Official Paper

UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 25th Dec 2021 Shift 2 (Previous Year Paper)

50 questions · 60 minutes · with answers · free

Paper 1 (50 questions)

1

Given below are two statements

Statement I:-

A 60 m long train passes a 90 m platform in 10 seconds. The speed of the train is 45 km/hour.

Statement II:-

If the ratio of the speeds of A and B is a : b, then the ratio of the time taken by them to cover the same distance is a : b.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance/ Time

Calculation:

Statement I:-

Total distance = Length of the train + Length of the platform

Total distance = 60 m + 90 m = 150 m

Time = 10 seconds

Speed = 150/10 = 15 m/sec.

⇒ 15 × 36001000\frac{3600}{1000} = 54 km/hr.

The given statement is incorrect.

Statement II:

If the distance is same, then the ratio of the speed is a : b and the ratio of the time is b ∶ a.

The given statement is incorrect. 

The correct option is 1 i.e.Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

2

Match List I with List II

List IList II
(Computer Terms)(Examples)
A.Operating systemI.Pentium
B.Application softwareII.Linux
C.ProcessorIII.Router
D.Network DeviceIV.Anti-virus
<br>

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III

  2. ((b))

    A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III

  3. ((c))

    A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I

  4. ((d))

    A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III

A computer is an electronic device used to manipulate data or information. It can store, retrieve, and process information.

Key Points

Computer TermsInformation
Operating system- An operating system (OS) is a programme that manages all of the other application programmes in a computer after being loaded into it by a boot programme. - The operating system is accessed by application programmes via a defined application programme interface, which makes requests for services. - Some examples of operating systems include Apple macOS, Microsoft Windows, Google's Android OS, Linux Operating System, and Apple iOS etc.
Application software- Application software is a combination of programmes that are created for the end-user. - It is a computer programme that is meant to do a specific task that is not related to the computer's operation. - Examples of application software are Microsoft Word, spreadsheets, VLC media player, Firefox or Google Chrome, Antivirus etc.
Processor- A processor is a type of integrated electrical circuit that performs the calculations that allow a computer to function. - An operating system sends arithmetic, logic, input/output, and other basic instructions to a processor. - For example: Intel Pentium 111, IBM PowerPC 750X, MIPS R5000 etc.
Network Device- Network devices are hardware devices that connect computers, printers, fax machines, and other electronic devices to a network. - These devices send data over the same or separate networks in a quick, secure, and accurate manner. Inter-network and intra-network network devices are both possible. - Examples of Network devices are Hub, Switch, Router, Bridge Gateway, Modem, Repeater, Access Point etc.

Therefore, A-II, B - IV, C - I, D - III is the correct option. 

Additional Information

  • Linux is an operating system that sits on top of all other software on a computer, receiving requests from other applications and transmitting those requests to the computer's hardware.
  • Antivirus software is used to protect computers from viruses by scanning, detecting, and removing them.
  • A router is a piece of hardware that connects two or more packet-switched networks or subnetworks together.
  • Pentium is a brand name for a line of Intel microprocessors that are compatible with the x86 architecture.
3

A competent communicator is

A. Culturally neutral

B. Culturally sensitive

C. Totally ethical

D. Situationally ethical

E. An effective listener

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A, B and C only

  2. ((b))

    B, C and D only

  3. ((c))

    B, C and E only

  4. ((d))

    C, D and E only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

B, C and E only

Competent communicators entail the ability to communicate effectively and appropriately, as well as ability to apply and adapt such information to a variety of communication situations. 

Key Points

  • Educational policymakers and advocates have emphasised a back to basics mindset, communication competency has become a focus in higher education.
  • The traits of competent communicators have been broken down into five areas:
  • ​Self-awareness: Being conscious of your own communication behaviours is what self-awareness entails. Self-monitoring is a part of this which means you watch your own communication behaviours and make sure they're acceptable for the context.
  • Adaptability: The ability to modify your communication to the environment you're in is referred to as adaptability.
  • Empathy: Empathy is the ability to communicate with another person while imagining yourself in their shoes.
  • Cognitive complexity: The concept of cognitive complexity refers to the idea that a person's communication behaviour can be influenced by a variety of factors.
  • Ethics: To communicate in a morally correct manner is to practise ethics.

Therefore, B, C and E options are the correct answer. 

Additional Information

  • Competent communicators can judge what would be suitable and effective in a given situation and adjust their conduct accordingly.
  • A skilled communicator recognises that there is no one-size-fits-all approach to communication and that it must be tailored to the context and recipient.
  • A good communicator invests time in learning communication skills that will allow him or her to communicate effectively in a variety of scenarios.
4

Which of the following is a private university?

  1. ((a))

    Anna University

  2. ((b))

    BITS pilani

  3. ((c))

    Burdwan University

  4. ((d))

    IIIT

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

BITS pilani

Private university means a university duly established through an Act by a sponsoring body viz. a Society registered under the Societies Registration Act 1860.

Key Points

  • It comes under the law for the time being in force in a State or a Public Trust or a Company registered under Section 25 of the Companies Act, 1956.
  • The private university shall be established by a separate State Act and shall conform to the relevant provisions of the UGC Act, 1956.
  • A private university is a unitary university having adequate facilities for teaching, research, examination and extension services.
  • BITS Pilani (Birla Institute of Technology and Science) is a private deemed to be a university in Pilani, India.
  • It largely focuses on engineering and scientific higher education and research.
  • It established five campuses and 15 academic departments, it has become the first internationally recognised deemed university after expanding to campus in Dubai.

Therefore, BITS Pilani is a private deemed to be University. 

Additional Information

  • Anna University was formed as a state-run public university as a unitary university on September 4, 1978.
  • It provides higher education in Engineering, Technology, Architecture, and Applied Sciences that is relevant to society's current and future demands.
  • Burdwan University is a public university in Purba Bardhaman, West Bengal, India.
  • It was founded as a teaching and affiliating university by the West Bengal government on June 15, 1960, with six graduate departments and 30 undergraduate institutions scattered over three districts under the university's jurisdiction.
  • The Indian Institutes of Information Technology (IIITs) are a group of 25 transdisciplinary technology-based engineering research institutions focusing on information technology in India.
  • Five IIITS are funded by the Ministry of Education and the remaining 20 are built on a public-private partnership (PPP) basis.
5

From the options given below, pick the CORRECT sequence in the context of constituent parts of inference

  1. ((a))

    Hetu, Udaharaṇa, Nigamana, Upanaya, Pratijna

  2. ((b))

    Nigamana, Hetu, Udaharaṇa, Upanaya, Pratijna

  3. ((c))

    Pratijna, Hetu, Udaharaṇa, Upanaya, Nigamana

  4. ((d))

    Pratijna, Hetu, Upanaya, Udaharaṇa, Nigamana

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Pratijna, Hetu, Udaharaṇa, Upanaya, Nigamana

Nyaya (Sanskrit: "Rule" or "Method") is one of India's six philosophical schools (darshans), known for its logic and epistemological analyses. 

Key Points

  • The Nyaya system makes a significant contribution by explaining in great detail the means of knowledge known as inference(anumana).
  • Anumana literally means "after knowledge," as in "knowledge that comes after other knowledge."
  • The first is the pratijna, which is a logical statement that must be proven.
  • The second is hetu, which expresses the cause for the proposition's formation.
  • The third is udaharana, which refers to universal concordance and example.
  • The fourth is upanaya, which is the application of universal concordance to the current situation.
  • The fifth proposition is nigamana, which is a conclusion derived from the prior propositions. The Avayavas are the five members of the Indian syllogism.​

​Therefore, Pratijna, Hetu, Udaharaṇa, Upanaya, Nigamana is the Correct sequence. 

Additional Information

  • This can be explained using a classic inference example: the effect of fire on the perception of smoke. When one observes smoke on a far hill, one recalls the universal concomitance (Vyapti) between smoke and fire and concludes that there is fire on the distant hill.
  • A typical Nyaya syllogism is as follows.
  1. There is fire (pratijna) on this hill;
  2. There is smoke on this hill (hetu),
  3. Anything that produces smoke, such as an oven, is on fire (udaharana),
  4. Because this hill has smoke, which is inextricably linked to fire (upanaya),
  5. this hill has fire (nigamana).

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow

A global light pollution map developed by a group of researchers has ranked New Delhi, Kolkotta and Bengaluru as the three cities with the highest light pollution in India. It should serve to alert us to the looming problem of light pollution about which we are not only doing so little to prevent but are also unaware about. Light pollution refers to the harmful impact of artificial outdoor lighting. While artificial outdoor lighting is needed in the form of street lights it increases safety on roads and enables us to study and work in the dark, its use for flood lighting, illumination, advertising, etc has grown manifold in recent decades, resulting in the problem of light pollution. Studies show that the brightness from outdoor lights has risen steadily across India over a 20year period, with New Delhi, Telangana, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Uttar Pradesh showing a "very high light intensity pollution" rise between1993 and 2013. 

The use of excessive artificial outdoor lighting has several harmful implications not just for human health but for the wellbeing of animals, birds, insects and our environment. Use of artificial lights at night gives us more working and studying hours but it results in the problem of 'loss of night.' We find it difficult to fall asleep when the glow of streets enter sour homes. It impacts our sleep-wake rhythm, which could have serious implications for our moods and health. Illumination of gardens impacts animals and insects too. It is nocturnal insects and birds that suffer the most due to light pollution. It makes them disoriented, impacts the irreproduction and thus their populations.

