UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 22th July 2022 Shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

Given:

To find the percent of candidates who remain unqualified from state P in 2021

Calculation:

From the table, we know that in 2020, 1920 candidates appeared and 70% of them qualified, so 70% of 1920 = 1344 qualified in 2020.

So, the total number of candidates who qualified in 2020 and 2021 together is 2712. Therefore, the number of candidates who qualified in 2021 is

2712 - 1344 = 1368.

Also, from the table, we know that the total number of candidates who appeared in 2021 from state P is 1520.

Therefore, the number of candidates who remain unqualified from state P in 2021 is 1520 - 1368 = 152.

So, the percent of candidates who remain unqualified from state P in 2021 is (152/1520) * 100 = 10%.

Let's assume the number of qualified male candidates in the exam be 7x

The number of qualified female candidates be 5x. Then, we have:

⇒ 7x - 5x = 204

⇒ 2 x = 204

⇒ x = 102

So, the number of qualified male candidates in the exam is 7 ×102 = 714

The number of qualified female candidates is 5 × 102 = 510.

Hence, the total number of qualified candidates from State P in 2019 is

⇒714 + 510 = 1224.

Since the percentage of qualified candidates from State P in 2019 is 60%, the number of candidates who appeared in the exam is given by:

1224 / (60/100) = 1224 / 0.6 = 2040

So, the number of candidates who appeared in the exam from State P in 2019 is 2040.

Calculation:

A is \(33\frac{1}{3}%\) more than C

So, A : C = 4 : 3

3 unit = 1320

So, A = 4 unit = (1320/3) × 4 

⇒ A = 1760

B = 40% of A = 40% of 1760

⇒ B = 704

We know, B : D = 11 : 12

11 unit = 704

So, D = (704/11) × 12

⇒ D = 768

The value of B + D = 704 + 768 = 1472.

∴ The correct answer is Option (2).

To find the ratio of candidates qualifying from State P in 2017, 2018 and 2020 to the candidates qualifying from State Q in 2017, 2019 and 2020.

From State P in 2017, the number of candidates who qualified can be calculated as:

1800 x 60% = 1080

From State P in 2018, the number of candidates who qualified can be calculated as:

2400 x 43% = 1032

From State P in 2020, the number of candidates who qualified can be calculated as:

1920 x 70% = 1344

The total number of candidates who qualified from State P in 2017, 2018 and 2020 is:

1080 + 1032 + 1344 = 3456

From State Q in 2017, the number of candidates who qualified can be calculated as:

1520 x 30% = 456

From State Q in 2019, the number of candidates who qualified can be calculated as:

1040 x 60% = 624

From State Q in 2020, the number of candidates who qualified can be calculated as:

800 x 70% = 560

The total number of candidates who qualified from State Q in 2017, 2019 and 2020 is:

456 + 624 + 560 = 1640

So the ratio of candidates qualifying from State P in 2017, 2018 and 2020 to the candidates qualifying from State Q in 2017, 2019 and 2020 is:

3456 : 1640 = 432 ∶ 205

Given:

To find the percent difference between the number of candidates who have qualified from State P in 2017 and the number of candidates who have qualified from State Q in 2020

Formula Used:

Percent difference = 100 * |(A - B) / B|

Where A is the number of candidates who qualified from State P in 2017,

B is the number of candidates who qualified from State Q in 2020.

Calculation:

From State P in 2017, the number of candidates who qualified can be calculated as:

1800 x 60% = 1080

From State Q in 2020, the number of candidates who qualified can be calculated as:

800 x 70% = 560

According to formula:

Percent difference = 100 × |(1080 - 560) / 560|

Percent difference = 100 × |(520) / 560|

Percent difference = 100 × 0.928

Percent difference = \(92\frac{6}{7}%\)

So, the number of candidates who have qualified from State P in 2017 is \(92\frac{6}{7}%\) more than the number of candidates who have qualified from State Q in 2020.

The correct answer is  A, D, and E only.

Important Points 

A Prior experience of the learner

• In respect of the subject, is an important factor to consider while designing effective teaching-learning systems.
• A learner's prior knowledge and experience of the subject can significantly influence how they approach and engage with new material.
• Teachers need to understand the existing knowledge of the learner and build on it to ensure that new material is presented in a meaningful and effective way.

D Interest of the learner in digital learning resources,

• Many learners today are more comfortable and familiar with digital learning tools and are likely to be more engaged with materials presented in digital formats.
• Incorporating digital resources into teaching-learning systems can help to make the learning experience more interactive and participatory.

E the Motivational orientation of the learner,

• An important factor to consider. The motivational orientation of a learner can significantly impact their engagement and performance in the learning process.
• Teachers need to understand the motivational orientation of the learner and design learning experiences that are meaningful and relevant to the learner's interests and goals.

C The Learner's economic background, is not included

• The list of characteristics that may be considered helpful in designing effective teaching-learning systems.
• While a learner's economic background can significantly impact their access to resources, such as textbooks, digital tools, and internet connectivity, it may not be directly related to the design of teaching-learning systems.

B Interpersonal relationships of the learner with the teacher, are not included

• The list of characteristics that may be considered helpful in designing effective teaching-learning systems.
• While positive relationships between teachers and learners can facilitate learning, it is not a characteristic that is specific to the learner and may not be directly related to the design of teaching-learning systems.

