UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 26th Dec 2021 Shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

Websites, where Internet users share their web pages, articles, blog posts, images, and videos, are known as social bookmarking sites. There are several benefits to submitting your content to one (or more) of these websites. For starters, they help to raise brand awareness.

Important Points

• Using a browser-based application to tag a website page makes it simple to return to it later.
• This practice is known as social bookmarking.
• One can use the functionality of various platforms to bookmark posts rather than adding social media updates to one's browser's favorites.
• We can access bookmarks from any location and on any internet-connected device because they are online.

Key Points

• Social bookmarking websites started as straightforward tools for content and social media marketers.
• These days, they are vibrant, diverse online communities where members create groups based on common relevance.

Some popular social networking tools include:

• Twitter
• Pinterest
• WeheartIt
• Reddit
• Digg

Therefore, the correct answer is Social Bookmarking.

Important Points

Statement I: Reliability refers to whether a test measures what it says it measures.

• Test reliability refers to the degree to which a test is consistent and stable in measuring what it is intended to measure.
• Most simply put, a test is reliable if it is consistent within itself and across time.

Hence, Statement I is incorrect.

Statement II: Validity refers to whether a test consistently yields the same or similar scores.

• Test validity refers to the degree to which the test measures what it claims to measure.
• Test validity is also the extent to which inferences, conclusions, and decisions made based on test scores are appropriate and meaningful.

Hence, statement II is also incorrect.

Therefore, both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

Important Points

• Metacognition refers to the processes that occur when learners plan, monitor, evaluate, and modify their learning behaviors.
• Simply put, metacognition is thinking about one's thinking.
• It refers to the processes that are used to plan, monitor, and assess one's understanding and performance.
• Metacognition entails being aware of a) one's thinking and learning, as well as b) oneself as a thinker and learner.
• The prefix ‘meta’ means ‘about’ the thing itself. Metacognition is defined as "cognition about cognition" or "thinking about one's thinking."
• Metacognitive knowledge and metacognitive regulation are two dimensions that are frequently considered.

Key Points Metacognitive skills should be explicitly taught to students of all ages, including adolescents and adult learners. Metacognition comprises the following skills-

• Planning- the process of chunking, divide and conquer, scaffolding from easiest to hardest, from unknown to mastery.
• Monitoring- Monitoring comprehension is the process of determining whether students understand what they are reading. If they realize they can't articulate the passage's main idea, they can take steps to improve their comprehension before continuing to read.
• Evaluation- The primary objective of the metacognitive evaluation is to get students to think about such issues by having them reflect on themselves through self-evaluation.​

Therefore, the correct answer is Planning, Monitoring, and Evaluation.

Important Points

Hence, the correct matching is A - III, B - IV , C - I , D - II

In research terms, a sample is a group of people, objects, or items that are taken from a larger population for measurement. The sample should be representative of the population to ensure that we can generalize the findings from the research sample to the population as a whole. There are two kinds of sampling techniques:

1. Probability sampling involves random selection, which allows you to draw strong statistical conclusions about the entire group.
2. Non-probability sampling entails non-random selection based on convenience or other criteria, making data collection easier.

Key Points Convenience sampling:

• Convenience sampling is a method used by researchers to collect market research data from a readily available pool of respondents.
• It is the most commonly used sampling technique because it is extremely quick, simple, and inexpensive.
• Members are frequently approachable to be a part of the sample.
• Convenience sampling is used by researchers when additional inputs are not required for the primary research.
• There are no requirements to be a part of this sample.
• As a result, including elements in this sample becomes incredibly simple.
• All members of the population are eligible to participate in the sample, and their participation is contingent on the researcher's proximity.

Additional Information

• Snowball sampling: This is a sampling method used by researchers when subjects are difficult to locate. Surveying homeless people or illegal immigrants, for example, will be extremely difficult.
• Quota sampling: In this sampling technique, members are selected based on a pre-determined standard.

Therefore, the correct answer is Convenience sampling.

Giving, receiving, and exchanging information are all parts of communication, which might take the form of talking, writing, listening, or reading. Effective communicators pay close attention to others' opinions, talk or write effectively, and respect them. It is of two types:

• Verbal
• Non-verbal

 Key Points

Assertion A: Smiles and laughter should be avoided when messages are serious.

For effective communication, the following are the necessary components: 

• Clarity
• Conciseness
• Correctness
• Completeness
• Coherence
• Consideration
• Courtesy
• Concreteness
• Consistency

​To achieve the goal of effective communication, the following must be taken into consideration. But the smiles and laughter while receiving messages may distort the message.

Hence, assertion A is correct.

Reason: Non-verbal cues are always contextual like verbal communication. 

• The creation and maintenance of interpersonal connections are functions of nonverbal communication.
• Additionally, those who are adept at decoding nonverbal cues have several social benefits.

The examples are: 

• Nodding,
• Facial Expressions,
• leaning toward the speaker to show interest, etc.

Body language can reinforce your spoken message or it can contradict it entirely.

Thus, the reason R is correct.

Therefore, both, A and R are true but R is the correct explanation of A.

Additional Information

• The smiles and laughter avoidance are not related to Non- Verbal cues in any form.
• The two are different concepts from each other.

The tasks that make up good public performance eventually include communication skills. Today, communication is crucial in both the professional sector and daily life.

Key Points

• Effective communication aids in our understanding of others and our environment.
• It aids in overcoming differences, fostering mutual respect and trust, and establishing favorable circumstances for exchanging original concepts and resolving issues.

The sequence of effective communication skills is as follows;

Self - presentation > Relationship > Group interaction > Public speaking >​ Feedforward

1. ​Self-Presentation refers to how people attempt to present themselves to control or shape how others (called the audience) view them.
2. Relationship- After expressing yourself through the presentation, the person establishes the relationship and tries to make good relations.
3. Group interaction- refers to the dynamics of the team and the way individuals in the group interact with one another.
4. Public speaking is a soft skill that requires excellent communication skills, enthusiasm, and the ability to engage with an audience. Soft skills are interpersonal skills that are less technical and more about how you interact with others.
5. Feedforward- An element or passage within a control system that transmits a controlling signal from a source to a load somewhere else in its external environment is called a feed-forward (often spelled feedforward).