6

Excessive hours of artificial light adversely impact our 

A. Work schedule

B. Sleep cycle

C. Study hours

D. Moods and health

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    A and B only

  2. ((b))

    B and C only

  3. ((c))

    B and D only

  4. ((d))

    C and D only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

B and D only

The answer is B and D.

Key Points

  • Let's refer to the passage:
  • Use of artificial lights at night gives us more working and studying hours but it results in the problem of 'loss of night.'
  • We find it difficult to fall asleep when the glow of streets enters our homes.
  • It impacts our sleep-wake rhythm, which could have serious implications for our moods and health.
  • From the above-mentioned statements, it is evident that excessive hours of artificial light adversely impact our 'sleep cycle' and 'moods and health'.

Thus, the correct answer is B and D.

Additional Information

  • Adversely means in a bad or harmful manner.
  • For eg: The unpredictable weather conditions are adversely affecting our farmer community.
7

One of the major pollutants is in the form of

  1. ((a))

    Home lights

  2. ((b))

    Illuminated advertising

  3. ((c))

    Indoor lights

  4. ((d))

    Street lights

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Illuminated advertising

The correct answer is illuminated advertising.

Key Points 

  • Let's refer to the passage:
  • Light pollution refers to the harmful impact of artificial outdoor lighting.
  • While artificial outdoor lighting is needed in the form of street lights it increases safety on roads and enables us to study and work in the dark, its use for flood lighting, illumination, advertising, etc., has grown manifold in recent decades, resulting in the problem of light pollution.
  • From the above-mentioned statements, it is evident that one of the major pollutants is in the form of illuminated advertising.

​Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

<br>

Additional Information

  • Here, Illumination means decorative lighting.
  • For eg: The houses in New Hampshire are illuminated prior to Christmas.
8

The loss of night, as mentioned in the passage, will lead to

  1. ((a))

    Increase in education

  2. ((b))

    More human productivity

  3. ((c))

    The altered activities of nocturnal creatures

  4. ((d))

    The well-being of human population

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The altered activities of nocturnal creatures

The correct answer is the altered activities of nocturnal creatures.

Key Points

  • Let's refer to the passage:
  • Use of artificial lights at night gives us more working and studying hours but it results in the problem of 'loss of night.'
  • Illumination of gardens impacts animals and insects too.
  • It is nocturnal insects and birds that suffer the most due to light pollution.
  • It makes them disoriented, impacts their reproduction and thus their populations.
  • From the above-mentioned statements, it is evident that the 'loss of night' will lead to the altered activities of nocturnal creatures.

​Thus***,*** option 1 is the correct answer.

Confusion Points

  • In the passage, it is mentioned that 'use of artificial lights at night gives us more working and studying hours but it results in the problem of 'loss of night.'
  • Here increased working and studying hours don't equate to productivity.
  • Therefore, options 1, 2 and 4 are not correct.

Additional Information

  • Nocturnal means things relating to or occurring at night.
  • Nocturnal animals are animals that are active at night**.**

9

The light pollution map is related to adverse effects of

  1. ((a))

    Outdoor artificial light

  2. ((b))

    Rural electricity projects

  3. ((c))

    Sunlight

  4. ((d))

    Urban electricity projects

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Outdoor artificial light

The correct answer is Outdoor artificial light.

Key Points

  • Let's refer to the passage:
  • A global light pollution map developed by a group of researchers has ranked New Delhi, Kolkotta ( Kolkata) and Bengaluru as the three cities with the highest light pollution in India.
  • Light pollution refers to the harmful impact of artificial outdoor lighting.
  • ​From the above-mentioned statements, it is clear that the light pollution map is related to the adverse effects of outdoor artificial light.

Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.                                        

Additional Information

  • Adverse means harmful or unfavorable.
  • For eg: The adverse health impacts of fried foods are alarming.
10

Light pollution intensity refers to

  1. ((a))

    Increased outdoor brightness during night time

  2. ((b))

    Manifold hike in use of electricity in rural areas

  3. ((c))

    More and more use of electricity in urban areas

  4. ((d))

    Use of artificial light for road safety

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increased outdoor brightness during night time

The correct answer is Increased outdoor brightness during night time.

Key Points

  • ​Let's refer to the passage:
  • Light pollution refers to the harmful impact of artificial outdoor lighting.
  • Studies show that the brightness from outdoor lights has risen steadily across India over a 20year period, with New Delhi, Telangana, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Uttar Pradesh showing a "very high light intensity pollution" rise between1993 and 2013.
  • Use of artificial lights at night gives us more working and studying hours but it results in the problem of 'loss of night'.
  • From the above-mentioned statements, it is evident that light pollution intensity refers to increased outdoor brightness during night time.​

Therefore, option 1 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Intensity means extreme energy, strength, force, etc.
  • The intense exam preparation has made him confident.
11

Match List I with List II

List IList II
DiseaseMode of spread
A.CholeraI.Lack of water to   maintain cleanliness
B.TrachomaII.Involves water contact   but not ingestion
C.SchistosomiasisIII.Ingestion of polluted   water
D.DengueIV.Requires host
<br>

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV

  2. ((b))

    A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I

  3. ((c))

    A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV

  4. ((d))

    A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV

Important Points

DiseaseMode of spread
Cholera- Cholera is a diarrheal sickness caused by the toxigenic bacterium Vibrio cholera serogroup O1 or O139 infecting the intestine.  . Cholera causes severe symptoms such as watery diarrhea, vomiting, and leg cramps in about one out of every ten people who contract it. - Rapid loss of bodily fluids causes dehydration and shock in these persons. Without treatment, death can happen in a matter of hours. - It occurs due to the ingestion of polluted water. - The cholera bacterium is commonly found in water or foods that have been contaminated with cholera bacteria-infected faeces (poop). - Cholera is most prone to occur and spread in areas where there is poor water treatment, sanitation, and hygiene.
Trachoma- Trachoma is a disease of the eye caused by infection with the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis. - Blindness from trachoma is irreversible. - Infection is transferred through direct contact (through hands, clothing, or bedding) and by flies that have come into contact with discharge from an infected person's eyes or nose. Through lack of water to   maintain cleanliness - When the eyelashes are drawn in over time due to infection, they can rub against the surface of the eye, causing irritation and discomfort as well as permanent damage to the cornea.
Schistosomiasis- Schistosomiasis is an acute and chronic disease caused by parasitic worms. - Intestinal schistosomiasis can result in abdominal pain, diarrhoea, and blood in the stool. - Liver enlargement is common in advanced cases and is frequently associated with an accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity and hypertension of the abdominal blood vessels. - In such cases, there may also be enlargement of the spleen - People are infected during routine agricultural, domestic, occupational, and recreational activities, which expose them to infested water. It Involves water contact   but not ingestion. - Lack of hygiene and certain play habits of school-aged children such as swimming or fishing in infested water make them especially vulnerable to infection
Dengue- Requires host. - Dengue is a viral infection transmitted to humans through the bite of infected mosquitoes. - The primary vectors that transmit the disease are Aedes aegypti mosquitoes and, to a lesser extent, Ae. albopictus. - Dengue is found in tropical and sub-tropical climates worldwide, mostly in urban and semi-urban areas.

Therefore, the correct answer is A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV

12

The example 'sound is eternal because it is caused' represents which of the following Hetvabhasa

  1. ((a))

    Ashrayasiddha

  2. ((b))

    Badhita

  3. ((c))

    Svarupasiddha

  4. ((d))

    Viruddha

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Viruddha

Key Points

Hetvabhasa can be explained as-

  • Hetvabhasa is a Sanskrit term which means fallacy in the English language.
  • In other words, in Indian logic, a fallacy is called Hetvabhasa.
  • A fallacy occurs when the middle term appears to be the reason but it is not a valid reason.
  • There are five kinds of fallacies according to Nyaya school.
  • All the five fallacies are regarded as material fallacies.
  • Material fallacies occur when the reasoning is unsound because of an error concerning the subject matter of the argument.
  • Material fallacies are also known as fallacies of presumption.
  • They are informal fallacies.

Important Points

  • Ashraya Siddha

When the minor term used in the argument is not real. So, the minor term is the locus of the middle term but when the minor term is unreal, the middle term cannot be present in it. For example; sky-lotus is fragrant, because it is a lotus, like the lotus of the pond.

  • Svarupasiddha

It occurs when the minor term is not unreal but because of the very nature of the middle term, the middle term cannot be present in the minor term. For example; the sound is a quality because it can be seen. Here the sound is the minor term, it is real but the middle term seen cannot be present in the minor term sound because sound cannot be seen, it can be heard.

  • Viruddha

It occurs when we have contradicted the middle term. For example, the sound is eternal, because it is produced. Instead of proving the major term, the middle term proves the opposite.

  • Badhita

It is a Hetvabhasa that occurs when the middle term is contradicted by some other pramana, other than inference, like, perception. One instance of the Badhita fallacy is fire is cold, because it is a substance. Here fire is cold is a fallacy, because the middle term is not compatible with the minor term.

Therefore, the correct answer is Viruddha.

13

Given below are two statements

Statement I: - Tablet computers have touch screens.

Statement II: - A tablet computer has a keyboard.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given

below:

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

A tablet computer is a computer that lies in between a laptop and a smartphone in terms of size. 

Key Points

Statement I: - Tablet computers have touch screens.

