UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 5th Mar 2023 Shift 2 (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is The newspaper.

Key PointsAsynchronous media

• Asynchronous media refers to media content that can be accessed by the audience at any time they desire, unlike synchronous media, which is consumed in real-time.
• Examples of asynchronous media include pre-recorded videos, podcasts, e-books, and online articles.
• The correct answer  is The newspaper, which is an example of asynchronous media because readers can access and read the content at any time they choose.

Additional Information

The other options, such as television, radio, and cinema, are examples of synchronous media.

Television:

• This is a form of synchronous media that broadcasts programs in real-time to viewers.
• This means that viewers have to tune in at a specific time to watch their favorite programs, and they can't pause, rewind, or fast-forward the content. .

Radio:

• Similar to television, radio is a form of synchronous media that broadcasts content in real-time.
• Listeners have to tune in at a specific time to hear the shows or music they want to listen to.

Cinema:

• Going to the movie theater is an example of consuming synchronous media.
• Movie screenings happen at specific times, and viewers have to be present in the theater to watch the film.

The correct answer is Low culture.

Key Points

• Low culture refers to cultural products and forms of entertainment that are considered to be of low quality or less sophisticated compared to high culture, such as reality television shows, tabloids, and popular music.
• Critics argue that the mass media predominantly focuses on low culture because it is easier to produce and appeals to a larger audience, resulting in the commodification of culture.
• This is in contrast to high culture, which includes art, literature, and classical music, which is often considered to be more refined and sophisticated.

Additional Information

• Mass-mediated transmission of culture refers to the ways in which culture, ideas, values, and beliefs are disseminated to large audiences through various forms of mass media, such as television, radio, newspapers, magazines, and the internet.
• It is the process by which cultural products are created, packaged, and distributed to a mass audience.
• The media plays a powerful role in shaping the cultural landscape and influencing the way people think, feel, and behave.
• Mass-mediated culture can reflect and reinforce existing cultural norms or challenge them, and it can be a source of social cohesion or conflict.

The correct answer is A, B and C only.

Key PointsThe correct answer is:

A. Interactivity

B. Automation

C. Cheaper cost

A. Interactivity:

Digital media allows users to interact with the content in various ways, such as clicking on links, commenting on posts, and sharing information.

B. Automation:

Digital media can be automated to perform tasks, such as scheduling posts, sending emails, and generating reports.

C. Cheaper cost:

Digital media can be produced and distributed at a lower cost than traditional media, such as printing and shipping.

Additional Information

• Digital media refers to any type of media that is stored in a digital format and can be accessed, manipulated, and distributed through electronic devices such as computers, smartphones, and tablets.
• Examples of digital media include digital images, videos, music, and electronic documents.
• Digital media has become increasingly important in today's world due to its versatility, ease of access, and the ability to easily share and distribute content on a global scale.

The correct answer is B, C, and D only.

Key Points

• The transactional model of communication is a more complex model of communication than the linear model.
• The important features of the transactional model of communication are:

B. It is mostly used for inter-personal communication:

• The transactional model of communication is commonly used for interpersonal communication, where two or more people are involved in the communication process.

C. The senders and the receivers of messages can interchange their roles:

• In the transactional model of communication, the roles of the sender and receiver are not fixed.
• Both parties can send and receive messages and can interpret and respond to each other's messages

D. Feedback is simultaneous:

• In the transactional model, feedback is simultaneous, meaning that the sender and receiver are sending and receiving messages at the same time.

The correct answer is Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Key PointsStatement I: The media of mass communication are in a continuous state of flux with many other elements of human experience.

• The media of mass communication, which include print media, television, radio, and the internet, are constantly evolving and changing as technology advances and society changes.
• This is due to several factors, including the emergence of new technologies, changes in consumer preferences, and shifts in social norms and values.

For example, the rise of social media platforms like Facebook and Twitter has dramatically changed the way people consume and interact with news and information, and has given individuals new opportunities to participate in the creation and dissemination of media content.

• Similarly, the proliferation of mobile devices and streaming services has transformed the way people access and consume entertainment content.
• Overall, the constant flux of the media of mass communication reflects the dynamic nature of human experience and the ongoing evolution of technology and society.

Statement II: Such a state makes their operations and effects rich as well as elusive.

• The continuous state of flux of the media of mass communication, as stated in Statement I, implies that they are constantly evolving and changing in response to various factors such as technological advancements, cultural shifts, and socio-political changes.
• This constant evolution makes their operations and effects rich, as they are able to adapt to changing contexts and deliver content that is relevant and engaging to audiences.
• At the same time, this constant flux also makes the operations and effects of mass communication media elusive.
• As it can be challenging to fully comprehend and analyze their impact on society and culture.
• The complex and dynamic nature of these media means that their effects can be difficult to measure and predict, and they often interact with other elements of human experience in complex and unpredictable ways.

In conclusion, Statement II is a valid and justifiable extension of Statement I, as it acknowledges the rich and dynamic nature of mass communication media while also recognizing the challenges involved in fully understanding their operations and effects.

Shortcut Trick

Check Option 4: The number is 42.

Condition 1: Sum of digits = 4 + 2 = 6. Original number (42) = 7 × 6 (Satisfied).

Condition 2: Reverse number = 24. Difference = 42 − 24 = 18 (Satisfied).

∴ The correct answer is 42.

Alternate Method

Given:

Original Number = 7 × (Sum of digits)

Original Number − Reversed Number = 18

Let the tens digit be x and units digit be y.

Original Number = 10x + y

⇒ 10x + y = 7(x + y)

⇒ 10x + y = 7x + 7y

⇒ 3x = 6y ⇒ x = 2y --- (Eq. 1)

Reversed Number = 10y + x

⇒ (10x + y) − (10y + x) = 18

⇒ 9x − 9y = 18

⇒ x − y = 2 --- (Eq. 2)

Substitute Eq. 1 in Eq. 2:

⇒ 2y − y = 2

⇒ y = 2

⇒ x = 2 × 2 = 4

⇒ Original number = 10(4) + 2 = 42

∴ The correct answer is 42.

