UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 5th Nov 2020 Shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

Communication involves sharing of an idea, thought, feeling or information with others, which includes thinking, dreaming, speaking, arguing and so on. For communication to be complete and effective it has to achieve the desired objectives as intended by the communicator.

A barrier is a term used to express any interference in communication between source and receiver. Successful communication is the one in which the message is conveyed undiminished with kart distortion. However, it is not always possible as a number of barriers that make the process of communication complex.

Key Points

• A communication barrier is anything that prevents us from receiving and understanding the message others use to convey their information, ideas and thoughts. They can interfere with or block the message you are trying to send.
• Removing the communication barrier leads to effective communication which is a process of exchanging ideas, thoughts, knowledge and information such that the purpose of the communication is served usefully.

The answer to the question that removal of communication barriers in a classroom results in:

• Clear enunciation of specific instructional behaviours and
• A climate of purposeful student interaction.

Additional Information

Communication barriers are most likely to occur in a classroom which includes listening barriers, perception barriers and oral barriers.

• Ineffective listening is one of the barriers in classroom communication. when a teacher is speaking, the student should not be thinking of your next question, rather listen properly first to avoid any miscommunication.
• Perception Barriers- Different people may receive and hear the same message but interpret it differently. Paying attention to it is of utmost importance.
• Oral barriers- It may exist if oral communication in a classroom is not clear. Communication only occurs when the listener hears and understands your message in the way you meant for it to be received. The problem in oral communication includes using words with ambiguous meanings.

Once the communication barrier has been removed from the classroom leads to effective classroom communication which means:

• no space for miscommunication,
• proper delivery and understanding of messages in the classroom,
• active participation of all the students
• the climate of purposeful student interaction
• clear enunciation of specific instructional behaviours.

Communication is a transfer of information from one person to another, whether or not it elicits confidence. But the information transferred must be understandable to the receiver – G.G. Brown.

Assertion: Repeating more and more the same message will make it important.

Explanation:

• There are 2 counteracting effects.
• The first effect, known as the “truth effect,” describes a positive relationship between repetition and statement credibility.
• People tend to ascribe higher credibility to messages that they repeatedly encounter.
• In contrast, the second effect occurs when repetition is taken too far.
• Here, an indirect and negative effect is identified and participants start to perceive the message as a persuasive attempt.
• This perception triggers reactance, which in turn considerably reduces participants' trust in the source and leads to a significant decrease in the overall credibility of the message.
• Thus, too many repetitions can decrease message credibility.

Therefore, the assertion is incorrect.

Reason: 'Don't use two words when one will do' is the guiding principle that works.

Explanation:

• 7C's of communication: Completeness, Conciseness, Consideration, Clarity, Concreteness, Courtesy, and Correctness.
• Conciseness means wordiness, i.e, communicating what you want to convey in the least possible words without forgoing the other C’s of communication.
• Conciseness is a necessity for effective communication.
• Concise communication has the following features: It is both time-saving as well as cost-saving. It underlines and highlights the main message as it avoids using excessive and needless words. Concise communication provides a short and essential message in limited words to the audience. A concise message is more appealing and comprehensible to the audience. A concise message is non-repetitive in nature.
• 'Don't use two words when one will do' is the guiding principle that works.

Therefore, the reason is correct.

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

The chronological sequence of the development of the communication system is as follows:

Key Points

The theories suggest that language first evolved around 50,000–150,000 years ago, which is around the time when modern Homo sapiens evolved.

• Cave art or paintings were the earliest forms of communication dating back to the ice age; studies suggest language first evolved around 50000-150000 years ago, which is around the time when modern homo sapiens evolved and the oldest scriptures of surviving languages like Hebrew and Tamil date back to 10^th century BCE.
• Cave art, generally, the numerous paintings and engravings found in caves and shelters dating back to the Ice Age (Upper Paleolithic), roughly between 40,000 and 14,000 years ago.
• Development of languages- Communication first started in 3500 BC when the Phoenicians developed an alphabet, but communication was developed very slowly. The civilization of Phoenicia. Phoenicia became one of the most widely used writing systems that spread all over the Mediterranean where many cultures used it. The results suggest that language first evolved around 50,000–150,000 years ago, which is around the time when modern Homo sapiens evolved.
• Wooden block printings were first done on cloth in china around 220 AD. The way that blocks printing works is very simple. Carvers (at the time, they were known as printers) would engrave the text or image on a block of wood in a raised form so that the part that they wanted to be black when they printed it was sticking out. They would then apply ink to the raised letters and stamp it on paper.
• People were forced to pursue this invention when in 593 c.e Sui Emperor Wen-ti ordered the printing of Buddhist texts and images.
• A new block had to be carved for each page, but the good part was that they were reusable. There were many important texts that were made using woodblock printing, including the Diamond Sutra, important Buddhist text that was made in 868 during the T'ang Dynasty.
• Acta Diurna was the first newspaper published in Rome around 59 BC. The origin of the Acta is attributed to Julius Caesar, who first ordered the keeping and publishing of the acts of the people by public officers. The Acta were drawn up from day to day and exposed in a public place on a whitened board called an Album. After remaining there for a reasonable time they were taken down and preserved with other public documents so that they might be available for purposes of research.
• Metal printing or 3D printing began in 1981 in Japan.

The correct answer is A-III, B-IV, C-I, D- II.

Key Points

Additional Information

• Interpersonal communication is the exchange of ideas between two or more people and where both participants, can affect one another. It is a dynamic, two-way flow of information. communication is sending and receiving. It often includes the face-to-face exchange of information, in a form of voice, facial expressions, body language, and gestures.
• For example communication between a son and a father, an employer and an employee, two sisters, a teacher and a student, and so on.
• Intra-personal communication- is communication with oneself which may include self-talk, acts of imagination and visualization, and even recall and memory. it also includes thoughts, assessments, contemplations, and feelings that are associated with one's inner communication. That is why in the option above we have chosen intrapersonal communication in one to none mode of communication.
• Mass communication- is the process by which a person, group of person, or organization creates a message and transmits it through some type of medium to a large, anonymous, heterogeneous audience. The audience of mass communication is mostly made up of different cultures, behavior, and belief systems. It is the public transfer of messages through media or technology-driven channels to a large number of recipients/audience. That is why we have chosen one too many modes of communication for mass communication.
• For example commercial advertising, public relations, journalism, and political campaigning.
• Network (transactional) communication- It refers to a mode of communication in which interactions in two directions are considered together.
• For example: from one person to another and back, or from one subsystem to another and back. Communication is integrated into our social entities.