Key Points 

Learning:

• Learning is the process of acquiring knowledge, skills, values, beliefs, and habits through study, experience, or being taught.
• It is a lifelong process in various settings, including formal education, on-the-job training, and everyday life experiences
• Learning can be intentional or unintentional, conscious or unconscious, resulting in a permanent change in behavior or understanding.
• Learning can involve acquiring new information, developing new skills, or refining existing knowledge and abilities.

The following are some of the key characteristics of learning:

Active process: Learning is an active process in which individuals engage with and respond to new information.

Continuous: Learning is a continuous process that can occur anytime and in any setting.

Long-lasting: Learning that results in a change in behavior or understanding is typically permanent.

Influenced by prior knowledge: Learning is influenced by an individual's prior knowledge, experiences, and expectations.

Affected by motivation: Learning is often influenced by motivation, with more engagement and better learning outcomes resulting from high motivation levels.

Social in nature: Learning often occurs in a social context, and interaction with others can play an important role in the learning process.

Transferable: Learning can be transferable, with skills or knowledge gained in one situation applied in other contexts.

Unique: Each individual's learning experience is unique and is influenced by factors such as cognitive style, personality, and cultural background.

Goal-oriented: Learning is often goal-oriented, with individuals setting out to achieve specific learning outcomes.

Multi-sensory: Learning often involves multiple senses, with visual, auditory, and kinesthetic input.

The correct answer is Analytical.

Important Points

Mental retardation refers to an intellectual disability characterized by a low Intelligence Quotient (IQ) and impairments in adaptive daily life skills. The impact of this disorder may vary in different individuals, ranging from mild to profound.

• They do not understand anything quickly so they will give delayed responses.
• They achieve the milestones very late than all other normal children.
• The deficit in social intelligence is where they have very less amount of social knowledge.
• Disability to remember as they understand everything very late.
• The limited span of concentration.

Classification of Mental Retardation:

Based On IQ: There are mainly three methods of classification of mental retardation. They are medical, psychological, and educational. Psychological and educational classifications are more commonly and widely used than medical classifications. 

• Educational Classification: This system uses the term educable, trainable, and custodial depending on the educational needs of retarded children.
• The IQ ranges of the educable mentally retarded (EMR), trainable mentally retarded (TMR), and the custodial mentally retarded (CMR) are given below:
• | Levels of MR | IQ Range of MR | Educators | | --- | --- | --- | | Mild Retardation | 50-70 | Educable Mentally Retarded | | Moderate Retardation | 35-50 | Trainable Mentally Retarded | | Severe Retardation | 20-35 | Custodial Mentally Retarded | | Profound Retardation | Below 20 | Custodial Mentally Retarded) |

Thus, Analytical is not a commonly used category for people with mental retardation and is not a recognized classification under current educational or clinical standards.

Key Points

The correct answer is A is false but R is true.

Important Points 

Assertion:

The assertion that "In reflective teaching methodology, a teacher shares information to be memorized by students" is false.

• Reflective teaching is a student-centered approach to teaching, in which the teacher facilitates the process of student learning and reflection on that learning.
• Reflective teaching involves engaging students in higher-order thinking skills, such as analysis, synthesis, and evaluation, rather than simply memorizing information.
• thus the assertion is false

Reason :

The reason that "Reflective teaching methodology inculcates higher-order thinking skills" is true.

• Reflective teaching is an effective approach to developing higher-order thinking skills in students because it focuses on engaging students in critical thinking, problem-solving, and reflective practice.
• By engaging in reflective teaching practices, students are encouraged to think deeply about what they are learning and to apply that learning to real-world situations.

Thus , The correct answer is A is false but R is true.

Key Points 

Reflective teaching

• It is a process where teachers think over their teaching practices, analyzing how something was taught and how the practice might be improved or changed for better learning outcomes.
• It means looking at what you do in the classroom, thinking about why you do it, and thinking about if it works - a process of self-observation and self-evaluation.
• The primary purpose of this action is to structure, adjust, generate, refine, restructure, or alter knowledge and actions that inform practice.
• For students
• Students can benefit from engaging in reflective practice as it can foster the critical thinking and decision-making necessary for continuous learning and improvement.
• When students are engaged in reflection, they are thinking about how their work meets established criteria; they analyze the effectiveness of their efforts and plan for improvement.​

Additional Information 

We have different levels of teaching that are

1. Memory level of teaching
2. Understanding level
3. Reflective level.
4. Autonomous development level

• Memory level of teaching
• It is the first and thoughtless level of teaching. It is concerned with memory or mental ability that exists in all living beings.
• It is the lowest level of teaching.
• At this level, thinking ability does not play any role. students only cram the facts, information, formulas, and laws that are taught to them. the teaching is nothing but learning the subject matter by rote.
• The main focus is laid on capturing and systematic presentation of ideas and information.
• Understanding level
• The teaching at the understanding level is of a higher quality than the one at the memory level.
• It is more useful and thoughtful from the point of view of mental capabilities.
• At this level of teaching, the teacher explains to the student the relationship between principles and facts and teach them how these principles can be applied.
• The memory level teaching barrier is essential to be crossed for this level of teaching.
• Reflective level
• The introspective level of teaching is also known as the reflective level.
• This is the most advanced level of the teaching-learning method.
• This is because teaching does not end until the students have grasped the idea.
• This is a more advanced stage in which the learner advances one step further through the concept to comprehend the concept’s multiple dimensions
• Autonomous development level 
• The is student-centered.
• It is little or no leadership, direction, coercion, prescription, or imposition of student thought or behavior by a teacher to promote self-feelings leading to a sense of freedom
• Autonomous learning is also calle

The correct answer is Chalk and-talk method 

Important Points

• The learner-centered approach supports a dynamic relationship between the learners and the instructor.
• The learner assumes control over the material.
• An inductive teaching approach is a student-driven form of instruction.
• It includes inquiry learning, problem-based learning, project-based learning, case-based teaching, discovery learning, and just-in-time teaching.
• It is also referred to as discovery learning.

