UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 29 Sep 2020 Shift 2 (Previous Year Paper)

Given:

The number of girls who donated blood in department A = 40%

Total number of girls who donated blood in department A = 25% of the department 

Calculations:

25% of girls = 32

100% of department = 32 × 100/25 = 128

Blood donated students in department A = 32 + 48 = 80

The number of boys who did not participate in the blood donation camp = total number of students - number of students who donated blood

⇒ 128 – 80 = 48

∴  The number of boys in the department 'A' who did not participate in the blood donation camp is 48

Given: 

The number of boys who donated blood in department C = 39

The number of girls who donated blood in department C = 70%

Calculations:

30% of department C = 39

Total number of students in department C = 39 × 100/30

⇒ 130

∴ The number of students who donated blood in the department C is 130

Given:

*-out of total blood donors

The number of girls in the department 'A'  donated blood = 40%     (∵ *-out of total blood donors)

Number of donating boys = 48

Calculations:

The number of blood donating Boys in department A = 60%           (∵ 100% - 40%)

Hence, 

60% of department A = 48

100% of department = 48× 100/60 = 80

Total number of students in department A who is donating blood = 80 

The number of girls in the department 'A' donated blood = 40% of 80

⇒ 40 × 80/100 = 32

∴ The number of girls in the department 'A'  donated blood is 32

Given:

According to the table,

The number of boys blood donated in department B = 75

Boys from department B doesn't donate blood = 45

Calculations:

The number of boys in department = 75 + 45 = 120

Percentage of the girl in department B = 40%

Percentage of boy in department B = 100% – 40% = 60%

60% of the students = 120

100% students in department B = 120 × 5/3 = 200

∴The total number of students in department 'B' is 200

Given:

The number of boys who donated blood in the department A = 48

The number of girls who donated blood in the department A = 40%

The number of boys who donated blood in department B = 75

The number of girls who donated blood in department B = 50%

Calculations:

The number of girls who donated blood in the department A = 48 × 100/60 × 40/100 = 32

Total number of students who donated blood in department A = 32 + 48 = 80

The number of girls who donated blood in department B = 75  (∵ 50% in department B = 75)

the number of students who donated blood in department B = 75 + 75 = 150

The ratio of the number of blood donors in the department 'A' compared to the number of blood donors in 'B = 80 ∶ 150

∴ The ratio of the number of blood donated in the department 'A' compared to the number of blood donors in 'B' is 8 ∶ 15

According to Halema (2006), what is required from the teacher as a leader, is to develop teaching methods, materials, and performance norms and improve the teaching quality to achieve educational goals. As every leadership style is impossible to employ in all situations, and a particular leadership style is usually based on the readiness level of subordinates, i.e. the students in this case, hence a teacher is supposed to use different teaching styles in different teaching situations, based upon the readiness levels of students, to achieve instructional targets (Aric, 2007).

The primary purpose of the study is, therefore, to explore the readiness level of students, select a suitable leadership style as recommended by Hersey and Blanchard (1977) according to the readiness level of the learners, apply that leadership style by the teacher in the classroom setting, and explore the impact of the leadership style of the teacher on the performance of students.

Selling Style:

• When the student is unable but willing, the model calls for selling style to the task behavior. Here the student lacks capability but is willing or confident to perform the task. In this case, there is a high relationship and high task consideration to facilitate performance.
• As a teacher, you will need to provide direction since their ability is low. Additionally, you will want to reinforce their willingness and enthusiasm by providing supportive behavior. The teacher communicates and works to persuade the students rather than simply directing them. In the "selling" behavior, the teacher attempts to convince the group. The teacher should lead by providing social and emotional support to the individual being convinced. There is two-way communication.
• Small Step Presentations will help the students to understand the concept better step-by-step and will not over-burden them. Also, frequent reinforcement will help the students to retain the information. This strategy will make them able to complete the task.

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

1. Giving Challenging Tasks During Teaching is related to Delegating Style: When the follower is able and willing, the model calls for delegating style according to the task behavior. The follower possesses the capability and is willing or confident about the tasks.
2. Mentoring And Guiding With Close Supervision is related to Telling Style: When the follower is unable and unwilling, the model calls for telling style according to the task behavior. The follower lacks capability and is unwilling or insecure about the tasks.

Personality is typically inherent, It is what makes a person who he/she is. Attitude, on the other hand, describes a complex system of thoughts and emotions that can be changed or adapted by experience or knowledge.

Teachers' Personalities and attitudes can help or hurt student motivation, achievement, and well-being. Recent studies found that negative teacher attitudes can impair academic achievement and increase students' psychological disorders and physical symptoms of stress.

The five-factor model organizes personality traits using five categories and defines the differences in personality. These five factors include the dimensions of openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism.