  • A tablet computer, commonly shortened to tablet, is a mobile device, typically with a mobile operating system and touchscreen display processing circuitry, and a rechargeable battery in a single, thin and flat package.
  • Capacitive touch screen technology is the style we interact with most. This is the kind of display we see on our smartphones, laptops, and tablet screens.
  • The touchscreen display is operated by gestures executed by finger or digital pen (stylus), instead of the mouse, touchpad, and keyboard of larger computers.

So, Statement I is true

Statement II: - A tablet computer has a keyboard.

  • A slate-like model built to withstand rigorous handling and harsh environments.
  • Instead of using a mouse, touchpad, or keyboard, the touchscreen display is controlled by movements made with a finger or a digital pen (stylus).
  • The existence and look of physical keyboards can be used to classify portable computers.
  • Tablets also come with a hybrid design, also known as a convertible or hybrid notebook which is similar to a standard notebook but features a removable display that may be used as a slate.

​Thus, Statement II is false

Statement I is true but Statement II is false​.

Additional Information

  • Alan Kay, a PhD student at the University of Utah, championed his idea of a small, powerful tablet-style computer.​
  • Cambridge Research's Z88 and Linus Technologies in 1987 launched their first real tablet computers.
14

If the wind speeds increase from 4.0 m/s to 5.0 m/s, the power output from an ideal windmill will increase by a factor of about

  1. ((a))

    ~4

  2. ((b))

    ~5

  3. ((c))

    ~2

  4. ((d))

    ~3

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

~2

Important Points

  • To draw the graph to the right, we have used the power calculator on the previous page, and the power curve from the default example 600 kW wind turbine.
  • We have used a standard atmosphere with an air density of 1.225 kg/m3.
  • For each of the Weibull parameters 1.5, 2.0, and 2.5 we have calculated the annual energy output for different average wind speeds at turbine hub height.
  • As you can see, the output may vary up to 50 percent depending on the shape parameter at a low average wind speed of 4.5 m/s, while it may vary some 30 percent at a very high average wind speed of 10 m/s at hub height.

Relationship between wind velocity and power output (yearly average... |  Download Scientific Diagram

Hence, the power output from an ideal windmill will increase by a factor of about ~2 if the wind speeds increase from 4.0 m/s to 5.0 m/s.

15

What number should replace the question mark(?)?

3529, 64, 9817, 115, 3257, ?

  1. ((a))

    126

  2. ((b))

    146

  3. ((c))

    89

  4. ((d))

    98

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

89

3529, 64, 9817, 115, 3257, ?

Here a specific pattern follows as

3529 = 5 + 9 = 14  ⇒ 4 &  3 + 2 + 1  = 6  

So, the number becomes 64 

Similarly, 9817 = 8 + 7 = 15 ⇒ 5 & 9 + 1 + 1 = 11 

So, the number becomes 115

3257 = 2 + 7 = 9 & 3 + 5  = 8

So, the number becomes 89

The correct answer is 89 here.

16

Media kits are used in

  1. ((a))

    Classroom communication

  2. ((b))

    Confidential communication

  3. ((c))

    External communication

  4. ((d))

    Internal communication

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

External communication

Key Points

  A media kit is a collection of information put together by a firm to give reporters with basic information about itself. The media kit is a promotional public relations tool that can be used for a variety of purposes, including promoting the launch of a new company, promoting the launch of a new product or service by an existing company, giving a company a way to present itself as it wishes to be seen, and/or saving time by eliminating the need for employees to answer the same questions over and over again.

Important Points In order to spread the message or tell people about the brand or mission, one has to use different forms of communication. When communication occurs between the brand and an external audience—customers, clients—it’s known as external communication.

Examples of External Communication are-

  1. Media Kits
  2. Client Pitches and Presentation
  3. Email Marketing
  4. Official blogs
  5. Social Media

Additional InformationClassroom Communication- There are three types of classroom communication: verbal, nonverbal, and written. Anything a teacher or student says out loud is referred to as verbal communication. People's body language is referred to as nonverbal communication. Written communication, such as report card remarks or student tasks, is writing intended for a specified audience. Teachers and students communicate with one another in a variety of ways, using all three styles of communication.

Internal Communication- Internal communication implies communication that takes place between the members of the organization.

Confidential communication- Confidential communication involves statements (oral, written, or nonverbal) made in confidence between two people who have trust in each other and believe that the communication will be kept in confidence.

Therefore, the correct answer is External communication.

17

Which among the following are components of decision traps to illustrate what needs to be a possible evaluation framework to monitor the learning process?

A. Overconfidence

B. Coaching

C. Frame blindness

D. Taking shortcuts

E. Persistent misconception

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A, C and D only

  2. ((b))

    A, D and E only

  3. ((c))

    B, C and D only

  4. ((d))

    B, D and E only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A, C and D only

Important Points

The main component of decision traps to illustrate are the possible evaluatory framework to monitor the learning process are-

Overconfidence bias- occurs when what you choose to believe is more important than the truth. Overconfidence bias occurs when you start to rely on your own judgments and beliefs about things rather than reality.

The overconfidence bias is one of the most powerful and widespread cognitive biases known to science. It has a tremendous impact on decision-making because our behaviours are determined by how we think about things.

**Frame blindness-**The concept of framing bias relates to the idea that the way data is presented can influence how people make decisions.

The framing effect is a cognitive bias in which people choose options based on whether they have positive or negative implications, such as a loss or a gain. When provided with a negative frame, people tend to shun danger, but when offered with a positive frame, they seek risks.

Taking shortcuts- A heuristic is a mental shortcut that helps people solve issues and make decisions more quickly. These rule-of-thumb tactics reduce decision-making time and enable people to perform without continually pausing to consider their next move.

Heuristics, on the other hand, have both advantages and disadvantages. While heuristics can be useful in a variety of contexts, they can also cause cognitive biases. Understanding how heuristics function and the biases they can bring can help you make better and more accurate decisions.

Therefore,  the correct answer is A, C and D only.

18

Information provided before sending the primary message is known as

  1. ((a))

    Feed forward

  2. ((b))

    Indicator

  3. ((c))

    Intro

  4. ((d))

    Pre-message

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Feed forward

Important Points

 Feedforward is the provision of the context of what one wants to communicate prior to that communication. In purposeful activity, feedforward creates an expectation that the sender anticipates. When an expected experience occurs, this provides confirmatory feedback. The concept of feedforward was developed by business educator and coach, Marshall Goldsmith. Feedforward is the reverse exercise of feedback. It’s the process of replacing positive or negative feedback with future-oriented solutions. In simple terms, it means focusing on the future instead of the past

Additional Information Introduction is defined as a written or spoken at the begining of a speech or a written material.

19

What fraction (%) of the total primary energy used in India is derived from biomass?

  1. ((a))

    22%

  2. ((b))

    32%

  3. ((c))

    42%

  4. ((d))

    56%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

32%

Key Points

Biomass is organic material that is renewable and comes from plants and animals. Many developed countries are boosting their use of biomass fuels for transportation and electricity generation as a way to reduce carbon dioxide emissions from fossil fuel consumption. Biomass contains stored chemical energy from the sun. Photosynthesis is the process by which plants make biomass. Biomass can be burned directly for heat or processed into renewable liquid and gaseous fuels using a variety of techniques.

Important PointsBiomass has always been an important energy source for the country considering its benefits.  It is renewable, widely available, carbon-neutral, and can provide significant employment in rural areas.  Biomass is also capable of providing firm energy.  About 32% of the total primary energy use in the country is still derived from biomass and more than 70% of the country’s population depends upon it for its energy needs.  

Additional Information Biomass sources for energy include:

  • Wood and wood processing wastes—firewood, wood pellets, and wood chips, lumber and furniture mill sawdust and waste, and black liquor from pulp and paper mills.
  • Agricultural crops and waste materials—corn, soybeans, sugar cane, switchgrass, woody plants, and algae, and crop and food processing residues.
  • Biogenic materials in municipal solid waste—paper, cotton, and wool products, and food, yard, and wood wastes.
  • Animal manure and human sewage.

Therefore, the correct answer is 32%.

20

Match List I with List II

Consider the following in the context of the Square of Opposition of Propositions

List IList II
PropositionsSquare of Opposition
A.If 'A' is FalseI.'A' and 'I' are False
B.If 'E' is TrueII.'E' is False; 'I' is True
C.If 'I' is FalseIII.'E' and 'O' are True
D.If 'O' is TrueIV.'E' and 'I' are Undetermined
<br>

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

  2. ((b))

    A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I

  3. ((c))

    A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV

  4. ((d))

    A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II

The historical development of the Square of Opposition is a collection of logical relationships traditionally embodied in a square diagram.

Key Points The square of opposition is a diagram used in categorical logic to depict the logical relationship that exists between particular propositions based on their form.