Hence, the correct sequence is E, C, B, A, D.

Communication barriers are any of several factors that hinder comprehending the true meaning of information or lead to ineffective communication. Based on a variety of factors, the difficulty of effectively communicating information is divided into several communication barriers.

Important Points

Hence, the correct matching is A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I

Formula used:

**'**Total seat = Enrolled seat + vacant seat

Calculation:

Vacant seat in BTech = (60 - 45) + (60 - 55) + (60 - 48) + (60 - 53) + (60 - 50) = 15 + 5 + 12 + 7 + 10 = 49

Average of vacant seat in BTech = 49/5 = 9.8

Vacant seat in MTech = (30 - 25) + (30 - 26) + (30 - 21) + (30 - 23) + (30 - 28) = 5 + 4 + 9 + 7 + 2 = 27 

Average of vacant seat in MTech = 27/5 = 5.4

∴ Difference = 9.8 - 5.4 = 4.4

Vacant seat in 2016 = (60 - 45) + (60 - 52) + (30 - 25) + (20 - 16) + (30 - 26) = 15 + 8 + 5 + 4 + 4 = 36

Vacant seat in 2017 = (60 - 55) + (60 - 56) + (30 - 26) + (20 - 18) + (30 - 24) = 5 + 4 + 4 + 2 + 6 = 21

Vacant seat in 2018 = (60 - 48) + (60 - 43) + (30 - 21) + (20 - 14) + (30 - 25) = 12 + 17 + 9 + 6 + 5 = 49

Vacant seat in 2019 = (60 - 53) + (60 - 40) + (30 - 23) + (20 - 15) + (30 - 23) = 7 + 20 + 7 + 5 + 7 = 46

Vacant seat in 2020 = (60 - 50) + (60 - 46) + (30 - 28) + (20 - 13) + (30 - 27) = 10 + 4 + 2 + 7 + 3 = 26

∴ Highest vacant seat in year 2018.

Vacant seat in BTech = (60 - 45) + ( 60 - 55) + (60 - 48) + (60 - 53) + (60 - 50) = 15 + 5 + 12 + 7 + 10 = 49

Vacant seat in MCA = (60 - 52) + ( 60 - 56) + (60 - 43) + (60 - 40) + (60 - 46) = 8 + 4 + 17 + 20 + 14 = 63

Vacant seat in MTech = (30 - 25) + ( 30 - 26) + (30 - 21) + (30 - 23) + (30 - 28) = 5 + 4 + 9 + 7 + 2 = 27

Vacant seat in MPhill = (20 - 16) + (20 - 18) + (20 - 14) + (20 - 15) + (20 - 13) = 4 + 2 + 6 + 5 + 7 = 24

Integrated in MTech =  (30 - 26) + ( 30 - 24) + (30 - 25) + (30 - 23) + (30 - 27) = 4 + 6 + 5 + 7 + 3 = 25

∴Minimum number of total vacant seats during 2016 to 2020 in course Mphill.

Average enrollment in 2016 = (45 + 52 + 25 + 16 + 26) = 164

Average enrollment in 2017 = (55 + 56 + 26 + 18 + 24) = 179

Difference = 179 - 164 = 15

∴The difference between average enrollment in 2016 and average enrollment in 2017 = 15/5 = 3

Validity is used to examine how accurately a method measures something. If a method actually measures everything it claims to measure and the generated results closely match the real-world values, the method is considered valid.

  Key Points

• The predictive validity of a measure indicates how well it can predict future behavior.
• University admissions are one of the most common applications for predictive validity.
• Predictive validity is the degree to which test scores accurately predict scores on a criterion measure.
• A conspicuous example is a degree to which college admissions test scores predict college grade point average (GPA).

Therefore, the correct answer is Predictive Validity.

Additional Information

• Convergent validity is the degree to which the new scale is related to other variables and measures of the same construct. The construct should not only correlate with related variables, but it should also not correlate with dissimilar, unrelated variables.
• Construct Validity is the assessment of a measurement tool's suitability to measure the phenomenon being studied. The application of construct validity can be greatly aided by the involvement of a panel of 'experts' who are intimately familiar with the measure and the phenomenon.
• Concurrent validity is determined by comparing a new test to an existing test (of the same type) to see if the results are comparable. If the results of both tests are similar, the new test is said to have concurrent validity.

Here,

7, 8, 9, 10, 12, 14, 16, 20, 21, 28, ?

there are two chain and follow sequence:

⇒ 7- 9- 12- 16- 16- 21- 27 ( +2, +3, +4, +5, +6) 

⇒ 8- 10- 14- 20- 28 ( +2, +4, +6, +8)

∴ Next term is 21 + 6 = 27

Let age of X, Y and Z are x, y and z respectively

According to question,

y - x = x - z

⇒ 2x = y + z

y + z = 36 ( given)

⇒ 2x = 36 

x = 18 

∴ Age of X is 18 years.

A.

Let B's salary = Rs 100

A's salary = 120% of 100 = Rs 120

B's salary less than A's salary = 120 - 100 = Rs 20

B's salary % less than A's salary = 20 × 100/120 = 16.66%

∴ Statement A is false.

B.

Let cost price of 28 pens = Rs 28

Profit = 4 pens = Rs 4

Profit % = 4 × 100/28 = 14.28%

∴ Statement B is also false.

C.

We know that,

Sum of n consecutive natural numbers = n (n + 1)/2

∴ Average of n natural numbers =  n (n + 1)/2 × n = (n + 1)/2

∴ Statement C is true.

