UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 26th Dec 2021 Shift 2 (Previous Year Paper)

Listening is a basic skill for different learning processes. It is an active behavior in contrast to reading which is just a receiving of sound waves.

Key Points

• There are three basic steps to listening involve hearing, understanding, and judging.
• Listening is vital in the language classroom because it provides input for the learner.

Important Points

• Active Listening: is the practice of preparing to listen, observing what verbal and non-verbal messages are being sent, and then providing appropriate feedback for the sake of showing attentiveness to the message being presented.
• This form of listening conveys a mutual understanding between speaker and listener.
• Active listening is a way of listening and responding to another person that improves mutual understanding.
• It is an important first step to defusing the situation and seeking solutions to problems.

Hence active listening is the process in which the listener provides feedback to the speaker about the message heard and the emotion conveyed and lets the speaker realize how he or she is being understood and respected.

Additional Information

• Active Responding: Active Constructive Responding (ACR) is a way of responding when someone shares good experiences or information.
• Centering Behavior: Teacher-centered classroom, the teacher talks excessively, and students continue to listen. Unlike in a teacher-centered classroom, in a classroom that uses a learner-centered approach, both educators and students share an equal focus.
• Adaptive Teaching: Adaptive learning, also known as adaptive teaching, is an educational method that uses computer algorithms as well as artificial intelligence to orchestrate the interaction with the learner and deliver customized resources and learning activities to address the unique needs of each learner.

A massive open online course (MOOC) is a model for delivering learning content online to any person who wants to take a course, with no limit on attendance.

Key Points 

Hence the correct match is  A-II, B ‐ I, C ‐ IV, D ‐ III

Teaching and learning is a process that includes many variables. These variables interact as learners work toward their goals and incorporate new knowledge, behaviors, and skills that add to their range of learning experiences.

Important Points

Statement I: In a learning organization, the learning of teachers, their professional development, and the learning of children, their education, are inevitably complementary and mutually reinforcing.

• Learning can be defined as the activity or process of gaining knowledge or skill by studying, practicing, being taught, or experiencing something.
• Learning is about what students do, not about what teachers do.
• Thus in any teaching-learning environment development of teacher and learner is highly expected.

Hence statement I is correct.

Statement II: Intrapersonal intelligence does not involve understanding the inner world of emotions and thoughts, and developing the ability to control and consciously work with them.

• Individuals who are strong in intrapersonal intelligence are good at being aware of their own emotional states, feelings, and motivations.
• They tend to enjoy self-reflection and analysis, including daydreaming, exploring relationships with others, and assessing their personal strengths.

Hence statement Ii is incorrect.

Thus we can conclude that Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Personal competency is an ever-evolving accumulation of related capabilities that facilitate learning and other forms of goal attainment.

Important Points

• Four personal competencies are 
• cognitive competency
• metacognitive competency
• motivational competency
• social/emotional competency.
• Social and Personal Competencies are a set of skills to include self-awareness, self-management, social awareness, relationship skills, and responsible decision-making.
• These are the "soft skills that are needed for students to succeed in postsecondary and career.
• Motivation: is the word derived from the word 'motive' which means needs, desires, wants, or drives within the individuals. It is the process of stimulating people to action to accomplish the goals.
• Self Awareness: involves being aware of different aspects of the self including traits, behaviors, and feelings. Essentially, it is a psychological state in which one becomes the focus of attention. Self-awareness is one of the first components of the self-concept to emerge.
• Self-regulation refers to skills like self-awareness, self-management, emotional literacy, and problem-solving. Basically, those with self-regulation skills have the ability to control not only their thoughts and actions but also their emotions.

Hence motivation, self-awareness, and self-regulation constitute personal competence.

Therefore options B, D, and E are correct.

Additional Information

• Empathy is the ability to sense other people's emotions, coupled with the ability to imagine what someone else might be thinking or feeling. thus this option is wrong
• A social skill is any competence facilitating interaction and communication with others where social rules and relations are created, communicated, and changed in verbal and nonverbal ways. The process of learning these skills is called socialization**.**

Communication is the act of giving, receiving, and sharing information -- in other words, talking or writing, and listening or reading.

Key Points

• A communication barrier is anything that prevents us from receiving and understanding the messages others use to convey their information, ideas and thoughts .
• They can interfere with or block the message one is trying to send.
• A Cultural barrier in communication occurs mainly when communication happens between two different cultural backgrounds. We encounter cultural barriers in everyday life.

Important Points

The sequence of the Cultural barriers  : 

1. Semantic: are obstacles in communication that distort the meaning of a message being sent. Miscommunications can arise due to different situations that form the semantic barrier between the sender and the receiver. These situations, to name a few, may be language, education, or cultural differences.
2. Word Connotations: Meaning of the should be the second most concern in Cultural barriers.  As in many same word mean different.
3. Tone Difference: The tone can change the meaning of the words**.**
4. Differences in tolerance of conflicts  : While having the communication in different ethnicities differences of tolerance plays  the vital role.
5. Methods of conflict resolution : The ways of conflict solving stands the last but holds the most important part in understanding the communication.

Hence the correct sequence of the Cultural barriers is C, E, D, B, A

Communication paradigm removes the need for an end-to-end path from a source to a destination node and is therefore attractive to a set of non-real-time (i.e. delay-tolerant) vehicular applications.

