact of climate change.
  • The plan aims at fulfilling India's development objectives while focusing on reducing the emissions intensity of its economy.
  • The plan will rely on the support of developed economies with the prime focus of keeping its carbon emissions below the developed countries at any point in time.

(E) Convention on Biodiversity:

  • The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is the international legal instrument for, "the conservation of biological diversity, the sustainable use of its components and the fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources" that has been ratified by 196 nations.
  • The main three objectives of CBD are:
  1. the conservation of biological diversity,
  2. the sustainable use of the components of biological diversity and
  3. the fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the utilization of generic resources.

Therefore, the aims and objectives of (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) only have co-benefits with Sustainable Development Goals.

27

Given below are two statements: 

Statement I: Diesel Vehicles emit excessive amounts of oxides of nitrogen and fine particulate matter. 

Statement II: The diesel engines run with mixtures having high air to fuel ratio. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

In recent years, exhaust emission from motor vehicles has been increasing. To combat this, the motor industry has been promoting the diesel car as cleaner than petrol cars due to their greater fuel economy and reduced maintenance requirements. Emissions from diesel vehicles are considered relatively less harmful to human health in comparison to petrol vehicles. 

However, diesel cars have very different emission characteristics and an increase in diesel cars at the expense of petrol cars could have important implications on air quality, smog formation, global warming, and other environmental issues. 

Emissions from Diesel Vehicles:

  • The diesel cars contain more energy per litre than petrol cars and coupled with the fact that diesel engines are more efficient than petrol engines, diesel cars are more efficient to run.
  • Diesel fuel contains no lead and emissions of regulated pollutants like hydrocarbons and carbon monoxide are inherently very low as compared to petrol cars with a catalyst.
  • When compared to petrol cars with catalyst, diesel emits excessive amounts of nitrogen oxide and particulate matter.
  • The diesel engines run with rich or lean mixtures having high air to fuel ratio.
  • When the air to fuel ratio is lower than the stoichiometric ratio, the air to fuel mixture is called rich.
  • On the contrary, when the air to fuel ratio is higher, the air to fuel mixture is said to be lean.
  • Diesel engines run on a lean mixture i.e. a mixture having high air to fuel ratio, it is because to self ignite atomized diesel when injected.
  • Now, the temperature inside the combustion chamber has to be above the self-ignition temperature of diesel (above 210 C) when the piston is about to reach TDC.
  • Since the temperature of the air which is induced into the combustion chamber has to be increased during the compression stroke, it helps the higher content of air to ignite and com bust the pressurized injected diesel effectively and interestingly very small amount of diesel is enough to generate higher in-cylinder pressures due to the higher amount of presence of air which really aids in producing better torque.

Since statement II is incomplete, therefore, it is incorrect.

Thus, Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

28

In a city the noise levels represented by equivalent sound pressure level over 8 years period were reported as 80 dB (A). What does 'A' refer to

  1. ((a))

    a type of amplifier used in the measurement

  2. ((b))

    a type of microphone used in the measurement

  3. ((c))

    the measurement of day time

  4. ((d))

    a type of weighting used in the measurement

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

a type of weighting used in the measurement

Decibel (dB) is a unit for expressing the ratio between two physical quantities, usually amounts of acoustic or electric power, or for measuring the relative loudness of sound. 

dB (A) measurement:

  • A dB (A) measurement has been adjusted to consider the varying sensitivity of the human ear to different frequencies of sound.
  • Very low or high frequencies are given less weight than on the standard decibel scale.
  • Many regulated noise limits are specified in terms of dB (A) based on the belief that dB (A) is better correlated with the relative risk of noise-induced hearing loss.
  • Compared to dB, dB (A) is a type of weighting measurement used that underestimate the perceived loudness, annoyance factor, and stress-inducing capability of noises with low-frequency components, especially at moderate or high volumes of noise.

Therefore, in a city the noise levels represented by equivalent sound pressure level over 8 years period were reported as 80 dB (A), here 'A' refers to a type of weighting used in the measurement.

Measurement of some common sounds:

SoundsdB (A)
Breathing10
Normal speaking voice65
Rock concert120
Dog barking from 4 feet95
Passenger car at 65 mph at 25 ft77
Vacuum cleaner70
29

Which of the following has been the main aim of education during Ancient India?