Students enrolled in 2016 = 45 + 52 + 25 + 16 + 26 = 164

Students enrolled in 2017 = 55 + 56 + 26 + 18 + 24 = 179

Students enrolled in 2018 = 48 + 43 + 21 + 14 + 25 = 151

Students enrolled in 2019 = 53 + 46 + 28 + 13 + 27 = 167

Students enrolled in 2020 = 50 + 46 + 28 + 13 + 27 = 164

∴ Highest students enrolled in year 2017.

SWAYAM is a program initiated by the Government of India and designed to achieve the three cardinal principles of Education Policy viz., access, equity, and quality. This effort aims to take the best teaching-learning resources to all, including the most disadvantaged. SWAYAM seeks to bridge the digital divide for students who have hitherto remained untouched by the digital revolution and have not been able to join the mainstream of the knowledge economy.

Important Points

Study Webs of Active Learning for Young Aspiring Minds (SWAYAM), was launched on July 9, 2017, by the Ministry of Human Resource Development to provide one integrated platform and portal for online courses

The current SWAYAM platform is developed by the Ministry of Education and NPTEL, IIT Madras with the help of Google Inc. and Persistent Systems Ltd.

Key Points

SWAYAM program characteristics are as follows-

• It includes all courses in higher education and courses in specific skill areas.
• The goal is to guarantee that every student in the country has access to the most outstanding higher education possible at a reasonable price.
• Massive open online courses (MOOCs) are developed and delivered by academics from hundreds of institutions across the nation through SWAYAM in practically all subject areas from high school to postgraduate.

Therefore the correct answer is NPTEL.

Additional Information

To oversee the course material, nine national coordinators have been appointed. Every coordinator is given a certain area to maintain.

1. The MHRD has designated the All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) as the national coordinator for self-paced and overseas courses.
2. The MHRD has designated National Programme on Technology Enhanced Learning (NPTEL) as the national coordinator for courses in the engineering sector.
3. The MHRD has designated University Grants Commission (UGC) as the National Coordinator for Post-Graduate Non-Technical Education.
4. The MHRD has designated Consortium for Educational Communication (CEC) as the national coordinator for undergraduate education.
5. The MHRD has selected the National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) as the national coordinator for school education.
6. National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS) has been appointed as a National coordinator by MHRD for school education
7. The MHRD has designated IGNOU (Indira Gandhi National Open University) as the nation's coordinator for out-of-school students.
8. The MHRD has designated the Indian Institute of Management, Bangalore (IIMB) as the national coordinator for management studies.
9. The National Institute of Technical Teachers Training and Research (NITTTR) has been chosen by MHRD to serve as the program's national coordinator.

Important PointsStatement I: If we are interested in the worldview of members of a certain social group, a qualitative research strategy that is sensitive to how participants interpret their social world may be preferable.

• The objective of qualitative research is to obtain participants' experiences of life events.
• It enables researchers to obtain insights into what it feels like to be another person and to understand the world as another experience it.
• Research in qualitative methods has historically been employed in fields such as sociology, history, and anthropology.

Therefore, statement I is correct.

Statement II: If a researcher is interested in a topic on which little or no research has been done in the past, quantitative research may be easy to employ because there is little prior literature from which to draw leads.

• The literature review is an important step to complete while doing any research, whether quantitative or qualitative.
• It is a major myth that quantitative research may be easy to employ in research where there is little prior literature.

Therefore, Statement II is incorrect.

Therefore, the correct answer is Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

A formal experimental design has more control and uses precise statistical procedures for analysis as opposed to an informal design which usually uses a less sophisticated method of analysis based on differences in magnitudes.

Key PointsStatement I: In the 'before-and-after without control' design, a single test group or area is selected and the dependent variable is measured before the introduction of the treatment.

• In this design, a single test group or area is selected and the dependent variable is measured before the introduction of the treatment.
• Then the treatment is introduced and the dependent variable is measured again after the treatment has been introduced.
• The effect of the treatment would be equal to the level of the phenomenon after the treatment minus the level of the phenomenon before the treatment.

Hence, the statement I is correct.

Statement II: In the 'before-and-after with control' design, two areas are selected but the dependent variable is not measured in both the areas for an identical time period before the treatment.

• The 'before-after' experiments may involve two or more control groups.
• The variations in control group arrangements relate to the attempts to take account of and segregate effects of contemporaneous events, maturational or natural development processes, and/ or 'before' measurement on the experiment.
• This statement is incorrect as the dependent variable is measured before and after the introduction of the treatment.

Therefore, the correct answer is Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Let the speed of train be x km/h 

Length of train = y km

The train covers its own length when it crosses  a person.

∴ The distance covered by the train in each case = y km

In first case:

The relative speed of first person and the train = (x - 3) km/hr

Time taken = y/(x - 3) hrs

In second case:

Time taken = y/(x - 6) hrs

∴ y/(x - 3) = 9 ⇒ y = 9x - 27 __(i)

y/(x - 6) = 10 ⇒ y = 10x - 60__(ii)

Comparing (i) and (ii), 

9x - 27 = 10x - 60

x = 33 km/ hr

∴ Speed of the train is 33 km/hr.

The definition of intercultural or interpersonal communication is the ongoing exchange of information resulting from past events and past acts of the parties involved.

Key Points

• In Intercultural Communication People from one culture attempt to understand the information being sent to them by other cultures through intercultural communication.
• For instance, hotel employees determine what services to offer based on the needs and preferences of their guests.
• Customers communicate their needs to hoteliers as well.

Various elements of Intercultural communication include:

1. Epistemological diversity
2. Language and culture
3. Cognition
4. Power Distance
5. Identity and ideology
6. Intercultural language education
7. Intercultural communicative competence/awareness
8. Intercultural rapport
9. Individualism
10. Intercultural/Global citizenship
11. Digital communication
12. Migration, multilingualism and superdiversity
13. Workplace communication
14. Gender roles, etc.

Additional InformationIntercultural communication has the potential to lead to conflict and chaos. Intercultural misunderstanding is a problem that has three basic causes:

1. Linguistic barriers,
2. cultural diversity, and
3. Ethnocentrism.

The research design refers to the framework within which researchers choose methods and techniques to conduct their research. As a result, researchers are able to identify the best methods for their study and set them up for success.