In a 'student-centered classroom':-

• Children create their own knowledge from their experiences and interactions with the world around them.
• Teachers foster children’s learning and development best by building on the existing knowledge, abilities, interests, needs, styles of learning, and strengths of the children in the class.
• The child is the focus of the entire process of teaching-learning and is not dependent on teachers.
• The child is not a passive but an active participant in the classroom process.
• The environment in the class is warm, joyful, and encouraging and children feel secure and confident and participate freely and without fear.
• The teacher is a friend and a facilitator for the children and allows the center of the action to shift in the classroom from herself/himself to the children.

 Key Points

In a teacher-centered approach, the teacher is in full control of the class. She is either conducting the activities or directing students to perform the activities. Everything in the class depends on the teacher and the students have little say in any matter.

The salient features of a teacher-centered approach -

• The source of knowledge is the teacher.
• The teacher knows all that a learner is required to know.
• The teacher can transmit bits of knowledge and skills to the children.
• The processes of memorizing and recalling from memory are the two key processes of this approach.
• Paulo Freire, the great educational thinker designated this process as “Banking Education”.

Additional Information

Based on the role of the instructor and the learner it can be three types 

• Teacher centered method
• Student method
• Student method

Qualitative data is analyzed in the grounded theory approach.

Important Points

• The grounded theory approach is a qualitative research method in which the researcher analyzes qualitative data, such as interviews, observations, or documents, to develop a theory or conceptual framework that is grounded in the data.
• The process involves systematic coding and categorizing of the data to identify themes, patterns, and relationships, and theoretical sampling may be used to refine and test the emerging theory.
• While quantitative data may also be used in some grounded theory studies, the primary focus is on analyzing qualitative data to generate new insights and understanding.

​Hence, the correct answer is Qualitative data . 

Key Points

Grounded theory 

• Grounded theory (GT) is a research method concerned with the generation of theory.
• Grounded theory is significant because it provides explicit, sequential guidelines for conducting qualitative research.
• Grounded theory discovers or constructs theory from data, systematically obtained and analyzed using comparative analysis.
• A hypothesis in a scientific context is a testable statement about the relationship between two or more variables or a proposed explanation for some observed phenomenon.
• Attributes are the common properties that are assigned to a category. Items that are assigned to the category inherit these attributes.
• The grounded theory involves the collection and analysis of data

The correct answer is Observation 

Key Points 

Ethnography:

• It is qualitative research.
• The process to study and describe a culture (shared attitudes, values, norms, the language of a group of people) in detail.
• Data is collected through observation or the researcher may go and live in the specific community where the research is going to conduct and study the culture and educational practices.
• It provides an insider's picture of a community under study.
• The researcher participates in people’s daily lives for an extended period, watching what happens, listening to what is said, and asking questions to throw light on the issues with which he or she is concerned

Participant observation:

• This involves the researcher immersing themselves in the culture or community they are studying, and observing the behaviors and interactions of the people in that setting.
• This allows the researcher to gain a firsthand understanding of the social dynamics, values, and beliefs of the culture or community.

 Additional Information

• Field notes: The researcher takes detailed notes on their observations, recording everything they see, hear, and experience in the field. These notes are used to analyze and interpret the data collected during the study.
• Interviews: The researcher may also conduct interviews with members of the culture or community to gain a deeper understanding of their experiences and perspectives.
• Data analysis: The researcher analyzes the data collected during the study to identify themes and patterns, and to develop a comprehensive understanding of the culture or community being studied.
• While third-party validation and questionnaire surveys may also be used in ethnographic research,
• observation is the major component that sets it apart from other research methods.
• Through observation, ethnographic researchers can gain a deep understanding of the culture or community they are studying, and develop insights and knowledge that can be used to inform policy, practice, and future

A, B, and C only are part of research ethics.

Important Points

Research ethics:

Research ethics refers to the moral principles and standards that guide the conduct of research. Key components of research ethics include:

A. Protection of individual privacy:

• Researchers have an ethical responsibility to protect the privacy and confidentiality of the individuals participating in their study.
• This includes ensuring that any identifying information is kept confidential and not shared with anyone outside the research team.

B. Informed consent:

• Researchers must obtain informed consent from all participants in their study. Informed consent means that participants are fully informed about the study,
• including its purpose, risks and benefits, and their rights as participants, and they provide their voluntary agreement to participate.

C. Voluntary participation:

• Participants must be free to decide whether or not to participate in a study, and they should not be coerced or forced to participate.

D. Coercive participation:

• Coercive participation, in which participants are pressured or forced to participate, is not ethical.

E. Concealment:

• Concealment, or intentionally withholding information from participants, is generally not ethical, as it can undermine the principles of informed consent and voluntary participation.

Based on these principles, the correct answer is A, B, and C only.