  1. ((a))

    Emanicipation or liberation

  2. ((b))

    Material development

  3. ((c))

    Fulfillment of vocational needs

  4. ((d))

    Inculcation of social values

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Emanicipation or liberation

Education in Ancient India:

  • The aim of education in ancient India was the ultimate outcome of the Indian theory of knowledge and the corresponding scheme of life and values.
  • That scheme takes full account of the fact that Life includes Death and the two form the whole truth as it is a whole cycle and a whole truth leads to the ultimate merger with the supreme.
  • Hence the chief aim of education was the realization of the fundamental truths of life, to solve the problems of death by merging the self in the Universal to avoid change, decay, and dissolution.
  • Individuation meant death, a lapse from the Absolute, and a merger with the Universal meant life.
  • Individuation is Bondage. It limits vision and knowledge. Perception of Life in the perspective of the whole is Mukti, Emancipation.
  • The individual must achieve his emancipation, his escape from bondage (Samsara), disease, decline, and death.
  • It was, therefore, the main business of education to train and educate the inner mind and not the mere brain or the outer physical senses.

Therefore, the Emancipation or liberation has been the main aim of education during Ancient India.

30

The open university system needs to be introduced in order to expand opportunity of access to higher education. It was emphasized by:

  1. ((a))

    The University Education Commission (1948 - 49)

  2. ((b))

    The Education Commission (1964 - 66)

  3. ((c))

    The National Policy on Education (1968)

  4. ((d))

    The National Policy on Education (1986)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The National Policy on Education (1986)

The National Policy on Education (NPE) is a policy formulated by the Government of India to promote and regulate education in India. The NPE policy covers elementary education to higher education in both rural and urban India.

The first NPE was promulgated by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi in 1968, the second by Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi in 1986, and the third by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2020.  

The National Policy on Education (1986):

  • In 1986, a new National Policy on Education was introduced by Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi.
  • This policy called for special emphasis on the removal of disparities and to equalize educational opportunity, especially for Indian women, ST, and SC communities.
  • The policy called for expanding scholarships, adult education, recruiting more teachers from the SCs, incentives for poor families to send their children to school regularly, development of new institutions, and providing housing and services to achieve social integration.
  • The policy introduced an open university system in order to expand the opportunity of access to higher education with the Indira Gandhi National Open University, which had been created in 1985.
  • The NPE called for a "child-centered approach" in primary education and launched "Operation Blackboard" to improve primary schools nationwide.
  • It called for the creation of a "rural university" model based on the philosophy of Mahatma Gandhi, to promote economic and social development at the grassroots level in rural India.
  • 1986 education policy expected to spend 6% of the GDP on education.

Therefore, the open university system needs to be introduced in order to expand the opportunity of access to higher education was emphasized by the National Policy on Education (1986).

31

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): The problem of organic in rivers is usually worse in hot summer months.

Reason (R): Higher water temperatures exacerbate oxygen depletion

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. ((b))

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the NOT correct explanation of (A)

  3. ((c))

    (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

  4. ((d))

    (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Organic substance:

  • Organic pollution occurs when an excess of organic matter, such as sewage or manure enters the water.
  • When organic matter increases in a pond, the number of decomposers will increase.
  • These decomposers increase rapidly in hot summer months and use a great amount of oxygen during their growth.
  • Thus, the problem of organic in rivers is usually worse in hot summer months.

Dissolved oxygen:

  • Oxygen is measured in dissolved form as dissolved oxygen (DO).
  • If more oxygen is consumed than produced, dissolved oxygen levels decline and some animals may move away, weaken, or die.
  • DO level fluctuates seasonally and over a 24-hour period.
  • It varies with water temperature and altitude.
  • Higher water temperatures exacerbate oxygen depletion i.e. cold water holds more oxygen as compared to warm water due to which the problem of organic in rivers is usually worse in hot summer months.

Therefore, Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

32

Which of the following 'Four Pillars of Education' mentioned in Delors Commission report reflect the Indian value of "Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam"?

  1. ((a))

    Learning to know

  2. ((b))

    Learning to do

  3. ((c))

    Learning to be

  4. ((d))

    Learning to live together

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Learning to live together

The Delors Report was created by the Delors Commission in 1966. It proposed an integrated vision of education based on the two key concepts i.e. 'learning throughout life' and the 'Four Pillars of Education' to know, to do, to be, and to live together.