Key Points

Thus the correct match is A-III, B ‐ IV, C ‐ I, D ‐ II

Pattern followed here is :Multiplication of Digits  of first number = second number

Hence, the correct answer is "2".

Given:

A, B and C share a certain sum of money among themselves.

A gets 35%, B gets Rs. 1500 and C gets 1/20.

Calculation:

Let original sum of money be x

⇒ \(\frac{35}{100}x + 1500 + \frac{1}{20}x = x\)

⇒ \(\frac{7}{20}x + 1500 + \frac{1}{20}x = x\)

⇒ \(1500 = x - \frac{7}{20}x - \frac{1}{20}x\)

⇒ \(1500 = \frac{20x - 7x - x}{20}\)

⇒ \(1500 = \frac{12x}{20}\)

⇒ \(x = \frac{1500 \times 20}{12}\)

⇒ \(x = \frac{30000}{12}\)

⇒ x = 2500

∴ The original sum of money is Rs. 2500.

By using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

The Family tree is as follows;

Hence, the correct answer is "Father-in-law".

Calculation:

Statement 1:

Let two numbers 15 and 17 and third number be 2

When we divide 15 by 2 we get remainder 1

When we divide 17 by 2 we get remainder 1

When divided by 2 we will  get same remainder = 1

Difference in two numbers = 17 - 15 = 2

Difference of two numbers/ third number = 2/2 = 1

So, their difference is exactly divisible by third number.

Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2: 

Let two numbers are 3 and 4

L.C.M. of 3 and 4 = 2 × 2 × 3 = 12

When we divide 12 by 3 we get 4

When we divide 12 by 4 we get 3

So, the L.C.M. is divisible by two or more numbers.

Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

∴ Both the Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true.

Key Points

Radio Frequency Identification (RFID)

• It refers to a wireless system comprised of two components: tags and readers.
• The reader is a device that has one or more antennas that emit radio waves and receive signals back from the RFID tag. Tags, which use radio waves to communicate their identity and other information to nearby readers, can be passive or active.
• Passive RFID tags are powered by the reader and do not have a battery. Active RFID tags are powered by batteries.

MICR

• It is a technology that was invented to identify the authenticity and individuality of a document using special ink and characters.
• They can't be faked or copied, due to the use of magnetic ink and unique fonts
• The benefits of the technology include enhanced security against fraud and the mechanization of cheque processing.

 OMR Technology:

• It recognizes marks made by human beings on a document or specially printed papers used in examinations, surveys, etc.
• It is generally used where a large number of applicants apply and data has to be processed immediately and with accuracy.

Optical Mark Readers 

• It reads pencil or pen marks made in pre-defined positions on paper forms as responses to questions or tick list prompts.
• The OMR data entry system contains the information to convert the presence or absence of marks into a computer data file

Optical character recognition (OCR) Technology

• It lets you turn scanned images into text so you can turn paper-based documents into editable, searchable, digital documents.
• This can help reduce the amount of physical space required to store documents

Barcodes

• These are symbols that can be scanned electronically using laser or image-based technology.
• They are used to encode information such as key identifiers (product, shipment, location, etc.) and key attributes (serial numbers, batch/lot numbers, dates, etc.)
• Barcodes have less security than RFID; as they can be more easily reproduced or forged
• Harsh conditions may cause enough damage or distortion to the barcode or substrate to render even the best-quality barcodes unreadable.

Hence the correct answer is A, C, D, and E only.

Key Points

Statement I: Every time a device connects to a network, it is given an IP (Internet Protocol) address.

IP or Internet Protocol:

• It defines the set of commands directing the setup of data transferred through the internet or any other local network.

There are mainly four types of IP addresses:

• Public:
• A public IP address is an address where one primary address is associated with your whole network.
• In this type of IP address, each of the connected devices has the same IP address.
• Private:
• A private IP address is a unique IP number assigned to every device that connects to your home internet network, is used in your household.
• Static:
• A static IP address is an IP address that cannot be changed. ​
• Dynamic.:
• Dynamic IP addresses always keep changing.
• It is temporary and is allocated to a device every time it connects to the web.

​Hence statement I is correct.

Statement II: Devices that never disconnect retain the same IP address.

IP or Internet Protocol ​:

• All devices obtain, send, and pass information with other associated devices with the help of IP protocol only.
• A static Internet Protocol (IP) address (static IP address) is a permanent number assigned to a computer by an Internet service provider (ISP).
• Your IP address is never consistent and can change if there occurs any changes in its internal environment.
• For instance, if you turn your modem or router on or off, it will change your IP address. Or the user can also connect the ISP to change their IP address.

​Hence statement II is correct.

Therefore we can conclude that Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

The correct answer is 40%.

The Paris Agreement sets out a global framework to avoid dangerous climate change by limiting global warming to well below 2°C and pursuing efforts to limit it to 1.5°C. The NDC targets were established under the Paris climate summit.

Key Points

Nationally determined contribution (NDC) or intended nationally determined contribution (INDC):

• It is a non-binding national plan highlighting climate change mitigation, including climate-related targets for greenhouse gas emission reductions, policies and measures governments aim to implement in response to climate change, and as a contribution to achieving the global targets set out in Paris Agreement.
• The EU and its Member States are among the close to 190 Parties to the Paris Agreement.
• The EU formally ratified the agreement on 5 October 2016, thus enabling its entry into force on 4 November 2016.
• The EU's nationally determined contribution (NDC) under the Paris Agreement is to reduce greenhouse gas emissions by at least 40% by 2030 compared to 1990, under its 2030 climate and energy framework in 2018.
• In December 2020, the EU revised and submitted its updated and enhanced NDC the target to reduce emissions by at least 55% by 2030 from 1990 levels.

