UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 6th Mar 2023 Shift 2 (Previous Year Paper)

Given:

The table indicates that there are a total of 90 women in Professional Grades (30 in Legal, 15 in Technical, 15 in HR, 20 in Financial, and 10 in Other).

Given that there are five times as many men in Professional Grades as women, there would be 5 × 90 = 450 men in Professional Grades. 

Therefore, the total number of staff members (both men and women) in Professional Grades is 90 (women) + 450 (men) = 540.

So, the correct answer is 540.

Calculation:

1300 is 8% of the total staff. Hence, the total staff =

1300/8% = 16250

Now, based on the table and notes, we know that:

There are 90 women in Professional Grades.

There are five times as many men in Professional Grades as

women. So, there are 5 × 90 = 450 men in Professional

Grades.

There are 30 women in Managerial Grades (25 Team

Managers, 1 Executive, and 4 Heads of Department).

So, the total number of  men in the Professional and Managerial Grades would be:

Total staff in Professional and Managerial Grades - (Women in Professional Grades + Women in Managerial Grades)

= 1300 - (90 + 30) = 1180

The total number of men in Professional and Managerial

Grades is indeed 1180.

Total women in professional department = 90

We have = (90 × 5) = 450 men in Professional Grades

And a total of 1180 men in both Professional and Managerial Grades. 

The number of men in Managerial Grades would be = (total men in both grades) - 450 (men in Professional Grades) = 730

The correct answer should be 730.

Let's assume the total number of staff employed by the corporation is "x". Therefore, we have:

⇒ 8% of x = 1300

⇒ (8/100) × x = 1300

⇒ x = (1300 × 100) / 8

⇒ x = 16250

Therefore, the corporation employs a total of 16250 people.

According to the table, there are 30 women in Legal and 15

women in HR.

Total number of women in Legal and HR = 30 + 15 = 45

Percentage = (45 / 90) × 100 = 50%

Therefore, the correct answer is option 50%.

Observational learning, also known as social learning theory or modeling, is a process in which individuals learn new behaviors by observing the actions of others.

 Key PointsObservational learning can occur in various contexts, including in-person interactions, media (such as television and online videos), and even through written descriptions. Bandura's model of observational learning involves several key processes.

• The first is attention, where the observer focuses on the model's behavior and its consequences.
• This attention can be influenced by factors such as the observer's motivation, the characteristics of the model, and the complexity of the behavior being observed.
• The second process is retention, which refers to the observer's ability to remember the behavior for future reference.
• This retention can be influenced by factors such as the observer's cognitive abilities, the frequency of exposure to the behavior, and the presence of cues that aid in memory retrieval.
• The third process is behavioral rehearsal, which involves the observer attempting to reproduce the behavior that was observed.
• This rehearsal can be influenced by factors such as the observer's self-efficacy (belief in their ability to perform the behavior), the availability of resources needed to perform the behavior, and the feedback received during the rehearsal process.
• Finally, the fourth process is motivation, which refers to the observer's drive to learn and perform the behavior.
• This motivation can be influenced by factors such as the perceived benefits of the behavior, the social norms surrounding the behavior, and the consequences (positive or negative) associated with performing the behavior.

Overall, Bandura's model of observational learning emphasizes the importance of attention, retention, behavioral rehearsal, and motivation in the learning process.

 Additional InformationBy understanding these processes, educators and others can design effective learning experiences that maximize the potential for observational learning to occur.

Key Points

A learning approach is a method or strategy for teaching and acquiring knowledge or skills. It typically involves a set of principles, techniques, or tools designed to facilitate learning and improve learning outcomes.

Cognitive Apprenticeship is a learning approach that involves a skilled practitioner (the "master") guiding a novice learner through a process of observation, scaffolding, and increasingly independent practice to help them acquire the knowledge, skills, and habits necessary for expertise.

Some learning approaches related to Cognitive Apprenticeship are:

• Scaffolding: Involves providing support and guidance to a learner as they work towards mastering a skill or concept.
• Modeling: Involves demonstrating a skill or behavior for a learner to observe and imitate.
• Reflection: Involves encouraging learners to think about and evaluate their own learning experiences and strategies.
• Coaching: Involves providing feedback and guidance to help a learner improve their performance and reach their goals.
• Mentoring: Involves building a relationship between an experienced practitioner (the mentor) and a novice learner, in which the mentor provides guidance and support to help the learner develop expertise.
• Problem-based Learning: Involves presenting learners with real-world problems or scenarios to solve, in order to encourage critical thinking and problem-solving skills.

 Additional InformationAdaptation is a process by which an organism modifies its behavior or structure in response to changes in the environment, in order to better survive and thrive.

Modification involves changing an existing system or process in order to improve its performance or meet new requirements. In learning and education, modification can involve changing teaching strategies or materials to better suit the needs and abilities of learners.

Concept mapping is a visual learning tool that involves creating a diagram or map to represent the relationships between different concepts or ideas. Concept maps can help learners organize and connect information, identify patterns and themes, and gain a deeper understanding of complex topics.

Key Points

Statement I: In adolescence period, foreclosure refers to commitment with going through the period of crises.

• Foreclosure is a concept in Erik Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, which describes the period of adolescence as a time of identity exploration and formation.
• Foreclosure refers to a situation in which an individual has made a commitment to an identity without undergoing the period of crises or exploration that typically precedes such a commitment.
• Foreclosure can be problematic because it can limit an individual's opportunities for personal growth and self-discovery.
• Without exploring different options and considering different perspectives, individuals may miss out on important experiences and fail to develop a sense of autonomy and independence.
• This statement is incorrect.

Statement II: In adolescence period, moratorium is the period without going through the period of crisis.