The Delors Report was aligned closely with the moral and intellectual principles that underpin UNESCO, and therefore its analysis and recommendations were more humanistic and less instrumental and market-driven than other educational reforms.

The Four Pillars of Education:

It was one of the most influential concepts of the Delors Report. Formal education, the report argued, emphasized certain types of knowledge to the detriment of others that are essential to sustaining human development. 

Those four pillars are as follows:

  1. Learning to know - a broad general knowledge with the opportunity to work in-depth in a smaller number of subjects.
  2. Learning to do - to acquire not only occupational skills but also the competence to deal with many situations and to work in teams.
  3. Learning to be - to develop one's personality and to be able to act with growing autonomy, judgment, and personal responsibility.
  4. Learning to live together - by developing an understanding of other people and appreciation of interdependence. It reflects the Indian value of "Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam", a Sanskrit phrase that means the whole world is one single family.

The idea of an integrated educational approach reflected in the four pillars of learning had a significant influence on policy debates, teacher training, and curriculum development in countries worldwide.

Therefore, Learning to live together mentioned in the Delors Commission report reflect the Indian value of "Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam".

Read the passage and answer questions:

Once the decision has been made to enter an overseas market, a business must consider the extent to which it will adapt its offerings to local conditions. It is possible to market the product in almost the same way in every country which is known as a global strategy, or will the marketing have to be adjusted for each market? If a business pursues a global strategy this means it is adopting essentially the same marketing mix wherever it competes. A Pan global marketing strategy has been adopted by business in several markets, such as jeans soft drinks and luxury goods. One advantage of a global approach is that it offers marketing economies of scale. For example, the business can develop one advertising campaign and one approach to packaging worldwide. However, this type of strategy does not respond to the requirements of different national markets and so the business may lose sales to competitors who focus more on local needs. In markets such as food and drinks and the media, a business may need to adapt significantly to local requirements. On the other hand, amore local approach may meet customer needs more precisely, but may be more expensive and more complex to manage. In reality, most companies will choose a balance between the global and local approach. There are global brands that sell in many different markets. They have the same name and logo everywhere. However, some advertisements are made in the way the product is promotional to reflect local conditions.

33

If the global strategy is benefit of local conditions, the business consequence is

  1. ((a))

    more investment in media advertising campaigns 

  2. ((b))

    emergence of different national markets

  3. ((c))

    change in the customer needs

  4. ((d))

    the dominance of competitors who focus on local conditions

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

the dominance of competitors who focus on local conditions

The correct answer is the dominance of competitors who focus on local conditions​.

 

Key Points

  • Option 1, 2 and 3 are not mentioned anywhere in the passage.
  • From the passage, *'the business can develop one advertising campaign and one approach to packaging worldwide. However, this type of strategy does not respond to the requirements of different national markets and so the business *may lose sales to competitors who focus more on local needs.' indicates that global strategy may be beneficial to the local market however the business may face stiff competition, even lose sales to those who concentrate on local need.
  • Hence, Option 4 is the correct answer.
34

The assessment of global brands in the passage is that

  1. ((a))

    they should have a single packaging approach

  2. ((b))

    they should advertise the product reflecting global conditions

  3. ((c))

    the global products should have different names and logo

  4. ((d))

    the globalization of business marketing is a reality

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

they should advertise the product reflecting global conditions

The correct answer is they should advertise the product reflecting global conditions.

 

Key Points

  • From the passage, 'In reality, most companies will choose a balance between the global and local approach' indicates the assessment of global brands, in which they have to choose the marketing strategy which reflects the global conditions.
  • Option 1, 3 and 4 don't reflect the assessment of global brands in a broader way. Single packaging, name, logo and globalization are the components that help global strategy.
35

Given below are two statements: 

Statement I: Institutional autonomy guarantees academic freedom.

Statement II: Academic freedom is not possible without institutional autonomy.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

UNESCO defines Institutional autonomy as, “a degree of self-governance, necessary for effective decision making by institutes of higher education regarding their academic work standards, management, and related activities” (Vlasova, 2019).