Formula used:

Profit % = Profit/CP × 100 

Profit = SP – CP

Here, SP and CP are selling price and cost price respectively 

Calculation:

Let the selling price be 100x

Profit = 25% of 100x = 25x

Now, Profit = SP – CP 

⇒ 25x = 100x – CP

⇒ CP = 75x

Now, Profit % = Profit/CP × 100 

⇒ 25x/75x × 100 = 100/3% = 33.33%

∴ The actual profit is 33.33%

Concept used:

The remainder can be multiplied in the same way as the actual number when divided by any other number

Ex- 5²/4 = (5 × 5)/4 = (1 × 1)/4 = 1/4, Remainder = 1

Calculation:

45 is divided by 15

⇒ 45/15

⇒ (4² × 4² × 4)/15

⇒ (16 × 16 × 4)/15

⇒ (1 × 1× 4)/15      ----(When 16 and 4 is divided by 15 then it gives 1 and 4 as remainder respectively)

⇒ 4/15 

∴ The remainder is 4

The logic is:

Hence, ‘-32’ is the correct answer.

Statement I: Sometimes, Ratio has units.

False.

Ratio don't have units as the units get cancelled when written in ratio(fraction).

Statement II: When two ratio are equal, a proportion is formed.

True

A proportion is created when two ratios are equal, or we can say that two equal ratios form a proportion.

Hence, Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true is the correct answer.

Statement I: Co-primes are the numbers which have only 1 as common factor. - True

A Co-prime number is a set of numbers or integers which have only 1 as their common factor i.e. their highest common factor (HCF) will be 1.

Statement II: Factorisation is the decomposition of a number into the other numbers which when added together will give the original number. - False

Factorisation is the decomposition of a number into the other numbers which when multiplied together will give the original number.

Hence, Statement I is correct but statement II is false is the correct answer.

The logic is:

Worse : Bad → Worse is the synonym of bad.

Similarly,

Doting : _____ → Doting is a synonym of fond.

Hence, fond is the correct answer.

Calculation:

The number of bed occupied by viral disease patient = 30 + 15 + 35 + 10 = 90

The number of bed occupied by Heart disease patient = 35 + 10 + 30 + 10 = 85

The number of bed occupied by Kidney disease patient = 15 + 5 + 15 + 5 = 40

The number of bed occupied by Liver disease patient = 10 + 5 + 5 + 15 = 35

∴ The Viral disease occupied highest number of beds in all the hospitals

Formula used:

Percentage = [Unutilized bed/Total number of beds] × 100     

Calculation:

Total number of beds in all the hospitals = 100 + 50 + 100 + 50 = 300

Total number of utilized bed = 90 + 35 + 85 + 40 = 250

Total number of unutilized bed = 300 - 250 = 50

Percentage = 50/300 × 100 = 16.66%

∴ The total percentage of unutilized beds is 16.66%

Formula used:

Percentage = Liver disease patient/Total patient × 100 

Calculation:

Total number of patient admitted in all the hospitals = 90 + 35 + 85 + 40 = 250

Total number of liver disease patient admitted in all the hospitals = 10 + 5 + 5 + 15 = 35

Percentage = 35/250 × 100 = 14%

∴ The required percentage is 14%

Calculation:

Total number of patient admitted for viral disease in all the hospitals = 30 + 15 + 35 + 10 = 90

Total number of patient admitted for kidney disease in all the hospitals = 15 + 5 + 15 + 5 = 40

Ratio = 90/40 = 9 ∶ 4

∴ The ratio of patient admitted for viral disease to kidney disease 9 ∶ 4

Calculation:

Total number of patient admitted to hospital A = 30 + 35 + 15 + 10 = 90

Total number of patient admitted to hospital B = 15 + 10 + 5 + 5 = 35

Required ratio = 90/35 = 18 ∶ 7

∴ The ratio of total patients admitted to Hospital A to Hospital B is 18 ∶ 7

The activities of teaching and learning may be organized at various levels of abstraction; ranging from the use and application of simple mental powers to the most complex ones. Such organizations are distinguished and labelled as 'forms and levels' of teaching.

There are three identifiable levels of teaching and learning activities: Memory level, understanding level, and Reflective level. Morris L. Biggie (1976) has added one more level under the rubric 'autonomous development'. 

The four levels of teaching and learning may be shown on a continuum in the following way: 

Understanding Level of Teaching

• The understanding level is characterized by seeing relationships and tool use of a fact.
• This level of teaching is that teaching which seeks to acquaint students with the relationship between generalization and particulars and between principles and solitary facts, which show the uses for which the principles may be applied.
• The 'explanatory understanding' as a form of teaching is supported by the Theory of Apperception of Herbart. According to this theory, three stages of learning are implied.

1. First is the stage primarily of 'sense activity', for example, the student renders facts and information in his own words​.
2. The second stage is of 'memory' which is characterized by exact reproductions of previously formed ideas, for example, the student gives his/her own examples to explain his point.
3. The third and highest level is that of conceptual thinking' or 'understanding', For example, the student interprets the meaning in various ways.

• Teaching becomes a highly systematic and ordered set of activities in the 'understanding level' presentations.
• The main objective is to know the subject in-depth and developing insight leading to clarity of structures.
• Preparation, presentation, comparison, generalization, and application are five Herbartian steps indicated here to equip the students to generalize insights which can be employed in problematic situations both in and outside the school.

Hence, one can conclude from the above explanation that the promotion of scope for seeking the relationship between facts and ideas is the focus of concern in understanding level teaching.

Additional Information

• Memory level of teaching -  It is the lowest level of teaching given by HERBERT. It is thoughtless teaching where there is continuous repetition and recalling of facts. Basically in this method rote learning is practiced. Example teachers teach the L.K.G. students to learn alphabets and counting by making the continuously reciting and repeating the content again and again.
• Reflective level of teaching - This method is given by HUNT. It is the highest level of teaching. It includes both understanding level and memory level. It is problem-centred teaching where learner search answers to his or her problems. In this method, learner adopts research approach to solve problems. In such level of teaching, there is the open and independent environment of a classroom where logically problems are solved by the learner.

​

Key Points

Learner:

• Someone who is engaged in learning is called a learner.
• based on different characteristics, learners can be categorized as follows,
• Age and maturity level
• Field or context
• Reflectivity or learning response
• Learning style
• Thinking style

Important Points

Characteristics of adolescent learning:

Questions are an aid in the learning process and hence questioning skills is one of the important teaching skills required to be developed to conduct a successful classroom session by the teacher. Questions are used to help students recall certain facts, exercise their reasoning ability, and use their power of recognition and discrimination in enhancing their learning. Effective questioning encourages them to reflect on things and ideas and leads them to participate in the discussion. Effective teachers use productive questions to help students advance in their thinking and to construct their own understandings.