Important Points

Therefore, the correct answer is A - IV , B - I , C - II , D - III

Important Points

There are two types of communication based on organizational structure.

1. Formal Communication
2. Informal Communication

Formal Communication: Formal communications are those that go through established channels inside an organization. 

Informal communication refers to the type of communication that travels freely throughout the organization and flows in all directions. It is of four types:

1. Single Strand Network
2. Probability Network
3. Cluster Network
4. Gossip Network

Key Points

Gossip has been touted as a low-cost but effective information-gathering method, and it has mostly been shown to be a successful way to encourage and preserve cooperation.

Pro-social motivation:

• It is the desire to protect and promote the well-being of others that is distinct from altruism and independent of self-interested motivations.
• Key antecedents include relational job design, collectivistic norms and rewards, transformational leadership, individual differences in other-oriented values, agreeableness, and conscientiousness.
• Prosocial motivation more strongly predicts persistence, performance, and productivity when it is intrinsic rather than extrinsic; citizenship behaviors when It is accompanied by impression management motivation; and performance when manager trustworthiness is high.
• Prosocial motivation strengthens the relationships of intrinsic motivation with creativity, core self-evaluations with performance, and proactive behaviors with performance evaluations.

Additional Information

• ​Research from his group has also revealed that gossiping might actually lessen our anger.
• It also reduces unpleasant feelings that we experience when we learn that someone has acted in an improper manner.

​Hence, the correct option is Pro-social motivation.

The correct answer is - Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

Key Points

• Statement I: Between 4 and 5, the minute hand and hour hand of a clock coincide at 20 minutes past 4.
• For coincidence, the angle between the hour hand and minute hand must be 0°.
• Angle formula: |30H − 5.5M|, where H = hour and M = minutes.
• Between 4 and 5, solving |30 × 4 − 5.5M| = 0 gives M = 120/5.5 ≈ 21.82 minutes.
• The hands coincide at approximately 4:21 minutes 49 seconds, not at 20 minutes past 4.
• Therefore, Statement I is incorrect.
• Statement II: Between 4 and 5, the minute hand and hour hand of a clock are at a right angle at 40 minutes past 4.
• A right angle between the hands means the angle must be 90°.
• At 4:40, the angle is calculated as |30 × 4 − 5.5 × 40|.
• This gives |120 − 220| = 100°.
• Since the angle is 100° instead of 90°, the hands are not at a right angle.
• Thus, Statement II is also incorrect.

Additional Information

• Speeds of clock hands
• The minute hand moves 360° in 60 minutes → 6° per minute.
• The hour hand moves 360° in 12 hours → 0.5° per minute.
• The relative speed between minute and hour hands is 5.5° per minute.
• Coincidence of hands
• The hands coincide approximately every 65 5/11 minutes.
• Between 4 and 5, the coincidence occurs at about 4:21:49.
• Right angle positions between 4 and 5
• The hands form a right angle approximately at 4:10.9 and 4:32.7.
• These are obtained by solving the equation |30H − 5.5M| = 90°.

Since Aristotle introduced the idea of the square of opposition in the fourth century BC, it has been mentioned in books on logic. It has received a lot of criticism recently, but it is still frequently brought up. The point of this entry is to trace its history from the vantage point of the early twenty-first century, along with closely related doctrines bearing on empty terms.

Key Points

The square of opposition is a group of theses embodied in a diagram. The diagram is not essential to the thesis; it is just a useful way to keep them straight. The theses concern logical relations among four logical forms:

The diagram for the traditional square of opposition is:

It implies:

• Every S is P’ and ‘Some S is not P’ are contradictories.
• ‘No S is P’ and ‘Some S is P’ are contradictories.
• ‘Every S is P’ and ‘No S is P’ are contraries.
• ‘Some S is P’ and ‘Some S is not P’ are subcontraries.
• ‘Some S is P’ is a subaltern of ‘Every S is P’.
• ‘Some S is not P’ is a subaltern of ‘No S is P’.

Hence, based upon the above discussion we can conclude that 

Thus, A - IV , B - I , C - II, D - III is correct.

Inconsistencies between the minor, middle, and major terms constitute fallacies. False conclusions and errors emerge from illogical reasoning. Inference involves the five members of pratijna, hetu, udaharana, upanaya, and nigamana, as was already evident in the preceding parts. As a result, the reliability of these members is necessary for the validity of inference. When a member experiences a problem, the inference is no longer valid.

Key Points

• Reason is referred to as prakaranasama, which is analogous to the topic at hand. If the middle term is opposed by another middle term, a fallacy of this kind results.
• In other words, if one argument seeks to explain that the major exists in the minor, another reason tries to demonstrate that it does not. Another rationale balances out the first one.
• Because of this, it is also known as satpratipaksha, or that which is countered by a middle term that is equally strong.
• As an illustration, both "sound is noneternal, because it is created," and "sound is eternal", because it is audible."
• Here, the words "created" and "audible" is equal in strength and serve as a counterweight.

Additional Information 

• Fallacy of Prakaransama is the knowledge of the antecedent cause to that of the consequent effect.
• It is also know is purvavat Anuman.

Fallacy of Viruddha:

• The fallacy of Viruddha, also known as the fallacy of Contradiction, occurs when two premises in an argument contradict each other.
• This leads to an inconsistency or contradiction within the argument, making it logically unsound. It is different from the fallacy of Prakaransama because it involves a contradiction between premises, while Prakaransama involves introducing irrelevant or distracting information.

Fallacy of Asiddha:

• The fallacy of Asiddha, also known as the fallacy of Non Sequitur, occurs when a conclusion does not logically follow from the premises or evidence presented.
• It is a type of faulty reasoning where the argument lacks logical coherence.
• The fallacy of Asiddha is different from the fallacy of Prakaransama because it involves a failure in logical reasoning, whereas Prakaransama involves introducing irrelevant information.