Academic autonomy is a generic concept, implying the self-governance of a university and not limited to a narrow sense of designing the academic curriculum.

Institutional Autonomy and Academic Freedom:

  • Institutional autonomy and academic freedom are highly interlinked.
  • In order to ensure the freedom of study, teach and determine research questions, academic freedom requires institutional autonomy.
  • In other words, academic freedom is not possible without institutional autonomy.
  • Institutional autonomy is a necessity but not a sufficient condition for academic freedom.
  • At least one critic of university development regards the recent installation of systems of market competition by governments in many countries as extending regulation and inimical to academic freedom.
  • With the expansion, diversity, and complexity of higher education in most countries, the need to decentralize authority and to provide greater autonomy to higher education institutions has emerged as an inevitable approach.
  • Granting institutional autonomy is not a one-way process or simply a set of policies to achieve successful higher education management.
  • It is not only about what freedom higher education institutions are going to obtain from the government but also about what freedoms the government is willing to give.
  • This involves government provisions to adopt legal reforms, restructuring of public funding mechanisms, and personnel regulations.

Therefore, Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Mistake Points

  • Although statements I and II seem similar, the key to getting this question right is to focus on the word guarantee.
  • Although institutional autonomy and academic freedom are interdependent on each other, however, it does not GUARANTEE it.
36

What should be the global strategy in business?

  1. ((a))

    Sell different brands in different overseas market

  2. ((b))

    Market the same product in every country the same way

  3. ((c))

    Decide to enter the overseas market

  4. ((d))

    Know the local conditions of the local market

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Market the same product in every country the same way

The correct answer is Market the same product in every country the same way.

 

Key Points

  • From the passage, 'It is possible to market the product in almost the same way in every country which is known as a global strategy, or will the marketing have to be adjusted for each market? If a business pursues a global strategy this means it is adopting essentially the same marketing mix wherever it competes' This clearly indicates that global strategy is marketing the same product in every country the same way.
  • Option 1 is out of the context, not mentioned in the passage.
  • Option 3, the decision to enter the overseas market is not a strategy.
  • Option 4 indicates the local market approach only.
37

What does global strategy mean?

  1. ((a))

    Opting for the same marketing mix in every competitive market

  2. ((b))

    Globalise the local conditions of marketing

  3. ((c))

    Creating product differentiation to suit different markets

  4. ((d))

    Making overseas marketing non - competitive

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Opting for the same marketing mix in every competitive market

The correct answer is Opting for the same marketing mix in every competitive market​.

 

Key Points

  • From the passage, 'If a business pursues a global strategy this means it is adopting essentially the same marketing mix wherever it competes' clearly indicates that global strategy means choosing same market mix in all competitive market.
  • Option 2, 3 and 4 don't reflect the meaning of global strategy.
38

The benefits from a non global approach is to opt for:

  1. ((a))

    grand sale of non - luxury goods

  2. ((b))

    market expansion of costly products

  3. ((c))

    single advertising campaign worldwide

  4. ((d))

    refreshing marketing economies of scale

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

single advertising campaign worldwide

The correct answer is single advertising campaign worldwide.

Key Points

  • From the passage, 'For example, the business can develop one advertising campaign and one approach to packaging worldwide. However, this type of strategy does not respond to the requirements of different national markets and so the business may lose sales to competitors who focus more on local needs.' indicates that it is one of the strategies that may benefit the non global approach.
  • Option 1, 2 and 4 are out of the context, not mentioned anywhere in the passage. and not related to the non global approach.
39

Which of the following systems of Indian Philosophy are antithetical to the Vedas?

(A) Purva Mimasa

(B) Uttar Mimasa

(C) Buddhism

(D) Jainism

(E) Charvaks

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A), (B), (C) only

  2. ((b))

    (B), (C), (D) only

  3. ((c))

    (C), (D), (E) only

  4. ((d))

    (D), (E), (A) only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(C), (D), (E) only

Astika and Nastika are concepts used to classify Indian philosophies by modern scholars, as well as some Hindu, Buddhist, and Jain texts.

Astika means who believes in the existence of Self/Soul. It can be defined in one of the three ways:

  • those who accept the epistemic authorities of Vedas.
  • those who accept the existence of atman.
  • those who accept the existence of Ishvara.