Hence, Nationally Determined Contributions of European Union (EU) countries aim at a reduction in Green House Gas emissions by the year 2030 (in the reference to 1990 levels) to the extent of 40%.

The correct answer is Methyl mercury.

Important Points

Methyl mercury:

• Minamata disease (M. d.) is methylmercury (MeHg) poisoning that occurred in humans who ingested fish and shellfish contaminated by MeHg discharged in wastewater
• Minamata disease is a neurological disease caused by severe mercury poisoning. Signs and symptoms include ataxia, numbness in the hands and feet, general muscle weakness, loss of peripheral vision, and damage to hearing and speech.
• In extreme cases, insanity, paralysis, coma, and death follow within weeks of the onset of symptoms.

Additional Information

Arsenic:

• It is naturally present at high levels in the groundwater of a number of countries.
• Arsenic is highly toxic in its inorganic form.
• Long-term exposure to inorganic arsenic, mainly through drinking-water and food, can lead to chronic arsenic poisoning.
• Skin lesions and skin cancer are the most characteristic effects.

Lead:

• The most common sources of lead in drinking water are lead pipes, faucets, and plumbing fixtures.
• Lead in the body is distributed to the brain, liver, kidney, and bones.
• It is stored in the teeth and bones, where it accumulates over time. Human exposure is usually assessed through the measurement of lead in blood.
• Young children are particularly vulnerable to the toxic effects of lead and can suffer profound and permanent adverse health impacts, particularly on the development of the brain and nervous system
• Lead also causes long-term harm in adults, including an increased risk of high blood pressure and kidney damage.
• Exposure of pregnant women to high levels of lead can cause miscarriage, stillbirth, premature birth, and low birth weight.

Heavy metals Toxicity from Chromium and Nickel:

• Heavy meta's can contaminate private wells through groundwater movement and surface water seepage and run-off.
• People that consume high levels of heavy metals risk acute and chronic toxicity, liver, kidney, and intestinal damage, anemia, and cancer.

Geothermal energy is heat within the earth. The word geothermal comes from the Greek words geo (earth) and therme (heat). Geothermal energy is a renewable energy source because heat is continuously produced inside the earth.

Key Points

Top ten countries that are the world's leading geothermal power (in MW) producers.

• ​USA 
• ​With an installed capacity of 3,639MW in 2018, the US is the leading producer of geothermal energy across the world, producing 16.7 billion kilowatt-hours (kWh) of geothermal energy throughout the year.
• The country is home to the world’s biggest geothermal complex, known as the Geysers, which comprises 22 geothermal plants at its base in California.
• Indonesia recorded a geothermal capacity of 1,948MW in 2018, making it the world’s second-biggest producer of energy sources.
• The Philippines became the fourth country to have geothermal power capacity in the world.
• In 2018, New Zealand’s geothermal capacity stood at 1,005MW – making it the fifth country to currently boast an installed capacity above a gigawatt.
• Iceland country’s total geothermal power capacity was recorded at 755MW in 2018 making it the tenth in the world, with high levels of volcanic activity in the region making it particularly suitable for the energy source.

Therefore, the correct answer is C > D > A > B.

Key Points

Therefore the correct matching code  is A ‐ IV, B ‐ I, C ‐ II, D ‐ III

A hypothesis is an assumption, an idea that is proposed for the sake of argument so that it can be tested to see if it might be true.

Important Points

• The fundamental concept to keep in mind when creating any assessment is validity.
• Validity refers to whether a test measures what it aims to measure.

Construct Validity: Construct validity is the accumulation of evidence to support the interpretation of what a measure reflects.

• Modern validity theory defines construct validity as the overarching concern of validity research, subsuming all other types of validity evidence such as content validity and criterion validity.

Hence in the construct validity, the researcher is encouraged to deduce hypotheses from a theory that is relevant to the concept.

Additional Information

• Concurrent validity: is a type of evidence that can be gathered to defend the use of a test for predicting other outcomes. It is a parameter used in sociology, psychology, and other psychometric or behavioral sciences.
• Face Validity: Face validity is the extent to which a test is subjectively viewed as covering the concept it purports to measure. It refers to the transparency or relevance of a test as it appears to test participants.
• Convergent Validity: Convergent validity refers to how closely the new scale is related to other variables and other measures of the same construct.

A code in research methodology is a short word or phrase describing the meaning and context of the whole sentence, phrase, or paragraph. 

• Coding helps the researchers to refine and fine-tune the data. It helps the researcher to segregate, group, regroup and re-link to consolidate meaning and explanation.
• Coding the data helps the researchers identify themes, patterns, and categories.

Important Points

Statement I: Open coding is achieved by linking codes to contacts to consequences patterns of interaction and to causes.

• Open coding is an essential methodological tool for qualitative data analysis that was introduced in grounded theory research.
• Open coding refers to the initial interpretive process by which raw research data are first systematically analyzed and categorized.
• Open coding is achieved by segmenting data into meaningful expressions and describing them in a single word to a short sequence of words.
• Further, relevant annotations and concepts are then attached to these expressions.