1. Openness: Individuals with the openness personality trait are individuals who are willing to try new things, open to different experiences, versatile, creative, susceptible to changes in the environment, imaginative and risk-taking individuals, and individuals with low openness personality traits are more conventional and individuals who prefer to practice the known instead of trying the new.
2. Conscientiousness: It was stated that individuals with high conscientiousness personality traits are characterized by attentive behavior, high self-discipline, and consistent in displaying similar behavior, and individuals with high conscientiousness personality traits are characterized by inattentive, unorganized, indecisive, and unreliable behavior.
3. Extraversion: It was stated that the individuals with high extraversion personality traits are social, energetic, optimistic, warm-blooded, amiable, and sociable individuals and those with low extraversion personality traits are lonely, independent individuals who act/demonstrate slow behavior.
4. Agreeableness: It was emphasized that individuals with high agreeableness personality traits are easygoing, friendly, charitable, compassionate, gentle, cooperative, and trustworthy, and individuals with low agreeableness personality traits exhibit skeptic, quarrelsome, contemptuous and competitive behavior.
5. Neuroticism: Individuals with high neuroticism personality traits are extremely scrupulous and anxious, pessimistic and experience negative emotions such as sadness, anger, and guilt more intensely, and individuals with low neurotic personality traits are those who are calm, agreeable individuals who are not prone to excessive and disagreeable reactions

Hartman and Betz (2007) stated that there was a significant correlation between personality traits of the individuals and career development/career behavior. It was emphasized that "conscientiousness" and "extraversion" were the most reliable indicators of career-based self-efficacy and locus of control.

Evaluation is a systematic way to assess learner’s abilities, analyze performance, provide appropriate feedback to each learner and help them to progress. The formative evaluation assesses the performance of students, tests comprising various types of questions are constructed and administered during the period of instruction.

 

Therefore Option 2 is the correct answer.

Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in Teaching:

• It is an integration of Information Technology and telecommunication system using computers and necessary devices.
• It can use wireless and wired media.
• It covers any product that will store, retrieve, manipulate, transmit, or receive information electronically in a digital form
• ICT has its use in education, banking, health, e-commerce services, social networking, online research, etc.
• It has a broader and comprehensive use of devices.
• ICT enables learning through the use of computers, overhead projectors, videos, documentaries, whiteboards, etc.
• It is an infrastructure to enable modern computing.
• Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in teaching comprises Online learning, Learning through Mobile Application, and Web-based learning
• It is a modern teaching technique
• It has the potential to optimize learning outcomes

Social competence:

• It is the ability to maintain social interaction effectively
• This quality helps people getting along with others
• It is an effective way to maintain social relationships and adapt to social settings.
• Social competencies help to cognitive abilities, behavioral changes, personal development, make social awareness, etc.

Cognitive intelligence:

• It is the ability to learn, remember, reason, solve problems, and also make sound judgments.
• It is also known as IQ, which is more important in workplaces
• Cognitive intelligence enhances the efficiency to perform work, passing information, satisfying team experiences, confirm self-efficiency.

Therefore it can be said that social competence contributes more to learning than mere cognitive intelligence does.

Thus, Both Statement I and II are true.

A university teacher proposes a research project on 'why parents are apathetic to the university programs'. Participant - observation method will be most appropriate for the project.

Participant-observation method:

• It is the process to learn about the activity of people
• The data collected by itself
• The researcher not only observe the activity of the group but also take part in the group activity
• Here the researcher can play four roles
• Complete observer
• Participant as observer
• Observer as participant
• Complete participant
• Why parents are apathetic to the university programs can easily understand to directly talk to them or observe their activity towards any program.

In the Reflective level teaching level of teaching, there is an optimum scope for cognitive interchange requiring analysis and synthesis.

Levels of teaching:

• Learner’s psychology is the main proponent of teaching
• The ultimate goal of teaching is the all-round personality development of the learner
• To follow the stages of development of a learner a teacher tries to achieve the desired educational objective
• To keep all the things stated above, a teacher teaches students at four levels

Reliability in research:

• The consistency of a research instrument or the process of measurement
• Reliability is a necessary but insufficient condition for the validity aspect of a research tool
• Stability, equivalence, and consistency are three basic principles of reliability
• It can be classified into two
• Internal consistency: establishing causal relationships as distinguished from the spurious relationship
• External consistency: establish the domain to which findings can be generalized

The validity of research:

• It refers to the accuracy of an instrument or the process of measuring
• A test has construct validity if it accurately measures a theoretical, non-observable construct or trait. The construct validity of a test is worked out over a period of time on the basis of an accumulation of evidence. There are a number of ways to establish construct validity.
• Thus Validity is not threatened when a test measures only the construct it is designed to measure in a research

Therefore, Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Research is a systematic way of investigation, a process of discovering new knowledge. A research strategy is ideally a research model of conducting research that can be verified by the research community.

Scientific research:

• Scientific research is the systematic investigation of existing scientific theories and hypotheses.

• The hypothesis of scientific research supports evidence

• It involves a sequence of procedures- a collection of data, organization of data, and analysis of it.

• Scientists undertake research and try to find their causes, explanation, solution, and application.

• This kind of research maintains a cycle. Formulation of a research question - make a proper study designed -  empirical study - analysis of data - draws conclusions - publishes the results.

• The scientific study requires real-life experiences. Science deals with experiments and their results and the data should be collected from the real world.

• Scientific method follows Clearly defined variables and procedures, Empirically verifiable hypotheses, and the ability to rule out rival hypotheses

• Little or no scope for self-correction is important in every method of research

• Linguistic justification of conclusions i s not necessary for scientific research only. It is an important part of the overall research writing.​

Problem - formulation and identifying the variables involved is least vulnerable in research.