Key Points

Research ethics: 

• It is a guideline for the responsible conduct of a research
• It related to the ethical principles of social responsibility
• There are three types of ethics, metaethics, normative ethics, and applied ethics
• Ethics always help us to identify right or wrong, differentiate good or bad

Some of the research ethics are as follows:

• Honesty: the researcher should be honest about the method, report data, and results, and publish the status.
• Integrity: researcher should care about the agreement or promises done before the research
• Objectivity: This is to avoid bias
• Respect intellectual property: Avoiding Plagiarism or any kind of copyright or duplication. Avoid using unpublished data or methods or other without permission
• Carefulness: avoided errors driven by negligence, keep a record step of every step
• Confidentiality: keep the confidentiality of collected data
• Responsibility: The responsibility of monitoring others, social responsibilities, using reliable and authentic data, etc.
• Protection: protection of human subject, animal, or any other natural property
• Competence: maintain professional and scientific competence
• Legal: maintain legal aspects like government law, policies, institutional policies, etc.

The correct answer is Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Important Points 

Statement I : In survey research, even a large sample cannot guarantee precision.

• Because even with a large sample,
• There can still be sampling error, which is the difference between the sample estimate and the true population value.
• The larger the sample size, the smaller the sampling error, but it can never be completely eliminated.

Hence, Statement I is True.

Statement II : As large samples also do not guarantee precision, the researcher need not worry about sampling error.

• Because even though large samples reduce the sampling error, the researcher should still be concerned about it.
• The goal of sampling in survey research is to minimize sampling error and obtain the most accurate estimate of the population value.
• Therefore, the researcher should be careful to use appropriate sampling methods and techniques to minimize the sampling error, regardless of the sample size.

Thus, Statement II is false.

Key Points  Survey research

• is a method of collecting quantitative data from a sample of individuals through structured questionnaires or interviews.
• It aims to obtain data on the attitudes, opinions, beliefs, behaviors, or characteristics of a population.
• Sampling is crucial in survey research, and surveys can be conducted through different modes, such as face-to-face, phone, online, or mail.
• Questions should be well-constructed, pre-tested, and analyzed using descriptive or inferential statistics.
• Ethical considerations include protecting the confidentiality and privacy of participants, obtaining informed consent, and ensuring voluntary participation

Sampling Error

• A sampling error is a statistical error that occurs when an analyst does not select a sample that represents the entire population of data and the results found in the sample do not represent the results that would be obtained from the entire population.
• Two major types of errors in research are sampling error and non-sampling error. Sampling error occurs when the sample used in the study is not representative of the whole population. Non-sampling error encompasses all types of errors, mostly caused by human error, such as questionnaire wording, data entry errors, and biased decisions.

The correct answer is  A, D, B, C, E 

Important Points 

The correct sequence for writing a qualitative research report is:

The introduction:

• The introduction should provide an overview of the research problem, the purpose and objectives of the study, and the significance of the research question.
• It should also introduce the key concepts, theories, and prior research that inform the study.

 The research method:

• The research method should describe the approach, design, sampling, data collection, and analysis procedures used in the study.
• It should provide sufficient detail to enable the reader to evaluate the quality of the research and to understand how the findings were generated.

 Data collection:

• The data collection section should describe the methods and procedures used to collect the data.
• It should include a description of the sample, the data collection instruments, and the procedures used to collect and manage the data.

 Findings:

• The findings section should present the results of the analysis of the data.
• It should provide a clear and concise summary of the key findings and should include tables, figures, and quotations as appropriate to support the interpretation of the results.

 Discussion:

• ​ The discussion section should interpret the findings in the context of the research questions, the literature, and the research objectives.
• It should provide a critical analysis of the findings, including their strengths and limitations, and should suggest directions for future research.

Therefore, the correct answer is  A, D, B, C, E

Key Points 

Qualitative research is research using methods such as participant observation or case studies that result in a narrative, descriptive account of a setting or practice.

The main features of qualitative research are: 

• It is a naturalist approach that seeks an understanding of social phenomena.
• It deals with human behavior from an informant's perspective.
• This type of research analyzes non-numeric data.
• It focuses on the ‘why and what’ of social phenomena.
• Inductive in approach.
• It has a Post Positivist approach.
• It is concerned with understanding the phenomena from the participant's perspective.
• The researcher becomes immersed in the situation, present or past.
• There is greater flexibility in both the methods and the research process.
• The biases of the researcher are quite evident in this type of research.

The correct answer is Value-inclusive 

Important Points

In communication, messages can have both a denotational and a connotational aspect.

• The denotational aspect of a message refers to the objective or factual content of the message,
• While the connotational aspect refers to the emotional or subjective meanings that are associated with the message.

The denotational aspect of a message

• More concrete and factual compared to the connotational aspect.
• It is part of the message that refers to objective reality and can be verified through evidence or logic.
• For example, in a weather report, the denotational aspect would refer to the actual temperature and weather conditions, while the connotational aspect might refer to how people feel about the weather, such as whether they find it pleasant or unpleasant.

The denotational aspect of a message can also be value-inclusive,

• It can include statements or information about values, beliefs, and attitudes that are objectively verifiable.
• For example, a news report about an event might include denotational statements about who was involved, what happened, and where and when it took place.
• These statements may also convey values and attitudes, such as whether the event was positive or negative,
• They are still considered **denotational because they refer to objectively verifiable information.**​

Key Points

Overall, understanding the denotational aspect of a message is important for clear and effective communication, as it ensures that the message is based on objective and factual information.

The correct answer is  The non-restrictive process.