Nastika, by contrast, refers to all those who deny the respective definitions of astika; they do not believe in the existence of Self/Soul. 

The terms Astika and Nastika have been used to classify various Indian intellectual traditions.

AstikaNastika
- A list of six systems that consider Vedas as a reliable source of knowledge and an authoritative source and they are classified as astika schools.- The main schools of the Indian philosophy that reject the Vedas were regarded as heterodox in tradition.
1. Nyaya 2. Vaisheshika 3. Samkhya 4. Yoga 5. Mimasa 6. Vedanta or Uttar Mimasa1. Buddhism 2. Jainism 3. Charvaks 4. Ajivika 5. Ajnana

Therefore, (C), (D), (E) systems of Indian Philosophy are antithetical to the Vedas.

The table below embodies data on the oil import (in million tonnes) from six different countries over the years 2015 to 2019. In accordance with the table, answer the questions 1 - 5.

Year – wise Oil Import from Countries (in million tonnes)
Year Country →Saudi ArabiaIranIraqNigeriaKuwaitVenezuela
201528.820.515.811.613.97.2
201629.921.814.410.514.87.6
201727.221.215.013.211.87.3
201827.418.517.215.911.510.3
201932.617.524.614.217.89.6
40

What is the ratio of average of oil imports from Iraq to that from Venezuela for all the years together?

  1. ((a))

    14 : 29

  2. ((b))

    29 : 14

  3. ((c))

    39 : 23

  4. ((d))

    23 : 39

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

29 : 14

Formula used:

Average = Sum of all the terms/Total number of terms

Calculation:

Sum of all oil imports from Iraq in all the years = 15.8 + 14.4 + 15 + 17.2 + 24.6 = 87

Average of all oil imports from Iraq in all the years = 87/5 = 17.4

Sum of all oil imports from Venezuela in all the years = 7.2 + 7.6 + 7.3 + 10.3 + 9.6 = 42

Average of all oil imports from Venezuela in all the years = 42/5 = 8.4

Ratio = 17.4/8.4 = 29/14

∴ The required ratio is 29 ∶ 14

41

In which of the following years the percentage increase/decrease in oil import from Nigeria over its previous year is the maximum?

  1. ((a))

    2016

  2. ((b))

    2018

  3. ((c))

    2017

  4. ((d))

    2019

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2017

Formula used:

Percentage change = (Final value - Initial value)/Initial value × 100 

Calculation:

Percentage decrease in 2015 and 2016 = (10.5 – 11.6)/11.6 × 100 = -9.48%

Percentage increase in 2016 and 2017 = (13.2 – 10.5)/10.5 × 100 = 25.71%

Percentage increase in 2017 and 2018 = (15.9 – 13.2)/13.2 × 100 = 20.45%

Percentage decrease in 2018 and 2019 = (14.2 – 15.9)/15.9 × 100 = -10.69%

∴ The percentage increase in oil import from Nigeria is maximum in 2017

42

What is the approximate percentage of oil import from Iran in the year 2017 with respect to the total oil import from Iran in all the years together?

  1. ((a))

    20%

  2. ((b))

    23%

  3. ((c))

    21%

  4. ((d))

    25%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

21%

Formula used:

Percentage = Oil import in 2017/Total oil imports in all the years × 100 

Calculation:

Oil imports from Iran in 2017 = 21.2

Total oil imports from Iran in all the years = 20.5 + 21.8 + 21.2 + 18.5 + 17.5 = 99.5

Percentage = 21.2/99.5 × 100 = 21.3% ≈ 21%

∴ The required percentage is 21%

43

What is the average of approximate percentage of increase/decrease in oil import from Kuwait over its previous year for the given period?