Key Points

Many researchers have worked on the styles and types of questions. Broadly, there are four types of questions.

• Higher-order questions :
• The questions at this level encourage children to think, a reason beyond acquired knowledge, to analyze problematic situations into their elements, and to discover the interrelationship among those elements.
• These questions enable the students to produce new ideas and to develop creative and reasoning abilities.
• The skills promoted by higher-order questions may be divided into three levels: analysis, synthesis, and evaluation.
• Indirect questions:
• These type of questions are formal questions which are used to gather information about the unknown person.
• Concepts based questions:
• These questions are based on specific topics which are helpful in finding the data of how much students have learned.
• These are in the type of multiple-choice questions. They are strongly related to previous knowledge.

Thus from the above-mentioned points, it is clear that B, D, and E are true.

Direct questions:

• These types of question s are specifically used to recall the previously learned facts purposefully.
• But, the aim is not to divert or understand the generalized idea of the student.
• A teacher uses process questions to judge the level of understanding and the cognitive ability of the student. So, direct questions are not applicable.

Maximum performance tests 

• These assess the individual's ability to perform effectively under standard conditions.
• Performance on these tests, which includes ability and aptitude tests, can be judged as right or wrong.
• Ability tests come in many different forms and may test a general intellectual functioning or a specific ability.
• Workers usually exhibit maximum performance when they are being observed.
• Therefore, some conditions that tend to foster maximum performance include work samples often given to a potential employee during an interview, manager evaluations, and job knowledge tests.
• Maximum performance is how one performs when exerting as much effort as possible.

Test of typical performance

• In this case, an individual's performance is assessed according to a given situation.
• Answers are not right or wrong but identify choices, preferences, and strengths of feeling.
• Typical performance is how an employee performs on a regular basis.

Therefore, Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Methods of teaching:

• It is the pedagogy and general principles use for instruction
• The strategy has to be set up based on the educational philosophy, students learning capacity, subject matter, and classroom demography.
• Sometimes infrastructure plays an important role in the teaching method.

Indirect instruction:

• Indirect instruction is an approach to teaching and learning in which concepts, patterns, and abstractions are taught in the context of strategies that emphasize concept learning, inquiry, and problem-solving.
• In indirect instruction, the learner acquires information by transforming stimulus material into a response that requires the learner to rearrange and elaborate on the stimulus material.
• Indirect instruction is an approach to teaching and learning in which
• The process is the inquiry,
• The content involves concepts
• The context is a problem.
• It actively involved in their own learning and contributing new knowledge to solve real-world problems.

Direct instruction method:

• Teachers use explicit teaching techniques to teach a specific skill to their students.
• This type of instruction is the teacher-directed method.
• It does not include active learning activities such as discussions, workshops, or case studies.
• Tutorials, group discussions, and question-answer sessions are dialogic and are part of direct teaching methods.

​

Therefore, Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Research is a systematic inquiry towards understanding a complex social phenomenon or a process. Based on the research problem, the selection of research methods by the researcher may vary.

Ex-post facto method:

• Ex-post facto research is a kind of research in which the researcher predicts the possible causes behind an effect that has already occurred.
• The conclusions regarding the relationship between the variables are inferred without intervening or varying the independent or dependent variable.
• The independent variable is explored and cannot be manipulated in ex-post facto research.
• For example, if a child is delinquent (that is, one who indulges in criminal activities), then in order to find the basic reason behind such delinquency, the researcher would try to find out the various events that have occurred and the many possibilities that could have contributed to the concerned delinquent behaviour. The expected possibilities can be a lack of discipline at school/ family history/ peer effect/neighbourhood or socialization.
• It is an interesting point to note that, the researcher predicts a cause on the basis of a controlled effect (since no variation can be done on the effect which has already taken place on the basis of the independent variable or the cause).
• Thus, ex-post-facto research can be defined as an empirically based investigation that does not involve the researchers’ direct control over the independent variables because they have already led to effects that can no more be manipulated.

Thus, when the independent variable is explored rather than manipulated, to observe the effect on the dependent variable, the method of research is called the Ex-Post Facto Method.

Additional Information

Research is a systematic way of investigation, a process of discovering new knowledge. Research is also considered as searching for and gathering information, usually to answer a particular question. Each research study has its own specific purpose.

Scientific Method Is Used In Empirical Researches.

• The word empirical describes any information gained by experience, observation, or experiment.
• One of the central tenets of the scientific method is that evidence must be empirical, i.e. based on evidence observable to the senses.
• Philosophically, empiricism defines a way of gathering knowledge by direct observation and experience rather than through logic or reason alone (in other words, by rationality).
• In the scientific paradigm, the term refers to the use of hypotheses that can be tested using observation and experiment.
• In other words, it is the practical application of experience via formalized experiments.
• Empirical data is produced by experiment and observation and can be either quantitative or qualitative.
• Science in general and empiricism specifically attempts to establish a body of knowledge about the natural world.
• The standards of empiricism exist to reduce any threats to the validity of results obtained by empirical experiments.
• For example, scientists take great care to remove bias, expectation, and opinion from the matter in question and focus only on what can be empirically supported.
• While many students of science believe that “empirical scientific methods" and “science" are basically the same thing, the truth is that empiricism is just one of many tools in a scientist’s inventory.

Thus, scientific method is the correct answer.

​

Qualitative research :

• Qualitative Research is primarily exploratory research.
• Naturalistic research: It is used to gain an understanding of underlying reasons, opinions, and motivations. It provides insights into the problem or helps to develop ideas or hypotheses for potential quantitative research. Natural settings are the direct source of data
• Qualitative Research is also used to uncover trends in thought and opinions, and dive deeper into the problem.
• The aim is to determine  qualitative variables
• Exploring a problem and developing a detailed understanding of a central phenomenon.
• Having the literature review plays a minor role but justifying the problem.
• Describing a research problem through a description of trends.

Inductive analysis: Qualitative research discovers ideas, used in exploratory research with a general research objective. Researchers tend to analyze their data inductively.

• It is an unstructured method to observe, understand, and interpret the collected information.
• The result is completely subjective. Data take the form of words or pictures
• Some of the qualitative methods are
• In-depth interview: one-to-one interview
• Focus group: characteristics of a specific group
• Narrative research: the available literature covers the topic or issue
• Phenomenology: the individual experience of a phenomenon
• Ethnography: the study of a culture
• Case study research: the study of an organization or an entity
• Content analysis: analysis of the different form of qualitative data
• Grounded theory: development of a theory based on the collected data

Therefore, option 1 is the correct answer.