Important Points 

Libertarian theory or the Free Press Theory

• The Normative Theories of mass communication where the media or press is given absolute freedom to publish anything at any time and acts as a watchdog.
• The theory came from the libertarian thoughts of Europe during the 16^th century after the invention of the printing press and after the press movement.
• It was advocated by many renowned personalities like Lao Tzu, John Locke, John Milton, John Stuart Mill, Thomas Jefferson, etc., and is still famous in England and America.
• The libertarian theory is just the opposite of the Authoritarian theory of mass media where information is controlled by the state or the authorities.
• In libertarian theory, media is supposed to be privately owned.

The theory believes in freedom of thought and individualism.

The non-restrictive process of media communication

• There is no control of authority and everybody has the right to voice their opinion.
• There is also no censorship and the government must not hold any power to control and suppress media.

Additional Information 

Major Features of Libertarian Theory of Mass Communication

• The media accepts a Laissez-faire approach in which there are not many set rules that they have to follow.
• They can work as they want
• There is absolute freedom to media,
• media plays the role of a watchdog.
• In libertarian theory, there is freedom of thought and expression.
• There is also freedom of information and individualism.
• No censorship of any kind is to be done.
• There is high competition among alternative ideas and thoughts.
• The government does not own the media and media is a different body in the functioning of the state.
• The media is accountable to the law of the country.
• Media must follow a code of conduct.
• Media encourages pluralist truths like both sides of the same story.

The correct answer is  C, D, and E only

Important Points

C. Goal formation:

• Communication is the basis of goal formation, as it allows individuals and groups to establish and work towards common objectives.
• By sharing information, ideas, and perspectives, communication helps individuals and groups to align their interests and coordinate their efforts toward achieving shared goals.
• This can happen in a variety of contexts, from the workplace to the family, to social movements and political campaigns.

D. Feedback: 

• Feedback is an important aspect of communication, as it provides individuals and groups with information about how their messages are being received and understood by others.
• Feedback can take many forms, such as verbal or nonverbal cues, performance evaluations, surveys, or social media analytics.
• By providing feedback, communication helps individuals and groups adjust and improve their communication strategies, and ensures that messages are being effectively transmitted and received.

E. Socialisation:

• Socialization refers to the process of learning and internalizing the values, norms, and customs of a culture through communication with others.
• Communication plays a key role in socialization, as it allows individuals to learn about their social and cultural environment, and to interact with others in ways that are appropriate and meaningful within that environment.
• Socialization can occur through various channels, such as family, peers, media, and education, and can shape an individual's identity, beliefs, and behaviors throughout their life

Additional Information

• Wilbur Schramm was an American communication theorist and researcher who is considered one of the founders of the field of communication studies.
• He is best known for his work on mass communication, which emphasized the role of communication in shaping public opinion and understanding of the world.
• He is also known for developing a model of communication that includes the sender, message, channel, receiver, and feedback. Schramm's contributions to the field of communication studies have had a significant impact on the way communication is studied and understood today.

1. Language: Schramm believed that language is the primary tool that people use to communicate with each other. Language is the medium through which messages are conveyed, and it is shaped by the culture and society in which it is used.
2. Culture: Schramm believed that culture plays a crucial role in shaping the way people communicate. Culture determines the norms and values that govern communication, as well as the ways in which people interpret and respond to messages.
3. Attitude: Schramm believed that attitudes are an important factor in communication. Attitudes are learned predispositions to respond to certain stimuli in a certain way. They can influence how people perceive and interpret messages, as well as how they respond to them.
4. Belief: Schramm believed that beliefs are an important factor in communication. Beliefs are convictions or convictions about the nature of things and influence how people perceive and interpret messages.
5. Value: Schramm believed that values are an important factor in communication. Values are principles or standards of behavior that influence how people perceive and interpret messages, as well as how they respond to them

The correct answer is Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Key Points

Both statements deal with the concept of truth in communication, but each statement presents a different perspective

Statement I suggests that communication, particularly at the national and international levels, recognizes the importance of truth and distinguishes between truth and falsehood.

• This statement implies that truth is a fundamental aspect of effective communication and that the dissemination of accurate information is necessary for informed decision-making and action.
• However, this statement is not entirely accurate.
• While the truth is indeed important in communication, there are instances where communication can be used to deceive or manipulate others.
• For example, political leaders may use propaganda to create a false image of their opponents or to promote their own agenda. In such cases, communication is not being used to promote truth but rather to further the interests of one party.

So, Statement I is false 

Statement II, on the other hand, suggests that propaganda, as a form of communication, does not distinguish between truth and falsehood.

• This statement implies that propaganda often relies on misinformation, distortion, and selective presentation of facts to sway public opinion.
• The primary goal of propaganda is to manipulate the emotions and beliefs of the audience, rather than to present a truthful and accurate representation of events or ideas.
• This statement is generally accurate, as propaganda often involves the use of deception and falsehoods to achieve its objectives.
• However, it is important to note that not all communication is propaganda. While propaganda is a type of communication, not all communication is intended to deceive or manipulate others.

Thus, Statement II is true 

Therefore Statement I is false but Statement II is true

The correct answer is A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I

Key Points

• A is IV, which refers to Referents and Objects of orientation
• B is II, which refers to Constructs and Experience in relation to objects
• C is III, which refers to Symbol and Gesture representing an agreed-upon phenomenon
• D is I, which refers to Language and It structures human experiences

Given: 2, 5, 28, 17, ?, 37, 344... 