• In Erikson's theory, moratorium is the period of identity exploration and crisis that typically occurs during adolescence.
• During this period, individuals are actively exploring different options and trying out different roles and identities in order to find a sense of purpose and direction in life.
• For example, a teenager might experiment with different hobbies, interests, and social groups in order to figure out what they enjoy and what kind of person they want to be.
• This period of exploration can be challenging and stressful, as individuals confront difficult questions about who they are and who they want to become.
• The process of moratorium is important because it allows individuals to develop a sense of autonomy and independence, as well as a more complex and nuanced understanding of themselves and the world around them.
• Through exploration and crisis, individuals can develop a sense of identity that is based on their own values, interests, and experiences, rather than simply adopting the expectations and values of others.
• This statement is incorrect.

Conclusion: Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

Foreclosure refers to a commitment without going through the period of crisis, and moratorium refers to the period of crisis and exploration that typically occurs during adolescence.

The constructivist learning approach emphasizes the active role of the learner in constructing their own understanding of knowledge and skills.

 Key PointsThe five phases of the constructivist learning approach are as follows:

Engage: Involves introducing the learner to the topic and generating interest and curiosity.

Explore: Involves providing opportunities for the learner to explore the topic through inquiry, discovery, and experimentation.

Explain: Involves providing opportunities for the learner to explain their understanding of the topic to others, and receive feedback.

Elaborate: Involves providing opportunities for the learner to expand and deepen their understanding of the topic through application and extension of knowledge.

Evaluate: Involves providing opportunities for the learner to evaluate their own learning, receive feedback, and reflect on their understanding of the topic.

Therefore, the correct sequence is E, A, D, B, C.

SWAYAM is an online platform initiated by the Government of India, designed to provide free and accessible education to all citizens.

 Key Points

• The platform offers a wide range of courses, from school-level subjects to postgraduate programs, and is accessible to anyone with an internet connection.
• SWAYAM is a programme initiated by Government of India and designed to achieve the three cardinal principles of Education Policy viz., access, equity and quality.
• The objective of this effort is to take the best teaching learning resources to all, including the most disadvantaged.
• By making education available to all, irrespective of socio-economic background, location, or any other factor, SWAYAM aims to promote equity and accessibility.
• Through its partnerships with top institutions and educators, the platform aims to provide high-quality education that is relevant and up-to-date with current trends and technologies.
• Additionally, the platform is designed to be affordable, as it offers courses for free or at a nominal cost, making education accessible to all.

Overall, the SWAYAM program is a significant step towards achieving the goals of the National Education Policy, which aims to promote education for all, and provide high-quality, accessible, equitable, and affordable education to citizens of India.

Key Points

Statement I: Middle range theories are the focus of empirical enquiry.

• This statement suggests that middle range theories are theories that are based on empirical research, which means they are developed by gathering and analyzing data from observations and experiments.
• These theories are narrower in scope than grand theories, and they focus on explaining specific phenomena within a particular domain or field of study.

Statement II: Unlike grand theories, middle range theories function in a restricted domain.

• This statement suggests that middle range theories are more specific in their focus than grand theories.
• They are designed to explain phenomena within a particular domain or field of study, and they do not attempt to provide a comprehensive explanation of a broader range of phenomena.

Therefore, middle range theories are more limited in their application and relevance than grand theories, but they are also more testable and practical.

In research, a sample is a subset of the population that is selected to represent the entire group for the purpose of data collection and analysis.

 Key PointsStatement I: In the systematic sampling, one can choose units directly from the sampling frame, without opting for a table of random numbers.

• Systematic sampling is a probability sampling method that involves selecting units from a list or sampling frame using a systematic pattern, such as every kth unit.
• This method does not require a table of random numbers to select units, as the sampling interval can be determined based on the size of the sampling frame and the desired sample size.
• Systematic sampling can be more efficient than simple random sampling, as it requires less time and effort to select the sample.

This statement is correct.

Statement II: The Simple random sample is the most primary form of non-probability sample.

• Simple random sampling is a type of probability sampling method, not a non-probability sampling method.
• In simple random sampling, each unit in the sampling frame has an equal chance of being selected for the sample, and the selection of each unit is independent of the other units.
• Non-probability sampling methods, on the other hand, do not involve random selection and do not guarantee that every unit in the sampling frame has an equal chance of being selected.

This statement is incorrect. 

Therefore, the most appropriate answer from the given options is "Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect."

The correct answer is B, C, and D.

Deductive research is a process of developing a theory, formulating a hypothesis based on the theory, collecting data to test the hypothesis, analyzing the data to confirm or reject the hypothesis, and revising the theory if necessary.

 Key PointsThe process of deduction in research involves the following steps:

• Theory: In this step, the researcher develops a theory or a conceptual framework based on existing knowledge or observations.
• Hypothesis and data collection: The researcher formulates a testable hypothesis based on the theory and collects data through various methods such as surveys, experiments, or observations.
• Data analysis, findings, confirmation or rejection of hypothesis: The researcher analyzes the collected data using statistical methods and evaluates the findings to confirm or reject the hypothesis. If the hypothesis is rejected, the researcher revises the theory and formulates a new hypothesis for further testing.

 Additional InformationPhoto-copying the research material and Preparing the index are not steps in the process of deduction in research. While photocopying and preparing an index may be necessary for organizing and analyzing research material, they are not part of the deductive research process itself.

Key Points

• Symbolic interactionism is a social theory that emphasizes the role of symbols and interactions in shaping human behavior and society.
• According to this theory, people interpret and give meaning to the world around them through social interactions, and this shared understanding forms the basis of social structures and institutions.
• Symbolic interactionism has been applied in various fields, including sociology, psychology, and communication studies, to understand social phenomena such as identity, power, and culture.