Collective research data is a quantitative research characteristic.

Sampling: The concept of sampling involves selecting a portion (sample) from a bigger group (the sampling population). There are three methods of sampling in research:

1. Random/Probability Sampling
2. Non-random/Non-probability Sampling
3. ‘Mixed’ Sampling

Random/Probability Sampling: In this type, each element in the population has an equal and independent chance of selection in the sample.

1. Simple Random Sampling: It is the most popular of the probability sampling methods. The idea of randomization implies that sample selection is independent of human judgment.
2. Stratified Random Sampling: It combines randomization with stratification. Here, the population is divided into strata, the population within each stratum is homogeneous with respect to the characteristic based on which it is being stratified and such characteristics must be identifiable in the study population (e.g. age, income, sex, etc.).
3. Cluster Sampling: It is based on the ability of the researcher to divide the sampling population into groups, called clusters and then to select elements within each cluster, using the simple random sampling technique. It is appropriate when the population is large.
4. Systematic sampling - It is also called sequence random sampling. In which the first sample will be random and based on the first selection of sample rest are selected. In this method order of all the units in the sampling frame are based on some variable and every unit on the list is selected. Gaps between elements or units are equal and constant which means there is periodicity order.

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Types of Non-Random/Non-Probability Sampling Designs: These designs do not operate on the principle of randomization rather these are used when the number of elements in the population is either unknown or cannot be individually identified.

1. Accidental Sampling: It is also based upon convenience in accessing the sampling population. People who are unwilling to provide data are simply ignored and the researcher moves to the next person until he/she meets somebody who is willing to be a participant.  You stop collecting data when you reach the required number of respondents you decided to have in your sample.
2. Judgment/Purposive Sampling: The primary consideration in purposive sampling is the researcher’s judgment as to who can provide the best information to achieve the objectives of your study. The researcher will only go to those people who in his opinion is likely to have the required information and will be willing to share it.
3. Snowball Sampling: It is also called network or chain referral sampling. To start with, the researcher identifies a small number of respondents having a set of characteristics of interest to the researcher. After collecting the required data from those respondents, the same respondents are asked to identify others having the same characteristics set. E.g., collecting data from drug addicts, rape victims, etc.
4. Quota Sampling: The researcher is guided by some visible characteristic, such as gender or race, of the study population that is of interest to him. The sample is selected from a location that is convenient and easily accessible to the researcher and whenever a person with this visible relevant characteristic is seen that person is asked to participate in the study.
5. Dimensional Sampling: It is an extension of quota sampling where the researcher takes into account several characteristics such as gender, residence, education, etc. and ensures that there is at least one individual in the study representing each of the chosen characteristics.

Hypothesis -  The term hypothesis means prediction or tentative statement. We form a hypothesis before doing research. A hypothesis is tested on various parameters in order to know the relation between the variables. A good hypothesis should be clear and precise. It should be capable of being tested. It must be stated in simple terms. It makes the research more meaningful by giving direction to the research. There are two types of hypotheses one is the Null Hypothesis and the other is the Alternate hypothesis.

Null Hypothesis (H0):

• The null hypothesis means there is no difference between the two situations.
• It is denoted by the symbol  (Ho ).
• Null Hypothesis statements are not proved by the researcher.
• It is assumed that there is no observed effect between two null hypothesis statements.
• Example - In an analysis, if we compare Method A and Method B, we proceed with the assumption that both methods are equally good then this assumption is termed as the Null Hypothesis.

Alternate Hypothesis (H1):

• The alternate hypothesis is also known as a substantive research hypothesis.
• It is denoted by the symbol (H1) or (Ha).
• It means a statement in which there is a statistically significant difference between two measured phenomena.
• Alternate Hypothesis statements are proved by the researcher.
• It is assumed that there is some observed effect between two alternate hypothesis statements.
• Example - In an analysis, if we found that boys are more good in math than girls. This tentative statement is known as an Alternate hypothesis as there exists a difference between the two variables.

Confusion Points

• The null hypothesis shows no relationship between the variables chosen.
• Alternative hypothesis tries to establish the relationship between the variables.
• If the researcher is unable to prove the validity of the alternative hypothesis, the null hypothesis gets acceptance.
• Similarly, the rejection of the null hypothesis assumes the acceptance of the alternative hypothesis or research hypothesis.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Types of Error - There are two types of error i.e. Type I error and Type II error

Thus, both Statements I and Statement II are correct.

The entry of new media in education:

• New media technology, a significant innovation has evolved far ahead of traditional media through its interactive characteristics.
• It has substantially transformed the entire world of media. It has digitized the world and made it accessible. New media has broken the barriers of traditional media which confined to just providing content without allowing the readers or viewers to participate.
• It has revamped the educational world through content sharing and constant updating and upgrading of the information creating sweeping changes in the learning process.
• Today we can witness a drastic shift in learning which had confined to classrooms and libraries to the world of technology.
• Social networking sites, blogs, wikis, smartphones are supplementing classroom teaching as well as books. They have become the learning tools proving that New media is an essential need in the education sector.
• It is allowing students to explore their interests and inquisitiveness on a global scale. It has interwoven into the fabric of academic life allowing students to construct their own knowledge through online services.
• New media with its varied types - wiki, blogs, social networking sites such as Facebook, Twitter, and so on, video sharing sites such as youtube; microblogs are familiar among young people. New media had exceeded from just being the medium of entertainment to the sector of knowledge.

Important Points

• The digitization and online facilities have evolved a new learning style called outreach learning which equips students with industrial content and skills that is more appropriate for employability.
• The new media broadens the knowledge sphere of students by facilitating interactions, community learning, and exchange of ideas.
• Outreach learning beyond the classroom provides students experiential learning of theoretical aspects helping in better understanding.

These new media are not only making online learning interesting but also making students independent of teachers, parents, and schools.

Environmental education is a process that allows individuals to explore environmental issues, engage in problem-solving, and take action to improve the environment. As a result, individuals develop a deeper understanding of environmental issues and have the skills to make informed and responsible decisions.

The components of environmental education are:

• Awareness and sensitivity to the environment and environmental challenges
• Knowledge and understanding of the environment and environmental challenges
• Attitudes of concern for the environment and motivation to improve or maintain environmental quality
• Skills to identify and help resolve environmental challenges
• Participation in activities that lead to the resolution of environmental challenges

Environmental education does not advocate a particular viewpoint or course of action. Rather, environmental education teaches individuals how to weigh various sides of an issue through critical thinking, and it enhances their own problem-solving and decision-making skills.