Additional Information

Digit Reversal Rule

The difference between a two-digit number and the number obtained by reversing its digits is always divisible by 9, where the quotient is the difference between the digits: (10x + y) − (10y + x) = 9(x − y).

Sum of Digits Property

The sum of a two-digit number and its reverse is always divisible by 11: (10x + y) + (10y + x) = 11(x + y).

Place Value

In a two-digit number, the place value of the digit at the tens place is 10 times the digit, while the unit place digit remains the same.

Concept used:

Simple Interest = (Principal ×  Rate ×  Time) / 100

Compound Interest = Principal ×  [(1 + Rate/100)^(Time)] - Principal

Calculations:

For the first bank deposit:

Principal = ₹5000

Rate = 12%

Time = 2 years

Simple Interest = (5000 ×  12 × 2) / 100 = ₹1200

For the second bank deposit:

Principal = ₹5000

Rate = 12%

Time = 2 years

Compound Interest = 5000 × [(1 + 12/100)²] - 5000

Compound Interest = 5000 ×  (1.12²) - 5000

Compound Interest ≈ ₹1272

Now, we can find the difference between the simple interest and compound interest:

Difference = Compound Interest - Simple Interest

Difference ≈ ₹1272 - ₹1200

Difference ≈ ₹72

Thus, the correct answer is option 1) ₹72.

The correct answer is A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III.

Key Points

The correct answer is (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

Key Points

Assertion (A): Since pre-industrial times carbon dioxide has contributed maximum to the global warming.

• The Assertion (A) is true, as carbon dioxide (CO2) is a potent greenhouse gas that contributes significantly to global warming.
• Since pre-industrial times, the concentration of CO2 in the atmosphere has increased from about 280 parts per million (ppm) to over 400 ppm.
• This increase is primarily due to human activities such as burning fossil fuels, deforestation, and land-use changes.
• The increasing concentration of CO2 in the atmosphere traps more heat from the sun, leading to rising temperatures on the Earth's surface and other adverse effects such as ocean acidification.

Reason (R): Carbon dioxide has the highest Global Warming Potential (GWP).

• The Reason (R) is incorrect.
• Carbon dioxide does not have the highest global warming potential (GWP). GWP is a measure of how much a greenhouse gas traps heat in the atmosphere over a given period of time, relative to carbon dioxide. Methane (CH4) and nitrous oxide (N2O) have much higher GWPs than carbon dioxide.
• However, carbon dioxide is the most abundant greenhouse gas in the atmosphere, and it is responsible for the largest share of human-caused global warming. So, while carbon dioxide may not have the highest GWP, it is still a very important greenhouse gas to reduce emissions.

The correct answer is Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Key Points

Statement I: DD GyanDarshan is a centre-owned television channel telecasting from Doordarshan Kendra and IGNOU

• DD GyanDarshan is a center-owned educational television channel that is telecast from only  IGNOU.
• It provides educational content to students from primary to post-graduate level through its programs.

Hence, Statement 1 is False.

Statement II: DTH channels are using the GSAT-15 Satellite for programme telecasts in SWAYAM Prabha

• DTH (Direct-to-Home) channels are using the GSAT-15 satellite for program telecasts in SWAYAM Prabha.
• SWAYAM Prabha is an initiative by the Indian government to provide educational content to students across the country. It offers high-quality educational programs through DTH channels.
• These DTH channels use the GSAT-15 satellite for program telecasts.
• GSAT-15 is a communication satellite owned by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO).
• It is equipped with 24 Ku-band transponders and provides communication services for various applications including DTH, VSAT, and network restoration services.

Therefore, Statement II is that it is true.

The correct answer is Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Key PointsStatement I: Automaticity is the process of information with more efforts.

• Automaticity refers to the ability to perform a task or process with little or no conscious effort or attention.
• In other words, when a task becomes automatic, it no longer requires a great deal of cognitive effort or attention to perform.
• This allows the individual to free up mental resources to focus on other tasks or processes.
• Examples of automatic processes include reading, driving, and typing.
• When these skills are first learned, they require a great deal of conscious effort and attention.
• However, with practice, they become more automatic, and the individual is able to perform them with little or no conscious thought.

​Hence ,Statement I is false.

Statement II: Stategry construction is the discovery of new procedures for processing information.

• Strategy construction is the process of developing or creating new procedures or techniques for processing information.
• When an individual is faced with a new or challenging task, they may need to develop new strategies or approaches for completing the task effectively.
• This process of strategy construction involves identifying the key components of the task, evaluating different options for completing each component, and synthesizing these components into an effective overall strategy.

​Hence ,Statement II is true.

The correct answer is CEC.

Key PointsThe Consortium for Educational Communication (CEC) is the National Coordinator for SWAYAM for Non-Technical Undergraduate Education. They are responsible for producing educational videos and e-content for SWAYAM and other educational initiatives in India.

1.National Coordinator:

• The National Coordinator for SWAYAM is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the development and delivery of online courses and educational resources on the platform.

2.SWAYAM:

• SWAYAM stands for Study Webs of Active Learning for Young Aspiring Minds.
• It is a government initiative to provide free online courses and educational resources to students and teachers across India.

Non-Technical Undergraduate Education:

• This refers to undergraduate courses that are not related to technical or engineering fields, such as humanities, social sciences, and business studies.

Consortium for Educational Communication (CEC):

• The CEC is a society under the University Grants Commission (UGC) that is responsible for producing educational videos and e-content for various educational initiatives in India, including SWAYAM.

Educational Videos and e-content:

• The CEC produces educational videos and other forms of e-content, such as online textbooks and interactive simulations, for SWAYAM and other educational platforms

The correct answer is Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Key PointsStatement I: Non-parametric tests are not easy to use and are rather slow i.e. they require labourious computations.