 Additional Information In research, a review is a critical analysis of the existing literature on a particular topic or research question. It involves identifying, analyzing, and synthesizing the relevant research studies and other sources of information, such as books, articles, and reports.

A hypothesis is a tentative explanation or prediction about a phenomenon or relationship between variables, based on existing theory or prior observations. It is a testable statement that can be verified or refuted through empirical research.

A researcher wants the research question to be explicit.

Key PointsResearcher want it to be clear, well-defined, and unambiguous, so that it accurately reflects the research problem and can guide the research process effectively.

An explicit research question should be focused, specific, and answerable through empirical evidence.

Other characteristics of research questions include:

• Relevance: Research questions should be relevant to the research problem, the research objectives, and the research context.
• Feasibility: Research questions should be feasible and realistic, given the available time, resources, and expertise.
• Significance: Research questions should address important issues, problems, or gaps in knowledge, and have the potential to make a valuable contribution to the field.
• Originality: Research questions should be original and innovative, and build on existing knowledge or challenge existing assumptions.
• Clarity: Research questions should be clear and well-defined, so that they can be easily understood and communicated to others.

Overall, research questions are a crucial aspect of the research process, as they define the scope and direction of the study, and guide the selection of research methods, data collection, and analysis.

Effective communication is the ability to convey information or ideas clearly and accurately to achieve understanding between the sender and receiver.

Key Points

• Effective communication involves using appropriate language, tone, and nonverbal cues to convey the intended message.
• To gain a good vocabulary for effective communication, learners should take their own initiatives.
• This means that learners should actively seek out opportunities to learn new words and use them in context.
• They can read extensively, look up new words in a dictionary, use vocabulary-building apps, and engage in conversations with others to practice using new words.
• Relying solely on classroom instruction may not be sufficient to build a robust vocabulary for effective communication.

Key Points

• Value judgments are subjective assessments of the worth, significance, or morality of something, and they are often made at the level of connotation in communication.
• Connotation refers to the emotional or cultural associations that a word or phrase carries beyond its literal definition, and it can influence how a message is received and interpreted.
• Value judgments may be expressed through the use of certain words or phrases that carry connotations of praise or criticism, approval or disapproval, or other subjective evaluations.

Therefore, understanding connotation is important in identifying value judgments in communication.

Additional Information

• False perceptions refer to mistaken or inaccurate beliefs or interpretations of reality.
• Deceitful creation refers to intentionally misleading or falsifying information or images.

Both can lead to a distorted understanding of the world and can have negative consequences for individuals and society.

The correct answer is B, D and E only

Important Points

Virtual interaction is a spatial as it is not limited by physical space or geographical location. Mutual presence is not necessary as communication can happen asynchronously through some system.

• Virtual interaction refers to communication and interaction that occurs through technology-mediated channels, such as video conferencing, instant messaging, social media, email, and other digital platforms.
• It allows people to communicate and interact with each other in real-time, regardless of their physical location.

Some of the characteristics of virtual interaction include:

Aspatial:

• Virtual interaction is not limited by physical boundaries, and people can connect with each other regardless of their location.
• This allows for greater convenience and flexibility, as people can communicate and collaborate with others from anywhere in the world.

Mutual presence is redundant:

• In virtual interaction, people do not need to be physically present in the same location to communicate and interact with each other.
• Instead, they rely on technology-mediated channels to connect with each other.
• Time-zone constraints are abundant within a small country: While virtual interaction allows people to connect across different time zones, it can also create challenges when people are located in the same geographic region but operate on different schedules.
• For example, someone in India may find it difficult to schedule a virtual meeting with someone in the same country but located on the other side of the country.

Virtual interaction through some system is asynchronous.

• Virtual interaction through a system can indeed be asynchronous, meaning that participants do not need to be present simultaneously for communication to take place.
• Asynchronous communication allows for flexibility in terms of time and reduces the need for immediate mutual presence. This aligns with the characteristic mentioned in option E.

Overall, virtual interaction has become an increasingly important part of modern communication and collaboration, enabling people to connect and work together regardless of their physical location or time zone.

The correct answer is Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Key Points

Statement I states that John Fiske does not support the way in which the term 'myth' is used by Roland Barthes.

• This is a correct statement and can be verified by studying the works of John Fiske and Roland Barthes.
• John Fiske, in his book "Understanding Popular Culture," criticizes Barthes' use of the term 'myth' in his book "Mythologies.
• " Fiske argues that Barthes fails to acknowledge the role of audience interpretation in the creation of meaning in popular culture.

Statement II states that Barthes links 'myth with a capitalist social order which is a statement of falsehood.

• This is also a correct statement and can be verified by studying Barthes' works.
• In "Mythologies," Barthes uses the concept of 'myth' to analyze the way in which bourgeois society naturalizes and universalizes its own values and interests, and he argues that this process serves to reinforce the dominant ideology.
• Therefore, Barthes' use of the term 'myth' is linked to a critique of capitalist society.

Thus, both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

The correct answer is Syntagms.

Key Points

• Syntagms are the combination of words or phrases that make a meaningful sentence.
• In communication, syntagms are used to convey a message by arranging words or phrases in a particular order, which is made possible by paradigms.
• Paradigms are the set of words or phrases that can be used in a particular position in a sentence.

Additional Information

• Numbers: Numerals are used to represent numbers in communication, and they are not related to paradigms.
• Syntax: Syntax refers to the rules that govern the arrangement of words in a sentence.
• Punctuations: Punctuation marks are used to clarify the meaning of a sentence or to indicate pauses and breaks in speech.