​Hence statement I is incorrect.

Statement II: Axial coding is the process of breaking down, examining, comparing, conceptualizing, and categorizing data.

• Axial coding is a qualitative research technique that involves relating data together to reveal codes, categories, and subcategories grounded within participants' voices within one's collected data.
• In other words, axial coding is one way to construct linkages between data.

Hence statement II is incorrect.

Thus we can conclude that both statements I and II are incorrect.

Google Forms is a survey administration software included as part of the free, web-based Google Docs Editors suite offered by Google.

Important Points

1. Select Question type and Create: In any survey first we have to be clear about the types of the Question. According to the question, the form will arrange the system.
2. Make Questions mandatory/keep Optional: Making the question is the second step. We can keep the question compulsory or optional as per the demand of the survey.
3. Give Name to Survey Form and Save. The survey must have a name, so the participants can give their answers to the questions according to it.
4. Configure the Settings: After naming the survey, it should be in the configured setting. So the next step is Settings configuration.
5. Share with respondents: After setting configuration and managing the questions and the format of the survey it should be sent to the Respondents.

Hence A, C, B, E, D is the correct sequence of the steps to create google form.

Classroom communication exists in three categories: verbal, nonverbal, and written. 

Important Points

• Explaining is a major form of communication in the classroom and it is combined with giving examples, asking questions as well as responding to student answers.
• Productivity in education pertains to maximized and quality learning.
• In a high-productive classroom, students know what they need to do and how to go about the task at hand.
• Productive classrooms consist of clearly defined learning activities that are provided for students throughout the class period. The classroom feels like a “well-oiled machine” where everyone knows what is expected of them and how to go about doing it.

​In a classroom context, when innumerable meaningful messages emanate from a finite number of linguistic signals, it is called productivity.

Additional Information

• Semantics is the study of meaning, signs, and symbols used for communication.
• Cognition: Cognitive-communication abilities are those thought processes that allow humans to function successfully and interact meaningfully with each other. Many processes make up cognitive communication. Examples of these are: orientation, attention, memory, problem solving, and executive function.
• Information processing is the change (processing) of information in any manner detectable by an observer.

​Formula:

Distance = Speed × Time

To convert m/s into km/hr, multiply by 18/5

Calculation:

Statement I: A bullet covers 55 meters in 2 seconds. Its speed is 99 km/hr.

Speed in m/s = \(\frac{55}{2}\)

Speed in m/s = 27.5m/s

Speed in kmph = \(27.5 × \frac{18}{5}\)

Speed in kmph = 99 kmph

Hence, Statement is correct.

Statement II : A can complete a work in 10 days. In 5 days, he can complete \(\frac{1}{5}\) fraction of the work.

A can complete a work in 10 days.

Work done by A in one day = \(\frac{1}{10}\)

Work done by A in 5 days.

⇒ \(\frac{1}{10} × 5\)

⇒ \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Hence, the statement is incorrect.

Statement III: Walking at \(\frac{3}{4}\) of his usual speed, a girl is late by  \(2\frac{1}{2}\) hours. Her usual time is \(7\frac{1}{2}\) hours.

Speed Method:

The new time is taken = \(\frac{4}{3}\) of the usual time

Calculation:

⇒ \(\frac{4}{3}\) of the usual time - Usual time = \(\frac{5}{2}\)

⇒ \(\frac{1}{3}\) of the usual time = \(\frac{5}{2}\)

⇒ Usual time = \(\frac{5}{2} \times 3\)

⇒ Usual time = \(7\frac{1}{2}\) hours.

Hence, the Statement is correct.

∴ Statement A and C is correct and B is incorrect.

Fallacies are errors in arguments that deceive our minds. It is a defect in an argument that consists of something other than merely false premises.

Important Points

• All fallacious middle terms have been classified under the heads of the savyabhica̅ra, viruddha, prakaranasama or satpratipaksa, sadhyasama or asiddha, ka̅la̅tita, and ba̅dhita.
• It means a reason which is similar to the point at issue (Prakarana).
• When a middle term does not go farther than producing a state of mental oscillation between two opposite views we have a case of the prakaranasama middle.
• “Sound is eternal, because the properties of the non-eternal are not found in it” “Sound is not-eternal, because the properties of the eternal are not found in it.”
• The two middle terms being counteracted by each other cannot lead to any definite conclusion and we are left with the same question with which we started, namely, whether sound is eternal or non-eternal.

Hence When a middle term does not go further than producing a state of mental oscillation between two opposite views, the case is known as Fallacy of Prakaranasam (counteracted middle)

 Additional Information

• Fallacy Of Virrudha (Contradictory Middle): Sound is eternal, because it is caused.” In Savyabhica̅ra or the irregular middle only fails to prove the conclusions. Whereas the viruddha or the contradictory middle disproves it or proves the contradictory proposition.
• Fallacy of Assidha (Unproved Middle ): The fallacy of the asiddha occurs when the middle term is wrongly assumed in any of the premises and so cannot be taken to prove the conclusion.
• Fallacy of Savyabhichara (Irregular  middle ) : This fallacy arises when the middle term violates its second condition (sapaksasattva).

The correct answer is an Affirmative conclusion from a negative premise (illicit negative).