Rule of Square of Opposition


Types of Square of Opposition
Rules
ContradictoryA and O, E, and I propositions are contradictory. If One is True the other will be false definitely. If One is False the other will be True definitely.
ContraryA and E propositions are contrary. It's always Between Universal. Both statements cannot be true at the same time but both can be False. If One is True the other will be False definitely. If One is False the other will be  Doubtful.
Sub-contraryI and E propositions are subcontrary. It is always between Particulars. It is the opposite of the Contrary. Both Statements can't be False at the same time but both can be True. If One is False the other will be true definitely. If One is True the other will be Doubtful.
SubalternationA and I, E and O propositions are Subalternation. ​ Between Universal and Particulars. If Universal is True Particular will be False definitely. If Universal is False Particular will be True Doubtful. If Particular is False Universal will be False definitely. If Particular is True Universal will be Doubtful.

whereas A, E, I and O are:

NameFormTitle
AAll\Every S is PUniversal Affirmative
ENo S is PUniversal Negative
ISome S is PParticular Affirmative
OSome S is not PParticular Negative

Classical Square of Opposition - 4 Basic Categorical Propositions

Applying the Rules of Contradictories. 

Therefore*,*** A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II is True the correct answer.

21

In which year did the first commitment period of the Kyoto Protocol come to an end?

  1. ((a))

    2008

  2. ((b))

    2011

  3. ((c))

    2012

  4. ((d))

    2014

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2012

Kyoto Protocol, also known as the Kyoto Protocol to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change is an international treaty aimed at reducing greenhouse gas emissions that contribute to global warming. 

Key Points

  • This international convention aims to put the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change of reducing greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere to counteract global warming into practice.
  • It was adopted in December 1997 in Kyoto, Japan which has been in effect since 2005, required 41 nations and the European Union to reduce greenhouse gas during the "commitment period" of 2008–12.
  • Total 192 member states ratified the convention, Canada had withdrawn from the protocol in December 2012.
  • Participants in the Kyoto Protocol convened in Doha, Qatar in December 2012, after the first commitment period of the Protocol had finished, to adopt an addendum to the original Kyoto agreement.
  • This was known as the Doha Amendment, which added new emission-reduction targets for these countries for the second commitment period, 2012–2020.
  • All UNFCCC parties ratified another deal, the Paris Climate Agreement, in 2015 at the Sustainable Development Summit in Paris, thus replacing the Kyoto Protocol.

​Therefore, In 2012, did the first commitment period of the Kyoto Protocol come to an end.

Additional Information

  • The following important greenhouse gases are addressed:
  • Carbon dioxide (CO2)
  • Methane (CH4)
  • Nitrous oxide (NOx)
  • Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)
  • Perfluorocarbons  (PFCs)
  • Sulphur Hexafluoride (SF6)
  • Participating countries agreed to reduce their emissions by an average of 5% below 1990 levels throughout the Protocol's first period (2008-12).
22

Non-verbal communication makes use of-

A. Behaviour to generate meanings

B. Emotional meanings

C. A non-clear system of rules

D. Verbal finesse

E. Clarity in abstraction

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A, B and C only

  2. ((b))

    A, B and E only

  3. ((c))

    B, C and D only

  4. ((d))

    C, D and E only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A, B and C only

Nonverbal communication is the process of transmitting meaning without the use of written or spoken words.

Key Points

  • Nonverbal communication aids in the establishment and maintenance of interpersonal relationships whereas verbal communication merely aids in the communication of external events.
  • Nonverbal communication is a method of conveying information through behaviour without using words.
  • It includes facial expressions, the tone and pitch of the voice, gestures displayed through body language (kinesics) and the physical distance between the communicators (proxemics).
  • Nonverbal communication is important in our lives because it improves a person's capacity to relate, participate, and form meaningful interactions in daily life. People may create deeper relationships with others if they have a better knowledge of this form of communication.
  • There are no such official guides that govern our use of nonverbal communication.

Therefore, A, B and C is the correct option. 

Additional Information

  • The difference between Nonverbal communication and Verbal Communication is based on principles are following:
  • nonverbal communication typically conveys more meaning than verbal communication,
  • nonverbal communication is more involuntary than verbal communication,
  • nonverbal communication is frequently more ambiguous than verbal communication,
  • nonverbal communication is frequently more credible than verbal communication.
  • Nonverbal communication serves a number of purposes.
  • Nonverbal communication influences verbal communication by complementing, reiterating, substituting, or contradicting verbal messages.
  • It has the ability to influence people because it is a crucial component of deception and can be used to assert authority or win cooperation.
23

In CBCS, Ability Enhancement Courses are of two kinds. They are:

A. Ability Enhancement Compulsory Courses

B. Skill Enhancement Compulsory Courses

C. Ability Enhancement Elective Courses

D. Skill Enhancement Elective Courses

E. Skill Enhancement Courses

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A and C only

  2. ((b))

    A and D only

  3. ((c))

    A and E only

  4. ((d))

    A and B only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A and E only

Choice Based Credit System, which provides students with an effective learning platform by widening their educational horizons. 

Key Points

  • It is a student-centred course in which students select their own subjects.
  • The CBCS method employs credits instead of the traditional marking system.
  • CBCS system Offers Three Types Of Courses to students: Core, Elective, and Foundation.
  • Core Course: In order to fulfil the credit requirement, students must choose a core subject.
  • Elective Courses: These studies cover a broader range of topics and are designed to improve students' abilities.
  • The foundation courses include Ability Enhancement Compulsory Courses (AECC) and Skill Enhancement Courses (SEC).
  • AECC courses are environmental Science and English communication that is centred on content that leads to knowledge growth.
  • SEC courses are value and skill-based with the goal of offering hands-on training, competencies, and skills, among other things.

​Therefore, In CBCS, Ability Enhancement Courses are of two kinds Ability Enhancement Compulsory Courses and Skill Enhancement Courses. 

Additional Information

  • The University Grants Commission (UGC) introduced the CBCS in the higher education system.
  • This choice-based credit system in higher education allows for greater flexibility in curriculum development and credit allocation based on course difficulty and teaching hours.
  • CBCS places a strong emphasis on group discussions, assignments, class activities, and internal assessments, resulting in a positive learning atmosphere.
24

What does NIRF stand for?

  1. ((a))

    National Institute of Ranking Federation

  2. ((b))

    National Institute of Ranking Framework

  3. ((c))

    National Institutional Ranking Federation

  4. ((d))

    National Institutional Ranking Framework

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

National Institutional Ranking Framework

The Ministry of Human Resources Development (MHRD) authorised the NIRF on September 29, 2015.

Key Points

  • The NIRF stands for National Institutional Ranking Framework is the government's first attempt to rank the country's higher education institutions (HEIs) by the Government of India.
  • This framework lays out a technique for ranking colleges and universities across the country.
  • The methodology is based on the general recommendations and comprehensive understanding reached by a Core Committee established by the MHRD in order to define the broad factors for rating various colleges and institutes.
  • The parameters to assess the educational institution are based on  "Teaching, Learning, and Resources," "Research and Professional Practices," "Graduation Outcomes," "Outreach and Inclusivity," and "Perception".
  • On April 4th, 2016, the India Rankings are done based on this methodology were first issued to assess the educational institution in India.

​Therefore,  NIRF stands for National Institutional Ranking Framework.

Additional Information

  • While participation in the NIRF was initially voluntary, it became mandatory in 2018 for all government-run educational institutions.
  • All educational institutions are evaluated on five characteristics in order to be ranked: teaching, learning, and resources, research and professional practise, graduation outcomes, outreach and diversity, and perception.
  • Overall national rating, universities, engineering, college, medical, management, pharmacy, law, architecture, dental, and research are among the best institutions listed by NIRF.
25

Match List I with List II

List IList II
Ericson's Psycho-social developmentStage
A.Intimacy vs.   IsolationI.Normally after   retirement
B.Despair vs. IntegrityII.Much of adulthood
C.Stagnation vs. GenerativityIII.During adolescence
D.Identity vs. RoleIV.During the 20s
<br>

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

  2. ((b))

    A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I

  3. ((c))

    A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

  4. ((d))

    A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

Erik Erikson (1902–1994) was a stage theorist who transformed Sigmund Freud's contentious psychosexual development theory into a psychosocial theory.

Key Points

  • According to Eriksonat each stage of growth, the ego provides beneficial contributions to development by mastering attitudes, ideas, and talents.
  • Erikson expanded on Freud's phases by examining the cultural implications of development; depending on their cultural and survival demands, various societies may need to resolve the stages in different ways.
Ericson's Psycho-social developmentStage
Intimacy vs. Isolation- It is a problem for people in their early adult years (the 20s to early 40s). - They are ready to share their lives with others once they have formed a sense of self during adolescence.
Identity vs. Role- Confusion Children in adolescence (ages 12–18) experience the dilemma of identity vs. role confusion. - The major duty of an adolescent, according to Erikson, is to create a sense of self.
Stagnation vs. Generativity- When adults reach their forties, they enter middle adulthood, which lasts until the mid-sixties. - The social challenge of middle adulthood is to choose between generativity and stagnation.
Despair vs. Integrity- We are at the late adulthood stage of development, which lasts from the mid-60s to the end of life. - People in their late twenties and thirties, he claims reflect on their lives and feel either satisfied or disappointed.

Therefore, A-IV, B - I, C - II, D - III is the correct option. 

Additional Information 

26

Match List I with List II

List IList II
ScaleCharacteristics
A.Arbitrary   ScaleI.Attitude statements are   decided by judges
B.Thurstone   ScaleII.Summated ratings
C.Likert ScaleIII.Consists of seven spaces   between two bipolar   adjectives
D.Semantic   differentialIV.Questions are selected   on an a priori basis
<br>

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

  2. ((b))

    A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I

  3. ((c))

    A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

  4. ((d))

    A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

In research and statistics, measuring scales refer to the many ways in which variables are defined and categorized.