Calculation:

Tax on income up to 4.0 lakhs: 10% of 4.0 lakhs = 0.1 ×  4,00,000 = 40,000

Tax on income between 4.0 lakhs and 8.0 lakhs: 20% of (8.0

lakhs - 4.0 lakhs) = 0.2 ×  4,00,000 = 80,000

Tax on income above 8.0 lakhs: 30% of (I - 8.0 lakhs)

We know that the total tax paid is 1.8 lakhs, so we can set up an equation:

⇒ 40,000 + 80,000 + 0.3 ×  (I - 8,00,000) = 1,80,000

⇒ 120,000 + 0.3I - 2,40,000 = 1,80,000

⇒ 0.3I = 3,00,000

⇒ I = 10,00,000

Now, let's find the average percentage of tax paid on the

whole income:

Total tax paid = 1,80,000

Total income = 10,00,000

Average percentage of tax paid = (Total tax paid / Total

income) × 100

= (1,80,000 / 10,00,000) × 100

= 18%

Therefore, the correct answer is 18%.

Calculation:

Given that Investment doubles every 5 years.

He invested Rs.5000 in each of the years 2005, 2010, 2015 and 2020

Now, he invested 5000 in 2005  so the amount for 2005 is 5000

In 2010 the amount gets doubled,

The amount become 10000 and then he again invests 5000 so the total amount for the year 2010 = 5000 + 10000 = 15000.

Similarly in 2015, Total amount = 2 × 15000 + 5000 = 35000

In 2020, Total amount = 2 × 35000 + 5000 = 75000

So, In 2025, The amount received = 2 × 75000 = 150000

Important PointsHere, in 2025 the amount received is asked so he will not invest in 2025, and therefore 5000 more will not be added.

Calculation:

Let the initial number of persons be X

Total amount = Rs. 13000

Money divided between each person = 13000/X

Now, 15 more persons are added, so total number of people now = X + 15

Now, Money divided between each person = \(\frac{13000}{x+15}\)

Given that each person would have got ₹60 less

i.e. each person now get = \(\frac{13000}{x}-60\)

According to the question,

13000/X = [13000/(X + 15)] + 60

⇒ 13000(X + 15) = 13000X + 60X(X + 15)

⇒ 13000X + 195000 = 13000X + 60X² + 900X

⇒ 60X² + 900X - 195000 = 0

⇒ X² + 15X - 3250 = 0

This is a quadratic equation, which we can solve by using the

quadratic formula X = [-b ± √(b² - 4ac)]/(2a), where a = 1, b = 15,

and c = -3250.

Substituting the values gives us:

⇒ X = [-15 ± √((15)² - 41(-3250))]/(2 ×1)  

⇒ X = [-15 ± √(225 + 13000)]/2

⇒ X = [-15 ± √(13225)]/2

⇒ X = [-15 ± 115]/2

We have two solutions here, X = 50 and X = -130. However, the

number of persons cannot be negative, so we discard X = -130

So, the initial number of persons was 50.

The correct answer is 50.

According to the given information,

So, Code for the 'HOT' is 'Ot' and 'Mushroom' is 'tubo'.

Hence, the correct answer is 'ot' & 'tubo'.

Logic: add consecutive number in the previous term to get the next term, starting from 4.

Hence, the next term is "45".

The correct answer is Equivocation .

Key Points

The argument presented here starts with a premise that suggests that the grading system has flaws - specifically, that grades awarded to a student are not truly reflective of the subtle nuances of their performance.

• This statement may be true, as grades are often based on a narrow set of criteria and may not capture the full range of a student's abilities or achievements.
• However, the argument then commits a fallacy by equivocating on the meaning of the term "graded".
• In the first sentence, the term is used to refer to the evaluation or assessment of a student's work.
• But in the second sentence, the term is used to refer to the assignment of a numerical or letter grade to that work.

The fallacy of equivocation occurs when a word or phrase is used in two different senses in an argument, leading to confusion or an unsound conclusion.

• In this case, the argument uses the ambiguity of the term "graded" to suggest that all grading should be eliminated, based on the premise that grades do not fully capture a student's performance.
• This conclusion is not logically valid, as it does not follow from the initial premise.
• The fact that grades have limitations does not necessarily mean that grading should be abandoned altogether.
• In fact, grading can serve several important purposes, such as providing feedback to students, measuring progress, and facilitating comparisons between students.

Therefore, the argument presented here commits the fallacy of equivocation by using the term "graded" in two different senses and drawing an unsound conclusion based on that ambiguity.

Additional Information

Slippery slope:

• This fallacy occurs when a chain reaction is assumed to occur, with one event leading inevitably to another, usually negative, outcome.
• An example of a slippery slope fallacy in this context might be: "If we stop grading student work, then students won't feel motivated to do their best, which will lead to them failing their classes, dropping out of school, and becoming unemployed."

Hasty generalization:

• This fallacy occurs when a general conclusion is drawn based on insufficient evidence or a limited sample size.
• An example of a hasty generalization in this context might be: "I know a few students who don't respond well to grades, so grading must not work for anyone."

Begging the question:

• This fallacy occurs when an argument is circular or assumes what it is trying to prove.
• An example of begging the question in this context might be: "Grading is unfair because it doesn't accurately reflect a student's performance, so we should eliminate grading altogether."

The correct answer is A, C and D only.

Key PointsThe given options A, C, and D are logically equivalent.

• A. "No tigers are non-mammals." means that every tiger is a mammal. If a creature is a tiger, it must be a mammal; it cannot be a non-mammal.
• C. "All non-mammals are non-tigers." also means that no tigers can be non-mammals. If a creature is a non-mammal, it cannot be a tiger.
• D. "All tigers are mammals." is pretty straightforward and exactly means what it says, every tiger is a mammal.