The logic follows here is:

→ (1)3 + 1 ⇒ 1 + 1 = 2

→ (2)2 + 1 ⇒ 4 + 1 = 5

→ (3)3 + 1 ⇒ 27 + 1 = 28

→ (4)2 + 1 ⇒ 16 + 1 = 17

→ (5)3 + 1 ⇒ 125 + 1 = 126

→ (6)² + 1 ⇒ 36 + 1 = 37

→ (7)3 + 1 ⇒ 343 + 1 = 344

Hence, the correct answer is "126".

Given:

The population of a town increases 5% annually.'

If its present population is 84,000, what will be its population in 2 years time

Calculation:

If the population of the town increases by 5% annually,

the population after one year will be

⇒ 84,000 + (84,000 ×  5%) = 84,000 + 4200 = 88,200

And after two years, the population will be

⇒  88,200 + (88,200 × 5%) = 88,200 + 4410 = 92,610

So, in two years time, the population of the town will be 92,610.

The correct answer is B and D only.

Important Points

• The statement "No men are honest" means that there is not a single man who is honest.
• If this statement is given as false, then it must be the case that at least one man is honest.
• Therefore, we can immediately infer that the statement "Some men are honest" is true.
• Option A is incorrect because it claims that "All men are honest" is true, which we cannot infer from the given statement.
• Option C is incorrect because it claims that "Some men are not honest" is true, which directly contradicts the given statement.
• Option B is correct because it claims that "All men are honest" is undetermined, which is true because we do not have enough information to make that determination.
• Option D is correct because it correctly infers that "Some men are honest" is true based on the fact that "No men are honest" is false.

Key Points

Here's a step-by-step explanation of how to arrive at the correct answer for this question, including the reasoning behind each step:

• Read the statement: "No men are honest".
• Recognize that the statement is a universal negative, which means it is of the form
• "All A are not B".
• In this case, the "A" is "men" and
• the "B" is "honest".
• Identify the contrapositive of the statement, which is "All honest people are not men". This is an equivalent statement that has the same truth value as the original statement.
• Recognize that the original statement is false. This means that its contrapositive is also false. This means that there must be at least one honest man.
• Apply the logical deduction that if there is at least one honest man, then the statement "Some men are honest" must be true.
• Examine the answer choices and identify the one that correctly infers that "Some men are honest" is true. This is option D: "B and D only".
• In summary, the key to answering this question correctly is to recognize that the original statement is a universal negative and that its contrapositive is an equivalent statement.
• **From there, we can use logical deduction to determine that the statement "**Some men are honest" must be true. This allows us to select the correct answer, which is option D

The correct answer for the given question is  Verbal Testimony (Sabda) 

Important PointsThe pramāṇa (means of knowledge) that is defined as the knowledge of the relation between a word and its denotation is called "Śabda pramāṇa" or "Verbal testimony."

• Śabda pramāṇa refers to the knowledge acquired through words or verbal communication.
• It involves understanding the meaning of words, their usage, and the context in which they are employed.
• This pramāṇa recognizes the authority of language as a valid source of knowledge and relies on trustworthy testimony, such as the words of a reliable teacher or scripture, to gain understanding.
• In Indian philosophical systems, such as Nyāya and Vedānta, the concept of Śabda pramāṇa is highly regarded, emphasizing the significance of linguistic communication and the role of language in acquiring knowledge.

Key Points

• Upama̅na is defined as a means of knowledge that helps in understanding the meaning of a word by comparing it with another object.
• It is a process of comparison, where a familiar object (called Upameya) is compared to an unfamiliar object (called Upama̅na) to understand its attributes or qualities.
• The comparison helps in recognizing the similarity between the two objects and helps in understanding the meaning of the word.
• For example, if someone says 'he runs like a cheetah', the listener understands that the person is a fast runner by comparing him with the fastest land animal, the cheetah.
• The comparison helps in understanding the quality of speed that is being referred to in the sentence.

 

Additional Information

Th ere are Six types of Pramana: Pratyaksha, Anumana, Upamana, Arthapati, Anupalabdhi, Sabda.

​

1. Pratyaksha (Perception)

• It is basically what is before one’s eyes, ‘aksa’ means sense organ, and ‘prati’ means the function of each sense organ.
• Perception is a valid form of knowledge produced by the contact of an object with a sense organ.
• It is the first of the five means of knowledge or pramanas, that enable a person to have correct cognitions of the world.
• Pratyaksha is of two kinds,

1. Anubhava: Direct perception
2. Smriti: Remembered perception

• The knowledge arises by contact of sense organs (indriya) with an object. Such contact is not the sole condition of perception, but it is its distinctive feature or extraordinary cause (karana) of perception. The actual process is given below:
• The self comes into contact with the mind (manas)
• The manas with the senses
• The senses with the object

2. Anumana (Inference)

• The term anumana literally means after knowledge i.e., the knowledge that follows other knowledge.
• Inference (anumana) is based on perception but is able to arrive at conclusions that may not be directly open to perception. Anumana  (“measuring along with some other thing,” or “inference”), is the knowledge gained by means of inference.
• Anumana is a rational process in which on the basis of knowledge of an object a certain knowledge of other objects is received. Here the object known before is named Hetu. The later known object is known as Sadhya.
• For example –
• All the places of smoke are the place of fire.
• The mountain has smoke.
• Therefore, the mountain has fire.
• In the above example – Sadhya is fire and Hetu is smoke. 3. Arthapatti—( “the incidence of a case”), the knowledge gained by circumstantial implication, superimposing the known knowledge on an appearing knowledge that does not concur with the known knowledge circumstantial implication. Therefore, (arthapatti), appeals to common sense.

