UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 9th Oct 2020 Shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

The number of candidates who Appeared from zone M in the year 2014 = 420

The number of candidates who Qualified from zone M in the year 2014 = 240

The difference between the number of candidates who appeared and qualified in the test zone M in the year 2014 = 420 - 240

⇒ 180

The number of candidates who Appeared from zone M in the year 2015 = 740

The number of candidates who Qualified from zone M in the year 2015 = 330

The difference between the number of candidates who appeared and qualified in the test zone M in the year 2014 = 740 - 330

⇒ 410

The number of candidates who Appeared from zone M in the year 2016 = 830

The number of candidates who Qualified from zone M in the year 2016 = 560

The difference between the number of candidates who appeared and qualified in the test zone M in the year 2014 = 830 - 560

⇒ 270

The number of candidates who Appeared from zone M in the year 2017 = 930

The number of candidates who Qualified from zone M in the year 2017 = 640

The difference between the number of candidates who appeared and qualified in the test zone M in the year 2014 = 930 - 640

⇒ 290

The number of candidates who Appeared from zone M in the year 2018 = 1140

The number of candidates who Qualified from zone M in the year 2018 = 520

The difference between the number of candidates who appeared and qualified in the test zone M in the year 2014 = 1140 - 520

⇒ 620

The number of candidates who Appeared from zone M in the year 2019 = 1420

The number of candidates who Qualified from zone M in the year 2019 = 1140

The difference between the number of candidates who appeared and qualified in the test zone M in the year 2014 = 1420 - 1140

⇒ 280

From the above observations,

180 < 270 < 280 < 290 < 410 <  620

∴ The second-lowest difference in the year 2016

The number of candidates who appeared in the test from Zone - K in the year 2017 = 540

 The number of candidates who qualified for the test from Zone - L in the year 2019. = 740 

Percentage = 540 /740 × 100

⇒ 72.97 ≈ 73%

∴ The required percentage = 73%

The number of students appeared in the test from Zone  - N = 620 + 620 +640 + 780 + 990 + 1180

⇒  Sum of terms = 4830 

The number of terms = 6

Average = sum of terms/number of terms 

The average number of candidates who appeared in the test from Zone - N  = 4830/6 

⇒ 805

∴ The required answer is 805

The number of candidates who appeared in the test from the Zone - J in the year 2014 = 320

The number of candidates who qualified for the test from the Zone - M in the year 2016 = 560

The ratio of the number of candidates who appeared in the test from the Zone - J in the year 2014 to the number of candidates who qualified for the test from the Zone - M in the year 2016 = 320 ∶ 560

⇒ 4 ∶ 7

∴ The required ratio is 4 ∶ 7

The total number of candidates who qualified for the test in the year 2018 and 2019 together from Zone - J  = 480 + 560

⇒ 1040

The total number of candidates who qualified for the test in the year 2018 and 2019 together from Zone - K = 520 + 640

⇒ 1160

The total number of candidates who qualified for the test in the year 2018 and 2019 together from Zone - L = 680 + 740

⇒ 1420

The total number of candidates who qualified for the test in the year 2018 and 2019 together from Zone - M = 520 + 1140 

⇒ 1660

The total number of candidates who qualified for the test in the year 2018 and 2019 together from Zone - N = 690 + 940

⇒ 1630 

From the above observations, we can write as follows 

1660 > 1630 > 1420 > 1160 > 1040 

1630 numbers are qualified from the zone - N

∴ The second highest is in the Zone - N

An open classroom environment marked by sharing and caring by teachers and students in their interchanges will be most helpful for the Reflective Level Of Teaching.

Reflective Level Of Teaching: 

• The main proponent of Reflective Level Of Teaching is Hunt.
• It is the highest level of teaching.
• It involves the use of a problem-centric approach.
• The classroom environment is open and independent at this level of teaching.
• It leads to the development of creative skills.
• Learners occupy the primary position and participate actively in learning, while teachers play a democratic role.
• It develops the skills of learners for solving real-life problems.
• The techniques used are student-centered.
• It involves evaluation of attitude, beliefs, involvement in learning, and development of critical and creative skills.

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

1. Memory Level Of Teaching:

• The main proponent of Memory Level Of Teaching is Herbart.
• It is the initial level of teaching.
• The habit of rote learning is developed at this stage.
• Focuses on memorization of facts and information by the learners.
• Teachers occupy the primary position with their authoritarian and dominant role, while learners occupy the secondary position.

2. Understanding Level Of Teaching:

• The main proponent of the Understanding Level Of Teaching is Morrison.
• Emphasis is on the mastery of the subject by developing understanding and insights.
• Learners get to know about the meaning of concepts, generalizations, principles, and theories.
• Teachers and learners play an active role.
• Techniques used are teacher-centered and subject-centered.

​3. Autonomous Development Level:

• The autonomous development level is student-centered.
• There is little or no leadership, direction, coercion, prescription, or imposition of student thought or behavior to promote self-feelings leading to a sense of freedom.
• 'Intellectual development is something that just naturally happens'.
• The obvious implication of this level is that there is no need for any kind of formal teaching.

In 1956, the American educational psychologist Robert M. Gagne proposed a system of classifying different types of learning in terms of the degree of complexity of the mental processes involved.

He identified eight basic types and arranged these in the hierarchy. According to Gagne, the higher orders of learning in this hierarchy build upon the lower levels, requiring progressively greater amounts of previous learning for their success. The lowest four orders tend to focus on the more behavioral aspects of learning, while the highest four focus on the more cognitive aspects.