Fallacy of Savyabhichara:

• The fallacy of Savyabhichara, also known as the fallacy of Irrelevant Conclusion, occurs when an argument presents a conclusion that is unrelated or does not logically follow from the premises.
• It involves diverting the discussion to a different point or introducing an irrelevant conclusion.
• The fallacy of Savyabhichara is similar to the fallacy of Prakaransama as both involve introducing irrelevant information, but they may differ in the specific context or application of the fallacy.

Hence, when a middle term does not go further than producing a state of mental oscillation between two opposite views, the case is of the fallacy of Prakaransama.

The middle term in a categorical syllogism must be dispersed in both the minor and major premises to avoid the formal fallacy known as the undistributed middle. It is a syllogistic fallacy as a result.

Key Points

• The fallacy of the undistributed middle occurs when the term that links the two premises is never distributed.
• In this example, distribution is marked in boldface:
• All Z is B
• All Y is B

Therefore, all Y is Z

• B is the common term between the two premises (the middle term) but is never distributed, so this syllogism is invalid. B would be distributed by introducing a premise that states either All B is Z, or Some B is Z.
• Also, a related rule of logic is that anything distributed in the conclusion must be distributed in at least one premise.
• All Z is B
• Some Y is Z

Therefore, all Y is B

• The middle term Z is distributed, but Y is distributed in the conclusion and not in any premise, so this syllogism is invalid.

All textbooks are books intended for careful study. Some reference books are books intended for careful study. Therefore, some reference books are textbooks." is Undistributed Middle.

From the standpoint of nature of vyapti, inferences are classified into three types, purvavat, sesavat, samanyatodrsta. 

Key Points

​Samanyatodrsta:

• ​This inference is based on the relationship of coexistence rather than knowledge of a causal relationship.
• The presence of one can be assumed from the presence of the other based on the relationship of coexistence.
• A case of Samanyatodrsta inference is when one may infer the presence of the jasmine flower from the scent of the bloom.

Hence, In an illustration of inference that the 'Sun moves, like other moving, objects its position changes' represents Samanyatodrsta.

Additional Information

1. Purvavat inference occurs when the unknown effect is inferred from the known cause. It falls within the purvvat category when we assume a nice harvest from the timely monsoon.
2. It is a case of sesavat inference when the unperceived cause is inferred from the seen consequence. By observing the muddy road in the early morning, we can assume that it rained the previous night.

The correct response is In the case of deductive argument, the technical terms 'correct' and 'incorrect' are used.

There are two types of arguments:

1. Inductive
2. Deductive

Key Points

​​Deductive:

• A deductive argument is one that the arguer intends to be deductively valid, that is, to ensure the veracity of the conclusion under the condition that the premises are true.
• In a deductive argument, the premises are meant to support the conclusion so strongly that, if the premises are true, it would be impossible for the conclusion to be wrong.
• In the case of deductive argument, the technical terms 'correct' and 'incorrect' are used

Important PointsInductive:

• An inductive argument is one in which the arguer intends to be strong enough that it would be unlikely that the conclusion is wrong if the premises were true.
• In contrast to deductive arguments, the effectiveness or strength of an inductive argument can therefore vary.
• Inductive arguments are neither valid nor invalid but evaluated as better or worse

Additional Information

• ​An inductive argument can be affected by acquiring new premises (evidence), but a deductive argument cannot be.
• The argument is deductive if the arguer thinks that the truth of the premises unquestionably establishes the validity of the conclusion.
• The argument is inductive if the arguer thinks that the truth of the premises only gives solid grounds for thinking the conclusion is probably true.

Hence. in the case of deductive argument, the technical terms 'correct' and 'incorrect' are used is an incorrect statement.

When someone sends legitimate-looking emails to users it is called Phishing.

Key Points

• Phishing attacks are the practice of sending fraudulent communications that appear to come from a reputable source. It is usually done through email.
• The goal is to steal sensitive data like credit card and login information or to install malware on the victim’s machine.
• Phishing is a common type of cyber attack that everyone should learn about to protect themselves.
• The first phishing lawsuit was filed in 2004 against a Californian teenager who created the imitation of the website “America Online”. With this fake website, he was able to gain sensitive information from users and access their credit card details to withdraw money from their accounts.
• **Other than email and website phishing, there’s also 'vishing' (voice phishing), 'smishing' (SMS Phishing), and several other phishing techniques cybercriminals are constantly coming up with. **​

Additional Information​Common Features of Phishing Emails:

• Hyperlinks - A link may not be all it appears to be. Hovering over a link shows you the actual URL where you will be directed upon clicking on it.
• Attachments - If you see an attachment in an email you weren't expecting or that doesn't make sense, don't open it! They often contain payloads like ransomware or other viruses.
• Unusual Sender - Whether it looks like it's from someone you don't know or someone you do know, if anything seems out of the ordinary, unexpected, out of character or just suspicious in general don't click on it.

The correct answer is Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Key Points

Statement I: If the sensor data is outside the acceptable range, then the microprocessor/computer will take action, which is true.

• The microprocessor contains the arithmetic, logic, and control circuitry required to perform the functions of a computer's central processing unit.
• The integrated circuit is capable of interpreting and executing program instructions and performing arithmetic operations.
• Information from the sensors is sent to the microprocessor.
• The ADC (analog to digital converter) converts the analog data into digital form.
• The microprocessor compares this digital data with stored data that meet the requirements for maintaining certain conditions.
• If the value is outside the acceptable range, the microprocessor will send a signal to an actuator to trigger any action that needs to be taken.
• A real-life example of control technology in operation would be an automated street light.
• If the value is outside the pre-set range, the microprocessor sends a signal to an actuator that will trigger the action to turn the street light on or off.

Hence the statement I is true.

Statement II: Sensors in the control application only send data to the microprocessor/computer when something happens, which is false.