Important PointsAffirmative conclusion from a negative premise (illicit negative)

• It is a formal fallacy that is committed when a categorical syllogism has a positive conclusion and one or two negative premises
• "Some good actors are not strong men  is a negative premise
• All professional wrestlers are strong men. is a positive premise
• Therefore, All professional wrestlers are good actors." this is a positive conclusion

Therefore the fallacy in the question asked is an Affirmative conclusion from a negative premise (illicit negative) fallacy.

 Additional Information

Illicit major fallacy:

• It is a formal fallacy committed in a categorical syllogism that is invalid because its major term is undistributed in the major premise but distributed in the conclusion. This fallacy has the following argument form: All A are B. No C is A.

Illicit minor fallacy

• It is a formal fallacy committed in a categorical syllogism that is invalid because its minor term is undistributed in the minor premise but distributed in the conclusion. This fallacy has the following argument form: All A are B. All A are C

The fallacy of the undistributed middle:

• It is a formal fallacy that is committed when the middle term in a categorical syllogism is not distributed in either the minor premise or the major premise
• In this example, distribution is marked in boldface:
• All Z is B
• All Y is B
• Therefore, all Y is Z
• B is the common term between the two premises (the middle term) but is never distributed, so this syllogism is invalid.
• B would be distributed by introducing a premise that states either All B is Z, or Some B is Z.

Key Points

Therefore the correct matching code is A-III, B ‐ I, C ‐ IV, D ‐ II

Key Points

 Therefore the correct matching code  is A ‐ II, B ‐ III, C ‐ IV, D ‐ I

The correct answer is 'A and B'

Key Points

Let's look at the excerpt from the passage: ​ 

"Strategies to consider include improved employee selection and job placement, training, realistic goal‐setting, redesign of jobs, increased employee involvement, improved organizational communication, employee sabbaticals, and corporate wellness programs."​

• In the given statement, the author is speaking about the stressful situations in the organization.
• He has suggested management strategies for reducing organizational stress factors. Like improved employee selection and job placement, training, realistic goal‐setting, redesign of jobs, increased employee involvement, improved organizational communication, employee sabbaticals, and corporate wellness programs
• Hence it is evident that the management strategy for reducing organizational stress factor are setting achievable goals and employee wellness.

Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'People with the outside position of control'

Key Points

Let's look at the excerpt from the passage: ​ 

*"Certain jobs are more stressful than others, but, as we have seen, individuals differ in their response to stressful situations. We know individuals with little experience or an external locus of control tend to be more prone to stress."*​

• In the given statement, the author is speaking about the stressful situations in the organization.
• He has suggested that individuals differ in their responses to stressful situations. Like individuals with little experience or an external locus of control tend to be more prone to stress.
• Hence it is evident that people with the outside positions of control are more prone to stress than others in the organization.

Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'C and D'

Key Points

Let's look at the excerpt from the passage: ​ 

"Employees who are highly committed to their goals and see purpose in their jobs experience less stress because they are more likely to perceive stress as a challenge rather than a hindrance. Specific goals perceived as attainable clarify performance expectation."​

• In the given statement, the author is speaking about the factors that can reduce stressful situations in the organization.
• He has suggested that the employees who are highly committed to their goals and see purpose in their jobs experience less stress because they are more likely to perceive stress as a challenge rather than a hindrance.
• Hence it is evident that commitment to the job and perception of hindrances as challenges can reduce the job strain.

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is to provide performance feedback to employees.

Key Points

Let's look at the excerpt from the passage: ​ 

"Specific goals perceived as attainable clarify performance expectations. In addition, goal feedback reduces uncertainties about actual job performance. The result is less employee frustration, role ambiguity, and stress."​

• In the given statement, the author is speaking about the factors that can reduce employee frustration, role ambiguity, and stress.
• He has suggested that goal feedback reduces uncertainties about actual job performance.
• Hence it is evident that employee frustration and role ambiguity can be reduced by providing performance feedback to employees.

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is A, B, and E only.

Key Points

Let's look at the excerpt from the passage: ​  

"Specific goals perceived as attainable clarify performance expectations. In addition, goal feedback reduces uncertainties about actual job performance. The result is less employee frustration, role ambiguity, and stress. Predesigning jobs to give employees more responsibility, more meaningful work, more autonomy, and increased feedback can reduce stress because these factors give employees greater control over work activities and less dependence on others."​

• In the given statement, the author is speaking about the measures to reduce organizational stress.
• Predesigning jobs, more autonomy, more responsibility, more meaningful work, and increased feedback are some of the measures suggested by the author to reduce organizational stress.
• Hence the measures suggested in the passage to reduce organizational stress are redeployment of employees, allowing workers more control over their activities, and re‐designing of jobs

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

Communication is defined as “the process of passing information and understanding from one person to another, it is essentially a bridge of meaning between people”.

Key Points

We can classify communication as interpersonal, intrapersonal, group communication, Metacommunication, upward, downward, lateral, diagonal, formal, informal, oral, written, or non-verbal communication.

Important Points

• Diagonal communication is cross-functional communication between employees at different levels of the organization.
• For example, if the vice president of sales sends an e-mail to the vice president of manufacturing asking when a product will be available for shipping, this is an example of horizontal communication.
• Advantage of Diagonal Communication  : 
• Diagonal communication makes information flow faster and more freely.
• Diagonal communication improves team effectiveness by morale-boosting.
• Diagonal communication makes distortion/misinterpretation of information less likely to happen.
• Diagonal communication improves teamwork.