• The statement "Non-parametric tests are not easy to use and are rather slow, i.e., they require laborious computations" is false.
• Non-parametric tests do not require any assumptions about the underlying distribution of the data, which makes them useful in situations where the data do not meet the assumptions of parametric tests.
• However, they can be more complex to understand and execute compared to parametric tests, and they may require more time and effort to perform due to the need for extensive computations.
• The level of complexity and computational requirements can vary depending on the specific non-parametric test used and the size and complexity of the data set being analyzed.

Hence, Statement I is False.

Statement II: Non-parametric tests do not suppose any particular distribution and the consequential assumptions.

• The statement "Non-parametric tests do not suppose any particular distribution and the consequential assumptions" is true.
• Non-parametric tests are statistical tests that do not require any assumptions about the underlying distribution of the data.
• Unlike parametric tests, which assume that the data follow a particular distribution (such as normal distribution), non-parametric tests do not require any such assumptions.
• As a result, non-parametric tests can be useful when the data does not meet the assumptions of parametric tests or when the distribution of the data is unknown or ambiguous.
• Non-parametric tests are more flexible in their application and can be used with different types of data, including ordinal and nominal data.

Hence, Statement II is True.

The correct answer is (A) is true but (R) is false.

Key Points

The statement in Assertion (A) is generally true.

• Peer-reviewed journals are considered to be more credible sources of research because the articles they publish have been reviewed and evaluated by experts in the field.
• The peer review process involves rigorous scrutiny of the research paper to ensure its quality, accuracy, and relevance before it is published in the journal.

On the other hand, the statement in Reason (R) is false.

• Peer-reviewed journals subject research papers to rigorous scrutiny precisely because they have high impact factors.
• In other words, the reputation of the journal is directly linked to the quality of the research it publishes.
• Hence, it is in the interest of peer-reviewed journals to maintain the highest standards of quality by subjecting research papers to a rigorous review process.

The correct answer is A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I.

Key Points

Shortcut Trick

Middle number of 7 consecutive terms = Average

Average = 1617 ÷ 7 = 231

The numbers are: 228, 229, 230, 231, 232, 233, 234

Check for primes: 229 and 233 are prime.

∴ The correct answer is 2.

Alternate Method

Given: Sum of 7 consecutive natural numbers = 1617.

Formula Used: Sum of AP = (n/2)[2a + (n − 1)d]

228

229

230

231

232

233

234 Sequence of 7 Numbers Prime Prime Middle Term

Let the 7 consecutive natural numbers be x, x+1, x+2, x+3, x+4, x+5, x+6.

⇒ Sum = x + (x+1) + (x+2) + (x+3) + (x+4) + (x+5) + (x+6) = 1617

⇒ 7x + 21 = 1617

⇒ 7x = 1617 − 21

⇒ 7x = 1596

⇒ x = 1596 ÷ 7 = 228

⇒ The numbers are 228, 229, 230, 231, 232, 233, 234.

⇒ Primes: 229 (no divisors other than 1 and 229) and 233 (no divisors other than 1 and 233).

⇒ 231 is not prime as it is divisible by 3 (2+3+1 = 6).

∴ The correct answer is 2.

Additional Information

Prime Number Identification

A number is prime if it is not divisible by any prime number p ≤ √n. For 229, √229 ≈ 15.1; checking 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13 shows no divisors.

Consecutive Numbers Mean

For an odd number of terms (n) in an arithmetic progression, the average is always equal to the middle term (n+1)/2.

Divisibility Rule of 3

A number is divisible by 3 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3. Example: 231 → 2+3+1 = 6, which is divisible by 3.

The correct answer is.rar - Readable ARchive.

Key Points.rar - Readable ARchive

• The correct expansion of the acronym ".rar" is "Roshal ARchive
• ." The term "Roshal" refers to the name of the person who created the compression algorithm used in the format.
• Therefore, the expansion "Readable ARchive" given in option 3 is incorrect and incompatible with the actual expansion of the acronym.

Additional Information1..gif - Graphics Interchange Format:

• This is a file format commonly used for images on the web.
• The acronym "gif" stands for Graphics Interchange Format, which accurately describes the purpose of the format - to exchange graphic images.

2..css - Cascading Style Sheet:

• This is a style sheet language used for describing the presentation of a document written in markup language.
• The acronym "css" stands for Cascading Style Sheet, which accurately describes the function of the language - to define the style or presentation of a web page or document.

3..jpeg - Joint Photographic Expert Group:

• This is a file format commonly used for images on the web.
• The acronym "jpeg" stands for Joint Photographic Expert Group, which refers to the group that created the compression algorithm used in the format.
• The format is designed to compress photographic images while preserving the quality of the image as much as possible.

The correct answer is  C and D only. 

Key Points

C. .rar:

• RAR files are archive file formats that can hold multiple files of different types in a compressed form.
• They are commonly used for file compression, archiving, and distribution purposes.

D. .zip:

• ZIP files are also archive file formats that can hold multiple files of different types in a compressed form.
• They are also commonly used for file compression, archiving, and distribution purposes.

Therefore,  A, B is not correct since they refer to file types that cannot be used as containers for holding different types of files 

Additional Information

A. .mp4:

• While MP4 files can contain different types of media files, they are primarily designed to hold video and audio data.
• MP4 files cannot be used to store a collection of files of different types.

B. .mp3:

• MP3 files are a compressed audio format and can only hold audio data.
• They cannot be used to store multiple files of different types.

C and D, on the other hand, are correct since they refer to file types that are commonly used as archive file formats and can hold multiple files of different types in a compressed form.