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA)

• Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA) is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS), launched in 2013 aims at providing strategic funding to eligible state higher educational institutions.
• The central funding (in the ratio of 60:40 for general category States, 90:10 for special category states, and 100% for union territories) would be norm based and outcome dependent.
• The funding would flow from the central ministry through the state governments/union territories to the State Higher Education Councils before reaching the identified institutions.

The salient objectives of RUSA are to;

• Improve the overall quality of state institutions by ensuring conformity to prescribed norms and standards and adopt accreditation as a mandatory quality assurance framework.
• Usher transformative reforms in the state higher education system by creating a facilitating institutional structure for planning and monitoring at the state level, promoting autonomy in State Universities, and improving governance in institutions.
• Ensure reforms in the affiliation, academic, and examination systems.
• Ensure adequate availability of quality faculty in all higher educational institutions and ensure capacity building at all levels of employment.
• Create an enabling atmosphere in the higher educational institutions to devote themselves to research and innovations.
• Expand the institutional base by creating additional capacity in existing institutions and establishing new institutions, in order to achieve enrolment targets.
• Correct regional imbalances in access to higher education by setting up institutions in unserved & underserved areas.
• Improve equity in higher education by providing adequate opportunities of higher education to SC/STs and socially and educationally backward classes; promote inclusion of women, minorities, and differently-abled persons.

The following are the primary components of RUSA that capture the key action and funding areas that must be pursued for the fulfillment of the targets:

• Up-gradation of existing autonomous colleges to Universities
• Conversion of colleges to Cluster Universities
• Infrastructure grants to Universities/colleges
• New Model Colleges (General)
• Upgradation of existing degree colleges to model colleges
• Correct regional imbalances in access to higher education by setting up institutions in unserved & underserved areas.
• Research, innovation, and quality improvement
• Equity initiatives
• Faculty Recruitment Support
• Faculty improvements
• Vocationalisation of Higher Education
• Leadership Development of Educational Administrators
• Institutional restructuring & reforms
• Capacity building & preparation, data collection & planning
• More scholarship programs to supplement the cost of education.

Therefore, option 4 is the correct answer.

Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD):

• Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD) under its National Mission on Education through Information and Communication Technology (NMEICT) has initiated the National Digital Library of India (NDL India) pilot project to develop a framework of virtual repository of learning resources with a single-window search facility.

• Information and Communication Technologies (ICTs) is a broader term for Information Technology (IT), which refers to all communication technologies, including the internet, wireless networks, cell phones, computers, software, middleware, video-conferencing, social networking, and other media applications and services

• The use of ICT in education adds value to teaching and learning, by enhancing the effectiveness of learning. After the inception of ICT in schools and colleges, students found learning in a technology-enhanced environment more stimulating and engaging than in a traditional classroom environment.

• On 14 May 2020, the Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD) has developed an e-Governance platform, SAMARTH Enterprises Resource Planning (ERP), under the National Mission of Education in Information and Communication Technology Scheme (NMEICT).

• The aim of the e-Governance platform, SAMARTH, is to provide quality education to students across all Universities & Higher Education Institutions (HEIs).

• This initiative will also enhance productivity through better information management in the institute by seamless access to information, and its utilization for various purposes.

• The platform has been implemented at the National Institute of Technology (NIT), Kurukshetra, a participating unit under the World Bank-supported Technical Education Quality Improvement Program (TEQIP).

• So far, a total of 38 modules have been implemented in NIT, Kurukshetra.

1. VIDWAN

• It is an e-learning portal specifically designed for research students, experts, educational institutions, policymakers.
• The portal carries a useful database that will be helpful for providing information from experts to peers, prospective collaborators, funding agencies policymakers, and research scholars in the country.
• VIDWAN database is developed and maintained by Information and Library Network Centre (INFLIBNET) with financial support from the National Mission on Education through ICT (NME-ICT).

2. IRINS

• It is web-based Research Information Management (RIM) service developed by the Information and Library Network (INFLIBNET) Centre.
• The portal facilitates the academic, R&D organizations and faculty members, scientists to collect, curate, and showcase the scholarly communication activities and provide an opportunity to create the scholarly network.
• The IRINS is available as free software-as-service to the academic and R&D organizations in India.

3. SWAYAM

• It is a program initiated by the Government of India and designed to achieve the three cardinal principles of Education Policy viz., access, equity, and quality.
• The objective of this effort is to take the best teaching-learning resources to all, including the most disadvantaged. SWAYAM seeks to bridge the digital divide for students who have hitherto remained untouched by the digital revolution and have not been able to join the mainstream of the knowledge economy.
• The courses hosted on SWAYAM are in 4 quadrants – (1) video lecture, (2) specially prepared reading material that can be downloaded/printed (3) self-assessment tests through tests and quizzes, and (4) an online discussion forum for clearing the doubts. Steps have been taken to enrich the learning experience by using audio-video and multi-media and state of the art pedagogy/technology.

Therefore, option 1 is the correct answer.

"De-novo Institution" means an institution devoted to innovations in teaching and research in unique and 'emerging areas of knowledge', so determined by eminent peers of the academic community in the concerned disciplines.

"Emerging area of knowledge" in the context of De-Novo Institutions means such area of knowledge as may be notified from time to time by the commission on the recommendation of a Committee of Experts constituted by the Commission for the purpose; and, such committee shall make its recommendation having regard to the stage of development of studies and research in relevant disciplines as well as the potential and need for raising standards of study and research thereof, in India.

Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

Naya Philosophy:

• It is one of the six systems of Indian philosophy
• Gautama is the main proponent of Naya philosophy
• The four Pramanas of Naya philosophy is perception, inference, analogical reasoning, and testimony.

Key Points

In Nyaya philosophy, the sub classes of Alaukika (extraordinary/transcendental) are as follows:

1. Samanyalakshana Pratyaksha Pramana- perceiving generality from a particular object.
2. Jnanalakshana Pratyaksha Pramana- when one sense organ can also perceive qualities not attributable to it.

• For example, when seeing a chilly pepper with the eyes, one knows that it will be bitter or sweet.
• Ice makes one feel its coolness. Similarly, the proposition "The weather is cold today" infuses the sense of feeling cold, thus it refers to this kind of pramana.

1. Yogaja pratyaksha pramana- is the intuitive perception or supra sensual or intuitive perception.

• On the other hand, Sannikarsha, refers to sense object contact. The ordinary perception (laukika) is caused by ordinary sannikarsa or sense object contact.

Statement I:

Some examinations are too long.

some exanimations are too difficult,

Venn diagram is as follows:

Some examinations are too long and too difficult → False based on the Venn diagram

Statement II: 

Some dogs chase cats,

All dogs have fleas.