  1. ((a))

    9.61%

  2. ((b))

    5%

  3. ((c))

    15%

  4. ((d))

    21%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

9.61%

Formula used:

Average = Sum of all the terms/Total number of terms

Percentage change = (Final value – Initial value)/Initial value × 100 

Calculation:

Percentage change = (14.8 – 13.9)/13.9 × 100 = +6.475%

Percentage change = (11.8 – 14.8)/14.8 × 100 = -20.27%

Percentage change = (11.5 – 11.8)/11.8 × 100 = -2.54%

Percentage change = (17.8 – 11.5)/11.5 × 100 = 54.78%

Average change in percentage = (+6.475% – 20.27% – 2.54% + 54.78%)/4 = 9.61%

∴ The required percentage is 9.61%

44

If P and Q are the average oil import from all the countries in the year 2019 and 2017 respectively, then P – Q is approximately equal to:

  1. ((a))

    3.43 million tonnes

  2. ((b))

    3.34 million tonnes

  3. ((c))

    2.43 million tonnes

  4. ((d))

    2.34 million tonnes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3.43 million tonnes

Formula used:

Average = Sum of all the terms/Total number of the terms

Calculation:

Sum of all the oil imports from all the countries in 2019 = 32.6 + 17.5 + 24.6 + 14.2 + 17.8 + 9.6 = 116.3

Average of all the oil imports from all the countries in 2019, (P) = 116.3/6 = 19.38

Sum of all the oil imports from all the countries in 2017 = 27.2 + 21.2 + 15 + 13.2 + 11.8 + 7.3 = 95.7

Average of all the oil imports from all the countries in 2017, (Q) = 95.7/6 = 15.95

Now, P – Q = 19.38 – 15.95 = 3.43

∴ The required value of P – Q is 3.43 million

45

Facts and information get focused in which level of teaching?

  1. ((a))

    Memory level

  2. ((b))

    Autonomous development level

  3. ((c))

    Understanding level

  4. ((d))

    Reflective level

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Memory level

Teachers teach students at different levels. The teachers have to keep in mind the development stage of the learners so that the desired educational objectives can be achieved.

The three levels of teaching are as follows:

  1. Memory level: thoughtless teaching
  2. Understanding level: thoughtful teaching
  3. Reflective level: upper thoughtful teaching

Memory level:

  • It is the first and thoughtless level of teaching.
  • It is concerned with memory or mental ability that exists in all living beings.
  • At this level, students only cram the facts, information, formulas, and laws that are taught to them.
  • Here the role of the teacher is prominent and that of the student is secondary.

Therefore, facts and information get focused on the memory level of teaching.

Understanding level:

  • Understanding something is to perceive the meaning, grasp the idea, and comprehend the meaning.
  • The teaching at the understanding level is more useful and thoughtful from the point of view of mental capabilities.
  • At this level of teaching, the teacher explains to the student the relationship between principles and facts and teaches them how these principles can be applied.
  • This enables students to have complete command over subject material.

Reflective level:

  • The reflective level is also known as the introspective level.
  • Reflecting on something means giving careful thought to something over a period of time.
  • Teaching at the reflective level enables the students to solve the real problems of life.
  • The student is made to face a real problematic situation.
  • The student by understanding the situation and using his critical abilities succeeds in solving the problem.
46

Which of the following will be considered 'correct' when T - L model is adhered to?

  1. ((a))

    Teaching and learning are independent acts

  2. ((b))

    Teaching and learning are in integral relationship

  3. ((c))

    Teaching can be so called even if there is no learning

  4. ((d))

    There can be learning with no act of teaching taking place

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Teaching and learning are in integral relationship

Teaching and learning (T-L) model:

  • ​The classic definition of teaching is the design and creation of environments.
  • Students learn by interacting with that environment and they study how to learn.
  • A model of teaching can be defined as the depiction of the teaching and learning environment, including the behavior of teachers and students while the lesson is presented through that model.
  • Models of teaching enable the students to engage in robust cognitive and social tasks and teach the student how to use them productively.
  • Models of teaching are the specific instructional plans which are designed according to the concerned learning theories.
  • It provides a comprehensive blueprint for the curriculum to design instructional materials, planning lessons, teacher-pupil roles, supporting aids, and so forth.

Therefore, teaching and learning are in an integral relationship will be considered 'correct' when T - L model is adhered to.

47

A teacher intends to use the transformational approach in teaching in order to ensure an effective way of influencing student's learning. Which of the following activities will be deemed appropriate in this context?

(A) Providing a sense of respect and trust for students.

(B) Promoting contingent rewards for efforts of students.

(C) Intervening in student's task only if standards are not met.

(D) Communicating high-level expectations.