The correct answer is 

Key PointsStatement I: Cognitive Apprenticeship is a relationship in which an expert stretches and supports a novice's understanding of and use of the cultural skills

• Cognitive Apprenticeship is a type of learning relationship in which an expert in a particular field or domain guides and supports a novice's learning and skill development.
• The expert helps the novice to acquire not only the content knowledge and skills necessary for the field but also the cultural norms, practices, and perspectives of the domain.
• In a Cognitive Apprenticeship, the expert stretches the novice's understanding by providing opportunities for the novice to apply and practice their knowledge and skills, and by providing feedback and scaffolding to help them improve.

Therefore, Statement I is that it is true.

Statement II: Scaffolding is a technique of changing the level of support from a low-skilled peer to more skilled peer.

• Scaffolding is a technique in which a more knowledgeable or skilled individual provides support to a less knowledgeable or skilled individual in order to help them learn and develop their skills.
• The more knowledgeable individual provides guidance and assistance to the less knowledgeable individual, gradually reducing the level of support as the learner becomes more competent and independent.
• The term "scaffolding" comes from the idea that the support provided is like a temporary scaffold that is gradually removed as the learner gains confidence and proficiency.

Hence, Statement II is false.

The correct answer is Special Multimedia Arenas for Refining Thinking.

Key PointsSMART' stands for Special Multimedia Arenas for Refining Thinking

1. Special: This refers to something that is unique or distinct from other things.
2. Multimedia: This refers to the use of different media, such as text, images, audio, and video, to convey information.
3. Arenas: This term typically refers to a space or context where activities or events take place.
4. Refining: This suggests that the activities or events taking place in the arena are intended to improve or refine something.
5. Thinking: This refers to the mental processes involved in learning, problem-solving, and decision-making

Additional Information

• Special Multimedia Arenas for Refining Thinking" might refer to a learning environment or context that is designed to support and enhance critical thinking skills through the use of multimedia materials and activities.
• This could include interactive simulations, multimedia presentations, and other activities that engage learners and challenge them to think critically and creatively.
• However, this is a purely speculative interpretation of the phrase, as it is not a commonly used term or concept in education.

The correct answer is Equivocation. 

Key Points

• The statement is committing the fallacy of equivocation, where the term "gift" is being used in two different senses.
• In the first sentence, the term "gift" refers to Mary Com's natural ability or talent for boxing, while in the second sentence, it is being used to mean an undeserved or unearned advantage.
• This shift in meaning of the term "gift" creates confusion and misleads the reader into accepting the conclusion that Mary Com doesn't deserve credit for her skill, which is fallacious reasoning

Additional Information

1. Appeal to authority: This is a fallacy that occurs when an argument is presented with an authority figure's opinion as evidence. This fallacy assumes that the authority figure is always correct or that they are always an expert in the subject at hand.
2. Red herring: A red herring is a fallacy that occurs when an irrelevant topic is presented to divert attention from the original issue being discussed. This fallacy is often used to avoid addressing the main argument by changing the subject to something else.
3. Equivocation: This is a fallacy that occurs when a term or word is used in multiple ways, and the meaning of the term changes within the argument. This fallacy is used to mislead the audience or the opponent by changing the meaning of the term used.
4. Begging the question: This is a fallacy that occurs when the conclusion of an argument is assumed in one of the premises. This fallacy is often used to make an argument seem more convincing than it actually is.

The correct answer is A and C only.

Key Points

1.The question asks which of the given statements cannot both be false, although they may both be true.

• This means that we need to identify pairs of statements that are not contradictory and can both be true, but cannot both be false.

2**.Statement A ("Some women are multitaskers") and statement C ("Some women are not multitaskers") are not contradictory and can both be true.**

• If some women are multitaskers (A is true), then it is also true that some women are not multitaskers (C is true).
• However, these two statements cannot both be false, as at least one of them must be true.

3.Statement B ("All women are multitaskers") and statement D ("No women are multitaskers") are contradictory and cannot both be true.

• If all women are multitaskers (B is true), then it is false that no women are multitaskers (D is false).
• Conversely, if no women are multitaskers (D is true), then it is false that all women are multitaskers (B is false).

4.Therefore, the answer is A and C, as these two statements can both be true but cannot both be false, whereas statements B and D can both be false, although they may both be true.

The correct answer is Heraclitus is a man who is invariably a mortal.

Key PointsAccording to the classical Indian School of Logic (Nyāya), the process of inference involves five steps, which are called 'avayava.' These steps are:

1. Pratijñā (proposition or thesis): This is the proposition that needs to be proved, which in this case is the statement "Heraclitus is mortal."
2. Hetu (reason or middle term): This is the reason or middle term that links the major term (sādhya) and the minor term (pakṣa) and establishes the relationship between them. In this part , the middle term is "man," which links the major term "mortal" and the minor term "Heraclitus."
3. Udāharaṇa (example or illustration): This involves providing an example that illustrates the relationship between the middle term and the major term. In section, the example is "Parmanides," which illustrates that whoever is a man is a mortal.
4. Nigamana (conclusion or synthesis): This step involves synthesizing the major term, the middle term, and the minor term to arrive at a conclusion. In this part the conclusion is "Heraclitus is a man who is invariably a mortal," which synthesizes the major term "mortal," the middle term "man," and the minor term "Heraclitus."
5. Upasaṁhāra (recapitulation or summary): This step involves summarizing the inference that has been made. In this case, the summary would be that Heraclitus is mortal because he is a man who is invariably mortal.

Therefore, based on the Nyāya system of logic, "Heraclitus is a man who is invariably a mortal," is the correct answer as it involves all five steps of inference, including the synthesis of the major term, middle term, and minor term.

The correct answer is C, A, D, B.

Key Points

C. Phishing - The action of sending emails to fraudulently obtain another person's bank details is called phishing.

A. Pharming - The action of illegally installing malicious code which redirects a person to a fraudulent website with the purpose of obtaining that person's bank details is called pharming.