Venn diagram is as follows;

Some cat-chasing dogs → True (As Some dogs chase cats)

Hence, "Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true​".

The Four Causes are Aristotle's answers to the question "Why". There are 4 kinds of answers to "Why" questions which are as follows:

• Material cause:- A material cause is determined by the matter that composes the changing things.
• Formal cause:- A formal cause is due to the arrangement, shape, or appearance, of the thing that is changing.
• Efficiency cause:- Also known as agency causes. An efficient cause consists of things apart from the thing being changed, which interact so as to be an agency of the change.
• Final cause:- Also known as end or purpose cause. It is for the sake of which a thing is changing.

The reason is man's particular and characteristic feature. There is no need for praxeology to raise the question of whether the reason is a suitable tool for the cognition of ultimate and absolute truth. It deals with reason only as far as it enables man to act.

Statement I: Human reason has this peculiar fate that it reaches at a stage when it can neither answer certain questions nor can it ignore such questions.

Explanation:

• Kant analyzed metaphysical questions by solving the problem of scientific knowledge and identifying the sources of different types of knowledge (mathematics, theoretical science, and metaphysics).
• This problem could not be solved without imposing limitations on possible questions. Otherwise, formulating metaphysical questions would turn into an endless process.
• According to Kant, obtaining true objective knowledge is possible only through imposing limitations on reason or a conscious restriction of cognition.
• This thought is expressed in Kant’s famous phrase, ‘I had to deny knowledge to make room for faith’ (Kant 1998).
• Kant deemed it necessary, to begin with imposing limitations on admissible questions.
• The very first phrase of his preface to the first edition of the Critique of Pure Reason revealed Immanuel Kant's attitude to the problem.
• Kant wrote, ‘Human reason has the peculiar fate in one species of its cognitions that it is burdened with questions which it cannot dismiss, since they are given to it as problems by the nature of reason itself, but which it also cannot answer, since they transcend every capacity of human reason’ (Kant 1998).
• These questions never end. Nor does the process of cognition.
• Therefore, the principles have a function of limiting possible questions of the reason.
• Kant was not evading questions of human reason.
• However, the principles that he introduced had to deliver reason from traditionally expected answers and limit ‘dogmatically enthusiastic lust for knowledge’, which could only be satisfied ‘through magical powers’.

Thus, the statement I is correct.

Statement II: Human reason, by its own nature, is not competent to resolve certain questions concerning the ultimate reality.

Explanation: 

• We cannot encounter the spiritual using material science.
• The things that are of God are far beyond the capabilities of our finite mind to comprehend.
• The divine can only be known through the nous, that place in the heart that is our true center.
• It, unlike the brain, is capable of knowing that is beyond human comprehension, coming as it does from the noetic knowledge of the heart.
• When we try to apply words to the noetic form, we fail, since God is outside the realm of human intellectual understanding.
• There is the seen and there is the unseen, the material and the immaterial.
• That which is material can be scientifically examined and experienced, whereas the immaterial can only be seen and experienced spiritually.
• These are two worlds that are only seemingly at odds with one another. If we attempt to examine that which is of a spiritual nature using science that is by its very nature meant to explore the material realm, we will fail.
• Thus, human reason, by its own nature, is not competent to resolve certain questions concerning the ultimate reality. Statement II is correct.

∴ Option 1 is the correct answer.

• Moodle stands for Modular Object-Oriented Dynamic Learning Environment.
• Moodle was designed to provide educators, administrators, and learners with an open, robust, secure, and free platform to create and deliver personalized learning environments.
• Moodle is a user-friendly Learning Management System (LMS) that supports learning and training needs for a wide range of institutions and organizations across the globe.
• Today, Moodle is the most widely used Learning Management System in the world, with well over 100,000 registered implementations worldwide supporting over 150 million learners.
• Moodle’s open source project is managed by a dedicated team at Moodle HQ with a head office in Perth, Australia, and satellite offices around the world. Moodle’s modular nature and inherent flexibility make it an ideal platform for both academic and enterprise-level applications of any size.
• Moodle is a learning platform designed to provide educators, administrators, and learners with a single robust, secure and integrated system to create personalized learning environments.
• Using Moodle, you can create classes, make attendance lists, deliver learning materials, give quizzes, send feedback, and much more. There is a huge amount of flexibility and reconfigurability within the platform.

Therefore, option 2 is the correct answer.

The process through which an illegitimate website pretends to be a specific legitimate website is known as "spoofing."

Spoofing:

1. Spoofing is the act of disguising a communication from an unknown source as being from a known, trusted source.
2. Spoofing can apply to emails, phone calls, and websites, or can be more technical, such as a computer spoofing an IP address, Address Resolution Protocol (ARP), or Domain Name System (DNS) server.
3. Spoofing can be used to gain access to a target’s personal information, spread malware through infected links or attachments, bypass network access controls, or redistribute traffic to conduct a denial-of-service attack.
4. Spoofing is often the way a bad actor gains access in order to execute a larger cyber attack such as an advanced persistent threat or a man-in-the-middle attack.

1. Sniffing:

• Sniffing is the process of monitoring and capturing all data packets that are passing through a computer network using packet sniffers.
• Packet Sniffers are used by network administrators to keep track of data traffic passing through their network.
• These are called network protocol analyzers.
• In the same way, malicious attackers employ the use of these packet sniffing tools to capture data packets in a network.

2. Back Doors

• In the world of cybersecurity, a backdoor refers to any method by which authorized and unauthorized users are able to get around normal security measures and gain high-level user access (aka root access) on a computer system, network, or software application.
• Once they're in, cybercriminals can use a backdoor to steal personal and financial data, install additional malware, and hijack devices.

3. War Dialing:

• War dialing refers to the use of various kinds of technology to automatically dial many phone numbers, usually in order to find weak spots in an IT security architecture.
• Hackers often use war dialing software, sometimes called "war dialers" or "demon dialers," to look for unprotected modems.

A. Statement: Fibre optic cables are wooden fibers to provide high-quality transmission- False

Explanation:

• An optical fiber is a flexible, transparent fiber made by drawing glass (silica) or plastic to a diameter slightly thicker than that of a human hair.
• Optical fibers are used most often as a means to transmit light[a] between the two ends of the fiber and find wide usage in fiber-optic communications, where they permit transmission over longer distances and at higher bandwidths (data transfer rates) than electrical cables.