Key Points

  • It explains the nature of the values allocated to the variables in a data set and is also known as the level of measurement.
  • There are different types to measure the variable which are mentioned in the table.
ScaleCharacteristics
Arbitrary scales- Arbitrary scales are developed on ad hoc basis and are designed largely through the researcher’s subjective selection of items. - The researcher first collects a few statements or items which he believes are unambiguous and appropriate to a given topic. - Questions are selected   on an a priori basis
Thurstone Scale- This scale was created by L.L. Thurstone and was first used in religion before becoming well-known in the domains of sociology and psychology. - Under such an approach the selection of items is made by a panel of judges who evaluate the items in terms of whether they are relevant to the topic area and unambiguous in implication.
Likert scaling- Likert scaling is a method designed to measure people's attitudes. - Summated scales or Likert-type scales are developed by utilizing the item analysis approach wherein a particular item is evaluated based on how well it discriminates between those persons whose total score is high and those whose score is low. - Those items or statements that best meet this sort of discrimination test are included in the final instrument.
Semantic scales- A semantic scale is a questionnaire rating scale that asks participants to score a product, company, brand, or any other entity using a multi-point rating option. - At each end of the survey, the answer selections are grammatically on opposite adjectives. - It consists of seven spaces   between two bipolar   adjectives

Therefore, A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III is the correct option. 

Additional Information

  • In an experiment, the Thurstone scale, also known as the method of equal-appearing intervals, provides an effective and accurate way of assessing opinions and a more effective way of drawing statistical comparisons.
  • Likert-type scales in which a specific item is evaluated based on how well it discriminates between people who have a high total score and those who have a low total score.
27

Arrange the following optical storage devices in increasing order of their storage capacity.

A. DVD

B. CD-ROM

C. Blu-Ray

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A, B, C

  2. ((b))

    A, C, B

  3. ((c))

    B, A, C

  4. ((d))

    B, C, A

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

B, A, C

Optical storage is an electronic storage medium that records and retrieves digital (binary) data using low-power laser beams.

Key Points

  • A laser beam encodes digital data into an optical, or laser, the disc in the form of microscopic pits arranged in a spiral pattern on the disk's surface in optical storage technology.
Optical storageCharacteristic
CD-ROM- CD-ROM stands for Compact Disc Read-Only Memory. - CD-ROM is a type of computer memory that is stored on a compact disc and read by optical means. - A normal CD ROM has a data capacity of 650-700 MB.
DVD- DVD stands for Digital Versatile Disc and is a type of optical disc used for data storage and multimedia platforms. - It can perform various functions such as read-only, recordable, and even erasable and rewritable versions can be used on personal computers to store large amounts of almost any kind of data. - Its storage capacity also varies depending on its type, it varies from 4.7 GB to 17 GB.
Blu-Ray- Blu-ray is a data-storage format for optical discs that are most commonly used to playback high-definition video. - Blu-ray discs are available for 3-D films. - For a single-layer Blu-ray disc, the storage capacity is around 25 GB of data whereas a double-layer disc can hold up to 50 GB of data.

*Therefore, CD-ROM⇒DVD⇒Blu-Ray is the correct sequence of increasing order of their storage capacity.*​

Additional Information

  • After audio CDs and digital video discs, Blu-ray is the third generation of compact disc technology.
  • In all three CDs data is stored on a plastic disc with a diameter of 120 millimetres
  • The data is encoded in pits on the disc that form a spiral track.
  • The pits are read using a blue-violet laser with a wavelength of 405 nanometres.
28

The term 'open learning' represent approaches that focus on

A. Opening access to education and training provision

B. Freeing learners from the constraints of time and place

C. Learning and evaluation without a specified curriculum

D. Offering flexible learning opportunities to individuals and groups of learners

E. Making students free from any educational loads

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A, B and D only

  2. ((b))

    A, B and E only

  3. ((c))

    A, B and C only

  4. ((d))

    B, C and D only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A, B and D only

The term open learning refers to learning scenarios in which students have the freedom to pick from a variety of options in terms of time, place, instructional techniques, forms of access, and other aspects of their learning.

Key Points

  • The notion of open learning and distance education focuses on providing open access to education and training to individuals and groups of learners.
  • Learner free from time and location constraints and provide flexible learning options.
  • Open education is an educational movement based on openness, with ties to other educational movements and an educational approach that promotes social inclusion and involvement.
  • Open education expands access to learning and training that was previously only available through formal educational systems.
  • The term was originally used at the UNESCO Forum on Open Courseware in 2002.
  • In many cases, the terms open learning and e-learning are used interchangeably.

Therefore, A, B and D are the correct options. 

Additional Information

  • In India Open Distance Learning system make up of Indra Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU), State Open Institutions (SOUs), Institutions and Universities that provide education, as well as Correspondence Course Institutes (CCIs) in traditional dual-mode universities.
  • The University Grants Commission now has regulatory authority for the Open Distance Learning system after the dismissal of IGNOU's Distance Education Council.
29

Answer the following statements?

A. At 5% rate of simple interest, a certain sum will be doubled in 15years.

B. A sum becomes double in 10 years. The annual rate of simple interest is 12%.

C. ₹1000 will become ₹1331 in 3 years at compound interest rate of 10% per annum.

Which of the above statements is/are CORRECT?

  1. ((a))

    A and B only

  2. ((b))

    A and C only

  3. ((c))

    B and C only02

  4. ((d))

    C only

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

C only

Formula Used:

Simple Interest = P×T×R100\frac{P\times T\times R}{100}

Compound Interest = P×(1+R100)TPP \times (1 + \frac{R}{100})^T - P

Compound Interest = Amount - Principal

Calculation: 

A. 

Incomplete information.

B.   

Incomplete information.

C.

Compound Interest = Amount - Principal

⇒ Compound Interest = 1331 - 1000 = Rs. 331

Compound Interest = P×(1+R100)TPP \times (1 + \frac{R}{100})^T - P   

⇒ Compound interest = 1000×(1+10100)310001000 \times (1 + \frac{10}{100})^3 - 1000

⇒ Compound interest = Rs. 331

The given statement is correct.

The correct option is 4 i.e. C only

30

India has been attracting only a fraction of international students because of

A. Lack of residential accommodation for foreign students

B. Difficulties in recognition of international qualification

C. Rigid admission process

D. Lack of enthusiasm among teachers

E. Lack of enthusiasm among students

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A and B only

  2. ((b))

    B and C only

  3. ((c))

    C and D only

  4. ((d))

    D and E only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A and B only

There is a massive dip in international students coming to India for higher education studies between January and December 2021 compared to 2019.  

Key Points

  • Recognising the relevance of internationalisation and student inflow in India, the Association of Indian Universities has been conducting an annual survey of international students in an Indian educational institution.
  • According to report, the Internationalisation of Higher Education in India identified several issues which are following: 
  • Locational Disadvantages
  • ​Regulatory restrictions and lack of support from regulatory bodies
  • Lack of enough applications from international students
  • Difficulties in Obtaining Visa for Foreign Students
  • Lack of residential accommodation for international students
  • Lack of quality facilities and infrastructure
  • Lack of enthusiasm amongst the faculty about international students
  • Lack of enthusiasm amongst the students of the university about international students
  • Medium of Instructions
  • Difficulties in recognition of international qualification

Therefore, A and B is the correct statement. 

Additional Information

  • To increase international students In higher education the Government of India various steps which are mentioned below: 
  • The government urged the various universities to build world-class hostels for overseas students.
  • The Champion Services Sector Scheme has a provision for financial help to specific institutions where international students take admission.
  • University that accepts overseas students must establish the International Students' Office to serve as a one-stop-shop for all of the international students' needs, beginning with their acceptance to the university.
  • Twinning, Joint, and Dual degrees with credit transfer mechanisms are also being considered by the Ministry as ways to improve academic interactions between Indian and overseas institutions.
  • All institutions have been asked to activate their alumni networks and leverage this network to attract more students to Indian universities.
31

Given below are two statements

Statement I: - Qualitative research is impressionistic and subjective.

Statement II: - Quantitative research has a higher level of possibility of generalising the findings.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Qualitative research is defined as research that uses methodologies like participant observation or case studies to produce a narrative and descriptive account. 

Key Points Statement I: Qualitative research is impressionistic and subjective.

  • Qualitative research at this level entails an interpretive, naturalistic approach to the world.
  • Qualitative Research is impressionistic rather than definitive.
  • It aims to understand or interpret events through the lenses of the meanings individuals assign to them.
  • Qualitative research is essentially subjective in nature, as it aims to comprehend human behaviour and the factors that influence it.

So, the statement I is correct. 

Statement II: Quantitative research has a higher level of possibility of generalising the findings.

  • Quantitative research is described as a systematic analysis of phenomena through the collection of measurable data and the application of statistical, mathematical, or computational methods.
  • Quantitative research is the process of collecting and interpreting numerical data.
  • It can be used to look for patterns and averages, make predictions, test causal linkages, and generalize results to wider populations.
  • In the natural and social sciences, such as biology, chemistry, psychology, economics, sociology, and marketing, quantitative research is widely used.

Therefore, statement II is correct. 