• Sensors in a control application can send data to the microprocessor/computer continuously or at a predetermined interval.
• The frequency of data transmission depends on the application and the type of sensor.
• For example, a sensor that is used to monitor the temperature of a machine may need to send data continuously so that the microprocessor/computer can take corrective action if the temperature exceeds a certain threshold.
• However, a sensor that is used to count the number of items passing through a conveyor belt may only need to send data at a predetermined interval, such as once every minute.
• The decision of whether to send data continuously or at a predetermined interval is made by the system designer.
• The designer will consider the application, the type of sensor, and the cost of data transmission when making this decision.

Hence statement II is false.

The correct answer is D and E only.

Key Points

• The Full form of WLAN is Wireless Local Area Network. A WLAN is a small and restricted wireless local area network.
• When a hub receives a data packet (an Ethernet frame) from a network device at one of its ports, it broadcasts (repeats) the packet to all of its ports, i.e, to all other network devices.
• An IP address is assigned by the network admin or internet service provider (ISP).
• An IP address has two parts: the network ID, comprising the first three numbers of the address, and a host ID, the fourth number in the address. So on your home network — 192.168. 1.1, for example – 192.168. 1 is the network ID, and the final number is the host ID.
• A network interface card (NIC) is a hardware component, typically a circuit board or chip, which is installed on a computer so it can connect to a network.
• A NIC provides a computer with a dedicated, full-time connection to a network. It implements the physical layer circuitry necessary for communicating with a data link layer standard, such as Ethernet or Wi-Fi.
• A router is connected to two or more data lines from different IP networks. When a data packet comes in on one of the lines, the router reads the network address information in the packet header to determine the ultimate destination.
• A router inspects, and accepts data packets and accesses its routing table to determine the appropriate exit interface based on the destination address.

​Above the description, the correct answer is D and E only.

Key Points

Hence the correct matching is A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I.

The correct answer is Hardware or software that sits between a user's computer and an external computer.

Key Points

• A firewall is a network security device that monitors incoming and outgoing network traffic and permits or blocks data packets based on a set of security rules.
• Its purpose is to establish a barrier between your internal network and incoming traffic from external sources (such as the internet) to block malicious traffic like viruses and hackers.
• Firewalls can either be software or hardware, though it’s best to have both.
• A software firewall is a program installed on each computer and regulates traffic through port numbers and applications, while a physical firewall is a piece of equipment installed between your network and gateway.
• Packet-filtering firewalls, the most common type of firewall, examine packets and prohibit them from passing through if they don’t match an established security rule set. This type of firewall checks the packet’s source and destination IP addresses.

Additional Information

• Next-generation firewalls (NGFW) combine traditional firewall technology with additional functionality, such as encrypted traffic inspection, intrusion prevention systems, anti-virus, and more. Most notably, it includes deep packet inspection (DPI).
• Network address translation (NAT) firewalls allow multiple devices with independent network addresses to connect to the internet using a single IP address, keeping individual IP addresses hidden

The correct answer is Malaria.

Key Points

• Water-borne diseases are any illnesses caused by drinking water contaminated by human or animal feces, which contain pathogenic microorganisms.
• Water-borne diseases are the ones caused by pathogenic microbes spread via contaminated water.
• Malaria is a waterborne disease that does not require direct contact with water but a host to spread.
• Malaria is caused by a parasite, and a virus causes Dengue Fever.
• Both malaria and Dengue fever are carried by mosquitoes, which lay their larvae in still water, which means does not require direct contact with water but with a host to spread.
• Waterborne illness is caused by recreational or drinking water contaminated by disease-causing microbes or pathogens.
• Of note, many waterborne pathogens can also be acquired by consuming contaminated food or beverages, from contact with animals or their environment, or through the person-to-person spread.
• Majority of water-borne diseases worldwide mainly affect children due to poor hygiene and weak immunity.

Additional Information

• People become infected when larval forms of the parasite – released by freshwater snails – penetrate the skin during contact with infested water. Transmission occurs when people suffering from schistosomiasis contaminate freshwater sources with their excreta containing parasite eggs, which hatch in water.
• Cholera is mainly caused by bacteria named Vibrio cholerae via consumption of contaminated food or drinking water. The symptoms include diarrhea, vomiting, fever, and abdominal cramps. Cholera occurs predominantly in children, but can also affect adults. It possesses a mortality rate that is alarmingly high among water-borne diseases.
• Trachoma is a disease of the eye caused by infection with the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis. The infection is transmitted by direct or indirect transfer of eye and nose discharges of infected people, particularly young children who harbor the principal reservoir of infection. These discharges can be spread by particular species of flies.

The correct answer is Sweden.

Key PointsSustainable Development Report (2020), the top-ranked country based on the SDG Index are: 

Additional Information

• The Sustainable Development Goals or Global Goals are a collection of 17 interlinked global goals designed to be a "shared blueprint for peace and prosperity for people and the planet, now and into the future".
• The SDGs were set up in 2015 by the United Nations General Assembly and are intended to be achieved by 2030.
• The Sustainable Development Goals are the blueprint to achieve a better and more sustainable future for all.
• They address the global challenges we face, including poverty, inequality, climate change, environmental degradation, peace, and justice.

Key PointsThe Paris agreement:

• At COP 21 in Paris, on 12 December 2015, Parties to the UNFCCC reached a landmark agreement to combat climate change and to accelerate and intensify the actions and investments needed for a sustainable low carbon future.
• The Paris Agreement’s central aim is to strengthen the global response to the threat of climate change by keeping a global temperature rise this century well below 2 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels and to pursue efforts to limit the temperature increase even further to 1.5 degrees Celsius.
• The Paris Agreement opened for signature on 22 April 2016 – Earth Day – at UN Headquarters in New York.
• It entered into force on 4 November 2016, 30 days after the so-called “double threshold” (ratification by 55 countries that account for at least 55% of global Co2 emissions) had been met.
• The Paris Agreement provides a durable framework guiding the global effort for decades to come. It marks the beginning of a shift towards a net-zero emissions world.
• The Paris Agreement set out to improve upon and replace the Kyoto Protocol, an earlier international treaty designed to curb the release of greenhouse gases.
• It entered into force on November 4, 2016, and has been signed by 195 countries and ratified by 190 as of January 2021.