These three statements (A, C, and D) are equivalent as they all are saying that tigers can only be mammals and nothing that isn't a mammal can be a tiger.

Additional Information

On the other hand, statement B, "No mammals are tigers." is not equivalent to the others as it implies that there are no tigers that are mammals, which contradicts the other statements.

So the correct answer is indeed A, C, and D.

The correct answer is A and C only.

Key PointsIf the statement "All tigers are mammals" is given as true, then we know that every tiger is a mammal.

Statement A, "Some tigers are not mammals"

• It is immediately inferred to be false.
• This is because the given statement asserts that all tigers are mammals, so it cannot be true that some tigers are not mammals.

Statement B, "Some tigers are mammals",

• It is immediately inferred to be true.
• This is because the given statement asserts that all tigers are mammals, and if every tiger is a mammal, then it must be true that some tigers are mammals.

Statement C, "No tigers are mammals",

• It is immediately inferred to be false.
• This is because the given statement asserts that all tigers are mammals, so it cannot be true that no tigers are mammals.

Statement D, "Some mammals are tigers",

• It is not immediately inferred to be either true or false.
• The given statement only tells us that every tiger is a mammal, but it does not tell us anything about whether there are other mammals that are not tigers.

Therefore, statement D could be true or false, depending on the other mammals that exist.

In summary, the correct answer is  A and C only.

The correct answer is B and D only.

Key Points

Statements B and D are so related that they both cannot be false, although they may both be true.

• B. "Some animals are birds." There are indeed some animals that are birds.
• D. "Some animals are not birds." There are also animals that are not birds.
• Both these statements reflect the reality of the animal kingdom, where some animals are birds and some animals are not birds.
• They both cannot be false at the same time in the real world because even if one animal is a bird and one animal is not a bird, both statements become true.
• However, they can both be true simultaneously.

Additional Information

• On the other hand, statements A and C are direct contradictions of each other.
• If all animals are birds (A), then it cannot be true that no animals are birds (C), and vice versa.

Therefore, these cannot both be true or both be false at the same time.

The correct answer sound is eternal because it is produced. 

Key PointsAccording to Nyaya, the correct is  "Sound is eternal because it is produced." involves the fallacy of Viruddha.

The Nyaya school of classical Indian logic recognizes five fallacies (hetvabhasa), one of which is Viruddha or contradiction. The fallacy of Viruddha occurs when there is a contradiction between the two premises of an argument.

"Sound is eternal because it is produced."

• This argument commits the fallacy of assuming that production implies eternal existence.
• While sound is produced when some physical object or substance vibrates, it does not logically follow that the sound is eternal simply because it is produced.
• The sound may exist only for a brief period before it dissipates, or it may be confined to a particular medium such as air or water.
• Therefore, the argument is fallacious.

Additional Information

"The hill has smoke because it has fire." 

• This argument commits the fallacy of assuming that correlation implies causation.
• While smoke and fire are often associated with one another, it is not logically necessary that smoke always indicates the presence of fire.
• For example, a machine may produce smoke without having any fire inside it.
• Therefore, the presence of smoke does not necessarily imply the presence of fire, and the argument is fallacious.

"The hill has fire because it is knowable."

• This argument commits the fallacy of Viruddha or contradiction. The premise that the hill is knowable does not logically entail the conclusion that it has fire.
• The knowability of a thing does not imply its existence or non-existence.
• Therefore, the two premises of the argument are contradictory, and the argument is fallacious.

"Sound is eternal because it is audible."

• This argument commits the fallacy of assuming that audibility implies eternal existence.
• While sound can be heard, it does not logically follow that the sound is eternal simply because it is audible.
• The sound may exist only for a brief period before it dissipates, or it may be confined to a particular medium such as air or water.
• Therefore, the argument is fallacious

Key Points

IF Function in Excel:

The IF function is a logical function in Microsoft Excel that allows you to perform a logical test and return one value for a TRUE result and another value for a FALSE result.

The syntax of the IF function is:

=IF(logical_test, [value_if_true], [value_if_false])

• The logical_test argument is the condition that you want to test. It can be a comparison, such as equal to (=), not equal to (<>), greater than (>), less than (<), etc.
• The [value_if_true] argument is the value that Excel returns if the logical_test is TRUE.
• The [value_if_false] argument is the value that Excel returns if the logical_test is FALSE.

Important Points The formula given below is pasted in cell E2-

IF(B2< >''Raining",IF(C2 = "High","No","Yes"),"No")

This formula entered in cell E2 means that IF the value in Cell B2 is not "Raining" and IF the value is cell C2 is not "High", Then display Yes otherwise display No.

After Pasting the formula in Range E3 : E6

Hence, Thursday and Friday only in Column E report "Yes".

A. IBM 701 → D. IBM 1620 → B. Altair 8800 → C. Apple Macintosh → E. Apple iMac

Important Points

IBM 701:

• It was the first general-purpose computer produced by IBM in 1952.
• It was designed for scientific and engineering calculations and had a memory capacity of 2048 words.
• It was the first computer to use magnetic tape for data storage.

IBM 1620:

• It was the first commercially successful scientific computer introduced by IBM in 1959.
• It was designed for scientific and engineering calculations and used a magnetic drum memory to store data. It was also the first computer to be equipped with a keyboard and screen.

Altair 8800:

• It was one of the first personal computers produced by MITS in 1975.
• It was a kit computer that could be assembled by the user and used the Intel 8080 microprocessor.
• It had no keyboard or screen and required a separate teletype machine to enter and output data.

Apple Macintosh:

• It was the first commercially successful personal computer to feature a graphical user interface and a mouse.
• It was introduced by Apple in 1984 and had a built-in screen and keyboard.
• It was designed for the home and office market and was the first computer to use the desktop publishing software.