D. Spam - Unsolicited bulk emails are called spam.

B. Smishing - The action of sending text messages to fraudulently obtain another person's bank details is called smishing.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

Option (C) Phishing, (A) Pharming, (D) Spam, (B) Smishing 

Additional Information

• Pharming attacks involve redirecting a user to a fraudulent website by altering the Domain Name System (DNS) entries on the user's computer or network.
• The attacker can then collect sensitive information such as login credentials or credit card numbers.
• Smishing attacks involve sending fraudulent text messages to the user's mobile phone, again posing as a legitimate source such as a bank or a mobile service provider.
• The message often contains a link to a fake website, and the user is asked to enter their sensitive information.
• Overall, it is important to be aware of these types of attacks and to take steps to protect oneself, such as being cautious when clicking on links or downloading attachments in emails, keeping anti-virus software up-to-date, and using strong, unique passwords for each online account.

Explanation:

Let total no. of teachers = X

Total Teacher in E university = 29% of X

1856 = 29/100 × X

X = 6400

So, Total number of teachers = 6400

Total number of teachers = 6400

Percentage of teachers in university A = 11%

∴ Number of teachers in university A = (11/100) × 6400 = 704

Percentage of teachers in university B = 17%

∴ Number of teachers in university B = (17/100) × 6400 = 1088

Percentage of teachers in university C = 19%

∴ Number of teachers in university C = (19/100) × 6400 = 1216

Percentage of teachers in university D = 6%

∴ Number of teachers in university D = (6/100) × 6400 = 384

Percentage of teachers in university E = 29%

∴ Number of teachers in university E = (29/100) × 6400 = 1856

Percentage of teachers in university F = 18%

∴ Number of teachers in university F = (18/100) × 6400 = 1152

Number of teachers together in university D and E = 384 + 1856 = 2240

⇒ Percentage of teachers in university B with respect to university D and E together 

⇒ (1088/2240) × 100 = 49%

∴ Percentage of teachers in university B with respect to university D and E together = 49%

Given that 25% of teachers in university C are females

∴ Percentage of male teachers in university C = 100 – 25 = 75%

Percentage of teachers in university C = 19%

∴ Number of teachers in university C = (19/100) × 6400 = 1216

⇒ Number of male teachers in university C = (75/100) × 1216 = 912

∴ Number of male teachers in university C = 912

Explanation:

Let total no. of teachers = X

Total Teacher in E university = 29% of X

1856 = 29/100 × X

X = 6400

So, Total number of teachers = 6400

Percentage of teachers in university A = 11%

∴ Number of teachers in university A = (11/100) × 6400 = 704

Percentage of teachers in university B = 17%

∴ Number of teachers in university B = (17/100) × 6400 = 1088

Percentage of teachers in university C = 19%

∴ Number of teachers in university C = (19/100) × 6400 = 1216

Percentage of teachers in university D = 6%

∴ Number of teachers in university D = (6/100) × 6400 = 384

Percentage of teachers in university E = 29%

∴ Number of teachers in university E = (29/100) × 6400 = 1856

Percentage of teachers in university F = 18%

∴ Number of teachers in university F = (18/100) × 6400 = 1152

Total number of teachers in university A, B and C together = 704 + 1088 + 1216 = 3008

Total number of teachers in university D, E and F together = 384 + 1856 + 1152 = 3392

⇒ Difference between the number of teachers in A, B, C together to the number of teachers D, E and F together = 3392 – 3008 = 384

∴ 384 is the number of teachers in university D

Percentage of teachers in university F = 18%

∴ Number of teachers in university F = (18/100) × 6400 = 1152

Fraction of teachers in university F are professors = 1/36

Number of professors in university F = (1/36) × 1152 = 32

Salary of each professor = Rs. 96000

⇒ Salary of all professors = 32 × 96000 = Rs. 30,72,000

Calculation:

Let total no. of teachers = X

Total Teacher in E university = 29% of X

1856 = 29/100 × X

X = 6400

So, Total number of teachers = 6400

Total number of teachers = 6400

​Percentage of teachers in university A = 11%

∴ Number of teachers in university A = (11/100) × 6400 = 704

Percentage of teachers in university C = 19%

∴ Number of teachers in university C = (19/100) × 6400 = 1216

Percentage of teachers in university D = 6%

∴ Number of teachers in university D = (6/100) × 6400 = 384

Percentage of teachers in university F = 18%

∴ Number of teachers in university F = (18/100) × 6400 = 1152

∴ Total number of teachers in university A, C, D and F = 704 + 1216 + 384 + 1152 = 3456

⇒ Average number of teachers per university = 3456/4 = 864

∴ Average number of teachers = 864

The correct answer is compare.

Important PointsAbbreviation:

• 'cf.' is an abbreviation used in research reports to mean "confer" or "compare."

Usage:

• It is used to direct the reader to a reference or source that supports the statement being made.

Example:

• For example, if a researcher were to write, "Smith's findings were consistent with those of previous studies (cf. Johnson, 2010)," they are directing the reader to compare Smith's findings with those of Johnson in their study from 2010.

Alternative Abbreviations:

• Some researchers may also use other abbreviations to indicate the same meaning, such as "see also" (s.a.) or "compare with" (c.f.w.).

Correct Usage:

• It is important to use the abbreviation 'cf.' correctly in research reports to ensure clarity and accuracy.
• It should be used sparingly and only when there is a clear reference to be made.
• Additionally, the source being referenced should be a valid and relevant one, and the reference should be cited properly within the report

Calculation:

Let's denote the cost price of car A as 'a' and the cost price of car B as 'b'. 

From the problem, we know two things:

1. The total cost price of two cars A and B is ₹5.0 lakhs. This means a + b = 5.0 (in lakhs).

2. Car A is sold at a profit of 20% and car B is sold at a loss of 20%, but the selling prices of both cars are the same. This means 1.2a = 0.8b.

From the second equation, we can derive a = (0.8/1.2)b = (2/3)b.