Hence, the Paris agreement entered into force when the instruments of ratification were deposited by at least 55 countries which accounted for, at least 55% of global CO2 emissions.

The correct answer is 5000 kcal per cubic meter.

Key Points

• Biogas is an emerging renewable energy source that is obtained through the degradation of organic matter by bacteria under anaerobic conditions, domestic and farm wastes, abundantly available in the countryside.
• Raw biogas contains about 55–65% methane (CH4), 30–45% carbon dioxide (CO2), traces of hydrogen sulfide (H, S), and fractions of water vapor (Stern et al., 1998). Pure methane has a calorific value of 9100 kcal/m3 at 15.5°C and 1 atm.
• The calorific value of biogas varies from 4800 to 6900 kcal/m3. The average calorific value of biogas is 20 MJ/m3 (4713 kcal/m3).
• Biogas like Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) cannot be liquefied under normal temperature and pressure.
• The critical temperature required for liquefaction of methane is -82.1ºC at 4.71MPa pressure, therefore use of biogas is limited nearby the biogas plant.
• An estimate indicates that India has the potential of generating 6.38 X 1010 m3 of biogas from 980 million tonnes of cattle dung produced annually.
• The heat value of this gas amounts to 1.3 X 1012 MJ. In addition, 350 million tonnes of manure would also produce along with biogas.

Additional Information

Utilization of Biogas: 5000 kcal per cubic meter.

• Cooking: Biogas can be used in a specially designed burner for cooking purposes. A biogas plant of 2 cubic meters capacity is sufficient for providing the cooking fuel needs of a family of about five persons.
• Lighting: Biogas is used in silk mantle lamps for lighting purposes. The requirement of gas for powering a 100 candle lamp (60 W) is 0.13 cubic meters per hour.
• Power Generation: Biogas can be used to operate a dual fuel engine to replace up to 80 % of diesel oil. Diesel engines have been modified to run 10 0 percent on biogas. Petrol and CNG engines can also be modified easily to use biogas.
• Transport Fuel: After the removal of CO 2, H2S, and water vapor, biogas can be converted to natural gas quality for use in vehicles.

The correct answer is Paris Agreement.

Key Points

• The Conference of the Parties, at its 21^st session, adopted the Paris Agreement on 12 December 2015.
• The Paris Agreement stipulates that it shall enter into force thirty days after the date on which at least 55 Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) account in total for at least an estimated 55 % of the total global greenhouse gas emissions have deposited their instruments of ratification, acceptance, approval or accession with the Depositary, the Secretary-General of the United Nations.
• The agreement was opened for signature on 22 April 2016 in New York. On 5 October 2016, the threshold for entry into force was achieved and the Paris Agreement entered into force on 4 November 2016.
• This Agreement, in enhancing the implementation of the Convention, including its objective, aims to strengthen the global response to the threat of climate change, in the context of sustainable development and efforts to eradicate poverty, including by:
• Holding the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2 °C above preindustrial levels and pursuing efforts to limit the temperature increase to 1.5 °C above pre-industrial levels, recognizing that this would significantly reduce the risks and impacts of climate change.
• Increasing the ability to adapt to the adverse impacts of climate change and foster climate resilience and low greenhouse gas emissions development, in a manner that does not threaten food production.
• Making finance flows consistent with a pathway towards low greenhouse gas emissions and climate-resilient development.

Additional Information

• The Kyoto Protocol was an international treaty that extended the 1992 United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change that commits state parties to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, based on the scientific consensus that global warming is occurring and that human-made CO₂ emissions are driving it.
• The Montreal Protocol is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances that are responsible for ozone depletion. It was agreed upon on 16 September 1987 and entered into force on 1 January 1989.
• The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development, also known as the Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit, the Rio Summit, the Rio Conference, and the Earth Summit, was a major United Nations conference held in Rio de Janeiro from June 3 to June 14, 1992.

Key Points

The UGC publishes and regularly updates the lists of state universities. As of 4 March 2021, the UGC lists 443 state universities. As per the UGC

• Rajasthan with 85 universities has the maximum number of universities in the country and also has by far the most private universities, 52 in number.
• There are state universities in all states except Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Nagaland.
• The gross enrolment ratio in higher education is calculated for the 18-23 age groups
• UGC also mentions the latest All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) 2019-20 report key findings.
• It states that in the last five years from 2015-16 to 2019-20, there has been a growth of 11.4 percent in student enrolment
• According to the report, Sikkim tops the list with a GER of 75.8 percent and the State with the lowest GER in higher education in Bihar

​Therefore the correct matching code is A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III

The correct answer is Taxila university

The Indian subcontinent has a long history of education and learning from the era of the Indus Valley civilization. Important ancient institutions of learning in ancient India are Takshashila, Kashmir Smast, Nalanda, Valabhi University, etc.

 Key Points

Taxila university:

• It was a renowned Hindu ancient institute of higher learning located in the city of Taxiladated back to at least the fifth century BC
• Takshashila was an ancient Indian city, which is now in north-western Pakistan.
• It is an important archaeological site and the UNESCO declared it to be a World Heritage Site in 1980.
• Among its noted pupils were the legendary Indian grammarian, Panini, an expert in language and grammar who authored one of the greatest works on grammar called Ashtadhyayi. Jivaka, one of the most renowned physicians in ancient India, and Chanakya (also known as Kautilya)
• Its fame rested on the University, where Chanakya is said to have composed his Arthashastra

 Additional Information

• University of Mithila:
• It was famous for Nyaya Sutra and logical Sciences. It was gradually started from the philosophical conferences held by Janaka, the king of Mithila at his court.
• Nalanda University:
• The ancient Nalanda was a centre of learning from the 5^th century CE to 12^th century CE. Located in present day Rajgir, Bihar, India, Nalanda was one of the oldest universities of the world and UNESCO declared the ruins of Nalanda Mahavihara, a world heritage site.
• Vikramashila University:
• It was established by the Pala emperor Dharmapala (783 to 820 AD) in response to a supposed decline in the quality of scholarship at Nalanda.