Research ethics: 

• It is a guideline for the responsible conducts of a research
• It related to the ethical principles of social responsibility
• There are three types of ethics, metaethics, normative ethics, and applied ethics
• Ethics always help us to identify right or wrong, differentiate good or bad

Some of the research ethics are as follows:

• Honesty: the researcher should be honest about the method, report data, results, publish the status.

• Integrity: researcher should care about the agreement or promises done before the research

• Objectivity: This is to avoid bias

• Respect intellectual property: Avoiding Plagiarism or any kind of copyright or duplication. Avoid using unpublished data or method or other without permission

• Carefulness: avoided error driven by negligence, keep record step of every step

• Confidentiality: keep confidentiality of collected data

• Responsibility: The responsibility of monitoring others, social responsibilities, use reliable and authentic data, etc.

• Protection: protection of human subject, animal or any other natural property

• Competence: maintain professional and scientific competence

• Legal: maintain legal aspects like government law, policies, institutional policies, etc.

• Research ethics is most important for the selection of variables and data collection.

• The last stage of successful research is reporting the research result

• In all the previous stages ethical issue is very important.

• Results come after doing all the work like data collection, analysis, maintain ethical issues, avoid all unauthentic information, and do all the relevant work step by step.

Communication activities of learners fall into domains consisting of Perception, Interpersonal skills, Interpersonal relations.

Although every researcher wants to be able to generalize the research findings to the wider population, such a study will require much more time, money and effort. For this reason, we select a sample i.e. a smaller representation of the larger whole (population), so that we can generalize our findings from the sample for the population.

Sampling: The concept of sampling involves selecting a portion (sample) from a bigger group (the sampling population). There are three methods of sampling in research:

1. Random/Probability Sampling
2. Non-random/Non-probability Sampling
3. ‘Mixed’ Sampling

Types of Non-Random/Non-Probability Sampling Designs: These designs do not operate on the principle of randomization rather these are used when the number of elements in the population is either unknown or cannot be individually identified.

1. Accidental Sampling: It is also based upon convenience in accessing the sampling population. People who are unwilling to provide data are simply ignored and the researcher moves to the next person until he/she meets somebody who is willing to be a participant.  You stop collecting data when you reach the required number of respondents you decided to have in your sample.
2. Judgment/Purposive Sampling: The primary consideration in purposive sampling is the researcher’s judgment as to who can provide the best information to achieve the objectives of your study. The researcher will only go to those people who in his opinion is likely to have the required information and will be willing to share it.
3. Snowball Sampling: It is also called a network or chain referral sampling. To start with, the researcher identifies a small number of respondents having a set of characteristics of interest to the researcher. After collecting the required data from those respondents, the same respondents are asked to identify others having the same characteristics set. E.g., collecting data from drug addicts, rape victims, etc.
4. Quota Sampling: The researcher is guided by some visible characteristic, such as gender or race, of the study population that is of interest to him. The sample is selected from a location that is convenient and easily accessible to the researcher and whenever a person with this visible relevant characteristic is seen that person is asked to participate in the study.
5. Dimensional Sampling: It is an extension of quota sampling where the researcher takes into account several characteristics such as gender, residence, education, etc. and ensures that there is at least one individual in the study representing each of the chosen characteristics.

Random/Probability Sampling: In this type, each element in the population has an equal and independent chance of selection in the sample.

1. Simple Random Sampling: It is the most popular of the probability sampling methods. The idea of randomization implies that sample selection is independent of human judgment.
2. Stratified Random Sampling: It combines randomization with stratification. Here, the population is divided into strata, the population within each stratum is homogeneous with respect to the characteristic based on which it is being stratified and such characteristics must be identifiable in the study population (e.g. age, income, sex, etc.).
3. Cluster Sampling: It is based on the ability of the researcher to divide the sampling population into groups, called clusters and then to select elements within each cluster, using the simple random sampling technique. It is appropriate when the population is large.

Therefore, option 3 is the correct answer.

Communication stimuli used to convey the message are known as code.

Communication stimuli:

• The inspiration of the sender to pass information or a massage is known as stimuli
• The massage converts into a code.
• The code passes of conversion is known as encoding and the sender is known as the encoder
• Communication stimuli could be internal or external
• Internal stimuli might be a desire from within while external stimuli are come from outside sources
• The sender chooses the channel based on the type of massage.
• The massage could be a combination of verbal and non-verbal

Given:

Speed of train = 96 km/h

time is taken to cross itself = 3 sec

time is taken to cross tunnel = 33 seconds

Formulae required:

Distance = speed × time

a km/hr = a × 5/18 m/sec

Calculations:

convert 96km/hr in to meter/sec = 96 × 5/18

⇒ 80/3 meters/seconds

Length of train = 80/3 × 3

⇒ 80 meters

Distance covered in 33 seconds  = 80/3 × 33

⇒ 880 meters

Length of tunnel = Distance covered in 33 seconds - length of train 

⇒ 880 - 80 = 800 meters

∴ Statement B, C and E are correct.

Given:

Two numbers 84 and 96

Calculations:

A. HCF

By prime factorization, we can write the two numbers;

84 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 7

96 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3

Hence, after factoring in the numbers 84 and 96,

we can see, the factors 2 ×  2 × 3 are common.

∴The HCF (84, 96) = 2 ×  2 ×  3 = 12

B. LCM

By prime factorization, we can write the two numbers

84 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 7

96 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 ×x 3 

Multiply each factor the maximum number of times it occurs in either number.