1. Signal learning-

• The simplest form of learning known as classical conditioning.
• The learner is conditioned to produce a desired (involuntary) response as a result of a stimulus that would not normally produce that response. i.e praying (condition) at the sound of a bell (stimulus). 2. Stimulus-response learning-
• This is a voluntary response to learning that may be used in acquiring verbal skills as well as physical movements.
• This type of learning can occur when the instructor praises the learner for deeper thinking or provides constructive criticism during reflection or debriefing. 3. Chain learning­- 
• It occurs when the learner is able to connect two or more previously learned stimulus-response bonds into a linked order; more complex psychomotor skills are learned, but they tend to occur naturally. i.e. learning how to tie shoestrings or buttoning a shirt. 4. Verbal association- 
• It occurs when the learner makes associations using verbal connections (Specht, 2008); it is the key process in language skill development.
• For example, a student nurse being able to define medical terminology and apply it to a clinical situation. 5. Discrimination learning- 
• It is seen when the learner is able to perform different responses to a series of similar stimuli that may differ in a systematic way.
• Discrimination learning is made more difficult when the learner comes across roadblocks or interference that inhibits continual learning.
• For example, a patient complaining of abdominal pain after abdominal surgery.
• The student must learn how to differentiate this pain from that of gas, intrabdominal bleeding, incisional pain, or infection.
• Interference may present itself when the student can not see other key factors that may contribute to the pain; therefore not allowing the student to fully address or manage the patient’s pain appropriately. 6. Concept learning- 
• It involves the ability to make consistent responses to different stimuli; it is the process in which the learner learns how to organize learning in a systematic structure and foster deeper learning.
• The student’s behavior is controlled by the abstract properties of each stimulus.
• The student nurse must realize interventions, or behaviors, appropriate for one patient, or stimulus, may not be appropriate for the next patient. 7. Rule learning-
• This involves being able to learn relationships between two or more concepts and apply them in different situations, new or old; it is the basis of learning general rules or procedures.
• This can be seen when the student can apply advocacy and confidentiality to a patient situation. 8. Problem-solving-
• It involves developing the ability to invent a complex rule or procedure for the purpose of solving one particular problem and other problems of a similar nature; this can be accomplished through case studies and reflection.
• Nursing students can improve on problem-solving through the nursing process: assessing, formulating a nursing diagnosis, analyzing data specific to the problem, formulating a plan of action, implementing the plan, and evaluating the effectiveness of the plan.

Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.

Applied research aims primarily at putting to use the theoretical advances with an eye on exploring the potential for generalizability

Applied Research:

• Applied research is a type of research design that seeks to solve a specific problem or provide innovative solutions to issues affecting an individual, group or society.
• It is often referred to as a scientific method of inquiry or contractual research because it involves the practical application of scientific methods to everyday problems.
• When conducting applied research, the researcher takes extra care to identify a problem, develop a research hypothesis, and go ahead to test these hypotheses via an experiment.
• In many cases, this research approach employs empirical methods in order to solve practical problems.
• Applied research is sometimes considered to be a non-systematic inquiry because of its direct approach to seeking a solution to a problem.
• It is typically a follow-up research design that further investigates the findings of pure or basic research in order to validate these findings and apply them to create innovative solutions.

1. Fundamental research:

• Fundamental research, also known as basic research or pure research does not usually generate findings that have immediate applications in a practical level.
• Fundamental research is driven by curiosity and the desire to expand knowledge in a specific research area.

2. Evaluative research:

• Evaluation research, also known as program evaluation, refers to research purpose instead of a specific method.
• Evaluation research is the systematic assessment of the worth or merit of time, money, effort and resources spent in order to achieve a goal.

3. Action research:

• Action research refers to a wide variety of evaluative, investigative, and analytical research methods designed to diagnose problems or weaknesses—whether organizational, academic, or instructional—and help educators develop practical solutions to address them quickly and efficiently.

Research indicates that apart from the personal qualities which encourage effective teaching, there are three other teacher characteristics namely: knowledge, organization and clarity, and warmth and enthusiasm which affect teaching.

Emotional intelligence (EI):

• EI is the ability to understand your own emotions and those of people around you.
• The concept of emotional intelligence means you must have a self-awareness that enables you to recognize feelings and manage your emotions.
• It has become popular after the immense success of Daniel Goleman's book in 1995, Emotional Intelligence, Why It Can Matter More Than IQ.
• Teachers who are warm and friendly inspire and instill positive attitudes and a love for learning in their students. Such teachers are known to be more effective in terms of students' increased attention, achievement, willingness to learn, and favorable attitude towards the content.
• Positive traits of personality make an effective teacher.
• The development of emotional intelligence is an intentional, active, and engaging process.
• When emotional intelligence skills are a focus of learning, teachers and students are building human development behaviors that are intricately related to the positive outcomes of achievement, goal achievement, and personal well-being.
• Emotionally intelligent teachers are active in their orientation to students' work and life. They inspire and motivate students beyond the walls of the classroom.

Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

1. Cognitively Intelligent teacher departs the best of academic knowledge in the most desirable and suitable way to students.
2. A socially Intelligent teacher helps the students to develop skills for becoming 'street smarts'.
3. Spiritually Intelligent teacher influences students on a spiritual level and teaches them the application of spiritual knowledge in daily-life situations.

Statement I: Instructional technology is a network of techniques pressed into service for realizing instructional objectives. 

Explanation:

• Instructional technology is the branch of education concerned with the scientific study of instructional design and development.
• The main purpose of instructional designers is to create engaging, effective learning experiences.
• It is the systematic application of strategies and techniques derived from behavioral and physical sciences concepts and other knowledge to the solution of instructional problems.
• Instructional technology includes practical techniques of instructional delivery that systematically aim for effective learning, whether or not they involve the use of media.
• It is a basic purpose of the field of instructional technology to promote and aid the application of these known and validated procedures in the design and delivery of instruction.

Thus, the statement I is correct.

Statement II: Computer-aided instruction can replace the teacher if the goal of education is personality development.