Important Points 

Choice Based Credit System:

• Introduced by the University Grants Commission (UGC), the CBCS or Choice Based Credit System is a student-centric course that allows students to choose their subjects.
• The subjects can be at a basic or advanced level. Instead of the conventional marking system, the CBCS system uses credits.
• This choice-based credit system in higher education provides flexibility in preparing the curriculum and granting credits based on the course intensity and teaching hours.
• This helps students to pursue courses of their choice, study at their own pace, learn extra courses, and acquire more than the required credits.

Key Points

CBCS system offers three types of course choices to the Students- Core, Elective, and Foundation.

• Core Course: Students need to choose a core subject compulsorily to complete the credit requirement.
• Elective Course: These subjects have more generic content and aim to increase the students' skills. They expose the student to subjects that are not in their curriculum. Students get the freedom to opt for the subjects of their interest.
• Foundation: Also referred to as ‘Ability Enhancement Courses’, the foundation courses offer value-based subjects that lead to knowledge enhancement. Such value-based subjects can help students grab excellent career opportunities in the long run.

Therefore the correct matching code is A, B, and C only.

The correct answer is the Number of enrolments in higher education/Total population in the age group of 18-23 × 100

Key Points

Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER):

• Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) is a statistical tool to measure student enrolment in higher education.
• The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) is a statistical measure that represents the proportion of a specific age group that is enrolled in a particular level of education, typically higher education.
• GER is commonly used as an indicator of access to education and the level of participation in education within a specific age group.
• It provides insights into the overall enrolment trends and the extent to which a country or region is successful in providing educational opportunities to its population.

Important Points

• GER is also called the percentage of students belonging to the eligible age group of 18- 23 years. enrolled in higher education.
• GER =Number of enrolments in higher education/Total population in the age group of 18-23 × 100
• As per the latest, All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) 2019-20 report Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in higher education in India is 27.1 percent for 2019-20, which is an improvement from the previous year’s 26.3 percent,

Key Points

Central Universities :

• Central Universities are those universities that are established by an act of parliament and are under the purview of the Department of Higher Education in the Ministry of Education.
• These universities have been categorized under Centre (Union Government), given the fact the funds are allocated by the Ministry of Education through UGC.
• In general, universities in India are recognized by the University Grants Commission (UGC), which draws its power from the University Grants Commission Act, 1956 but Central universities, addition, are covered by the Central Universities Act, 2009, which regulates their purpose, powe.rs, governance, etc.
• There are as many as 54 central universities established in India as published by UGC, of which Allahabad University is the oldest of all, being established in 1887.
• Central universities are not funded by NITI Ayog.

Additional Information

NITI AYOG:

• The NITI Aayog serves as the apex public policy think tank of the Government of India, and the nodal agency tasked with catalyzing economic development and fostering cooperative federalism through the involvement of State Governments of India in the economic policy-making process using a bottom-up approach.

Therefore the correct answer is B and D only.

The correct answer is Change in monsoon behaviour in recent times

Key Points

• The paragraph discusses Two factors that have mainly caused the present disastrous conditions and events.
• The paragraph discusses Two factors that have mainly caused the present disastrous conditions and events.
• One is the change in rainfall patterns resulting from climate change and the second is the intense rainfall occurring within short span of time,
• It makes it difficult for the soil in the plains and the hills and for many manmade structures to withstand the impact. ​

Additional Information

• The paragraph does not discuss the Non-stop rains over a longer period But it discusses about intense and absurd manner of rainfall patterns within short span of time**

Key Points

• The paragraph discusses that the high-altitude areas along the Western Ghats have been especially vulnerable, because of
• encroachments
• destruction of forests
• quarrying and mining
• formation of human settlements
• setting up of industries and other commercial enterprises
• promotion of activities like tourism without checks and regulations and diminution of biodiversity.
• All these have separately and collectively contributed to the present situation in the Western Ghats region which is ecologically very sensitive and valuable

​Therefore the correct Answer is B and D only

The correct answer is  It has caused most damage on the environment.

Important Points

• Western Ghats region is ecologically very sensitive and valuable and the high-altitude areas along the Western Ghats have been especially vulnerable because of
• encroachments
• destruction of forests
• quarrying and mining
• formation of human settlements
• setting up of industries and other commercial enterprises, promotion of activities like tourism without checks and regulations and diminution of biodiversity
• The above hs is the reason why western ghats States have inflicted the most damage on the environment .

The correct answer is Not realizing the gravity of the consequences of climate change.

Important Points

• Read carefully the lines:
• "Lives which are lost now will not be regained, and nature which is lost will take several hundred years to rebuild itself. The greater tragedy is that the lessons of the tragedy are not learned at all."
• It may give an impression that "Loss of human lives" would have been the answer but It's not.
• The paragraph talks about the
• The recommendations of the Kasturirangan Committee and  Gadgil committee report clearly warned about about the past abnormal natural events and predicted the bigger calamities lying in wait in the future that may lead to loss of lives hence the author concludes that  the real tragedy with respect to natural disasters in the Western ghats that still the gravity of the consequences of climate change  has not been realized that may eventually  lead to bigger ramifications

The correct answer is Non-implementation of reports of committees

Important Points

• Read the below lines
• "The report of the Madhav Gadgil Committee which studied the destruction caused to the Western Ghats environment and made sensible recommendations to remedy the situation was thrown into the dust bin, and another committee under Dr. K Kasturirangan was set up to water down its proposals. The recommendations of the Kasturirangan Committee were also not implemented."
• These lines clearly state that the Author regrets the Non-implementation of reports of the Madhav Gadgil Committee as well as  Dr K Kasturirangan which may further lead to the further negligence of the vulnerable state of western ghats which may further lead to future destruction as well.