Hence, Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Additional Information

  • Some Similarities between Quantitative research and Qualitative research are mentioned below:
  • ​When conducting research, both qualitative and quantitative researchers employ similar techniques.
  • Both rely on a theoretical foundation and place a high value on rigour.
  • A plan for conducting an investigation is required for both qualitative and quantitative research.
  • Researchers, both qualitative and quantitative, collect data and conduct research in natural environments, such as through observation.
32

Based on the data in the table, answer the questions that follow

The following table presents the percentage breakup of employees and the ratio of  male to female employees working in five different organisations (A to E). There is a total number of 35,000 employees working in all five organisations.

Organisation-wise Breakup of Employees

OrganisationPercentage (%) of employeesRatio of Male and Female employees
A18%3 ∶ 7
B22%11 ∶ 9
C31%3 ∶ 2
D15%2 ∶ 3
E14%1 ∶ 3

What is the sum total of the number of females in Organisation D and the number of males in Organisation E?

  1. ((a))

    4375

  2. ((b))

    4475

  3. ((c))

    4500

  4. ((d))

    4875

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4375

Given:

Total employees = 35000

Calculation:    

Number of employees in organization D = 15% of 35000 

⇒ Number of employees in organization D = 5250

Number of females in organization D = 5250 × 33+2\frac{3}{3 + 2}

⇒ Number of females in organisation D = 3150

Number of employees in organization E = 14% of 35000  

⇒ Number of employees in organization E = 4900

Number of males in organization E = 4900 × 13+1\frac{1}{3 + 1}

⇒ Number of males in organisation E = 1225

Sum = 1225 + 3150 = 4375

∴ The sum total of the number of females in Organisation D and the number of males in Organisation E is 4375

The correct option is 1 i.e. 4375

33

Based on the data in the table, answer the questions that follow

The following table presents the percentage breakup of employees and the ratio of  male to female employees working in five different organisations (A to E). There is a total number of 35,000 employees working in all five organisations.

Organisation-wise Breakup of Employees

OrganisationPercentage (%) of employeesRatio of Male and Female employees
A18%3 ∶ 7
B22%11 ∶ 9
C31%3 ∶ 2
D15%2 ∶ 3
E14%1 ∶ 3

What is the ratio of the number of males in Organisation A to the number of males in Organisation C?

  1. ((a))

    18 : 31

  2. ((b))

    7 : 27

  3. ((c))

    9 : 19

  4. ((d))

    9 : 31

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

9 : 31

Given:

Total employees = 35000

Calculation:    

Number of employees in organization A = 18% of 35000 

⇒ Number of employees in organization A = 6300

Number of males in organization A = 6300 × 33+7\frac{3}{3 + 7}

⇒ Number of males in organisation A = 1890

Number of employees in organization C = 31% of 35000 

⇒ Number of employees in organization C = 10850

Number of males in organization C = 10850 × 33+2\frac{3}{3 + 2}

⇒ Number of males in organisation C = 6510

Males in organization A ∶ Males in organisation C

⇒ 1890 ∶ 6510 

⇒ 9 ∶ 31

∴ Males in organisation A ∶ Males in organisation C = 9 ∶ 31

The correct option is 4 i.e. 9 ∶ 31

34

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A.SāmānyalakṣaṇaPratyakṣaI.Intuitive perception   of all objects- past,   distant and future   due to supernormal   powers generated   by meditation
B.JñānaLakṣana PratyakṣaII.When objects are   not actually present   to sense but are   conveyed to it   through a special   medium
C.YogajPratyakṣaIII.Perception of an   object which is in   contact with sense   through previous   knowledge of itself
D.AlaukikaPratyakṣaIV.The perception of a   whole class of   objects through a   generic property
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Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV

  2. ((b))

    A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV

  3. ((c))

    A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV

  4. ((d))

    A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

Important Points

PramanaClassification of Perception
Sāmānyalakṣaṇa Pratyakṣa- According to Nyaya, samanyalakshana perception is also called the perception of classes. - It includes the concept of universals. - According to Nyaya, universals are regarded as a distinct class of reals and they are inhere in particulars. - For example, the concept of cow-ness, the universal concept of cow-ness inheres in all the particular, cows. - The perception of cow-ness is possible due to samanyalakshana perception. - In other words, universals are perceived extra-ordinarily. - The perception of a   whole class of   objects through a   generic property
JñānaLakṣana Pratyakṣa- This perception is also called the complicated perception through association. - In the case of Jnanalakshana perception, the object is not directly presented to the - sense-organs, but it is revived in memory due to the past cognitions of the object and it - is perceived through representation. - For example, Sandalwood looks fragrant, the ice looks cold, stone looks hard, etc. - Perception of an   object which is in  contact with sense   through previous   knowledge of itself
YogajPratyakṣa- This is an intuitive and immediate perception of all the objects of the past, present, and future. - This form of perception is only possessed by yogis or liberated souls through the power of meditation. - Hence, it is supra-sensuous and supra-relational in nature. - Intuitive perception   of all objects- past,   distant and future   due to supernormal   powers generated   by meditation
AlaukikaPratyakṣa- Alaukika Pratyaksha (Extraordinary Perception): This is knowledge based on concentration as by - coming in contact of specific object, all related information (common characteristics) are apprehended. This is - based on transcendental contact. - It is associated with integrated perception. Three types are suggested- 1. Samanyalakshana Pratyaksha (Universal or General Character Perception). 2. Gyanalakshana Pratyaksha (Complicated Perception) 3. Yogaja Pratyaksha (Intuitive Perception. - When objects are   not actually present   to sense but are   conveyed to it   through a special   medium

Therefore, the correct codes are A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

35

Which of the following statements about desktop and laptop computers areTRUE?

A. Most modern laptop computers have built-in webcams

B. Desktop computers are not very portable

C. All desktop computers have built-in touchpad

D. Laptop computers are rarely supplied with a mouse

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A, B and D only

  2. ((b))

    A, B and C only

  3. ((c))

    A, B, C and D

  4. ((d))

    B, C and D only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A, B and D only

A computer is a mechanism or equipment that follows instructions from a software or hardware programme to perform procedures, calculations, and operations. 

Key Points

  • The Desktop computer is a personal computer designed for regular use at a single location with a connected power source.
  • Some advantages and disadvantages of Desktop computers are mentioned below:
  • Because of the huge keyboard, typing on a desktop computer is simple.
  • Because the computer has a large amount of disc space, it can store a lot of data.
  • Desktop PCs are quite dependable. It is simple to start an internet business and rely on technology.
  • Because it takes up so much space, moving a desktop computer from one location is challenging.
  • A laptop computer or notebook computer is a tiny, portable computer featuring a screen and an alphanumeric keypad.
  • Some advantage and disadvantage of Laptop computers are listed below:
  • A laptop comprises a display, keyboard, touchpad (which substitutes the mouse), and speakers built-in.
  • Laptop computers are rarely supplied with a mouse
  • Due to their small size, laptops are particularly portable.
  • Most modern laptop computers have built-in webcams.
  • In comparison to regular computers laptops are more easily damaged.
  • A very important point is that laptops really do not like reinstalling the operating system.

Therefore, A, B and D is the correct statement. 

Additional Information

  • The Olivetti Programma 101 was the first computer that could be considered a desktop. It was a typewriter-sized device that was released in 1965.
  • The 16-bit Dulmont Magnum, designed by David Irwin and John Blair of Dulmison, Australia, in 1982 and delivered in Australia by Dulmont in September 1983, was the first true laptop.
36

Which of the following are the essential characteristics of the case study method?

A. Negatively oriented

B. Appreciation oriented

C. Particularistic

D. Descriptive

E. Inductive

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A, B and E only

  2. ((b))

    A, B and C only

  3. ((c))

    B, C and D only

  4. ((d))

    C, D and E only

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

C, D and E only

A case study is a comprehensive examination of a single person, group, location, event, organisation, or phenomenon.

Key Points

  • Case studies can be used to describe, compare, evaluate, and comprehend various elements of a study subject.
  • Case studies are frequently employed in social, educational, clinical, and business research.
  • According to Welch et al (2011), the case study as a research method has been dominated mainly as a tool for inductive theory construction, which has limited its theoretical potential.
  • A descriptive case study tells the account of a real-life issue that people or organisations faced and how they dealt with it.
  • Case studies that are particularistic focus on a specific scenario, event, programme, or phenomenon.
  • It focuses attention on the ways in which certain groups of people deal with unique difficulties while taking a holistic view of the situation.

Therefore, C, D and E only are the correct options. 

Additional Information

  • The majority of qualitative methods are employed in case study research, but quantitative approaches are occasionally used as well.
  • A case study can only represent a small number of people, making generalisation impossible.
  • It is a method that is subjective rather than objective.
37

Name the fallacy committed in the argument

All dogs are mammals.

No cats are dogs.

Therefore, no cats are mammals.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Existential Fallacy

  2. ((b))

    Illicit Major

  3. ((c))

    Illicit Minor

  4. ((d))

    Undistributed Middle

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Illicit Major

A fallacy is a type of logical error.

Key Points

  • A formal logical fallacy occurs when a categorical syllogism uses two universal premises ("all") to arrive at a specific conclusion ("some").
  • The following list of fallacies includes 231 names of the most popular fallacies, as well as brief explanations and illustrations for each.
  • Fallacies can be formed unintentionally or with the goal of deceiving others.
  • Illicit Major Fallacy occurs when the major word is not dispersed in the premiss but is disseminated in the conclusion.
  • It follows the given structure: ​
  • All A are B.
  • No C is A.
  • Therefore, NO C is B
  • Rule: In a valid standard-form categorical syllogism no term can be distributed in the conclusion unless it is also distributed in the premises.
  • Reason: otherwise the conclusion would assert more than what is contained in the premises.