Hence options B, D, and E are correct.

The correct answer is Equivocation

Important Points

The fallacy of equivocation

• It occurs when a key term or phrase in an argument is used in an ambiguous way, with one meaning in one portion of the argument and then another meaning in another portion of the argument.
• Examples:
• Noisy children are a real headache. Two aspirin will make a headache go away. Therefore, two aspirin will make noisy children go away.

Additional Information

A straw man fallacy

• It occurs when someone takes another person’s argument or point, distorts it or exaggerates it in some kind of extreme way, and then attacks the extreme distortion as if that is really the claim the first person is making.
• For example,
• imagine a husband and a wife trying to decide whether they should adopt a dog or a cat.
• Wife: I'd rather have a dog than a cat.
• Husband: Why do you hate cats?
• The wife never said that she hated cats, only that she preferred dogs. The husband either assumed or pretended that her argument was against cats instead of dogs.

The hasty generalization fallacy

• It is sometimes called the over-generalization fallacy.
• It is basically making a claim based on evidence that it is just too small.
• When one makes a hasty generalization, he applies a belief to a larger population than he should be based on the information that he has.
• For example:
• ​if my brother likes to eat a lot of pizza and French fries, and he is healthy, I can say that pizza and French fries are healthy and don't really make a person fat.

The red herring fallacy:

• This fallacy consists in diverting attention from the real issue by focusing instead on an issue having only a surface relevance to the first.
• Examples:
• Son: "Wow, Dad, it's really hard to make a living on my salary." Father: "Consider yourself lucky, son.

The correct answer is Campus Placement

Important Points 

National Institutional Ranking Framework

• It is a methodology adopted by the Ministry of Education, Government of India, to rank institutions of higher education in India.
• The Framework was approved by the MHRD and launched by the Minister of Human Resource Development on 29 September 2015.
• The methodology draws from the overall recommendations and broad understanding arrived at by a Core Committee set up by MHRD, to identify the broad parameters for ranking various universities and institutions.

Key Points 

The parameters broadly cover:

• Teaching, Learning, and Resources,
• Research and Professional Practices
• Graduation Outcomes
• Outreach and Inclusivity,” and
• Perception”.

Hence, Campus Placement is not a parameter for ranking according to NIRF.

Key Points

 SWAYAM:

• It stands for 'Study Webs of Active Learning for Young Aspiring Minds'
• It was launched on 9^th July 2017
• It is one integrated platform and portal for online courses.
• This covers all higher education subjects and skill sector courses.
• The objective is to ensure that every student in our country has access to the best quality higher education at an affordable cost.
• It is a platform that facilitates hosting of all the courses, taught in classrooms from Class 9 till post-graduation to be accessed by anyone, anywhere at any time.
• The courses hosted on SWAYAM are in 4 quadrants –

1. video lectures,
2. specially prepared reading material that can be downloaded/printed
3. self-assessment tests through tests and quizzes, and
4. an online discussion forum for clearing doubts.

• ​Courses delivered through SWAYAM are available free of cost to the learners, however, learners wanting a SWAYAM certificate should register for the final proctored exams that come at a fee and attend in-person at designated centers on specified dates.

​Therefore we conclude that the correct answer is A, C, and E only

Closed-ended questions are questions that can only be answered by selecting from a limited number of options, usually multiple-choice questions with a single-word answer, 'yes' or 'no', or a rating scale (e.g. from strongly agree to strongly disagree).

Key PointsNormative ethics seeks to set norms or standards for conduct. The term is commonly used in reference. The application of normative theories and standards to practical moral problems is the concern of applied ethics.

Vignettes Tecqnique: 

• Vignettes are short stories about a hypothetical person, traditionally used within research (quantitative or qualitative) on sensitive topics in the developed world.

Hence the form of asking mainly closed-ended questions that have been used in connection with the examination of people's normative standards is known as the Vignettes Tecqnique***.***

Additional Information Abductive Technique:  In the abductive approach, the research process starts with 'surprising facts' or 'puzzles', and the research process is devoted to their explanation.

Hermeneutic research emphasizes subjective interpretations in the research of meanings of texts, art, culture, social phenomena, and thinking.

• Thus, the strategy forms an opposition to those research strategies which stress objectivity and independence from interpretations in the formation of knowledge.
• Hermeneutics, in general terms, is the art of interpretation. As such, hermeneutics has a rich history and can now be identified with four major strands: conservative, critical, radical, and moderate.

Outlier Technique: A principal task of a data scientist is to apply the models to data, and at some point, you will definitely encounter a dataset that contains outliers. Outliers are nothing but data points or observations that fall outside of an expected distribution or pattern.

A code in research methodology is a short word or phrase describing the meaning and context of the whole sentence, phrase, or paragraph.

Important Points

Thus the correct match is A-II, B ‐ IV, C ‐ I, D ‐ III.

Communication is defined as “the process of passing information and understanding from one person to another, it is essentially a bridge of meaning between people".

Key PointsStatement I: Communication Reflects the dimension of Power 

• Communication can shine a spotlight on problems, making them easier to see and offering a stage to popularize solutions.
• It can call people to the streets, and it can bring people together.
• Communicating positively with clarity, developing strong active listening skills, being able to read other people's behaviors, effectively managing conflict, navigating difficult conversations successfully, and being empathetic and adaptable are all attributes of an achiever.