Explanation: 

• Technology cannot replace a teacher.
• Technology is merely an augmentation to a teacher.
• It can help the process of learning, but it certainly cannot replace the role of the teacher.
• Technology can make it easy to get educated by sitting at home but that education is also provided by a teacher.
• Even in online courses, we see that teachers are necessary to give lectures, whether in the form of videos, tutorials, Skype sessions, etc. Children still need to learn computers to operate those online sessions, which of course are taught by teachers.
• It is significant that we remember, a teacher is more than just a facilitator of knowledge. A teacher also acts as a guide, a mentor, and an inspiration for students, a role that cannot be replaced by technology of any kind.
• Taking critical skills into account like decision making, time management, etc, a child needs a teacher as technology cannot teach these human skills.
• Also, personality development involves the enhancement of social skills which requires an organic social environment that can be found in traditional classrooms and not in a virtual environment.

Thus, statement II is incorrect.

∴ Option 3 is the correct answer.

India has one of the largest reserves of thorium:

• According to the Atomic Minerals Directorate for Exploration and Research (AMD), a constituent unit of the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), India has 10.70 million tonnes of Monazite which contains 9,63,000 tonnes of Thorium Oxide (THO₂).
• The country's thorium deposits make up to 25% of the global reserves.
• All the evaluated thorium resources in India is confined to the mineral monazite occurring in the beach sand heavy mineral suite of East and West coasts like the coastal sands of Kerala sea.
• According to the former Atomic Energy Commission (AEC) chairman and ex-secretary Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) M.R. Srinivasan, the currently known Indian Thorium reserves can result in the generation of 358,000 gigawatt-year (GWe-yr) of electronic energy and can easily meet the energy requirements during the next century and beyond.

Therefore, the Thorium reserve, a potential source of nuclear energy is mainly confined in the coastal sands of the Kerala sea.

In September 2015, the General Assembly adopted the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development that includes 17 Sustainable Goals (SDGs). Built on the principle of "leaving no one behind", the new Agenda emphasizes a holistic approach to achieving sustainable development for all.

The 17 Sustainable Development Goals to transform our world are as follows:

1. No Poverty
2. Zero Hunger
3. Good Health and Well-being
4. Quality Education
5. Gender Equality
6. Clean Water and Sanitation
7. Affordable and Clean Energy
8. Decent Work and Economic Growth
9. Industry, Innovation and Infrastructure
10. Reduced Inequality
11. Sustainable Cities and Communities
12. Responsible Production and Consumption
13. Climate Action
14. Life Below Water
15. Life on Land
16. Peace and Justice Strong Institutions
17. Partnership to achieve the Goal

Therefore, the objectives specific to sustainable Development Goals among the given are (A), (B), and (E) only.

In recent years, exhaust emission from motor vehicles has been increasing. To combat this, the motor industry has been promoting the diesel car as cleaner than petrol cars due to their greater fuel economy and reduced maintenance requirements. Emissions from diesel vehicles are considered relatively less harmful to the environment in comparison to petrol vehicles. 

However, diesel cars have very different emission characteristics and an increase in diesel cars at the expense of petrol cars could have important implications on air quality, smog formation, global warming, and other environmental issues.

 

• Acute effects of diesel exhaust exposure include irritation of the nose and eyes, lung function changes, respiratory changes, headache, fatigue and nausea.
• Chronic exposures are associated with cough, sputum production and lung function decrements.
• In addition to symptoms, exposure studies in healthy humans have documented a number of profound inflammatory changes in the airways, notably, before changes in pulmonary function can be detected.
• It is likely that such effects maybe even more detrimental in asthmatics and other subjects with compromised pulmonary function.
• Emissions from diesel vehicles are harmful to human health in comparison to petrol vehicles.

Therefore, (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

Solar pond:

• A solar pond is a pool of saltwater that collects and stores solar energy in the form of heat.
• The saltwater naturally forms a vertical salinity gradient also known as "halocline", where low-salinity water flows above high-salinity water.
• In other words, it contains water with a definite gradient of salt concentration.
• When the sun rays come in contact with the bottom of a shallow pool, they heat the water adjacent to the bottom.
• When that water at the bottom is heated it becomes less dense as compared to the cooler water above, and convection begins.
• Solar ponds heat water by impeding this convection.
• Salt is added to the water until the lower layers of water are completely saturated.
• High-salinity water does not mix readily with low-salinity water, so when the bottom layer is heated, convection happens separately in both layers with only mild mixing between the two.
• It greatly reduces heat loss and allows for high salinity to get up to 90ºC while maintaining 30ºC low-salinity water.
• This hot water can be afterward pumped away for use in electricity generation, through a turbine or a source of thermal energy.

Therefore, both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

IPCC Report 2014:

• The report from the IPCC 2014 attributes 25% of global CO2 emissions directly from electricity and heat, followed by 24% of global CO2 emissions from agriculture and land use.
• The least contribution of global CO2 emissions was from buildings (6.04%) followed by the transportation sector (14%).
• The agricultural sector is one of the main sources of anthropogenic greenhouse gas emissions which is more than 10 gigatons of CO2 equivalents.

From the given diagram, it can be derived that:

Therefore, from the given sectors, transportation contributed the least to the global carbon dioxide emissions in the year 2014 as per the IPCC report.

BRIC is an acronym of four major emerging nations that showed phenomenal economic growth in the 1990s: Brazil, Russia, India, and China (O'Neill 2001). In 2010, South Africa claimed to add an "S" to the end of the acronym, and this nation is now the official member of the BRICS group of influential developing nations.

The BIRCS have some characteristics in common from a science and technology standpoint and they share meaningful strategic positions in science on their continent; they contribute significantly to the world's population of scientists and engineers; they have huge regional disparities in human, economic, and scientific development.

Research paper publications during 1990-2010:

From the above table, it can be understood that:

• Column 1 lists the BRICS countries in the descending order of research paper publications.
• Column 2 lists the number of records per country.
• China has the highest number of research papers published among the BRICS countries, followed by Russia, India, and Brazil.
• South Africa has the least number of research papers published among the BRICS countries.

Therefore, (B), (D), (A), (C) is the correct decreasing order of research paper publications among the given BRICS countries.