Apple iMac:

• It was introduced by Apple in 1998 and was the first personal computer to use a translucent plastic case.
• It was designed for the home and office market and had a built-in screen and keyboard.
• It was also the first computer to feature a USB port as standard.

The correct answer is "Less storage space on the web server is required."

Key Points

Compression:

• Compression reduces the file size of the video, which means it takes up less storage space on the web server.
• This is beneficial because it allows the website to host more videos without running out of storage space.
• Additionally, it also enables faster upload and download times, making it easier for users to stream videos without any buffering issues.

Important Points

• "Data is encrypted," is not relevant to video compression. Encryption is a security measure that protects data from unauthorized access.
• "Duration of each video will be reduced," is not correct. The duration of a video depends on its content and cannot be changed by compression.
• "More bandwidth is required when viewing the videos," is also not correct. Compression reduces the size of the video file, which means it requires less bandwidth to stream.

Important Points

Statement I: An intranet is a private network accessible only to an organization's staff.

• An intranet is a private computer network that is only accessible to an organization's staff.
• It is similar to the internet but is used exclusively within the organization.
• Intranets can be used for a variety of purposes, such as sharing internal company news and information, communication between departments, and accessing company resources such as databases, documents, and software applications.
• Intranets are often accessed using web browsers and may require login credentials to access information.
• Since the intranet is only accessible to authorized personnel, it provides a secure environment for internal communication and information sharing.

Hence, Statement I is correct.

Statement II: The Internet is one supercomputer.

• The internet is not a single computer, but rather a global network of interconnected computer networks.
• It is a vast, decentralized network of networks that connects billions of devices worldwide, ranging from personal computers and smartphones to servers and supercomputers.
• The internet provides a platform for communication, information exchange, and access to a vast array of services and resources.
• The internet is not a single computer, but rather a vast network of computers, servers, routers, switches, and other network devices that work together to provide a global communication platform.

Hence, Statement II is incorrect.

Key Points

 LED Display:

• An LED display is a flat panel display that uses light-emitting diodes (LEDs) to create images or text.
• LED displays are commonly used for outdoor advertising, stadium displays, and large information signs.
• There are two main types of LED displays: surface-mounted device (SMD) displays and through-hole displays.
• SMD displays use tiny LED chips that are mounted directly onto a circuit board, while through-hole displays use larger LEDs that are inserted through holes in the circuit board.

Important Points

• Statement A is true. LED display is a type of flat panel display which is thinner and lighter than the traditional CRT monitors.
• Statement B is true. LED displays create images using red, green, and blue diodes, which combine to produce different colors and shades.
• Statement C is false. LED displays are very energy efficient and produce very little heat compared to other types of displays like CRT.
• Statement D is true. LED displays are commonly used in mobile devices like smartphones and tablets due to their low power consumption and small form factor.
• Statement E is false. LED displays are backlit, not front-lit.

Hence, A, B and D only are correct.

Photo - electro - chemical decomposition of water is done to produce hydrogen.

Key Points

• Photo-electrochemical decomposition of water is a process used to produce hydrogen gas from water by using solar energy.
• This process involves the use of semiconductors that are capable of absorbing light energy and using it to split water into hydrogen and oxygen.
• The hydrogen produced from this process can be used as a clean fuel source, making it an important process in the field of renewable energy.
• This method has the potential to produce hydrogen gas without relying on non-renewable energy sources and can contribute to a more sustainable future.

The correct answer is: (A) is false but (R) is true.

Important PointsAssertion (A): Carbon monoxide (CO) has direct greenhouse effect

• Carbon monoxide does not have a direct effect on the greenhouse effect because it does not absorb long-wave radiation.
• Greenhouse gases are those gases that absorb and emit radiation within the thermal infrared range, which causes the greenhouse effect, leading to global warming.
• Carbon monoxide is not a greenhouse gas because it does not absorb radiation in the thermal infrared range.
• However, carbon monoxide can indirectly contribute to climate change.
• When carbon monoxide is emitted into the atmosphere, it reacts with other gases to form carbon dioxide, which is a potent greenhouse gas.

Hence, the Assertion is False. 

Reason (R): Carbon monoxide in the atmosphere can form carbon dioxide (CO₂) and can also affect the concentration of methane (CH₄).

• Carbon monoxide reacts with hydroxyl radicals in the atmosphere to form carbon dioxide.
• Additionally, it also contributes to the formation of tropospheric ozone, which in turn affects the concentration of methane.
• However, while the reason explains the relationship between carbon monoxide and other greenhouse gases, it does not directly explain why carbon monoxide has a direct greenhouse effect.

Hence, the Reason is True.

Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) replaced chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) after their phase out due to Montreal Protocol.

Key Points

• Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are a group of synthetic organic compounds that were widely used as refrigerants, solvents, and propellants in aerosol cans.
• They were found to be responsible for the depletion of the ozone layer and were phased out under the Montreal Protocol of 1987.
• To replace CFCs, a number of alternative chemicals were developed.
• One of the most common replacements for CFCs was hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs).
• HCFCs have lower ozone depletion potential than CFCs, but they still contribute to global warming and are being phased out under the Montreal Protocol.
• Another replacement for CFCs is perfluorocarbons (PFCs), which are greenhouse gases but have no ozone depletion potential.
• They are mainly used in the semiconductor industry for etching and cleaning processes.

The correct answer is Thermal.

Key Points

• The thermal power sector contributes the maximum to India's total electricity production.
• Thermal power plants use coal, natural gas, and oil as fuel to generate electricity.
• According to the Central Electricity Authority (CEA), as of January 2022, the installed capacity of thermal power plants in India is 234,396 MW, which accounts for approximately 62% of the total installed capacity of all power generation sources in India.