(E) Promoting careful problem solving and individual consideration.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A), (B) and (C) only

  2. ((b))

    (B), (C) and (D) only

  3. ((c))

    (C), (D) and (E) only

  4. ((d))

    (A), (D) and (E) only

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(A), (D) and (E) only

Transformational Teaching:

  • Transformational teaching is based on the idea that an instructor’s purpose is greater than the delivery of information.
  • Rather than being content-focused, transformational teachers help students become meta-critical participants in the learning process and well-practiced at critical thinking, goal setting, and reflection.
  • Inquiry-based learning, service learning, and project-based learning are all forms of transformational education.
  • Teachers who use these methods have a high burden of preparation and flexibility, but the short-term time investment has a long-term payoff, particularly when a classroom of learners becomes a tight-knit and engaged community capable of reflecting on their needs and interests as learners.

Activities involved in transformational teaching:

1. Providing a sense of respect and trust for students:

  • Developing trust and fostering emotional intelligence in the classroom is essential to building strong teacher-student relationships.
  • Building strong relationships with children will have a positive influence on student success.

2. Communicating High-Level Expectation

  • Active classrooms sometimes require collaborative or team-based work in order to address some of the case studies or service projects that make transformative teaching most successful.
  • Transformational teaching involves inculcating dynamic and not stagnant/stable knowledge.
  • The teacher communicates his/her expectations from the students in order to motivate the students to think beyond their conventional limits.

3. Careful Problem Solving And Individual Consideration

  • Engaging students as active learners is key to transformational learning.
  • Class or small-group discussions built around real-world problems that encourage students to apply their learning and synthesize and empathize with ideas can be incredibly helpful for engaging students as problem solvers.
  • Students may require some guidance during this work, so transformational teachers should engage in modeling and facilitation to allow student input and creativity while also keeping students engaged in a carefully crafted lesson that guides them toward a larger learning objective.

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

  1. Promoting contingent rewards for the efforts of students: This is a motivation-based system that is used to reward those that meet their identified goals by providing positive reinforcement for a job well done. Giving rewards may not always prove beneficial in encouraging students to climb the ladder of success.
  2. Intervening in student's task is essential not only if standards are not met but also when the students are lost in the process of learning
48

Given below are two statements: 

Statement I: Use of support materials during teaching can replace teaching act if used carefully.

Statement II: Online methods are effective supplements for improving quality of teaching and learning.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

Teaching is a process in which one individual teaches or instructs another individual. Teaching is considered as the act of imparting instructions to the learners in the classroom situation. It is watching systematically. Dewey:- considers it as a manipulation of the situation, where the learner will acquire skills and insight with his own initiation.

Statement I: Use of support materials during teaching can replace teaching act if used carefully.

Explanation:

  • Support materials cannot replace teaching.
  • Support materials are merely an augmentation to teaching.
  • They can help in the process of learning, but they certainly cannot replace the power of teaching.
  • It is significant that we remember, teaching is more than just facilitating knowledge. Teaching also guides, mentors, and inspires students. Teaching itself is a power that cannot be replaced by support materials of any kind.
  • For instance, an encyclopedia is support material. Merely reading it won't contribute to effective learning. A teacher is needed who can explain concepts from it.

Thus, the statement I is incorrect.

Statement II: Online methods are effective supplements for improving the quality of teaching and learning.

Explanation:

  • Online learning may take several forms in delivering and supporting curricula.
  • At the most basic level, online learning resources may simply provide a mechanism for learners to engage asynchronously with content delivered in a lecture in either video or audio form. This form of content delivery often referred to as a podcast, can be used to reexamine areas of a lecture that may have seemed unclear or to deliver content in lieu of a classroom presentation.
  • Alternatively, online resources may be explicitly integrated or blended with in-class activities, as in the flipped curriculum approach where students interact with videos, audio clips, or readings prior to a classroom session to provide core knowledge and content that informs applications during the in-class session.
  • Finally, online learning may provide the full mechanism for delivering and assessing knowledge and skills as occurs with massive open online courses (MOOCs).
  • With online materials, students can titrate the time that they spend mastering content to match their own learning needs and developmental milestones.
  • In addition, educators can embed hyperlinks to additional remedial content in online learning modules to meet the educational needs of students having difficulty with foundational knowledge.
  • Thus, online methods are effective supplements for improving the quality of teaching and learning. Statement II is correct.