2: 5 times, 3: 1 time, 7: 1 time

We can write 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 7 = 672

∴ LCM of (84, 96) = 672

C. product of (84, 96)

Product = 84 × 96

⇒ 8064

∴ Product = 8064

D. Sum of (84, 96)

Sum = 84 + 96

⇒ 180

∴ Sum = 180 

Hence,

Vyapti (Invariable relations):

• Vyapti is the nerve of inference or Anumana.
• It means means ‘the state of pervasion.’
• It implies a correlation between two facts, of which one is pervaded and the other pervades
• For example, smoke is pervaded by fire
• A Vyapti may be of two types—

1. ​​Samavyapti: A Vyapti between terms of equal extension
2. Asamavyapti: a Vyapti between terms of unequal extension

"Wherever there is smoke, there is fire.

There is smoke in Mr Verma's chamber.

There must be a fire in Mr Verma's chamber."

• This universal relationship between fire and smoke, so it is an example of Vyapti.
• The existence of fire is necessary to be admitted in every case of smoke.
• Without the definite knowledge of such a relation, our inference of fire is impossible in spite of the perception of smoke.

Pramanas:

• Pramanas are proofs or 'means of knowledge'.
• It is the theory of knowledge and encompasses valid and reliable means of knowledge.
• The sis pramanas are 
• Pratyaksa: means the perception both internal and external. It acquires through sensory organs and the mind.
• Anumana: means inference, which accepts the truth based on the observation and previous truths.
• Sabda: means verbal testimony, A sentence that is a means of valid knowledge is called verbal testimony.
• Upamana: means comparison, It is knowledge derived from comparison and roughly corresponds to analogy.
• Arhapatti: means implication, It is the assumption of an unperceived fact in order to reconcile two apparently inconsistent perceived facts
• Anupalabdhi: means non-perception, the perception of the non-existence of a thing.
• In different schools of philosophy, they accept different means of knowledge or different pramanas.

GUI stands for Graphical User Interface.

Graphical User Interface (GUI):

• It is a user interface that allows user to interact with electronic devices through graphical icons or visual indicators
• It uses icons, menus, and other graphical representations to display information, as opposed to text-based commands.
• The graphic elements enable users to give commands to the computer and select functions by using a mouse or other input devices.

Basic components of GUI are as follows,

• Pointer: It is a symbol that appears on the display screen. It can be moved to select commands and objects.
• Pointing device: It allows you to move the pointer and select objects on the screen, e.g. mouse or trackball.
• Icons: It refers to small images on the display screen that represent commands, files, windows, etc. Using a pointer and pointing device, you can execute these commands.
• Desktop: It is the display screen that contains the icons.
• It allows you to place more information within a program.
• The graphics allow users to use complex programs with greater ease.
• It saves time as you do not need to edit configurations manually.
• You can easily memorize the tasks (point-and-click).
• Helps create user-friendly software with a point-and-click interface.

Compilers:

• A compiler is a program that translates a source program written in some high-level programming language into machine code for some computer architecture.
• The generated machine code can be later executed many times against different data each time.
• It writes the text into a format that the CPU can understand
• This is a kind of system software

Touch screen monitors:

• This is a device that helps the user to interact with the computer using their finger
• It is an alternative to mouse and keyboard for navigating a Graphical User Interface (GUI)
• It allows tough sensitive inputs as well as outputs.

Therefore it is clear that Compilers are software and Touch screen monitors are input/output devices. So both the statements are true.

The following table contains information about the given topics as follows,

 

The correct matching is as follows,

Listening:

• Listening is a way of effective communication
• It is an ability to receive, interpret and understand the message properly
• Listener act as the receiver in the communication process
• There are four types of listener based on their listening ability and reflection,

 

Therefore, the correct match is:

The pattern followed here is:

According to the alphabetical positions of the letters,

Hence, ‘T’ is the correct answer.

Operating system:

• An operating system is a  system software
• It is an interface between the computer, user, and the hardware
• It performs all the basic tasks like file management, memory management, process management, handling input and output, and controlling peripheral devices such as disk drives and printers
• Some of the examples of operating systems are Windows, Linux, VMS, etc.

 Algorithm:

• An algorithm is a "process or set of rules to be followed in calculations or other problem-solving operations", especially by a computer
• It is a step-by-step solution with clear instruction
• It allows well-defined inputs and outputs
• It must be simple, generic, practical, and language-independent

Therefore, statement I is false but statement II is true.

Shortcut Trick

The difference in ages (10 years) always remains constant over time.

15 years ago, the ratio of Elder to Younger was 2 : 1.

Difference in ratio parts = 2 − 1 = 1 unit.

Since 1 unit = 10 years, the elder man's age 15 years ago = 2 × 10 = 20 years.

Present age of the elder man = 20 + 15 = 35 years.

∴ The correct answer is 35 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

Age difference = 10 years

15 years ago, Elder's age = 2 × Younger's age

Calculations:

Let the present age of the elder man be E and the younger man be Y.

⇒ E − Y = 10 → (Eq. 1)

15 years ago, their ages were (E − 15) and (Y − 15).