Now, substitute this into the first equation:

(2/3)b + b = 5.0

⇒ (5/3)b = 5.0

⇒ b = 3.0 (in lakhs).

Substitute b = 3.0 into the first equation:

a + 3.0 = 5.0

a = 2.0 (in lakhs).

∴ The cost price of car A is ₹2.0 lakh and the cost price of car B is ₹3.0 lakh.

The correct answer is Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Key PointsStatement I: (240)10 = (11110000)2

• To convert decimal to binary, we can use the division-remainder method.
• Dividing 240 by 2, we get a quotient of 120 and a remainder of 0.
• Dividing 120 by 2, we get a quotient of 60 and a remainder of 0. Continuing this process,
• we get the binary representation of 240 as 11110000.

Statement II: (101011111101010)2 = (57EA)16

• Step 1: Group the binary number into groups of four digits from right to left: (1010 1111 1101 010).

Step 2: Convert each group of four binary digits to their equivalent hexadecimal representation

• 1010 -> A 1111 -> F 1101 -> D 0101 -> 5
• Step 3: Concatenate the hexadecimal equivalents of each group from Step 2:
• (1010 1111 1101 010)2 = (AFD5)16
• Therefore, the binary number (101011111101010)2 is equal to the hexadecimal number (57EA)16.

The correct answer is A, B and C only.

Key PointsProposition A states that no women are arrogant human beings, which can be rephrased as "All women are non-arrogant human beings" (by converting the negative statement to an equivalent positive statement).

Proposition B states that no arrogant human beings are women, which can be rephrased as "All non-women are non-arrogant human beings" (by converting the negative statement to an equivalent positive statement and reversing the subject and predicate).

Proposition C states that all women are non-arrogant human beings, which is equivalent to proposition A (by using the conversion rule mentioned above).

Proposition D states that all non-arrogant human beings are non-women, which is not equivalent to any of the other propositions. It is the contrapositive of the converse of proposition A.

Therefore, the logically equivalent propositions are A, B, and C

Additional InformationA logical argument is a process of creating a new statement from the existing statements. It comes to a conclusion from a set of premises by means of logical implications via logical inference.

The correct answer is No cricketers are bowlers.

Key Points

The given statement "some cricketers are not bowlers" can be translated to "there exist cricketers who are not bowlers." If this statement is false, then it means that there are no cricketers who are not bowlers, i.e., all cricketers are bowlers.

Using this information, we can examine the given options:

1. Some bowlers are cricketers: This statement could be true, false, or indeterminate based on additional information. We cannot immediately infer its truth or falsity from the given statement.
2. Some cricketers are bowlers: This statement could be true or false based on additional information. We cannot immediately infer its truth or falsity from the given statement.
3. All cricketers are bowlers: This statement is consistent with the given information and can be inferred to be true.
4. No cricketers are bowlers: This statement is inconsistent with the given information and can be inferred to be false.

Therefore, No cricketers are bowlers is the only option that can be immediately inferred to be false based on the given information, and the justification for this answer is logically sound.

The correct answer is Introduction.

Key Points

• The Introduction section of a research article provides a background of the topic and outlines the reasons for conducting the study.
• It usually begins with a brief overview of the existing literature on the topic, highlighting the gap in knowledge that the study aims to address.
• The introduction also presents the research questions or hypotheses, providing a theoretical framework for the study.
• It is in this section that the authors explain the rationale behind their research, and what they hope to achieve with their study.
• Therefore, if one wanted to understand the theoretical reasons that led the researchers to conduct a project, they would read the Introduction section of the research article

Additional Information

• The abstract of a research article provides a brief summary of the main points of the article, including the research question, methods, findings, and conclusions.
• It is typically only a few sentences or paragraphs long and is designed to give readers a quick overview of the article's content.

The correct answer is 'nado' & 'di'. 

Key Points

In the coded language:

• 'ana ilo gao' means 'humans are good'
• 'gao nado da' means 'good and bad'
• 'di ilo da' means 'they are bad'

From the second statement, we know that 'gao' means 'good', and from the third statement, we know that 'da' means 'bad'.

Therefore, the remaining word 'nado' must mean 'and', di' means 'they' .

Hence , The correct answer is 'nado' & 'di'.

The correct answer is Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan.

Key Points

• Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, the fourth President of India, was basically an academician.
• He was a renowned philosopher, teacher, and author who was also a respected scholar of Comparative Religion and Philosophy.
• He served as the Vice-Chancellor of Andhra University from 1931 to 1936 and as the Vice-Chancellor of Banaras Hindu University from 1939 to 1948.
• He was also appointed as the Spalding Professor of Eastern Religions and Ethics at the University of Oxford in 1936 and served in that position for 16 years.
• Radhakrishnan was also a member of the Indian delegation to the United Nations from 1946 to 1952.
• He was awarded the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award, in 1954.

Additional InformationPranab Mukherjee:

• Pranab Mukherjee was the 13^th President of India from 2012 to 2017.
• Before becoming the President, he held several important positions in the government, including Finance Minister, Foreign Minister, and Defense Minister.
• Mukherjee had a long and distinguished political career spanning over five decades, but he was not an academician.

APJ Abdul Kalam:

• APJ Abdul Kalam was the 11^th President of India from 2002 to 2007.
• He was a scientist and engineer by profession and is known as the "Missile Man of India" for his contributions to the development of ballistic missile technology in India.
• Kalam was also a professor at the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) and the Indian Institute of Management (IIM) before entering politics.

The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Key Points

• The assertion (A) that earlier projects in the region were not very fruitful is supported by the statement in the passage that "Similar projects are underway elsewhere - in Bolivia, Cameroon, Mexico, Uganda and the Caribbean for instance - in the hope of building ecological awareness based on ancestral knowledge." This suggests that previous projects may not have been successful in achieving their goals.
• The reason (R) given for the assertion is also supported by the passage, which states that "These projects may turn out to be more rewarding than previous efforts because they are being conducted in cooperation with the local people who know the forest intimately." This indicates that earlier projects were not conducted in cooperation with the local people, which may have hindered their success.
• ​However, the reason (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion (A) because there was lack of cooperation from local people.
• Therefore, option 1 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is B, C and D only.