B. Statement: Wireless communication provides anytime. anywhere connection to both computers and telephones- True

Explanation:

• Wireless communications allow wireless networking between desktop computers, laptops, tablet computers, cell phones, and other related devices.
• Wireless networks are cheaper to install and maintain.
• Data is transmitted faster and at a high speed.
• Reduced maintenance and installation cost compared to other forms of networks.
• A wireless network can be accessed from anywhere, anytime.
• Working professionals these days can access the Internet anywhere and anytime without carrying cables or wires.
• This also permits professionals to complete their work from remote locations.

C. Statement: Mobile phones are capable of providing voice communication and also digital messaging service- True

Explanation:

• A mobile phone, cellular phone, cell phone, cellphone, handphone, or handphone, sometimes shortened to simply a mobile, cell, or just phone, is a portable telephone that can make and receive calls over a radio frequency link while the user is moving within a telephone service area. In addition to telephony, digital mobile phones support a variety of other services, such as text messaging, MMS, email, Internet access, short-range wireless communications (infrared, Bluetooth), business applications, video games, and digital photography.
• Mobile phones offering only those capabilities are known as feature phones; mobile phones which offer greatly advanced computing capabilities are referred to as smartphones.

Thus, only statements B and C are correct. Therefore, Option 2 is the correct answer.

Information and communications technology (ICT) is an extensional term for information technology (IT) that stresses the role of unified communications and the integration of telecommunications (telephone lines and wireless signals) and computers, as well as necessary enterprise software, middleware, storage, and audiovisual, that enable users to access, store, transmit, and manipulate information.

Statement I: World Wide web is not an example of client-server technology.

Explanation: 

• A client-server architecture is a centralized network architecture that classifies a computer into two sections, client and server.
• The client is a requester, which can be a program that we use to make requests through the network with parameters included.
• The server is a response provider, which is a program that listens to the client’s requests and responds to them.
• The server component provides a function or service to one or many clients, which initiate requests for such services.
• The server itself might be a client. For example, the server could request something from a database server, which in this case, would make the server a client of the database server.
• Examples of computer applications that use the client-server model are Email, network printing, and the World Wide Web.
• The Web is an information space containing hyperlinked documents and other resources, identified by their URLs. It is implemented as both client and server software using Internet protocols such as TCP/IP and HTTP.
• One powerful feature of the WWW is that the information you publish on your server can be read by many different clients. If you want to make your own information available to WWW clients, you'll want to set up your own server.

Thus, the statement I is incorrect.

Statement II: FTP is a service available on the internet.

Explanation:

• FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol.
• This is the protocol that is used to upload/download files to/from the Internet.
• When files are to be exchanged between source/destination, FTP comes into action.
• FTP uses TCP/IP to enable the transfer of data between source/destination.
• Whenever a website is to be hosted, web pages are uploaded to the concerned web server. It is the FTP that enables the uploading of files.

Thus, statement II is correct.

∴ Option 4 is the correct answer.

Climate change, ozone depletion and greenhouse emissions are hard-hitting realities and a wakeup call for everyone to leave behind the prejudices and act on it. Various initiatives have been launched and international agreements have been signed for the said purpose.

The Montreal Protocol:

• The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer (the Montreal Protocol) is an international agreement made in 1987.
• The Montreal Protocol is signed by 197 countries.
• It is the first treaty in the history of the United Nations to achieve universal ratification and is considered by many the most successful environmental global action.
• It sits under the Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer (the Vienna Convention).
• It was designed to stop the production and import of ozone-depleting substances and reduce their concentration in the atmosphere to help protect the earth's ozone layer.
• It targets 96 ozone-depleting chemicals in thousands of applications across more than 240 industrial sectors.
• It has benefitted the global climate by reducing the amount of greenhouse gas going into the atmosphere.
• It sets out a mandatory timetable for the phase-out of ozone-depleting substances.

The only UN treaty related to environmental issues that have been ratified by all 197 UN member states is Montreal Protocol​.

Paris Agreement:

• The Paris Agreement is a legally binding international treaty on climate change.
• It was adopted by 196 Parties at COP 21 in Paris, on 12 December 2015 and entered into force on 4 November 2016.
• Its goal is to limit global warming to well below 2, preferably to 1.5 degrees Celsius, compared to pre-industrial levels.

Kyoto Protocol:

• Kyoto Protocol, in full Kyoto Protocol to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change, international treaty, that was adopted in December 1997.
• It aimed to reduce the emission of gases that contribute to global warming.

Basel Convention:

• Basel Convention is to protect human health and the environment against the adverse effects of hazardous wastes.
• The Basel Convention establishes standards for the transboundary movement of hazardous waste, solid waste, and municipal incinerator ash.
• As of November 2020, 187 countries and the European Commission are parties to the Convention.

The term ‘computer’ is derived from the word ‘compute’, meaning ‘to calculate’. A computer is a programmable electronic machine that accepts data from the user, processes it by performing calculations and operations on it, and generates the desired output results. The computer performs both simple and complex operations, with speed and accuracy. Computing is not restricted to only mathematical computing but to a variety of logic-based tasks.

• The computer has evolved from a large simple calculating machine to a smaller but much more powerful machine.
• The evolution of the computer to the current state is defined in terms of generations of the computer.
• Each generation of the computer is designed based on new technological development, resulting in better, cheaper, and smaller computers that are more powerful, faster, and efficient than their predecessors. There are five generations of the computer.

Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

'Solar Water Still' is a device to produce potable water by using solar energy.

• In solar water still, impure water is contained outside the collector, where it is evaporated by sunlight shining through clear plastic or glass.
• The pure water vapour condenses on the cool inside surface and drips down, where it is collected and removed.
• The end result is pure distilled drinking water.
• A solar still distil water with substances dissolved in it by using the heat of the Sun to evaporate water so that it may be cooled and collected, thereby purifying it.
• The pure water vapour condenses on the cool inside surface and drips down, where it is collected and removed.
• The solar still can be effectively used to obtain sufficient quantities of good water from saltwater in regions where the insulation of solar energy is high.
• A square foot of still area can produce approximately 1/2 to 3/4 lb of distilled water per day.
• The only disadvantage is the large amount of space needed.

The functioning of Solar Water Still is shown in the below diagram:

Wind power or wind energy is the use of wind to provide mechanical power through wind turbines to turn electric generators for electrical power. Wind power is a popular sustainable, renewable source of power that has a much smaller impact on the environment compared to burning fossil fuels.

Top 10 countries having the highest capacity of wind energy installed.

Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

Air pollution is a mixture of solid particles and gases in the air. Car emissions, chemicals from factories, dust, pollen, and mold spores may be suspended as particles. Ozone, a gas, is a major part of air pollution in cities. When ozone forms air pollution, it's also called smog. Some air pollutants are poisonous.

• Primary air pollutants: Pollutants that are formed and emitted directly from particular sources. Examples are particulates, carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxide, and sulfur oxide.