Thus Communication reflects the dimension of power.

Hence statement I is correct.

Statement II  - Power And Unethical Communication are strongly interrelated 

• Unethical communication behaviors include examples such as plagiarism, breaking confidentiality, and the manipulation of facts.
• Power and Unethical Communication are not related.  Communication and power have a positive relationship.

Hence statement II is incorrect.

Therefore, we can conclude that statement I is true but Statement II is false.

The correct answer is Sheshavat Anumana.

Seṣavat refers to one of the three divisions of anumāna (inference), according to Gautama’s 2^nd-century Nyayasutra. Gautama divides anumāna into three kinds — purvavat, sesvat, and samanyatodṛṣṭa

Important PointsSheshavat Anumana:

• It is An inference in which we infer the unperceived cause from a perceived effect.
• For E.g. we infer the past rain from a swift muddy current of water in the river.
• Inference of the saline taste of other seawater from tasting one drop of the seawater

Additional Information

Amanyatodrishta:

• It is when inference is not based on causation but on uniformity of co-existence
• In this there is no direct cause and effect relationship as between fire and smoke.
• The inference is drawn from the universal experience regarding such an incident.
• For instance, if there is a change of place, there must have been a movement as known from our common experience.
• Similarly, when we see the moon in different positions at long intervals, we infer that it moves, though the actual movement itself is not easily or clearly perceivable

Purvavat 

• It means as seen earlier.
• ​It means inferring an unperceived effect from a perceived cause.
• For Example, inferring future rain from the appearance of dark heavy clouds in the sky.

Paksa:

• It is the ‘minor term’ in Nyaya philosophy logic statement.
• Paksa is to be perceived, but not inferred.
• The paksa is the subject where we establish something. This something is not considered directly but indirectly. The consideration is depending on inference.

The correct answer is It is a part of the operating system which carries out the defragmentation of disk formatting

Utility software works as an interface between system software and application software. 

Key Points

Utility software:

• It is a third-party tool designed to reduce maintenance issues and detect errors in the computer system.
• It comes with the operating system in the computer system.

Features of utility software:

• It helps users to protect against threats and viruses.
• It helps to reduce disk size such as WinRAR, WinZip. It works as a Windows Disk Management service and helps in a disk partition.
• It facilitates users to back up the old data and enhance the security of the system.
• It works as a de-fragmentation of a disk to organize the scattered files on the drive.
• It helps to recover the lost data.
• It helps to perform the antivirus and security software to maintain the security of the data in a computer

Hence, utility software is a part of the operating system which carries out defragmentation or disk formatting.

Key Points

Association of Indian Universities

• It is an organization and association of major universities in India based in Delhi.
• It evaluates the courses, syllabi, standards, and credits of foreign Universities pursued abroad and equates them in relation to various courses offered by Indian Universities
• The AIU is mainly concerned with the recognition of Degrees/Diplomas awarded by the Universities in India, which are recognized by the UGC, New Delhi, and abroad for the purpose of admission to higher degree courses in Indian Universities.
• The AIU is also an implementing agency for the agreements signed under the Cultural Exchange Programmes executed between India and other countries in the field of education, insofar as it relates to the recognition of foreign qualifications (except for medicine and allied courses).

Objectives:

• To serve as an Inter-University Organisation To act as a bureau of information and facilitate communication Coordination and mutual consultation amongst universities
• To act as a liaison between the universities and the Government (Central as well as the State Governments) and to co-operate with other universities or bodies (national or international) in matters of common interest
• To act as the representative of universities in India
• To promote or undertake such programmes would help to improve standards of instruction, examination, research, textbooks, scholarly publications, library organisation and such other programmes as may contribute to the growth and propagation of knowledge
• To help universities to maintain their autonomous character

Therefore we conclude that the correct answer is B, C and E only

The propositions are placed in the four corners of a square, and the relations are represented as lines drawn between them, hence the name 'The Square of Opposition.

 Important Points

Hence A-IV, B ‐ III, C ‐ II, and D ‐ I are the correct match.

Key Points

Therefore the correct matching code is A ‐ II, B ‐ III, C ‐ IV, D ‐ I.

Key Points

The National Action Plan on Climate change

• It was formally launched on June 30^th, 2008.
• The NAPCC identifies measures that promote development objectives while also yielding co-benefits for addressing climate change effectively.
• There are eight “National Missions” which form the core of the National action plan.

The eight missions are:

1. National Solar Mission
2. National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency
3. National Mission on Sustainable Habitat
4. National Water Mission
5. National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem
6. National Mission for a Green India
7. National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture
8. National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change

Hence we conclude that the correct answer is A, B, and D only

The correct answer is NCTE.

Important Points

National Council for Teacher Education:

• It is a statutory body of the Indian government set up under the National Council for Teacher Education Act, 1993 in 1995
• It was established to formally oversee standards, procedures, and processes in the Indian education system.
• Headquarters: New Delhi

Additional Information

National Council of Educational Research and Training:

• It is an autonomous organization of the Government of India which was established in 1961 as a literary, scientific, and charitable Society under the Societies Registration Act.
• The NCERT was established with the agenda to design and support a common system of education that is national in character and also enables and encourages the diverse culture across the country.