⇒ (E − 15) = 2 × (Y − 15)

⇒ E − 15 = 2Y − 30

⇒ 2Y − E = 15 → (Eq. 2)

Adding (Eq. 1) and (Eq. 2):

⇒ (E − Y) + (2Y − E) = 10 + 15

⇒ Y = 25 years

Substitute Y in (Eq. 1):

⇒ E − 25 = 10

⇒ E = 35 years

∴ The correct answer is 35 years.

Additional Information

Constant Age Difference

The mathematical difference between the ages of two individuals remains unchanged throughout their lives.

Ratio and Proportions in Ages

If the ratio of ages changes from a:b to c:d over n years, the actual age can be found by maintaining the difference between the ratio parts as a multiple of the actual age gap.

General Age Formula

If x is the age n years ago, then the present age is always x + n, and the age m years hence will be x + n + m.

The least possible venn diagram is:

A. No butterfly is flower → False (It can be possible but it is not definite)

B. Some butterflies are toys → False (It can be possible but it is not definite)

C. Some toys are flowers → True (It is definite)

D. Some trees are flowers → False (It can be possible but it is not definite)

E. Some trees are butterflies → True (It is definite)

Hence, ‘C and E only’ is the correct answer.

The logic is:

Hence, ‘GISTH’ is the correct answer.

• Education can unfold the intellectual qualities of man.
• Education can be categorized into three, formal education, informal education, and non-formal education.
• Formal and informal education can both are important for the enhancement of learning
• Use of new media and social networking services learning become easy and affordable
• It enhances the opportunity to expand the learning environment
• It makes education more convenient
• It is a learner-oriented and self-motivated learning system.
• Learners can design their own learning process
• Using new media services, open and distance learning and online learning getting facilitate day-bu day
• Unfold multiple opportunities of skill development, enhance knowledge, learning efficiency, exposure to media, out knowledge, etc.

So, Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Communication is defined as the process of passing information and understanding from one person to another. It is simply the act of transferring information from one place, person or group to another. The communication process is made up of four key components. Those components include encoding, the medium of transmission, decoding, and feedback, along with the sender and the receiver

Process of Communication

• The first step the sender is faced with involves the encoding process (means translating information into a message in the form of symbols that represent ideas or concepts).
• When encoding a message, the sender has to begin by deciding what he/she wants to transmit. A good way for the sender to improve encoding their message is to mentally visualize the communication from the receiver's point of view.
• To begin transmitting the message, the sender uses some kind of channel (also called a medium). The channel is the means used to convey the message.
• While selecting the appropriate channel, senders need to keep in mind that selecting an appropriate channel will greatly assist in the effectiveness of the receiver's understanding.
• After the appropriate channel is selected, the message enters the decoding stage of the communication process.
• Noise: This means some obstruction or hindrance to communication. This hindrance may be caused to the sender, message, or receiver.
• Decoding is conducted by the receiver. The receiver is the individual or individuals to whom the message is directed. And give the feedback to the sender.

Once the receiver confirms to the sender that he has received the message and understood it, the process of communication is complete. 

Therefore, from the above explanation, we can conclude that the process of communication is Encoder  → Message → Medium → Noise → Decoder.

In order to authenticate the environmental values as advocated by our ancestors, a scholar cites examples from Vedas. The means of knowledge used is known as Shabda (Verbal testimony) as Vedas act as a verbal testimony to convey the meaning.

Pramanas:

• Pramanas are proofs or 'means of knowledge'.
• It is the theory of knowledge and encompasses valid and reliable means of knowledge.
• the sis pramanas are 
• Pratyaksa
• Anumana
• Sabda
• Upamana
• Arhapatti
• Anupalabdhi
• In different schools of philosophy, they accept different means of knowledge or different pramanas

​

Match List I with List II

Therefore, option 2 is the correct answer.

Given:

Statement I: A number is divisible by 25, if the number formed by its last two digits is either (00) or divisible by (25)

Statement II: A number is divisible by 16 if the number formed by its last 4 digits is divisible by 16

Divisibility rule  for 25:

To determine if a number is divisible by 25, the number formed by the last two digits of the number must be 00, 25, 50, or 75.

Divisibility rule for 16:

 A number is divisible by 16 if the number formed by its last 4 digits is divisible by 16.

From the above, 

∴ Statement II is appropriate, hence statement I is not appropriate.

Carbon dioxide (CO2) makes up the vast majority of greenhouse gas emissions from the sector, but smaller amounts of methane (CH4) and nitrous oxide (N2O) are also emitted. These gases are released during the combustion of fossil fuels, such as coal, oil, and natural gas, to produce electricity.

According to World Green House Gas Emission Data, the correct sequence of countries in decreasing order of their contribution to global carbon dioxide emissions is China, USA,  EU - 28, India, Russia, Japan.

Therefore, option 1 is the right answer.

Semiconductor:

• Semiconductor are small bandgap insulators
• The most commonly used semiconductor materials are crystalline inorganic solids
• Different semiconductor materials have different properties.

 

So, all the options are correct.

The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were born at the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development in Rio de Janeiro in 2012.

• They were adopted by all United Nations Member States in 2015 as a universal call to action to end poverty, protect the planet, and ensure that all people enjoy peace and prosperity by 2030.
• The 17 SDGs are integrated that is, they recognize that action in one area will affect outcomes in others and that development must balance social, economic, and environmental sustainability.
• The SDGs replaced the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs), which started a global effort in 2000 to tackle the indignity of poverty.