Therefore, the Illicit Major fallacy is committed in the argument.

Additional Information

  • Illicit Minor Fallacy happens when the minor word is not dispersed in the premiss but is distributed in the conclusion.
  • It follows the mentioned structure: 
  • ​All A are B.
  • All B are C.
  • Therefore, all C are A.
  • Existential Fallacy: ​A formal logical fallacy occurs when a categorical syllogism uses two universal premises ("all") to arrive at a specific conclusion ("some").
  • The structure of Existential Fallacy is noted below: 
  • All X are Y.
  • All Z are X.
  • Therefore, some Z are Y.
  • ​Undistributed Middle Fallacy: The undistributed middle fallacy is a formal error that occurs when a categorical syllogism's middle term is not distributed in either the minor or major premise
38

Based on the data in the table, answer the questions that follow

The following table presents the percentage breakup of employees and the ratio of  male to female employees working in five different organisations (A to E). There is a total number of 35,000 employees working in all five organisations.

Organisation-wise Breakup of Employees

OrganisationPercentage (%) of employeesRatio of Male and Female employees
A18%3 ∶ 7
B22%11 ∶ 9
C31%3 ∶ 2
D15%2 ∶ 3
E14%1 ∶ 3

What is the total number of males in all the five organisations together?

  1. ((a))

    13350

  2. ((b))

    14700

  3. ((c))

    15960

  4. ((d))

    16280

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

15960

Given:

Total employees = 35000

Calculation:      

Males in organisation A = 35000×18100×33+735000 \times \frac{18}{100} \times \frac{3}{3 + 7}

⇒ Males in organisation A = 1890

Males in organisation B = 35000×22100×1111+935000 \times \frac{22}{100} \times \frac{11}{11 + 9}

⇒ Males in organisation B = 4235

Males in organisation C = 35000×31100×33+235000 \times \frac{31}{100} \times \frac{3}{3 + 2}

⇒ Males in organisation C = 6510

Males in organisation D = 35000×15100×22+335000 \times \frac{15}{100} \times \frac{2}{2 + 3}

⇒ Males in organisation D = 2100

Males in organisation E = 35000×14100×11+335000 \times \frac{14}{100} \times \frac{1}{1 + 3}

⇒ Males in organisation E = 1225

Total number of males = 1890 + 4235 + 6510 + 2100 + 1225 = 15960

∴ Total number of males in all the five organisations togther is 15960

The correct option is 3 i.e. 15960

39

The rationalistic mode of knowledge accepts the rules of

  1. ((a))

    Authority

  2. ((b))

    Legality

  3. ((c))

    Logic

  4. ((d))

    Manipulation

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Logic

Key Points

  • In Western philosophy, rationalism is the belief that reason is the primary source and test of knowledge.
  • The rationalist claims that there is a class of truths that the intellect may grasp immediately because reality has an intrinsically logical structure.
  • Certain logical principles, according to rationalists, exist—particularly in logic and mathematics, but also in ethics and metaphysics.

Logic is just a set of rules and techniques for distinguishing good reasoning from bad. A logic must formulate precise standards for evaluating reasoning and develop methods for applying those standards to particular instances.

Additional InformationDifference between rationalism and empiricism

RationalismEmpiricism
Rationalism is a theory based on the claim that reason is the source of knowledge.Empiricism is a theory based on the claim that experience is the source of knowledge.
Rarionalists believe in IntuitionEmpiricists do not believe in intuition.
Claim that individuals have innate knowledge or concepts.clain that individuals do not have innate knowledge or concept.

Therefore, the correct answer is Logic.

40

"Contagious" spreading of behaviours through imitation, is known as

  1. ((a))

    Norm effect

  2. ((b))

    Random effect

  3. ((c))

    Ripple effect

  4. ((d))

    Scripted effect

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ripple effect

Ripple effect.Emotional contagion in groups, or more accurately, the transfer of moods among persons in a group. 

Key Points

  • The ripple effect happens when a target student's action or experience has an impact on the behaviour of other pupils.
  • The students who are closest to the target student are the ones who are most affected.
  • The influence can be negative (for example, a student misbehaves and others copy) or positive (for example, a student misbehaves and others copy) (a student is on-task or follows an instruction, and others copy).
  • The ripple effect has been studied for decades and is a well-known impact among educators
  • The clarity and firmness of the correction have an impact on the ripple effect.
  • When the teacher explicitly names the incorrect behaviour and explains why it must stop, the effect is amplified.

Therefore, the Contagious spreading of behaviours through imitation is known as the Ripple effect.

Additional Information

  • Norm Effect is the action-effect that can be explained by normality which states that actions are more abnormal than inactions.
  • Norms are socially shared beliefs about behaviour; they differ from "ideas," "attitudes," and "values," which might be held privately and do not always concern behaviour.
41

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: -

A good computer networking solution can be very much beneficial for your business.

Reason R: -

With computer networking, you can cut back on costs and allow for efficient use of resources.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A is false but R is true

  2. ((b))

    A is true but R is false

  3. ((c))

    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

  4. ((d))

    Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

A computer network is a collection of two or more computers that are linked together to exchange data electronically.

Key Points Assertion A: A good computer networking solution can be very much beneficial for your business.

  • A computer network system that allows a range of equipment types to transfer information in a near-seamless manner.
  • A good computer networking solution might be extremely advantageous for business.
  • ​It allows companies to store data in one place.
  • This allows the network's many computers to retrieve essential data from the central server.
  • Computer networking allows you to access data from other computers on the same network and edit it as needed.

​So, Assertion A is a correct statement. 

Reason R: With computer networking, you can cut back on costs and allow for efficient use of resources.

  • Storing data in a single, central database can also help you save money and improve productivity.
  • For Example:
  • Because employees have shared access to customer and product databases, they can serve more customers in less time.
  • You can centralise network administration, which means you'll need less IT help.
  • Sharing peripherals and internet access can help you save money.

Therefore, Reasons R is the correct statement and correct explanation of A. 

Hence, Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Additional Information

  • The two most common network kinds are Local-area networks (LANs) and wide-area networks (WANs).
  • LANs use links to connect computers and peripheral devices in a limited physical area, such as a corporate office, laboratory, or college campus.
  • WANs link computers and smaller networks to larger networks across wider geographic areas.
  • They may connect the computers through cables, optical fibres, or satellites, although most users access the networks with a modem
42

Based on the data in the table, answer the questions that follow

The following table presents the percentage breakup of employees and the ratio of  male to female employees working in five different organisations (A to E). There is a total number of 35,000 employees working in all five organisations.

Organisation-wise Breakup of Employees

OrganisationPercentage (%) of employeesRatio of Male and Female employees
A18%3 ∶ 7
B22%11 ∶ 9
C31%3 ∶ 2
D15%2 ∶ 3
E14%1 ∶ 3

 

The total number of employees in Organisation C is approximately what percent of the total number of employees in Organisation D?

  1. ((a))

    147%

  2. ((b))

    183%

  3. ((c))

    207%

  4. ((d))

    312%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

207%

Given:

Total employees = 35000

Calculation:    

Number of employees in organization C = 31% of 35000 

⇒ Number of employees in organization C = 10850

Number of employees in organization D = 15% of 35000 

⇒ Number of employees in organization D = 5250

Now,

5250 × x% = 10850

⇒ x = 108505250×100\frac{10850}{5250}\times 100

⇒ x = 206.66%

⇒ x = 207% approx

∴ The total number of employees in Organisation C is approximately 207% of the total number of employees in Organisation D

The correct option is 3 i.e. 207%

43

Given below are two statements

Statement I: -

People use non-verbal cues more than verbal cues.

Statement II: -

Non-verbal cues have better believability than spoken words.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Nonverbal cues are nonverbal indications that people use to communicate without using words. 

Key PointsStatement I: People use non-verbal cues more than verbal cues.

  • Nonverbal cues can also be used to supplement the meaning of verbal communication.
  • It's also crucial to be conscious of the messages your body language may be delivering to others.
  • Dr Albert Mehrabian, a prominent behavioural psychologist**, was one of the first to advocate for the importance of nonverbal communication.**
  • The 7-38-55 rule was developed as a result of Mehrabian's considerable research on the subject of body language.
  • According to the 7-38-55 rule, verbal communication accounts for only 7% of all communication, whereas nonverbal components of our daily conversation, such as voice tonality and body language, account for 38% and 55%, respectively.

​So, the statement I is True. 

Statement II: Non-verbal cues have better believability than spoken words.

  • Nonverbal communication cues are the way you listen, look, move, and react tell the other person whether or not you care if you're being truthful, and how effectively you're listening.
  • Nonverbal communication is frequently more credible than verbal communication.
  • Nonverbal cues, such as gestures that signify certain phrases like "yes" and "no," can sometimes take the role of language.
  • Their meaning is embedded in clues such as discomfort, disinterest, and disapproval, producing uncertainty, bewilderment, or unease.

Thus, the statement is True. 

Therefore, Both Statement I and Statement II are true. 

Additional Information

  • There are various types of nonverbal communication which are mentioned below
  • Facial Expression
  • Kinesics (Body Movement)
  • Eye Contact
  • Haptics (Touch)
  • Proxemics (Space)
  • Paralinguistics
  • Props and Physical Appearance
  • Chronemics (Time)
44

Which one of the following Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) is related to sustainable consumption and production patterns?