• Secondary air pollutants: 

• Pollutants are formed in the lower atmosphere by chemical reactions. The two examples are ozone and secondary organic aerosol (haze).

• Secondary pollutants are harder to control because they have different ways of synthesizing and the formation is not well understood. They form naturally in the environment and cause problems like photochemical smog.

• Black carbon (BC) aerosol (Particulate carbon), often called soot, is the dominant form of light-absorbing particulate matter in the atmosphere.

• BC is emitted by incomplete combustion processes, both human (e.g., diesel engines) and natural (e.g., wildfire).

• Its ability to absorb visible and infrared radiation means BC can heat the atmosphere and darken surfaces, specifically snow and ice.

• These effects have important consequences on the earth’s climate and climate change.

• BC may also have adverse impacts on human health.

• The WHO estimates that air pollution causes nearly two million premature deaths per year. By reducing black carbon, a primary component of fine particulate matter, the health risks from air pollution will decline.

Therefore, option 2 is the correct answer.

• Ground-level ozone is a colorless and highly irritating gas that forms just above the earth's surface. It is called a "secondary" pollutant because it is produced when two primary pollutants react in sunlight and stagnant air. These two primary pollutants are nitrogen oxides (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs).
• The term sulfate aerosols are used for a suspension of fine solid particles of sulfate or tiny droplets of a solution of sulfate or of sulfuric acid (hydrogen sulfate). Other side effects of sulfate aerosols in the environment include poor air quality.
• Pure sulfates and nitrates reflect nearly all radiation they encounter, cooling the atmosphere. Black carbon, in contrast, absorbs radiation readily, warming the atmosphere but also shading the surface.
• Tropospheric sulfate aerosols act as condensation nuclei that cause cloud cover to increase. They are also a source of acid rain. When sulfate aerosols reach the stratosphere, they can remain there for months and affect global temperatures for as much as a year.
• Peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN) and ozone are the two important secondary photochemical air pollutants found in the urban atmosphere.

A river is a natural flowing watercourse, usually freshwater, flowing towards an ocean, sea, lake, or another river. In some cases, a river flows into the ground and becomes dry at the end of its course without reaching another body of water. Small rivers can be referred to using names such as a stream, creek, brook, rivulet, and rill.

Statement I: Long stretches of major rivers of India have very low Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) values.

Explanation:

• Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) represents the amount of oxygen consumed by bacteria and other microorganisms while they decompose organic matter under aerobic (oxygen is present) conditions at a specified temperature.
• Higher BOD indicates more oxygen is required, which is less for oxygen-demanding species to feed on, and signifies lower water quality.
• Inversely, low BOD means less oxygen is being removed from the water, so water is generally purer.
• Long stretches of major rivers of India have very high Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) values.
• According to a report, CPCB has identified over 350 polluted river stretches across India and the number continues to grow.
• The report further said that more than 60% of the country’s sewage is released into the streams and rivers untreated.
• Consequently, half of the rivers in the country are now polluted with the Ganga, Sabarmati, and Yamuna being the most polluted.

Thus, the statement I is incorrect.

Statement II: In rivers, oxygen is added into the water by diffusion from the air due to its turbulent and rapid flow.

Explanation:

• Dissolved oxygen is the oxygen dissolved in the river water.
• It is an important indicator since most aquatic plants and animals need it to survive.
• The river system both produces and consumes oxygen.
• The river gains oxygen from the atmosphere through the aerating action of wind or turbulence (cascading water) and from plants through photosynthesis.
• In photosynthesis, plants use the sun’s energy to convert carbon dioxide and water into oxygen and cellular material (growth).
• Because there is a higher concentration of oxygen in the atmosphere (air) than water, oxygen diffuses into the surface of the river from the atmosphere.

Thus, statement II is correct.

∴ Option 4 is the correct answer.

There are two categories of knowledge, declares the Rishi of Mundaka Upanishad- knowledge of the world and knowledge of the inner world, material knowledge (apara vidya), and spiritual knowledge (para vidya).

Para vidya:

• Para Vidya is one of two types of knowledge in Hindu philosophy and refers to higher or spiritual knowledge. The term comes from the Sanskrit para, meaning “the highest point,” and vidya, meaning “knowledge,” “clarity” or “learning.”
• Para vidya is spiritual realization, which is knowledge of the Self, Brahman, or the Absolute. In Hinduism and yogic philosophy, the goal is to obtain para vidya, which removes the veils of ignorance and frees the yogi from the recurring cycle of life, death, and reincarnation.
• Para Vidya means – higher learning or learning related to the Self or the Ultimate Truth i.e. transcendental knowledge.
• Para Vidya is defined as the intuitive vision of non-duality; it is the transcendental knowledge that is beyond all limits of knowledge, experience, and reason, which is, beyond intellect, mind, and sense.
• Para Vidya is the intuitive level of vidya that stems from unity, and manifests as a vision, manifests as an experience.

Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

Apara Vidya: The lower knowledge is of the intellect and the senses and comprises all empirical and objective knowledge. It is, therefore, limited to the finite world. Empirical knowledge presupposes a knower, the thing known, and the act of knowing.

The correct answer is Contextual clarity​.

Key Points

• From the passage, 'If so much of present day cultural learning depends on situation and context how do the resulting assemblages acquire an organised coherence ?' clearly says that contextual clarity (and situation clarity) is among the focal issues in present day learning.

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Different attributes from others​.

Key Points

• From the passage, ' If definitions of identity involve a characterisation of attributes and a drawing of boundaries around the units so defined, in contrast with other units.' indicates that identity has a tendency to have different attributes from others (contrast with other units).

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Intermittent intensity.

Key Points

• From the passage, 'Moreover, we know that the search for identity varies historically, intensifying or slackening over periods of time' which indicates that search for identity varies with the intermittent intensity (intensifying or slackening) over a period of time.

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Unity within diverse identities.

Key Points

• From the passage, 'Thus, a major rise occurred in the demand for identity with the advent of the nation-state and the collateral development of nationalism. which hoped to create a unified and identifiable 'people'. out of diverse populations with distinctive identities of their own' indicates that the raise of nationalism has resulted in the unity among the diverse population with their unique identities intact.

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is New modes of communication. 

Key Points

• From the passage*, 'as people have responded to changes in the social division of labour, in their relation to governments. in reaction to new modes of communication. These repertoires of cultural understandings and practices do not easily fit any traditional notion of culture as an integral and integrated set of forms and meanings'* denotes that due to the new modes of communication new cultural understanding doesn't fit into the traditional notion of culture.

Hence the correct answer is option 1.