Key Points

• Refer to the lines: "In Kinabalu Park,", Martin writes, "the first stage consists of drawing up an inventory on rich flora, believed to include about 4,000 species, starting with plants that are useful to humanity. Studies of medicinal, edible and decorative plants are planned.
• The passage states that the project aims to draw up an inventory of rich flora in Kinabalu Park, which includes about 4,000 species, starting with plants that are useful to humanity.
• It also mentions that studies of medicinal, edible, and decorative plants are planned. Therefore, the correct answer is option D) Food, Medicine, and Decoration.
• Option A) Timber is not mentioned as one of the areas of focus in the passage.
• Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Key Points

• Refer to the lines: The Dusun are an indigenous group who still depend to a large extent on what nature provides. They live on the edge of the Kinabalu National Park, a large protected area of 753 square kilometers.
• Statement I is false because the passage mentions that the Dusun community lives on the edge of the Kinabalu National Park, not inside it.
• Refer to the lines: Tadong works with the villagers to collect and list plants. The project aims at providing better knowledge and use of plant species in protected regions by providing training and assistance.
• The project aims to work with the local people and build ecological awareness based on ancestral knowledge, but it also plans to conduct studies of medicinal, edible, and decorative plants.
• Thus, Statement II is true.
• Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Statement I: Dioxins and other chlorinated hydrocarbons have been shown to accumulate to dangerous levels in fish and fish eating birds.

• Dioxins and other chlorinated hydrocarbons are highly persistent and can remain in the environment for a long time.
• These chemicals have been shown to accumulate in the food chain, especially in fish and fish-eating birds.
• This is because these animals consume contaminated prey, which leads to the accumulation of these chemicals in their tissues.
• This can lead to dangerous levels of dioxins and chlorinated hydrocarbons in the bodies of these animals, which can have harmful effects on their health.
• For example, exposure to high levels of dioxins has been linked to cancer, developmental and reproductive problems, and immune system damage in animals and humans.
• Therefore, it is important to monitor the levels of these chemicals in the environment and take steps to reduce their release into the ecosystem.

Statement I is correct.

Statement II: Dioxins are highly toxic; even exposure to its extremely low concentration can cause birth defects, genetic disorder and cancer.

• Statement II is a valid and scientifically supported assertion. Dioxins are highly toxic and exposure to even low levels of dioxins over a long period of time can cause serious health effects in humans and animals, including birth defects, genetic disorders, and cancer.
• Dioxins are persistent organic pollutants (POPs) that do not break down easily in the environment and can accumulate in the food chain,
• Particularly in fatty tissue of animals, including fish and fish-eating birds.
• Therefore, it is important to monitor and control the release of dioxins and other chlorinated hydrocarbons into the environment to minimize their harmful effects on living organisms.

Statement II is correct.

The correct answer is High quality education in Indian languages.

Key Points

The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020

• The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020  is a comprehensive policy document that outlines the vision and mission for the future of education in India.
• It was approved by the Union Cabinet of India in July 2020 and replaces the previous National Policy on Education, which was last modified in 1992.

Some of the key highlights of the NEP 2020 are:

1. High quality education in Indian languages: The policy emphasizes the need for quality education in Indian languages. It proposes to develop high-quality teaching materials and teacher training programs to promote education in Indian languages.
2. Early Childhood Care and Education (ECCE): The policy recognizes the importance of early childhood care and education and aims to provide universal access to quality ECCE for all children in the age group of 3-6 years.
3. School Education: The policy proposes a 5+3+3+4 model of school education, which includes a foundational stage (3 years of preschool + 2 years of primary), a preparatory stage (3 years of upper primary), a middle stage (3 years of secondary), and a final stage (4 years of secondary).
4. Multidisciplinary Education: The policy emphasizes the need for multidisciplinary education and aims to promote the integration of arts, humanities, and social sciences with science, technology, engineering, and mathematics (STEM) education.
5. Higher Education: The policy proposes several reforms in higher education, including the establishment of a National Research Foundation (NRF), the promotion of online and open learning, the integration of vocational education, and the phasing out of affiliation-based models.

The correct answer is C, D and E only.

Key PointsC. Restricted teacher and institutional autonomy:

• In India's higher education system, there are often limitations on the autonomy of individual teachers and institutions, including restrictions on their ability to design courses and curricula, hire faculty and staff, and manage their finances.
• This can lead to a lack of innovation and creativity in teaching and research, as well as bureaucracy and inefficiency.

D. Less emphasis on quality research across disciplines:

• There is a tendency in Indian higher education to prioritize teaching over research, and to place more value on academic degrees than on the quality and impact of research.
• This can result in a lack of investment in research infrastructure, low research output, and limited engagement with contemporary social and economic issues.

E. Affiliating universities with a few colleges of undergraduate programme:

• Many universities in India are affiliated with a large number of colleges, which can lead to administrative and quality control problems.
• This is particularly true when a university is affiliated with only a few colleges offering undergraduate programmes,
• Which can lead to a concentration of resources and opportunities at those colleges and neglect of the others

The correct answer is 6.