The correct answer is  C only.

Important Points 

The aim of the 'Digital India' plan of the Government of India is to transform India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy. The main objectives of this initiative are:

• To provide digital infrastructure as a utility to every citizen.
• To enable digital empowerment of citizens.
• To provide digital services and governance on demand.
• To promote digital literacy and digital skills for all.

Options A and B are not part of the Digital India plan. Instead, the plan focuses on expanding digital access and infrastructure in India, with an emphasis on connecting villages and providing Wi-Fi in schools, public places, and tourist centers.

Key PointsDigital India Programme:

It was launched in 2015. The program has been enabled for several important Government schemes, such as

• It is an umbrella program to prepare India for a knowledge-based transformation.
• It weaves together a large number of ideas and thoughts into a single comprehensive vision so that each of them is seen as part of a larger goal.
• It has been launched by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (Meity).

BharatNet, Make in India, Startup India Standup India, industrial corridors, etc.

Vision Areas:

• Digital infrastructure as Utility to Every Citizen.
• Governance and services on demand.
• Digital empowerment of citizens.​

The correct answer is Gujarat.

Important Points

According to the Wind Atlas of India,

• Gujarat has an estimated potential of 14,000 MW of wind power capacity, which is the highest in India.
• This means that Gujarat has the maximum installable potential of wind energy among all the states in India.
• The other options given in the question are Rajasthan, Maharashtra, and Tamil Nadu, which are also among the top states in terms of wind energy potential in India.
• However, as per the Wind Atlas of India, the potential of wind power capacity for these states is as follows:

1. Rajasthan: 5,000 MW
2. Maharashtra: 4,500 MW
3. Tamil Nadu: 4,000 MW

Therefore, the correct answer is Gujarat.

Key Points

• The wind is an intermittent and site-specific resource of energy and therefore, an extensive Wind Resource Assessment is essential for the selection of potential sites.
• The Government, through the National Institute of Wind Energy (NIWE), has installed over 800 wind-monitoring stations all over the country and issued wind potential maps at 50m, 80m, 100m, and 120m above ground level.
• The highest wind power potential in India as per MVRE's latest report is in Gujarat.
• In Gujarat, the Wind potential at 100 m (GW) is 84.43.

The correct answer is Both Statement I and Statement II are false 

 Important Points

Statement I: Thermal pollution has no adverse impact on aquatic life.

Thermal pollution, which is caused by human activities such as the discharge of heated water from power plants, can have various adverse impacts on aquatic life. When the water temperature increases beyond a certain level,

• The heating of water decreases the level of dissolved oxygen.
• Thermal pollution is defined as a sudden increase or decrease in the temperature of a natural body of water.
• Hot water can harm aquatic animals such as fish, amphibians, and other aquatic organisms.
• The major sources of thermal pollution are heated wastewater produced from nuclear power and electric power plants, coal-fired thermal power plants, natural gas plants, textiles, paper, and pulp industries, etc

Therefore, Statement I that thermal pollution has no adverse impact on aquatic life is false.

Statement II: Aquatic organisms easily adapt to rapid temperature changes.

• Thermal pollution is a significant environmental issue that can have a negative impact on aquatic ecosystems, affecting not only individual organisms but also entire communities of aquatic life.
• While some aquatic organisms may have the ability to adapt to changes in temperature, not all species have this capability.
• Rapid temperature changes, such as those caused by thermal pollution, can have adverse effects on many species of aquatic life, even those that are relatively resilient to environmental stressors.
• Such effects can include reduced growth rates, altered behavior, and changes in migration patterns, among others.

Therefore, Statement II that aquatic organisms easily adapt to rapid temperature changes is also false

The correct answer is  A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I.

Important Points

• Etymology - the study of the origin and history of words, their meanings, and how they have changed over time. Nirukta is a treatise on etymology and is attributed to the sage Yaska.
• Interpretation - the study of the interpretation of scriptures. Mima̅msa̅ is one of the six orthodox schools of Hindu philosophy and focuses on the interpretation of Vedic texts
• Logic - the study of reasoning and argumentation. Anviksiki is the ancient Indian philosophical tradition of logical reasoning
• Phonetics - the study of speech sounds. Shiksha is a branch of Vedic studies that deals with phonetics, among other things.

Key Points

The logic follows here is:

• GOODNESS’ is coded as ‘HNPCODTR’:

Similarly,

• ‘GREATNESS’ be coded as:

Hence, the correct answer is "HQFZUMFRT ".

The correct option is Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Important Points 

 

Statement I: Contrary statements are so related that if one of them is true, the other must be false.

• It is always between universal statements.
• Both can't be true simultaneously but both can be false.
• if one statement is true, the other is definitely false.
• If one statement is false, the other is always doubtful.

Two propositions are said to be contraries if they can’t both be true, and the truth of one entails the truth of the other. i.e. both can’t be true and both can’t be false. If either of these propositions is true, then the other must be false.

• Example:
• All artists are dreamers.
• No artist is a dreamer
• The relationship between contrary statements is such that if one of the statements is true, then the other must be false.

Therefore, Statement I is true. If one of the contrary statements is true, then the other must be false.