Education has always been given great prominence in Indian society since the times of the Vedic civilization, with gurukul and ashrams being the centers of learning.

Vikramshila University:

• Vikramshila University was one of the two most important centers of Buddhist learning in India during the Pala empire, along with Nalanda University.
• It was established by King Dharmapala (783 to 820) in response to a supposed decline in the quality of scholarship at Nalanda University.
• This university was situated on top of the hills along the bank of river Ganga and was well known for its specialized training on the subject of Tantra (Tantrism).
• It gave direct competition to Nalanda University with over 100 teachers and over 1000 students listed in this University.

Therefore, the ancient educational institutions situated on the banks of river Ganga was Vikramshila University.

Nalanda University:

• Nalanda University was established by Shakraditya of the Gupta dynasty in modern Bihar during the early 5^th century and flourished for 600 years till the 12^th century.
• Nalanda was the world’s first university to have residential quarters for both students and teachers.
• It also had large public lecture halls. Students from countries like Korea, Japan, China, Tibet, Indonesia, Persia, and Turkey came to study in this university.
• The library of this university was the largest library of the ancient world and had thousands of volumes of manuscripts on various subjects like grammar, logic, literature, astrology, astronomy, and medicine.

Pushpagiri University:

• Pushpagiri University was established in ancient Kalinga kingdom (modern-day Odisha) and was spread across Cuttack and Jajpur districts.
• It was established in the 3^rd century and flourished for the next 800 years till the 11^th century.
• The university campus was spread across three adjoining hills – Lalitgiri, Ratnagiri, and Udayagiri.
• This was one of the most prominent centers of higher education in ancient India along with the universities of Takshashila, Nalanda, and Vikramashila.
• The Chinese traveler Xuanzang (Huien Tsang) visited this university in 639 CE.

Takshashila University:

• Taxila as it is called today in Pakistan, Takshasila University established around 3700 years ago (around 1700 BC) was home to over 10500 students where the students from all across the world used to come to attain specialization in over 64 different fields of study like Vedas, grammar, philosophy, Ayurveda, agriculture, surgery, politics, archery, warfare, astronomy, commerce, futurology, music, dance, etc.
• Famous graduates of this University include the ones like Panini, Chanakya, Charaka, Vishnu Sarma, Jivaka, etc.
• This is the world’s oldest university found to date.

The MHRD, Government of India has formed e-ShodhSindhu merging three consortia initiatives namely UGC-INFONET Digital Library Consortium, NLIST, and INDEST-AICTE Consortium. 

The major aims and objectives of e-ShodhSindhu are as follows:

• Setting-up e-ShodhSindhu: Consortia for Higher Education E-resources by augmenting and strengthening activities and services offered by three MHRD funded consortia.
• To develop a formidable collection of e-journals, e-books, and e-journal archives on a perpetual basis.
• To monitor and promote e-resources to member universities, colleges, and technical institutions in India through awareness and training programs.
• Provide access to subscription-based scholarly information i.e. e-books and e-journals to educational institutions.
• To bridge the digital divide and move towards an information-rich society.
• Provide access to scholarly content available in open access through subject portals and subject gateways.
• Take up additional activities and services that require a collaborative platform and are not being performed by existing consortia.
• Moving towards developing a National Electronic Library with e-journals and e-books as its major building blocks.

Therefore, MHRD, Government of India. initiative e-ShodhSindhu provides students and researchers access to e-journals.

Bachelor of Vocation (B. Voc.) is a recognized graduation degree in India after which students are not considered as freshers like other graduates. They have a good scope in both private and government colleges. 

Cumulative credit awarded to the students in skill-based vocational courses:

• The curriculum in each of the years of the program would be a suitable mix of general education and skill development components.
• As is evident from the above table, the Skills development components shall have the 60% of the total credits, and the balance 40% credits will be of General education.

Therefore, as per National Skills Qualifications Framework (NSQF), the undergraduate B.Voc degree program requires the completion of 180 credits of Course Work.

To ensure that innovation is the primary fulcrum of all HEIs (Higher Education Institutions), MHRD (Ministry of Human Resource Department), Government of India is introducing "Atal Ranking of Institutions on Innovation Achievements (ARIIA)" to systematically rank education institutions and universities primarily on innovation-related indicators. 

ARIIA will primarily focus on 5 main parameters:

All recognized Indian educational institutions are eligible to participate in the ARIIA rankings.

The correct answer is Not expect much success in the school.

Key Points

• Let's refer to the passage: 'But the student who has experienced consistent failure in the classroom tends to lower his own expectations concerning school success.'
• It is evident from the above lines that a student who consistently performs poorly in the class can not expect much success in the school.
• Hence, option 4 is the most appropriate answer choice.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meaning of some important words:

• Consistent: always behaving or happening in a similar
• Strive: to try very hard to do something or to make something happen, especially for a long time
• Aggressively: assertive, bold, and energetic

The correct answer is He will divert his attention to other fields for success. 

Key Points

• Let's refer to the passage: ' But the student who has experienced consistent failure in the classroom tends to lower his own expectations concerning school success. He may direct his energy outside the classroom to athletics or youth gangs or to other areas where he can experience the satisfaction of success.'
• It is evident from the above lines that due to negative evaluation of the student in the classroom, he will divert his attention to other fields for success.
• Hence, option 2 is the most appropriate answer choice.

The correct answer is perform well in future also.

Key Points

• Let's refer to the passage: ' If a student is to continue to expect to do well in school, he needs to receive some positive evaluations for his academic performance. If an individual is to develop a positive concept of himself as a student, he needs to perform competently and to receive evaluations that he interprets to be positive within his own frame of reference***.**'*
• It can be deduced from the above lines that positive evaluation of a students academic performance will help him perform well in future also as he will start performing competently and even receive positive results.
• Hence, option 1 is the most appropriate answer choice.

The correct answer is He may feel that his potential is not properly assessed.