Key Points

• While referring to the first two paragraphs of the comprehension, we get to know that Dius Tadong works with the villagers to collect and list plants in his home village, which is part of the Dusun community.
• Additionally, it is mentioned that "the other five plant collectors still work in their villages" along with Tadong.
• Therefore, there are a total of six plant collectors who are working on the project in Kinabalu Park to draw up an inventory of plant species that are useful to humanity.
• Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

Key Points

• Refer to the lines: After working for several years all over his native island, Borneo, for the Sabah State Forest Authority, he decided to return to his home village, part of the Dusun community. The Dusun are an indigenous group who still depend to a large extent on what nature provides. They live on the edge of the Kinabalu National Park, a large protected area of 753 square kilometers. Tadong works with the villagers to collect and list plants.
• Statement I is not explicitly mentioned in the passage, but it is implied that Tadong is a member of the Dusun community since he has returned to his home village, which is part of the Dusun community. Therefore, Statement I is false.
• Statement II is also not mentioned in the passage. Instead, the passage states that Tadong worked for the Sabah State Forest Authority for several years in the past, but he has now returned to his home village to work on the project with the local villagers. Therefore, Statement II is false.
• ​Since both statements are false, the correct answer is option 2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

Key Points

Statement I: Before Independence, the Britishers failed to create a national system of higher education in India.

• Before Independence, the British colonial authorities did not establish a national system of higher education in India.
• They primarily focused on setting up a few elite institutions such as the universities of Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras, which catered to a small section of society.
• The majority of Indians did not have access to higher education opportunities.

Statement I is true. 

Statement II: After 1947, the University Education Commission (1948-49) was mandated to suggest improvement to suit the needs of higher education in India.

• After India gained independence in 1947, the government recognized the need to develop a comprehensive system of higher education to meet the demands of the newly independent nation.
• In 1948-49, the Indian government appointed the University Education Commission, also known as the Radhakrishnan Commission, to make recommendations for the improvement and expansion of higher education in India.

Statement II is true. 

Therefore, both statements are true.

The correct answer is (A) is false but (R) is true..

Key Points

Assertion (A): Acidity in water with pH level above 5 has detrimental effect on aquatic life.

• In general, water with a pH level above 5 is considered to be relatively safe for aquatic life.
• The pH scale ranges from 0 to 14, with a pH of 7 considered neutral.
• Values below 7 indicate acidity, while values above 7 indicate alkalinity.
• Aquatic organisms have varying tolerances to pH levels depending on the species and their natural habitat.
• However, most freshwater aquatic life can tolerate a pH range of 6 to 9.

Hence, the assertion is incorrect.

Reason (R): Water with pH value between 5 to less than 7 is of acidic nature.

• Reason (R) states that water with a pH value between 5 to less than 7 is of acidic nature.
• This statement is also true because a pH of 7 is considered neutral, and any value below 7 is considered acidic.
• A pH of 5 is moderately acidic and can have a detrimental effect on aquatic life, as stated in Assertion (A).

Therefore, (A) is false but (R) is true.

The correct answer is Peroxyacetyl nitrates.

Key Points

• PAN stands for Peroxyacyl nitrates, which is a type of air pollutant formed through a complex chain of reactions between volatile organic compounds (VOCs), nitrogen oxides (NOx), and sunlight.
• PAN is not directly emitted into the atmosphere but is formed through the photochemical reactions of VOCs and NOx in the presence of sunlight.
• PAN is a highly reactive compound that can cause serious health and environmental problems
• . It is a major component of smog, which is a type of air pollution that can cause respiratory problems, eye irritation, and other health issues.
• PAN can also have harmful effects on vegetation and crops, leading to reduced yields and damage to the ecosystem.
• One of the significant sources of VOCs and NOx that contribute to the formation of PAN is automobile exhaust.
• Industrial processes, such as oil and gas production, chemical manufacturing, and printing, also emit large amounts of VOCs and NOx.
• Agricultural practices such as the use of fertilizers and pesticides, also contribute to the formation of PAN

Additional Information

• To control the formation of PAN, it is essential to reduce the emission of VOCs and NOx from various sources.
• This can be done through the use of cleaner fuels, advanced emission control technologies, and better agricultural practices.
• The use of catalytic converters in automobiles, which convert harmful emissions into less harmful ones, has significantly reduced the amount of PAN in the atmosphere.

The correct answer is Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Key PointsStatement I: In a breeder reactor more fissile material is produced than it is consumed.

• A breeder reactor is a type of nuclear reactor in which more fissile material is produced than consumed.
• This is achieved by using fertile material such as uranium-238 as fuel and converting it into fissile material such as plutonium-239.
• The process of converting fertile material into fissile material is known as breeding, and hence the reactor is called a breeder reactor.
• The excess fissile material produced can be used as fuel in other nuclear reactors or in the production of nuclear weapons.

Therefore, Statement I is  correct.

Statement II: In a breeder reactor, breeding works best with slow neutrons and hence moderators are required.

• Statement II is not correct
• In a breeder reactor, breeding works best with slow neutrons, which have a higher probability of being captured by the fertile material and converted to fissile material.
• In a breeder reactor, breeding actually works best with fast neutrons, not slow ones.
• Therefore, moderators (which slow down neutrons) are generally not used in breeder reactors. Instead, breeder reactors often use a fast-neutron spectrum to facilitate the conversion (breeding) of fertile material into fissile material.

The correct answer is C, D and E only

Key Points

C. Development of multi-disciplinarity:

• The NEP 2020 emphasizes the importance of developing multidisciplinary approaches in higher education.
• The document states that higher education institutions should move away from traditional, narrow, and isolated disciplinary specializations and should instead promote interdisciplinarity and multidisciplinarity.
• This is aimed at fostering creativity, innovation, and problem-solving skills among students.

D. Extensive use of technology:

• The NEP 2020 recognizes the potential of technology in transforming higher education in India.
• The document stresses the need to integrate technology in teaching and learning processes, including online learning platforms, digital repositories, and e-libraries.
• The NEP 2020 also advocates the use of technology in administrative processes, such as online registration, admissions, and examinations.

E. Promotion of ethical and constitutional values:

• The NEP 2020 emphasizes the importance of promoting ethical and constitutional values in higher education.
• The document states that higher education institutions should promote the values of social justice, inclusivity, and equity among students.
• The NEP 2020 also stresses the need for higher education institutions to cultivate a sense of national and civic responsibility among students.