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

49

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Measurement is a set of rules for assigning numbers to represent objects, traits, attributes and behaviours.

Statement II: A test is a procedure in which a sample of an individual's behaviour is obtained, evaluated and scored using standardized procedures.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Statement I: Measurement is a set of rules for assigning numbers to represent objects, traits, attributes, and behaviors.

Explanation:

  • Measurement is the process of systematically assigning numbers to objects and their properties to facilitate the use of mathematics in studying and describing objects and their relationships.
  • Some types of measurement are fairly concrete: for instance, measuring a person’s weight in pounds or kilograms or his height in feet and inches or in meters.
  • Measurement is not limited to physical qualities such as height and weight. Tests to measure abstract constructs such as intelligence or scholastic aptitude are commonly used in education and psychology, and the field of psychometrics is largely concerned with the development and refinement of methods to study these types of constructs.
  • Scales of measurement refer to ways in which variables/numbers are defined and categorized.
  • Each scale of measurement has certain properties which in turn determines the appropriateness for use of certain statistical analyses.
  • The four scales of measurement are nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio.
  • Thus, the statement I is correct.

Statement II: A test is a procedure in which a sample of an individual's behavior is obtained, evaluated, and scored using standardized procedures.

Explanation:

  • A test is a device or procedure in which a sample of an individual's behavior is obtained, evaluated, and scored using standardized procedures.
  • A test provides a mechanism for making quantitative decisions about a process or processes.
  • The intent is to determine whether there is enough evidence to "reject" a conjecture or hypothesis about the process. The conjecture is called the null hypothesis.
  • Not rejecting may be a good result if we want to continue to act as if we "believe" the null hypothesis is true. Or it may be a disappointing result, possibly indicating we may not yet have enough data to "prove" something by rejecting the null hypothesis.
  • Thus, statement II is correct.

 

∴ Option I is the correct answer.

50

A teacher consistently makes an effort to improve the quality of learning through use of various interventions. The approach adopted by him/her can be in the ambit of which type of research?

  1. ((a))

    Fundamental research

  2. ((b))

    Applied research

  3. ((c))

    Action research

  4. ((d))

    Evaluative research

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Action research

Research is a systematic way of investigation, a process of discovering new knowledge. Research is also considered as searching for and gathering information, usually to answer a particular question. Each research study has its own specific purpose.

Action research 

  • Its primary aim is to solve an immediate problem. It is cyclic in nature.
  • It is a form of interpretive research to study human actions and social practices with the participation of the researcher.
  • It is applied research, which is focused on immediate application, not to develop any theory for general applications.
  • It refers to the application of research to educational problems in a particular classroom setting.

The Cycle of Action Research:

  • Action Research achieves its goal by using a ‘cyclic research process’, where each cycle is made up of four phases - Plan, Act (implementing plans), Observe (systematically) and Reflect.
  • It is a continuous cycle one can circle back to earlier phases within a cycle (e.g., cycle back and forth between reflection and planning).

 

Characteristics of Action Research:

  • There is always room for improvement when it comes to teaching and educating others.
  • The main traits of action research related to collaboration between teachers, educational managers, and members of the organization to solve problems.
  • Possibility to gain in-depth knowledge about the problem.
  • It can be used with quantitative as well as qualitative data.
  • This research focuses on specific situations and their context.
  • This type of research is facilitated by the participation and collaboration of a number of individuals with a common purpose.

Therefore, action research is intervention - based, cyclic in nature and improvement focused and is an appropriate method if a a teacher consistently makes an effort to improve the quality of learning through the use of various interventions

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

  1. Fundamental Research: Basic research — also referred to, as pure or fundamental research, — studies phenomena to get a fuller understanding of them. This is essential to obtain knowledge of a natural phenomenon whose applications may or may not have any bearing on any application in the immediate future or even after a long time.
  2. Applied Research: Applied research, on the other hand, is to acquire knowledge on the practical application of the theoretical base already built up which is expected to solve a critical problem.
  3. Evaluation Research: It is also known as program evaluation, which refers to research purpose instead of a specific method. Evaluation research is the systematic assessment of the worth or merit of time, money, effort and resources spent in order to achieve a goal.

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