Hence, the protection of the Ozone layer is not a Sustainable Development Goal.

The Montreal Protocol

1. In 1987, to address the destruction of the ozone layer, the international community established the Montreal Protocol on ozone-depleting substances.
2. It was the first international treaty to be signed by all countries of the world and is considered the greatest environmental success story in the history of the United Nations.
3. The Montreal Protocol’s objective is to cut down the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances, in order to reduce their presence in the atmosphere and thus protect the Earth's ozone layer.

In biology, a pathogen in the oldest and broadest sense is any organism that can produce disease. A pathogen may also be referred to as an infectious agent, or simply a germ.

A disease is a particular abnormal condition that negatively affects the structure or function of all or part of an organism, and that is not due to any immediate external injury. Diseases are often known to be medical conditions that are associated with specific symptoms and signs.

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

FICCI Higher Education Summit 2012:

• The 8^th FICCI Higher Education Summit 2012, a two day Global Conference, on “Higher Education in India: Quest for Excellence” supported by the Ministry of Human Resource Development and the Planning Commission, Government of India was organized by FICCI, on 5^th & 6^th November 2012 at Federation House, New Delhi.
• The deliberations focused on strategies required to improve quality across all parameters of higher education delivery.
• The Agenda of the Summit was developed keeping in mind the issues delineated by the Planning Commission in the 12^th Plan on Higher Education.
• The deliberations went beyond knowledge-sharing leading to the identification of policy and practice imperatives and the elaboration of an action plan for the way forward.

Statement I: The three greatest challenges facing higher education in India, described by FICCI (2012) are expansion, equity, and excellence.

Explanation: 

• One of the greatest challenges to higher education in India is providing access to the growing segments of the population demanding post-secondary education. The government data reveals that one out of seven children in India goes to college. It indicates that the nation suffers from both a crippling quantity and quality challenge as far as higher education is concerned.
• Addressing a higher education summit organized by the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI), HRD Minister Kapil Sibal said “We will need 800 new universities and 40,000 new colleges to meet the aim of 30 percent GER (gross enrolment ratio) by 2020. Government alone cannot meet this aim,”
• The Twelfth Plan recognizes these challenges and proposes several initiatives around six focus areas to address them.
• Expansion – augmenting capacity in existing institutions
• Equity- creating targeted schemes for backward and minority communities
• Excellence - building excellence through research and innovation, faculty development, and internationalization
• Governance - enhancing institutional autonomy and transparency
• Funding – increasing public and private funding and linking them to outcomes
• Implementation and monitoring– improving co-ordination across ministries and agencies

Thus, the statement I is correct.

Statement II: While all three issues indicated in Statement I are interlinked, equity to a large extent is dependent on expansion and access.

Explanation: 

• There is no equity in GER among different sections of society.
• According to previous studies, the GER in higher education in India among males and females varies to a greater extent.
• There are regional variations too as some states have high GER while some are quite behind the national GER which reflects a significant imbalance within the higher education system.
• It has been formulated that the problem of equity shall be addressed by improving the scope of expansion and access.

Thus, statement II is correct.

∴ Option I is correct.

India is a unique country with a rich ancient history and with one of the oldest yet dynamic culture. It has a distinct identity and although diverse in all respects, there is an underlying unity in Indian culture.

The below features describe most appropriately the Indian values

1. Unlike western society, which puts the impetus on “individualism”, the Indian society is “collectivistic” in that it promotes interdependence and co-operation, with the family forming the focal point of this social structure.
2. Social value provides order , it provides stability to the society. It is the criteria by which individual measure its life, it provides end. social values like democracy, fundamental rights, equality, rationality, scientific value all help in providing order as well growth of society thereby provides stability.

Therefore, option 4 is the correct answer.

Indian value has yet to emphasize individual ambition and social progress to its fullest form. Thus it cannot be considered essential features.

GIven:

2D shapes and their areas formulas

From the above information, we have to match List I with List II

A.Triangle 

To find the area of the triangle we use mainly two formulas

if we know the base and height of the triangle 

Area = 1/2 × base × height

B.  Square:

 

If we know the side of the square = a

Then,

Area = side² ⇒ a²

C. Rhombus:

Area of a rhombus = 1/2 × d₁ × d₂

Where d1 and d2 are the diagonals of the Rhombus

D. Parallelogram:

Area of parallelogram = base × height

Hence,

Additional Information

Area of a  triangle =\(\sqrt{s(s-a)(s-b)(s-c)}\)

When the sides are a,b, and c

Area of square = d²/2

d is diagonal of a square

The correct answer is Having no power of cognition

Key Points

• The opening paragraph of the passage says the following about the historic conception of the child:
• cognitively an "empty organism" responding more or less randomly to stimulation
• characteristically learning when specific responses were connected with specific stimuli through the meditation of pleasure or pain
• would do nothing to learn or think if it were not impelled to such activity by primary drives like hunger or thirst or by externally applied motives like reward and punishment.
• Thus we can logically conclude that the early child was thought of as having no power of cognition
• All the other options can be categorically refuted using what has been stated in the opening paragraph