Key Points

• Let's refer to the passage: ' When the student is perceived as a less competent learner, forces are set in motion that reduce the chances that his potential will be developed to its fullest extent in school. The other students and his teachers may come to view him as having less potential than he really has.​'
• It is evident from the above lines that others in the school may rate his potential less than what he actually possesses.
• Hence, option 3 is the most appropriate answer choice.

The correct answer is A less competent student should seek his future in areas other than academics.

Key Points

• Let's refer to the passage: ' A student may divert his own personal resources to non academic areas because he believes that success in academic subjects is not open to him. If he does not apply his maximum efforts to learning school subjects. he may fail to develop some of the skills and knowledge he needs as a basis for further learning.'
• It is evident from the above lines that the student should put maximum efforts to have a successful academic performance.
• Hence, option 2 is the most appropriate answer choice.

Ethics are broadly the set of rules, written and unwritten, that govern our expectations of our own and others’ behavior. Research ethics are the set of ethics that govern how scientific and other research is performed at research institutions such as universities, and how it is disseminated. 

There is considerable scope for violation of research ethics in process of data interpretation, reporting research results, and using research tools prepared by others.

Data interpretation:

• Data Interpretation should be done in an honest and integral manner without any biased manipulation of data.
• This means that you need to report your research honestly and that this applies to your methods, your data, your results, and whether you have previously published any of it.
• One should not make up any data, including extrapolating unreasonably from some of your results, or do anything which could be construed as trying to mislead anyone.
• It is better to undersell than over-exaggerate your findings. You should aim to avoid bias in any aspect of your research, including design, data analysis, interpretation, and peer review.

Reporting of research results:

• The results of the research that are to be reported and published should be responsible and legal.
• You should publish to advance to the state of research and knowledge, and not just to advance your career.
• This means, in essence, that you should not publish anything that is not new, or that duplicates someone else’s work.
• You should always be aware of laws and regulations that govern your work and be sure that you conform to them.

Using research tools prepared by others:

• Research tools prepared by others should not be used without their permission.
• You should never plagiarise, or copy, other people’s work and try to pass it off as your own.
• You should always ask for permission before using other people’s tools or methods, unpublished data, or results. Not doing so is plagiarism.

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

Poor listening by the audience leads to Inaccurate inferences.

• Poor listening leads to assumptions and misunderstandings.
• These lead to errors, ineffective decisions, and/or costly mistakes.
• On a personal level, poor listening leads to hurt feelings and a loss of team cohesion. This deteriorates trust and weakens communication even further.
• The inference is a mental operation that allows listeners to deduce what is not said or what is implied. It is generally referred to as 'reading between the lines'.
• Good listening lead to accurate inferences as the listener because of his effective listening skills is able to use observation and background knowledge to determine a conclusion that makes sense.
• However, such is not the case with a poor listener as he/she is too occupied with something else, that, forget reading between the lines, he/she is not even able to effectively interpret what is being explicitly said.

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

Below is the explanation of the correct answer:

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

• Verbal and nonverbal communication are important to effectively show the students what appropriate classroom behaviour means.

Statement I: Free and unlimited use of non-verbal cues enhance the communicative aspects of classroom teaching. 

Explanation:

• Using non-verbal cues enhance the communicative aspects of classroom teaching.
• However, classroom communication should be kept formal and keeping in mind the environment of the school.
• Teachers are in a higher position and should limit their non-verbal cues which in other cases can be mistaken by students as inappropriate behaviour.
• Thus, Statement I is incorrect.

Statement II: A pleasant persona of the teacher enlivens the classroom eco-system. 

Explanation:

• The majority of communication with students is nonverbal like appropriate body language, eye contact, greetings, and smiling face creates a pleasant persona of the teacher that enlivens the classroom eco-system.
• Having a pleasant persona in the class puts students at ease and encourages interaction in the classroom.
• Thus, Statement II is correct.

Thus, Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.

Given:

9 + 5 ÷ 4 × 3 - 6 = 12

From option 1, interchange + and -  

9 - 5 ÷ 4 × 3 + 6 = 12

 ⇒ 9 - 1.25 × 3 + 6 =11.25

Hence, 11.25 < 12

From option 2,  interchange ÷ and -  

9 + 5 - 4 × 3 ÷ 6 =  12

⇒ 14 - 4 × 1/2 = 12

⇒ 14 - 2 = 12 

So, option 2 is correct

∴ Interchange the positions of ÷ and -

The logic is:

1 + 2² = 5

5 + 3² = 14

14 + 4² = 30

30 + 5² = 55 ≠ 50

55 + 6² = 91

Hence, 50 is the odd one out in the following sequence.

1) A and B play Football, Cricket, and Hockey.

2) B and C play Hockey and Badminton.

Means B plays Football, Cricket, Hockey, and Badminton.

3) C and D play Badminton and Tennis.

C plays hockey, Badminton, and Tennis.

4) D and A play Football, Cricket, and Tennis.

Means A plays Football, Cricket, Hockey, and Tennis.

D plays Football, Cricket, Tennis, and Badminton.

Conclusions:

(A) C does not play Cricket → True 

(B) B and D both play Tennis → False (B does not play Tennis)

(C) A plays football, Cricket, and Badminton → False (A does not play Badminton)

(D) A, B and D play Football and Cricket → True

(E) Except B all play Tennis → True

Hence, "(A), (D) and (E) only" is the correct answer.

The Recycle Bin is a location where deleted files or folders are temporarily stored. The Recycle Bin allows the users to restore the files that were deleted in the Windows OS.

Deleted files:

• The deleted files will be moved to the Recycle Bin, but in some cases, it will be removed directly too.
• Things will be different when the files are deleted from different storage devices like hard disk drives and flash drives.
• When files are deleted from the internal or the external hard drives, the deleted files can be restored back from the Recycle Bin and it will appear in the same folder it was present at the first time.
• When the files are deleted from the flash drive i.e. USB device like Pen drive or memory card and CD-ROM will not be put in the Recycle Bin, instead, all the relevant parameters of the file will be cleared immediately.