Important Points

• Nuclear: Nuclear power accounts for only around 2.8% of India's total installed capacity as of January 2022.
• Renewable: Renewable energy sources such as wind, solar, and hydroelectric power contribute a significant portion to India's total electricity production. However, their combined share is less than that of thermal power.
• Hydro: Hydroelectric power accounts for approximately 13% of India's total installed capacity as of January 2022.

The given statements are both correct.

Statement I: Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) were established during millennium summit of the United Nations in the year 2000.

• The Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) were established during the United Nations Millennium Summit held in September 2000.
• The MDGs were a set of eight global development targets aimed at reducing poverty and improving the lives of people around the world.
• The goals included eradicating extreme poverty and hunger, achieving universal primary education, promoting gender equality, reducing child mortality, improving maternal health, combating HIV/AIDS, malaria, and other diseases, ensuring environmental sustainability, and developing global partnerships for development.

Hence, Statement I is correct.

Statement II: Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were adopted in the year 2015.

• The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), also known as the Global Goals, were adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in September 2015.
• The SDGs are a set of 17 goals aimed at ending poverty, protecting the planet, and ensuring that all people enjoy peace and prosperity by 2030.
• The SDGs build upon the MDGs, but they are more comprehensive and integrate economic, social, and environmental dimensions of development.

Hence, Statement II is correct.

Therefore, both Statement I and Statement II are correct.**

Important Points

Statement I: NCERT is the main governing body at the tertiary level of Education in India.

• NCERT (National Council of Educational Research and Training) is a government body that is responsible for the development of school education in India.
• It is the apex organization of education in India and is involved in designing and developing national curriculums, textbooks and other instructional materials.
• However, NCERT is not involved in governing or regulating the tertiary level of education in India.
• Tertiary education refers to education at the post-secondary level, including undergraduate and graduate programs.
• The regulatory body for tertiary education in India is the University Grants Commission (UGC).

Hence, Statement I is incorrect. 

Statement II: Tertiary education includes both higher education and Vocational education & training in India.

• Tertiary education is the level of education that follows secondary education and is also known as higher education.
• It includes undergraduate and graduate level education in colleges and universities, as well as vocational education and training (VET) programs.
• Higher education programs are designed to provide advanced knowledge and skills in specific academic fields, while VET programs are intended to develop practical skills and knowledge for specific occupations. In India, both higher education and VET programs are considered as part of tertiary education.

Hence, Statement II is correct.

The correct answer is Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. 

Important Points

Statement I: In 1917 Engineering classes were started in the Hindu University, Banaras.

• Statement I is correct. In 1917, the Banaras Hindu University (BHU) was established as a public central university in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, India.
• The university started its academic session in 1916-17 with the faculties of Arts and Sciences.
• The Faculty of Engineering and Technology (FET) was established in 1919, which offered courses in Civil, Electrical and Mechanical engineering.
• The foundation of the FET was laid down in 1917 when engineering classes were started in BHU.
• The university played a significant role in the development of engineering education in India, and many of its graduates have contributed to the country's development.

Hence, Statement I is Correct.

Statement II: In 1917, Engineering colleges were established at Patna, Lahore and Karachi.

• Statement II is incorrect.
• There were no engineering colleges established in Patna, Lahore, or Karachi in 1917.
• In pre-independence India, the development of engineering education was mostly carried out through the establishment of engineering departments in existing colleges or universities.
• The first engineering college in India was the Thomason College of Civil Engineering (now IIT Roorkee) established in 1847.
• In 1921, the Indian Institute of Science (IISc) was established in Bangalore, which was the first institute to offer postgraduate courses in engineering in India.
• However, at the time of 1917, there were no engineering colleges established in Patna, Lahore, or Karachi.

Hence, Statement II is incorrect.

The correct answer is Scheme for Trans-disciplinary Research for India's Developing Economy .

Key Points

• The full form of STRIDE is "Scheme for Trans-disciplinary Research for India's Developing Economy".
• This is a flagship program of the University Grants Commission (UGC) of India that aims to promote research in social sciences and humanities, and address various challenges faced by the country's economy and society through trans-disciplinary research.

Important PointsScheme for Trans-disciplinary Research"

• The key focus of the STRIDE program is on promoting trans-disciplinary research.
• This refers to research that transcends disciplinary boundaries and involves collaboration and integration across multiple fields of knowledge.
• By bringing together experts from different fields, the program aims to foster innovation and generate new insights and solutions to complex problems.

"India's Developing Economy"

• Another important focus of the STRIDE program is on addressing the challenges faced by India's developing economy.
• This includes a range of issues such as poverty, inequality, environmental degradation, and social exclusion.
• By promoting research in social sciences and humanities, the program aims to generate new knowledge and evidence that can inform policy decisions and interventions to address these challenges.

"Promoting Research in Social Sciences and Humanities"

• The STRIDE program is specifically designed to promote research in social sciences and humanities.
• These fields encompass a wide range of disciplines such as sociology, economics, political science, history, philosophy, anthropology, psychology, and geography.
• By supporting research in these areas, the program aims to generate new insights and perspectives on the social, economic, cultural, and political dimensions of India's development challenges.

"Supporting High-Quality Research Projects"

• The STRIDE program aims to support high-quality research projects that are innovative, rigorous, and relevant to India's development needs.
• It provides funding for research projects across various stages of the research cycle, including conceptualization, data collection, analysis, and dissemination. .

Overall, the STRIDE program is an important initiative aimed at promoting trans-disciplinary research in social sciences and humanities to address the challenges faced by India's developing economy and society.