The correct answer is Animals and children having the same drive

Key Points

• The opening paragraph of the passage says the following about the historic conception of the child:
• cognitively an "empty organism" responding more or less randomly to stimulation
• characteristically learning when specific responses were connected with specific stimuli through the meditation of pleasure or pain
• would do nothing to learn or think if it were not impelled to such activity by primary drives like hunger or thirst or by externally applied motives like reward and punishment.
• Experimenters in the laboratory were connecting correct responses of animals to puzzle boxes by giving or withholding food and teachers in the classroom were connecting correct responses of children to problem cards by giving or withholding approval.
• Now, let's look at each option:
• Motivating the child with reward and punishment: This was a common historical conception about the child (the third point)
• Considering hunger and thirst as negligible in impact: This is contradictory to what is in the third sentence of the opening paragraph (the third point)
• Animals and children having the same drive: This is in agreement with what the opening paragraph states (the fourth point)
• Teachers controlling children: This was the main idea behind the learning process in historical times but not behind the laboratory experiments

The correct answer is Teacher - centric motivation

Key Points

• The second paragraph of the passage mentions **"...the connectionist formulation of learning. But the essential point is a conception of the learner as an ideationally empty organism associating discrete stimuli and responses through the operation of rewards and punishments under the control of the teacher. Both the stimulus - what was supposed to be learned - an the response - what was actually learned - were believed to be determined by the teacher."

The correct answer is To place the teacher on the higher pedestal

Key Points

• The second sentence of the concluding paragraph says - "The teacher was necessarily placed in front of the classroom - sometimes on a dais or platform - and the pupils in chairs rigidly fastened to the floor in straight rows facing forward so they would not turn away from the only source of the learning experience: the teacher"
• From the above, we can logically conclude that the main idea behind learning in the early days was that the pupils should place the teacher on a high platform or pedestal
• All other characteristics of learning in those days, like the students fastened to the floor and facing forward so that they were attentive, were means to fulfill the above

The correct answer is 

Key Points

• The last two sentences of the passage say - "Given this contemporary vision of the learner, what could be a more eminently practical and sensible image of the ideal learning environment? Indeed, there is a letter by John Dewey dating from this period in which he complains that when he was trying to equip his new school according to his different conception of child as learner, he was unable to find any other kind of classroom furniture."
• It can be concluded that John Dewey wanted to equip the school by keeping in mind the conception of child as a learner. Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

As society advances, we are discovering more pollutants that are contributing to negative climate change effects and global warming. Many of these pollutants come from our manufacturing and power generating industries, and no matter how much they are minimized, there are always going to some pollutants that will enter our atmosphere. Thermal power plants are known for producing a wide range of pollutants that are released into our atmosphere.

Impact on the Atmosphere:

Thermal power plants are known to pump out a lot of greenhouse gases and ash, which are by-products of burning fossil fuels. Whilst some thermal power plants do use solar or nuclear energy, they are heavily reliant on fossil fuels.

1. Carbon dioxide:

• Carbon dioxide is one of the main gases that is released from the burning of fossil fuels and is known to be a greenhouse gas and a contributor to global warming.
• Out of all the gases released from a thermal power plant, carbon dioxide is the main one, and thermal power plants are one of the main contributors to the increased carbon dioxide levels throughout the world.

2. Sulphur dioxide:

• Sulfur dioxide is another gas that is released from power plants.
• Whilst it is technically not a greenhouse gas, it is known to have indirect effects on the atmosphere because it can affect the scattering of incoming sunlight, the formation of clouds, and precipitation patterns.
• So, in many cases, it is considered an indirect greenhouse gas. Sulfur dioxide forms sulphuric acid in the atmosphere.

3. Nitrogen oxides:

• Nitrogen oxides are another set of gases that are released to the atmosphere by thermal power plants.
• Thermal power plants are also one of the biggest contributors to global nitrogen oxide levels.

4. Particulate matter: 

• The other big pollutant to the atmosphere is ash.
• Ash often contains harmful particulate matter, as well as heavy metals.
• Ash can have multiple effects; it can get into waterways and soil wherever it falls (it doesn’t have to be the local environment) and change the alkalinity of the soil/water, which can render the soil unusable for agricultural purposes and the water undrinkable, and it can cause visibility issues.
• Ash and the particulate matter contained within are also a major cause of smog—which is being seen in many cities around the world on a much more frequent and hazardous scale.

Therefore, the correct option is 2.

The Department of Higher Education is responsible for the overall development of the basic infrastructure of the Higher Education sector, both in terms of policy and planning. Under a planned development process, the Department looks after expansion of access and qualitative improvement in Higher Education, through world-class Universities, Colleges, and other Institutions.

A number of apex level bodies have been set up to promote and regulate the development of education. 

1. University Grants Commission:

• The University Grants Commission (UGC) acts as the overarching regulatory body.
• The establishment of the University Grants Commission in India, on the pattern of the British UGC, was recommended by the University Education Commission in 1949.
• The major functions of the Commission are Promotion and coordination of university education; determination and maintenance of standards of teaching, examination, and research; allocation and disbursement of grants to the universities from the funds given to it by the central government; advising universities on measures for improving university education; advising central and state governments on matters relating to university education.

2. All India Council for Technical Education: 

• The AICTE Act was constituted to provide for the establishment of an All India Council for Technical Education with a view to proper planning and co-ordinated development of a technical education system throughout the country, the promotion of qualitative improvements of such education in relation to planned quantitative growth, and regulation & proper maintenance of norms and standards in the technical education system and for the matters connected therewith.
• The purview of AICTE (the Council) covers programs of technical education including training and research in Engineering, Technology, Architecture, Town Planning, Management, Pharmacy, Applied Arts and Crafts, Hotel Management and Catering Technology, etc. at different levels.