Therefore, the Recycle Bin is an area in Windows OS that contains files deleted from the hard drive.

Statement I: Minimum number of bits required to store any 3-digit decimal number is 10. 

Explanation:

• To calculate the number of possibilities given the number of digits: possibilities = base^{n digits}
• So, if you have 3 digits in decimal (base 10) you have 10³ = 1000 possibilities.
• Then you have to find a number of digits in binary (bits, base 2) so that the number of possibilities is at least 1000, which in this case is 2¹⁰ = 1024 (9 digits isn't enough because 2⁹ = 512 which is less than 1000).
• If you generalize this, you have: 2^{n bits} = possibilities <=> n bits = log²(possibilities)
• Which applied gives: log2(1000) = 9.97 and since the number of bits has to be an integer, you have to round it up to 10.

Thus, the statement I is correct.

Statement II: The data in a digital computer is stored in terms of bits/ bytes where one PetaByte is equal to 250 bits.

Explanation: 

• A collection of 8 bits is called a byte and (on the majority of computers today) a collection of 4 bytes, or 32 bits, is called a word.
• Any data stored on a computer is just a large collection of bits.
• A piece of computer memory can be represented by a series of 0's and 1's, with one digit for each bit of memory.
• The value 1 represents an “on” bit and a 0 represents an “off” bit.
• This notation is described as a binary form.
• A Pb is the unit symbol for the 'Petabyte' and, the short form of Petabyte is Pbyte.
• 1 Petabyte = 1024 TB = 2⁵⁰ Bytes = 2⁵³ Bits.

Thus, statement II is incorrect.

Therefore, Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

While communicating with others, people often focus on what they want to say. However, effective communication is less about talking and more about listening. Listening refers to not only understanding the words but also the emotions of the speaker.

When a teacher communicates with students in a classroom it is important to encourage participation, build rapport with students, and establishing credibility with the class.  

Principles of effective classroom communication:

• Choices of words used in communication
• The sender should be clear, concise, and to the point and the communication must be student-centered
• Speaking and listening intelligently
• High student engagement and involvement
• Selection of proper media
• Frequent and successful assessment
• High standards in the choice of media and methods used.

As and when these principles will be followed the consequences of effective classroom communication will be:

• Learning as the satisfying pursuit
• Enabling students to achieve goals
• Positive learning outcomes

Therefore, option 4) is the correct answer.

Let the number be 'x'

1/12 × x = 3/8

⇒ x = 3/8 ÷ 1/12

⇒ x = 3/8 × 12

⇒ x = 9/2

∴ 3/8 is 9/2 part of 1/12

Given:

Distance = 1500 meters

Rajiv beats Sanjay by 30 meters 

Rajiv beats Vijay by 100 meters 

Calculations:

Rajiv runs distance = 1500 meters

Sanjiv runs distance = 1500 - 30 

⇒ 1470 metes

Vijay runs distance = 1500 - 100

⇒ 1400 meters

At the same rate, Sanjiv runs 1500 meters while Vijay runs = 1500 × 1400/1470

⇒ 1428.57

Sanjay beats Vijay by =1500 - 1428.57

⇒ 71.42 meters

 ∴ Sanjiv ought to beat Vijay by 71.4 meters.

DVD-ROM stands for Digital Versatile Disk-Read Only Memory.

• DVD-ROM is a data storage device in which information, once written, cannot be modified.
• This 'write' protection affords the assurance that the data cannot be tampered with once it is written to the device.
• ROM protects the important files by keeping them safe and intact.
• It ensures the highest level of integrity and data security by eliminating the risk of important data being deleted or modified.
• This way, the ROM helps to preserve the authenticity and safety of recorded data.

Thus, a DVD-ROM is an optical storage media and it can be written only once.

• DVD-RAM is a DVD (optical disc) technology for high-capacity data storage for computers.
• Like ordinary random access memory (RAM), it can be repeatedly read, written to, and erased.
• Intended mostly for removable computer storage, DVD-RAM provides the capabilities of Rewriteable CD (CD-RW) - users can run programs from the discs, copy files to them and rewrite or delete them.

Volatile and Non-volatile memory are both types of computer memory.

Difference between Volatile and Non-volatile memory:

Therefore, from the above explanation, it is clear that the statements (A) and (D) only are true.

The correct answer is (A), (D), (B), (C)

• In computer architecture, memory hierarchy separates computer storage into a hierarchy based on response time. The memory hierarchy is an enhancement to organize the memory such that it can minimize the access time. Acess time refers to the time interval between the read/write request and the availability of data.

Memory Hierarchy Design:

• As we move from the top level to the bottom level in the hierarchy, the access time increases.
• That is CPU Registers require the least amount of memory access time.
• Cache Memory requires more amount of memory access time as compared to CPU Registers.
• Main Memory requires more amount of memory access time as compared to Cache Memory.
• Secondary Memory requires more amount of memory access time as compared to Main Memory.
• The amount of access time required can be stated as: CPU Register<Cache Memory<Main Memory<Secondary Memory.

Therefore, the correct order of the computer memories on the basis of increasing memory access time (from low to high) is (A), (D), (B), (C).

According to the American sociologist Earl Robert Babbie, “Research is a systematic inquiry to describe, explain, predict, and control the observed phenomenon. Research involves inductive and deductive methods.”

Triangulation:

1. Triangulation refers to the use of multiple methods or data sources in qualitative research to develop a comprehensive understanding of phenomena (Patton, 1999).
2. Triangulation also has been viewed as a qualitative research strategy to test validity through the convergence of information from different sources.
3. Triangulation means using more than one method to collect data on the same topic.
4. This is a way of assuring the validity of research through the use of a variety of methods to collect data on the same topic, which involves different types of samples as well as methods of data collection.
5. However, the purpose of triangulation is not necessarily to cross-validate data but rather to capture different dimensions of the same phenomenon.