  1. ((a))

    SDG 10

  2. ((b))

    SDG 11

  3. ((c))

    SDG 12

  4. ((d))

    SDG 9

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

SDG 12

The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development in Rio de Janeiro in 2012 gave birth to the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

Key Points

  • The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are a bold pledge to finish what the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) started and address some of the world's most critical issues.
  • All 17 goals are interconnected and achieving one pushes you to achieve the others.
  • "Sustainable development" is defined as "development that meets current demands without jeopardizing future generations' ability to meet their own needs."
  • Sustainable development has a far broader scope than merely the environment.
  • It's also about ensuring that society is robust, healthy, and just.
  • This entails satisfying the different needs of all individuals in current and future communities, as well as encouraging personal well-being, social cohesion, and inclusion, and ensuring equitable opportunity.

Therefore, SDG 12  is related to sustainable consumption and production patterns

Additional Information

  • "Future We Want," a documentary played at the Rio+20 meeting proposed a post-2015 development agenda.
  • The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are an intergovernmental agreement that replaces the Millennium Development Goals as the post-2015 development agenda.
  • The United Nations Sustainable Development Summit established a post-negotiation agenda named *Transforming Our World: the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.*​​**

Important Points

  • ​​​​The Rio+20 summit (2012) in Rio de Janeiro produced the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) is a non-binding document.​
45

Based on the data in the table, answer the questions that follow

The following table presents the percentage breakup of employees and the ratio of  male to female employees working in five different organisations (A to E). There is a total number of 35,000 employees working in all five organisations.

Organisation-wise Breakup of Employees

OrganisationPercentage (%) of employeesRatio of Male and Female employees
A18%3 ∶ 7
B22%11 ∶ 9
C31%3 ∶ 2
D15%2 ∶ 3
E14%1 ∶ 3

What is the difference between the number of females in Organisation E and the number of females in Organisation B?

  1. ((a))

    170

  2. ((b))

    210

  3. ((c))

    300

  4. ((d))

    350

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

210

Given:

Total employees = 35000

Calculation:    

Number of employees in organization E = 14% of 35000 

⇒ Number of employees in organization E = 4900

Number of females in organization E = 4900 × 33+1\frac{3}{3 + 1}

⇒ Number of females in organisation E = 3675

Number of employees in organization B = 22% of 35000 

⇒ Number of employees in organization B = 7700

Number of females in organization B = 7700 × 911+9\frac{9}{11+ 9}

⇒ Number of females in organisation B = 3465

⇒ Difference = 3675 - 3465 = 210

∴ The difference between the number of females in Organisation E and the number of females in Organisation B is 210

The correct option is 2 i.e. 210

46

What is the name of the score the student would get if the measurements were completely accurate and error-free?

  1. ((a))

    I-score

  2. ((b))

    Neutral score

  3. ((c))

    True score

  4. ((d))

    Z-score

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

True score

In education, measurement error refers to the discrepancy between a test result and a student's real knowledge and abilities and inaccuracies introduced during the collection and calculation of data-based reports, figures, and statistics about schools and students.

Key Points

  • Although some degree of measurement error is unavoidable in testing and test developers frequently publicly admit that performance data, such as high school graduation rates or college enrollment rates, are not always accurate.
  • The True score represents the person's true ability, whereas the Observed score is the exam's actual score.
  • The disparity between observed and true scores is known as error.
  • Measurement inaccuracies in testing can be caused by a range of reasons, including a student's mental and emotional state during the test time or the test's administration conditions.
  • Due to error, these observed scores won’t necessarily be equal; some scores will be high and others low.
  • If you count the number of times each of the student’s observed scores occurs and graph those counts, you’ll get a bell-shaped curve of observed scores for the student.

Therefore, the True score the student would get if the measurements were completely accurate and error-free. 

Additional Information

  • When a student just takes the algebra test once, the result is referred to as an observed score.
  • When the stakes for test performance climb, measurement inaccuracy becomes a more serious issue.
  • Many test makers and testing specialists advise against utilising a single test result to make crucial educational decisions due to measurement inaccuracy.
47

Given below are two statements

Statement I: In all interactions, a message is sent and a message is received. Sometimes teachers believe they are sending one message, but her voices, body language, choice of words, and gestures may communicate a different message.

Statement II: To deal with cyber bullying, parents should be encouraged to keep computers in a public room in the house.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Nonverbal communication types include facial expressions, gestures, paralinguistics such as loudness or tone of voice, body language, proxemics or personal space, eye gaze, haptics (touch), appearance, and artifacts.

Important PointsStatement I: In all interactions, a message is sent and a message is received. Sometimes teachers believe they are sending one message, but her voices, body language, choice of words, and gestures may communicate a different message.

  • When we think of communication, we usually think of how we exchange data through words.
  • While verbal communication is vital, nonverbal communication has been used by humans for thousands of years before we gained the ability to communicate with words.
  • Nonverbal communication is a method of conveying information without using words.
  • Rather than seeing nonverbal communication as the polar opposite of or distinct from verbal communication, it's more accurate to think of both as part of the same system.
  • Even though they are part of the same system, they have significant differences, such as how the brain processes them.

Hence, this statement is correct.

Statement II: To deal with cyberbullying, parents should be encouraged to keep computers in a public room in the house.

  • When someone utilises technology to harass, threaten, embarrass, or target another person, it is known as cyberbullying.
  • It occurs on a variety of devices, including smartphones, desktops, tablets, and game consoles.
  • Many bullied adolescents can't resist the desire to check websites or phones to see if there are new messages, even when it's upsetting.
  • Limiting the use of cellphones and video games by keeping the computer in a public area of the house.
  • One may be able to disable text messaging services during specific hours, and most websites, apps, and cellphones contain parental control features that allow parents to monitor their children's communications and online activities.
  • Many bullied adolescents can't resist the desire to check websites or phones to see if there are new messages, even when it's upsetting.
  • Limit the use of cellphones and video games by keeping the computer in a public area of the house.
  • Parents may be able to disable text messaging services during specific hours, and most websites, apps, and cellphones contain parental control features that allow parents to monitor their children's communications and online activities.

Hence, this statement is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

48

Which of the following reliability techniques are used in qualitative research?

A. Diachronic reliability

B. Quixotic reliability

C. Synchronic reliability

D. Holsti's constant

E. Chronbach's alpha

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A, B and C only

  2. ((b))

    A, C and E only

  3. ((c))

    B, C and D only

  4. ((d))

    C, D and E only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A, B and C only

The reliability of a statistical analysis conveys that a methodology being used for interpreting data is consistent and would give uniform results every time it is used.

Key Points Quixotic Reliability:

  • Quixotic reliability can be viewed as an attempt to measure how far a particular method can continuously lead to the same measurements and final results.
  • However, many researchers and authors have rejected this approach of defining reliability as misleading and trivial.

Diachronic Reliability:

  • Diachronic reliability is understood as the stability of measurements or observations in their temporal course.
  • The issue here is the precondition that the phenomenon under study in itself may not undergo any changes so that the criterion remains effective.

Synchronic Reliability:

  • Synchronic reliability is the consistency of results collected at the same moment in time but by using different instruments.
  • This criterion is most instructive when it is not fulfilled as viewed by various researchers.
  • The issue then follows as to why this is the case and also brings out questions concerning the various perspectives on the issue resulting from different methods applied by numerous researchers.

Additional Information Difference between validity and reliability.

ValidityReliability
The extent to which a test measures and what it claims to measure.Consistency of the test results.
Measures whether the extent to which the test claims to measure is achieved.Measures whether the test result gives consistent results as an outcome.

Therefore, the correct answer is A, B, and C only.

49

Ravi's salary is increased by 20%. On the increased salary, the tax rate is 10% higher. The percentage increase in tax liability is

  1. ((a))

    20%

  2. ((b))

    22%

  3. ((c))

    23%

  4. ((d))

    24%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

22%

Given:

Salary increased = 20%

Tax rate increase = 10% on increased salary

Calculation:     

Let assume that salary is 100

And tax is 100

Now, 

Increased salary = 100 + 20% = 120

New tax liability = Tax on previous salary + Tax on increased salary

Tax liability = 100 + 20 (100 + 10)%

⇒ Tax liability = 100 + 20 × 110%

⇒ Tax liability = 100 + 22 = RS. 122

Increase in tax liability = 122 - 100 = Rs. 22

% increase in tax liability = Increment in taxPrevious tax×100\frac{Increment\space in\space tax}{Previous\space tax} \times 100

⇒ % increase in tax liability = 22100×100\frac{22}{100} \times 100

⇒ % increase in tax liability = 22%

∴ The percentage increase in tax liability is 22%

The correct option is 2 i.e. 22%

50

A man weighs 75% of his own weight plus 39 lbs. How much does he weigh?

  1. ((a))

    156 lbs

  2. ((b))

    160 lbs

  3. ((c))

    165 lbs

  4. ((d))

    166 lbs

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

156 lbs

Given:

Formula Used:

Calculation:  

Let's assume his weight is x lbs

According to the question:

⇒ x = 75% of x + 39    

⇒ x - 75x100\frac{75x}{100} = 39

x4=39⇒ \frac{x}{4} = 39

By crossmultiplication

⇒ x = 39 × 4 

⇒ x = 156 lbs

∴ He weighs 156 lbs.

The correct option is 1 i.e. 156 lbs.

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