3. Distance Education Council:

• The Distant Education Bureau (DEB) is a bureau of the University Grants Commission (UGC) based in New Delhi, India, in charge of regulating and managing distance education in India.
• It was established in 2012, replacing the Distance Education Council (DEC), an organization that was responsible for open learning and distance education since 1985.

Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.

NUEPA:

• The National University of Educational Planning and Administration (NUEPA), established by the Ministry of Human Resource Development, Government of India, is a premier organization dealing with capacity building and research in planning and management of education not only in India but also in South Asia.
• It is not a regulatory body. It is a Deemed To Be University.

ICSSR: 

• Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR) was established in the year 1969 by the Government of India to promote research in social sciences in the country. ICSSR provide grants for projects, fellowships, international collaboration, capacity building, survey, publications, etc. to promote research in social sciences in India. It is not a regulatory body.
• It is the national body overseeing research in the social sciences in India.

Statutory requirements derive from legislation that has been enacted into law. 

Regulatory requirements derive from regulations, which have been put in place by government agencies.

In university governance, the Vice-Chancellor is the executive head.

• The Executive Council (also called Syndicate or Board of Management) is the authority that takes all executive decisions and implements them.
• All administrative and financial powers are exercised by this body.
• Generally, the Executive Council consists of the Vice-Chancellor as its Chairman, a ProVice-Chancellor, two Deans, three or four representatives of teachers, two or three representatives (generally Heads) of colleges or institutions affiliated to the university, three or four nominees of the government, and two or three members of the Senate who are external members.
• There could be minor variations in this broad pattern of composition from university to university.

The main functions of the vice-chancellor of a university are the following:

• The vice-chancellor is ex-officio the Chairman of the Executive Council (Syndicate or Board of Management) and the Academic Council as well as the Finance Committee and other statutory bodies like the Planning Board and Selection Committees.
• As the Chief Executive, he/she is responsible for ensuring that the university functions in accordance with the provisions of the Act, statutes, ordinances, and regulations.
• He/she is responsible for ensuring discipline among teachers, staff, and students.
• In an emergency, he/she can exercise any power of any authority and report the matter to the authority concerned for ratification of the decision.
• He/she can delegate his powers to other officers.

Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

1.The Chancellor: 

• The Central Universities have a statutory office of Chancellor who is the head of the University.
• An eminent person in public life is appointed to this office by the Visitor on the recommendation of the Executive Council.
• He presides over the meetings of the court and the convocations of the university.
• He is not vested with any other functions or powers.

2. The Registrar:

• The position of Registrar who is the head of the administrative wing of a university is a key position.
• He leads the university's civil service, is the custodian of all university records, and represents the university in all its dealings with the outside world.
• He is ex-officio, the Secretary of all the Statutory bodies of the university, issues notices for their meetings, prepares the agenda, and also the minutes of the meetings.

3. The Education Secretary: 

• The Education Secretariat is the topmost administrative structure in the State Education Department headed by the Secretary of Education.
• The Minister of Education controls both the academic and administrative functioning of these schools through the Principal Secretary & Director of Education.
• The main responsibility involves policy formulation, planning, programming, budgeting of education, coordinating among different directorates and with other departments, work relating to appointment, promotion, and transfer of senior officers.

Higher education comprises all post-secondary education, training, and research guidance at educational institutions such as universities that are authorized as institutions of higher education by state authorities.

Statement I: The UGC in India has statutory responsibility for the maintenance of quality and coordination of institutions of higher education.

Explanation: 

• The establishment of a University Grants Commission in India, on the pattern of the British UGC was recommended by the University Education Commission in 1949.
• These recommendations were accepted by the Central government and a University Grants Commission was established in 1956 under an Act of Parliament.
• The major functions of the Commission are promotion and coordination of university education; determination and maintenance of standards of teaching, examinations, and research; allocation and disbursement of grants to the universities from the funds given to it by the Central government; advising universities on measures for improving university education; advising Central and State governments on matters relating to university education.
• During the latter phase of development, the UGC took several major initiatives which included the establishment of centers of excellence, improvement of the quality of teaching in colleges, setting up of major facilities for research in specialized fields that could be shared by a number of universities, development of facilities for the application of electronic media in higher education, measures for improving the conditions of work of teachers and their training and scholarships and fellowships for students.

Thus, the statement I is correct.

Statement II: The NCTE being a regulatory body for teacher education in India comes under the control of UGC.

Explanation: 

• National Council for Teacher Education is a statutory body of the Indian government set up under the National Council for Teacher Education Act, 1993 in 1995.
• There is an Executive Committee and a Regional Committee which work for NCTE.
• The main functions of NCTE are:
• to promote the coordinated development of teacher education,
• to determine and maintain standards of the teacher education program at primary and secondary levels,
• to regulate the establishment of institutions of teacher education,
• to lay emphasis on the continuing education of teachers,
• to reduce the gap between supply and demand of teachers, and
• to advise the Central Government, State Governments, UGC, Universities, and other agencies in matters relating to teacher education i.e. priorities, policies, plans, and programs.

Thus, statement II is incorrect.

∴ Option 3 is the correct answer.