1. Parental participation can be best judged by the observation method:

• Observation, as the name implies, is a way of collecting data through observing.
• The observation data collection method is classified as a participatory study because the researcher has to immerse herself in the setting where her respondents are while taking notes and/or recording.
• The data collected is observed in its natural setting and thus judging parental participation by the observation method will give out an organic result. 2. Attitude of the parents can be evaluated by the focused group discussion method:
• A focus group discussion (FGD) is a good way to gather together people from similar backgrounds or experiences to discuss a specific topic of interest.
• The group of participants is guided by a moderator (or group facilitator) who introduces topics for discussion and helps the group to participate in a lively and natural discussion amongst themselves.
• The strength of FGD relies on allowing the participants to agree or disagree with each other so that it provides an insight into how an individual thinks about an issue, about the range of opinion and ideas, and the inconsistencies and variation that exists in terms of their beliefs and their experiences and practices. 3. The problems of the parents can be judged by the interview method:
• Interview, in the true sense, means dialogue.
• Dialogue is based on people sharing their own perceptions of a problem, offering their opinions and ideas on their issues.
• A series of interviews or a chain of an interview with key informants help us gain more accurate insights into their situations, problems, customs, practices, systems, values, and the way they think, act, and perceive things.

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

• Sociometry is a quantitative method for measuring social relationships.
• A test is an assessment intended to measure a test-takers' knowledge, skill, aptitude, physical fitness, or classification in many other topics (e.g., beliefs).

According to the American sociologist Earl Robert Babbie, “Research is a systematic inquiry to describe, explain, predict, and control the observed phenomenon. Research involves inductive and deductive methods.”

A testable hypothesis and a suitable sampling method are essentials for good research work.

Statement I: A research hypothesis is a conjectural statement postulating the relationship among variables with a view to advance a solution to the problem of study. 

Explanation: 

• Etymologically, the hypothesis is made up of two words 'hypo' (less than) and 'thesis', which means less than a thesis.
• It is the presumptive statement of a proposition or a reasonable guess, based upon the available evidence, which the researcher seeks to prove through his/her study.
• The hypothesis is an assumption or proposition whose testability is to be tested on the basis of the compatibility of its implications with empirical evidence with previous knowledge (Mouly, 1963).
• It is also a declarative statement in which the investigator makes a prediction or a conjecture about the outcome of the relationship. The conjecture or the prediction is not simply an "educated guess"; rather it is typically based on past researches, which investigators gathered as evidence to advance the hypothesized relationship between variables. In the formulation of the hypothesis, the investigator looks for the statements where he/she relates one or more variables to make predictions about the relationships. The hypothesis tells the researcher what to do and why to do it in the context of the problem.

​Thus, the statement I is correct.

Statement II: The Non-probability sampling procedures provide the best estimate for the population parameter. 

Explanation: 

• In the most basic form of probability sampling (i.e., a simple random sample), every member of the population has an equal chance of being selected for the study.
• In any case, the goal of probability sampling is to obtain a sample that is representative of the population of interest, so that the results of the study may be generalized to the population.
• This makes probability sampling an ideal choice for quantitative studies in which the goal is to use statistical analysis to draw conclusions about the population.
• Non-probability sampling, on the other hand, does not involve “random” processes for selecting participants.
• In non-probability sampling, the members of the population will not have an equal chance of being selected, and in many cases, there will be members of the population who have no chance of being selected.
• Non-probability sampling is not ideal for quantitative research because results from non-probability samples cannot be generalized to the larger population as confidently compared to probability samples.
• Thus, the probability sampling procedures provide the best estimate for the population parameter.

​​Thus, Statement II is incorrect.

∴ Option 3 is the correct answer.

The classic definition of teaching is the design and creation of environments. Students learn by interacting with those environments and they study how to learn (Dewy, 1916).

Practicing teachers need to take evaluation seriously as it is an integral part of the teaching and learning process. 

The terms summative and formative evaluation was for the first time conceptualized by Michael Scriven in his classic (1967) essay on the methodology of evaluation.

Formative Evaluation: 

• Formative evaluation is developmental, not judgemental in nature.
• Its purpose is to improve students learning and instruction.
• Therefore, its major function is feedback to the teacher and students to locate strengths and weaknesses in the teaching-learning process in order to improve it.
• It operates during instruction and ideally, should not be limited to the assessment of cognitive behaviors.
• All classroom assessments which are not used for grading purpose, whether these are unit tests, informal tests, questioning during teaching, home assignments, teacher classroom observations of pupil's responses are examples of formative evaluation.

Summative Evaluation: 

• A very clear distinction is made between these concepts by Bloom, Hastings, and Madaus, Summative evaluation, according to them is, judgemental in nature.

• Its purpose is to appraise the teaching-learning process and to distinguish it from the formative evaluation.

• It is the end of the course activity concerned with the assessment of the larger instructional objectives of a course or a substantial chunk of the course.

• The major function is that of grading, promoting, or certification of achievement. It may take place at the end of a unit, term, or course of study.

• The teacher asking questions to elicit classification of students is an example of Formative Evaluation as the teacher simply aims to identify and classify students who have understood the concept clearly and the students who have not understood the concept clearly.

• It is an on-instruction activity taken under during the teaching and learning process. It doesn't result in any kind of grading or promotion.

• The teacher prompting and probing the students while making the presentation and the teacher pausing for a few seconds and looking at students and asking them questions are examples of Formative Evaluation as it is an on-instruction activity taken under during the teaching and learning process to check the attentiveness of students.

Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

The teacher specifying the level of mastery attained by students and the teacher indicating performance criteria and giving judgemental values are examples of Summative Evaluation as the teacher here aims to give out an end-judgment to determine the grades and decide whether the student should be promoted or detained.

Given:

Statement I: If you know the length of two sides of a right-angled triangle then the length of the third side can not be found.