All India Council for Technical Education:

• It is a statutory body, and a national-level council for technical education, under the Department of Higher Education.
• AICTE is responsible for proper planning and coordinated development of the technical education and management education system in India.

UGC:

• The University Grants Commission of India is a statutory body set up by the Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Education, Government of India in accordance with the UGC Act 1956
• It is charged with coordination, determination, and maintenance of standards of higher education.

Given:

The number of female athletes during 2016 to 2020

Calculation:

For country A:-

⇒ 3.2 + 2.9 + 3.9 + 4.3 + 7.2

⇒ 21.5

For country B

⇒ 3.7 + 1.7 + 3.7 + 5.6 + 5.4

⇒ 20.1

For country C

⇒ 2.8 + 1.9 + 2.2 + 1.8 + 2.5

⇒ 11.2

For country D 

⇒ 4.2 + 3.8 + 4.2 + 2.8 + 2.7

⇒ 17.7

∴ The highest number of female athletes during 2016 to 2020 are from A.

Given:

The number of female athletes in 2017

2.9, 1.7, 1.9, 3.8

Formula:

\(Number of female athletes = \frac{female athletes}{Total number of athletes} × 100\)

Calculation:

Female athletes in 2017

⇒ 2.9 + 1.7 + 1.9 + 3.8

⇒ 10.3

Male athletes in 2017

⇒ 4.3 + 3.8 + 3.2 + 4.8

⇒ 16.1

Total number of athletes in 2017

⇒ 16.1 + 10.3

⇒ 26.4

Number of female athletes = \(\frac{10.3}{26.4}× 100\)

⇒ 0.390 × 100

⇒ 39%

∴ Percentage of female athletes in 2017 is 39%

Given:

According to the data:-

Male athletes in 2016

3.6, 4.2, 3.4, 5.6

Male athletes in 2017

4.3, 3.8, 3.2, 4.8

Calculation:

Male athletes in 2016

⇒ 3.6 + 4.2 + 3.4 + 5.6

⇒ 16.8

Male athletes in 2017

⇒ 4.3 + 3.8 + 3.2 + 4.8

⇒ 16.1

Difference = Male athletes in 2016 - Male athletes in 2017

⇒ Difference = 16.8 - 16.1

⇒ Difference = 0.7

∴ The difference of male athletes in 2016 and 2017 is 0.7

Given:

According to the data

Calculation:

For country A

The ratio of total male- female from 2016 to 2020

 

Total Male- female ratio from 2016 to 2020 :-

⇒ 1.125 + 1.482 + 1.358 + 1.558 + 1.152

⇒ 6.675

For country B 

The ratio of total male- female from 2016 to 2020

 

Total Male- female ratio from 2016 to 2020

⇒ 1.135 + 2.235 + 1.459 + 1.196 + 1.277

⇒ 7.302

For country C

The ratio of total male - female from 2016 to 2020

 

Total Male- female ratio from 2016 to 2020

⇒ 1.214 + 1.684 + 1.681 + 1.722 + 1.640

⇒ 7.941

For country D 

The ratio of total male - female from 2016 to 2020

 

Total Male - female ratio from 2016 to 2020

⇒ 1.333 + 1.263 + 1.523. + 2 + 2

⇒ 8.119

∴ The highest  that has the best Total male - female athletes from 2016 to 2020 is D.

Given:

According to the data.

Calculation:

For Country A

⇒ 3.6 + 4.3 + 5.3 + 6.7 + 8.3

⇒ 28.2

For Country B

⇒ 4.2 + 3.8 + 5.4 + 6.7 + 6.9

⇒ 27

For Country C

⇒ 3.4 + 3.2 + 3.7 + 3.1 + 4.1 

⇒ 17.5

For Country D

⇒ 5.6 + 4.8 + 6.4 + 5.6 + 5.4

⇒ 27.8

∴ The minimum number of male athletes during 2016 to 2020 are from C.

Graphic organizers, including mind maps, Venn diagrams, infographics, and other tools, allow teachers and students to organize and present facts and ideas visually in order to understand both the big picture and the small details.

Key Points

• A concept map or conceptual diagram is a diagram that depicts suggested relationships between concepts.
• Concept maps may be used by instructional designers, engineers, technical writers, and others to organize and structure knowledge.

 Important Points

• Concept maps are visual representations students create to connect ideas, concepts, and terms.
• Students can use them to organize the information they already know and to incorporate new learning with this prior knowledge.
• Concept maps help the teacher to see how students understand the content.
• It helps students to make meaningful connections between the main idea and other information.
• They're easy to construct and can be used within any content area.

Hence concept mapping is the type of graphic organizer or mind tool used for knowledge organization that can help learners interpret, represent, and organize information by making a graphic in cooperation with others.

Additional Information

• HyperMedia: Hypermedia, an extension of the term hypertext, is a nonlinear medium of information that includes graphics, audio, video, plain text, and hyperlinks. Thus this option is wrong.
• Gestural Prompts are a point, hand gesture, or head nod to encourage participation normally prompted by a natural cue. Examples: When helping the child get dressed, give him socks and point to his feet. Give the child a book and say “Put away” while gesturing towards the bookshelf. Thus This option is wrong.
• Divergent Questions: A divergent question is a question with no specific answer, but rather exercises one's ability to think broadly about a certain topic.