• By supporting high-quality research projects
• Capacity-building activities.

The correct answer is Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Important Points

Statement I: In ancient India only informal system of education was in existence.

• Statement I is incorrect.
• In ancient India, both formal and informal systems of education were prevalent.
• While the formal education system was mainly centered around the gurukulas and universities, the informal system of education was imparted through oral traditions, folk tales, and stories.
• Education was not limited to a particular age group and was a lifelong process.
• The informal system of education was accessible to all sections of society, while the formal system of education was restricted to certain castes and classes.
• Therefore, it can be said that statement I is not correct.

​Statement II: In ancient India the Indigenous education was imparted at home, in temples, pathshalas and gurukulas.​

• Statement II is correct. In ancient India, the indigenous system of education was prevalent, which was imparted in different settings like homes, temples, pathshalas, and gurukulas.
• The education was mainly based on the Vedas, Upanishads, and other religious texts.
• The gurukula system was widely popular, where the students used to reside with their teachers and receive education in a holistic way that included not just the academic subjects but also physical training, discipline, and moral values.
• The students were expected to serve their teachers and perform various household chores, which in turn helped them to develop various skills.
• The education system was informal and decentralized, and there was no formal authority or regulatory body.
• However, it was highly effective in imparting knowledge, wisdom, and character to the students.

The correct answer is 2040.

Key Points

According to the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 of India, all Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) shall aim to become multidisciplinary institutions and shall aim to have larger student enrolments by the year 2040. 

Important Points

The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020

• The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 of India envisions transforming the country's education system to meet the changing needs and challenges of the 21^st century.
• In this context, the NEP 2020 aims to encourage higher education institutions (HEIs) to become multidisciplinary institutions, where students can pursue diverse areas of study and gain a wide range of skills and knowledge.
• Multidisciplinary institutions are those that offer courses and programs in various disciplines, such as science, engineering, humanities, social sciences, and arts.
• These institutions provide students with the opportunity to pursue interdisciplinary programs that combine knowledge and skills from different fields, and to explore the connections between them.
• This approach is seen as necessary to equip students with the skills needed to tackle complex problems and challenges in various domains.

To achieve this vision of multidisciplinary institutions, the NEP 2020 has set a target for HEIs to achieve larger student enrolments by the year 2040.

• This means that HEIs should aim to attract more students to pursue higher education, and to provide them with high-quality education and training that meets the needs of the changing job market and society.
• By becoming multidisciplinary institutions with larger student enrolments,
• HEIs can offer diverse learning opportunities to students, and contribute to the development of a skilled and knowledgeable workforce that can drive India's economic and social growth.

The correct answer is B, D, and E only.

Key Points

• The passage states, "Indian traders- especially the Tamil and Kalinga (from modern Orissa and Bengal)- played an active role in this trade, along with Persians, and later the Arabs." This quote suggests that Indian traders were involved in the trade and played an active role.
• Additionally, the passage mentions, "Much of the trade to China was carried in Indian ships, the teak-wood of Malabar, Bengal, and Burma providing the base of a strong tradition of ship building." This quote indicates that the wood for the Indian shipbuilding industry came mainly from Malabar, Bengal, and Burma.

Based on these quotes, we can conclude that the wood for the Indian shipbuilding industry came mainly from Bengal (option D), Malabar (option E), and Burma (option B). Therefore, the correct answer is 3) B, D, and E only.

The correct answer is Africa.

Key Points

• The passage states, "They also imported ivory the best of which came from Africa."
• This quote clearly indicates that the best ivory products came from Africa.
• Therefore, the correct answer is option 2) Africa.

The correct answer is Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

Key Points

• Statement I: Chinese ships travelled all the way from China to the Middle-East and West Asia.
• The passage states: "Nor did Chinese ships go beyond the Moluccas in South-East Asia." This line indicates that Chinese ships did not travel all the way from China to the Middle-East and West Asia, contradicting Statement I.
• Statement II: Chinese ships came to the Malabar coast for trade.
• The passage states "Thus, both India and South-East Asia were important staging centres for trade between China and the countries of West Asia and Africa. Indian traders- especially the Tamil and Kalinga (from modern Orissa and Bengal)- played an active role in this trade, along with Persians, and later the Arabs." The passage does not provide explicit information about whether Chinese ships came to the Malabar coast for trade while it mentions that Indian traders, including those from the Tamil and Kalinga regions, played an active role in trade between China, West Asia, and Africa, there is no specific mention of Chinese ships visiting the Malabar coast.

Therefore, based on the lack of supporting evidence in the passage for both Statement I and Statement II, we can conclude that option 2 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.

Key PointsLet's analyze each statement based on the information provided in the passage:

• Statement I: Indian traders played an important role in China's trade with West Asia and Africa.
• This statement is supported by the passage, which mentions, "Indian traders - especially the Tamil and Kalinga (from modern Orissa and Bengal) - played an active role in this trade, along with Persians, and later the Arabs." Therefore, Statement I is correct.
• Statement II: Before the monsoons, favorable winds blow from east to west.
• This statement is incorrect based on the passage. It states, "The ships would have to wait for a long period in ports in between for favorable winds which blow from the west to the east before the monsoon and from east to west after the monsoon." Here, the passage indicates that the favorable winds blow from the west to the east before the monsoon and from east to west after the monsoon, contradicting Statement II.

Based on this analysis, we can conclude that Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is 3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

The correct answer is B and D only.

Key Points

• According to the passage, the Chinese consumed enormous quantities of spices which were imported mainly from South-East Asia and India.
• Therefore, the Chinese imported spices mainly from India (option B) and South-East Asia (option D).
• Hence, the correct answer is 4) B and D only.