Statement II: The internal angles of a triangle add up to 180°.

Calculation:

According to the Pythagoras theorem,

c² = √ a² + b²                                    (∵ a,b and c are sides of the triangle )

 

We know that the sum of angles of a triangle = 180° 

∠a + ∠b + ∠c = 180°   

∴ Statement I is false statement II is true.

Pramana

• Prama is valid knowledge. Knowledge can be valid or invalid, valid knowledge is called prama and non-valid knowledge is known as aprama. Pramana is valid means of knowledge and its important four means include perception (pratyaksa), inference (anumana), verbal testimony (sabda), and comparison (upamana).
• Pramana is a Sanskrit word that means "source of right knowledge."
• According to Hindu philosophy, there are six pramana.

Arthapatti:

• Arthapatti, (Sanskrit: “the incidence of a case”) in Indian philosophy, the fifth of the five means of knowledge (pramana) by which one obtains accurate knowledge of the world.
• Arthapatti is knowledge arrived at through presumption or postulation.
• Arthapatti recognizes not all information is immediately accessible; thus, using postulation and presumption is considered one method of gaining proper insight and knowledge.
• It supposes a fact in order to support a well-established fact.
• Particular examples of knowledge derived through arthapatti include using data on sunrise times to determine the time the sun will rise tomorrow, or observing someone’s weight and eating patterns, and postulating about their dietary habits.

Therefore, "Fat Krishnadatta eats either during day or night. Fat Krishnadatta does not eat during day, therefore fat Krishnadatta eats during night" is an example of Implication (Arthapatti).

Comparison (upmana):

• Upamana is a Sanskrit word that means “comparison” or “resemblance.”
• Upamana is the association of something previously unknown by virtue of its similarity to something that is known.
• For example, someone who has never seen a wild ox is told that it resembles a cow. When the person sees the wild ox, he/she observes that it is similar to a cow and, thus, believes it to be a wild ox.

Verbal testimony (Shabda):

• Sabda (or shabda) is the Sanskrit word for "speech sound."
• This means of gaining proper knowledge is either spoken or written, but through Sabda (words).

Negation (Anupalabdhi):

• Anupalabdhi is a Sanskrit term meaning "non-perception."
• Anupalabdhi refers to the way in which an absence of something is perceived.
• It is a way of apprehending that absence.
• Something that does not exist cannot be perceived through the senses; instead, another source of knowledge is needed.
• Example: In a college, Mr. A has not attended any lecture today. So it must mean that he went to watch a movie.

Therefore Option 4 is the correct option.

Research is a process of systematic inquiry that entails collection of data; documentation of critical information; and analysis and interpretation of that data/information, in accordance with suitable methodologies set by specific professional fields and academic disciplines.

In the experimental method of research, the independent variable is manipulated to observe and measure its effect on the dependent variable.

Experimental Method:

• Experimental research is research conducted with a scientific approach using two sets of variables.
• The first set acts as a constant, which you use to measure the differences of the second set.
• A variable is a changeable element in phenomena.
• Variables are divided into two types: Dependent Variable and Independent Variable.
• An Independent Variable is an experimental variable, which is manipulated in an experiment. It is also known as a causal variable.
• Dependent Variable is a subject variable associated with the control group. This is also known as the effect or criterion variable.
• Most importantly, experimental research is completed in a controlled environment.
• The researcher collects data and results will either support or reject the hypothesis.
• This method of research is referred to a hypothesis testing or a deductive research method.
• After completing an experimental research study, a correlation between a specific aspect of an entity and the variable being studied is either supported or rejected.

Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

1. Ex-Post Facto Method: The ex-post facto research is a kind of research in which the researcher predicts the possible causes behind an effect that has already occurred. 

2. Case Study Method: A case study is a research methodology that has commonly been used in social sciences. A case study is a research strategy and an empirical inquiry that investigates a phenomenon within its real-life context. 

3. Historical Method: Historical research is “the systematic collection and objective evaluation of data related to past occurrences in order to test hypotheses concerning causes, effects, or trends of those events which may help to explain present events and anticipate future events” (Gay, 1981, p. 432).

Lizards are part of a group of animals known as reptiles.

• Similarly, Eagle is a bird.

Tennis is playing in Court.

• Similarly, Rink is a specially prepared area for skating

Bull is male species while Cow is female species.

• Similarly, Wizard is a man who is believed to have magic powers while Witch a woman who is thought to have magic powers.

Botany is the scientific study of plants.

• Similarly, Haematology is a branch of medical science that studies the morphology of blood and blood-forming tissues.

Hence, "A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II" is the correct answer.

Educational Broadcasting:

1. The Public Broadcasting Service in the United States has increased the amount of educational and generally more thought-provoking material available on the air, and in Latin America some countries use broadcasts not only to support the work of teachers in schools but also to combat illiteracy and to impart advice to isolated rural populations in matters of public health, agricultural methods, and other social and practical subjects.
2. Great Britain began foreign-language broadcasting early in 1938 with a program in Arabic and transmissions in Spanish and Portuguese directed to Latin America.
3. By the early 1980s Japan was transmitting for 263 hours, while Canada and Australia  also sponsored external broadcasts.
4. The Canadian Broadcasting Corporation is required to provide educational programs in both English and French and does so on its AM and FM radio networks, as well as on television.
5. In Australia there is a small educational output on the commercial stations, both radio and television, but by far the greater part of educational broadcasting is undertaken by the Australian Broadcasting Corporation.
6. In a later period similar use of broadcasting is made in most of the tropical countries of Africa and Asia.

Therefore, option 1 is the correct answer.

According to the English alphabet series and its positional value:

The logic follows here is:

Vowles in the English alphabet series in reverse order.

U, O, I, E, A

Hence, "E" is the correct answer.

The day before yesterday was Friday.

Therefore, today is Sunday.

The day after tomorrow will be Tuesday.

Tuesday + 3 = Friday

Hence, Friday is the correct answer.