Statement II: Contrary statements cannot both be false.

Contrary statements can both be false.

• For example, the statements
• "All birds can fly" and "No birds can fly" are contrary statements that are both false.

In summary, contrary statements are related in such a way that if one is true, the other must be false (Statement I is true). However, contrary statements can both be false (Statement II is false)

Key Points 

 

classical square of opposition:

• The square of opposition is a chart that was introduced within classical (categorical) logic to represent the logical relationships held between certain propositions in virtue of their form

• The four corners of this chart represent the four basic forms of propositions recognized in classical logic.

• ‘Every S is P’ and ‘Some S is not P’ are contradictories.

• ‘No S is P’ and ‘Some S is P’ are contradictories.

• ‘Every S is P’ and ‘No S is P’ are contraries.

• ‘Some S is P’ and ‘Some S is not P’ are subcontraries.

• ‘Some S is P’ is a subaltern of ‘Every S is P’.

• ‘Some S is not P’ is a subaltern of ‘No S is P’.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Important Points 

The correct answer to the question is option 4: "Statement I is false but Statement II is true."

This means that the first statement, "No immediate inference can ever be drawn from only one premise," is false,

while the second statement, "In Aristotelian syllogism, the conclusion is drawn from the first premise through the mediation of the second," is true.

The first statement is false

• Because immediate inferences can be drawn from a single premise,
• Such as the immediate inference of "Some A are B"
• from the premise "All A are B".
• However, immediate inferences are limited in scope and do not allow for a more complex logical argument.

The second statement is true

• Because Aristotelian syllogism is based on the idea that the conclusion is drawn from two premises,
• With the first premise being a universal statement and the second premise being a particular statement.
• The conclusion then follows logically from the relationship between the premises.

Therefore,  the correct answer  is  Statement I is false but Statement II is true

 Additional Information

An Aristotelian syllogism is a form of deductive reasoning developed by the ancient Greek philosopher Aristotle. Here are some key points:

• A syllogism is an argument consisting of three propositions: two premises and a conclusion.
• The premises are arranged in a specific order: the major premise, the minor premise, and the conclusion.
• The syllogism must follow a specific structure, with each proposition being either affirmative or negative.
• There are four types of categorical propositions in Aristotelian syllogisms: A (all S are P), E (no S are P), I (some S are P), and O (some S are not P).
• A valid syllogism follows the rules of the syllogistic form, and if the premises are true, the conclusion must also be true.
• The validity of a syllogism can be tested through the use of Venn diagrams or other methods of logical analysis.

Overall, the Aristotelian syllogism is a foundational method of logical reasoning that has had a lasting impact on philosophy, mathematics, and other fields of study.

The correct answer is A group of binary digits, usually eight, that a computer usually deals with.

Key Points

• The memory unit is the amount of data that can be stored in the storage unit.
• This storage capacity is expressed in terms of Bytes.
• Bit (Binary Digit): A bit is the smallest  unit of data. A binary digit is logical 0 and 1  representing a passive or an active state of a component in an electric circuit.
• Nibble: A group of 4 bits is called a nibble.
• Byte: A group of 8 bits, and it is the basic unit of digital information storage and processing in most computer systems.
• Word: A computer word, like a byte, is a group of a fixed number of bits processed as a unit, which varies from computer to computer but is fixed for each computer.

A byte is a group of binary digits (bits) usually consisting of 8 bits.

• It is the basic unit of digital information storage and processing in most computer systems.
• A byte can represent a single character or a small amount of binary data such as an instruction or a piece of code.
• Bytes are often used to measure larger units of data such as kilobytes, megabytes, and gigabytes.
• The size of a byte can vary depending on the architecture of the processor, but it is usually 8 bits

 

Important Points

• Data is stored in a computer in the form of a binary.
• A binary number is a number expressed by only two symbols: typically "0" (zero) and "1" (one).
• Each digit is referred to as a bit or binary digit.
• The bit is the smallest unit of memory.
• A bit is the short form of a Binary digit.
• Half-byte is known as a nibble.
• The memory of a computer is usually measured in bytes.
• Tera represents the fourth power of 1000.
• A Terabyte is more precisely defined as 1,024 gigabytes.
• 1 TB equals 1,024 gigabytes (GB).
• The storage capacity of a hard disc is measured in Megabytes, Gigabytes, and Terabytes.

the correct answer is  D, A, C

Key Points

The correct order of the words to complete the paragraph is:

• "Mobile phones have an in-built microphone to record sound. Sound is input in analog format and is then converted into a digital format so it can be stored in the phone's memory."
• Here, the microphone is used to record sound, which is in analog format. The sound is then converted into a digital format so that it can be stored in the phone's memory.

Therefore, the correct order of the words is D (microphone), A (analog), and C (digital). Option 3) is the correct answer.

Additional Information

Microphone:

• A microphone is an acoustic-to-electric transducer that converts sound waves into electrical signals.
• It consists of a diaphragm that vibrates in response to sound waves, generating an electrical signal.
• There are various types of microphones, including dynamic, condenser, and ribbon microphones, each with its own strengths and weaknesses.
• Microphones are commonly used for recording sound, amplifying speech, and live sound reinforcement.

Speaker:

• A speaker is an electric-to-acoustic transducer that converts electrical signals into sound waves.
• It consists of a cone or diaphragm that vibrates in response to an electrical signal, producing sound waves.
• There are various types of speakers, including dynamic, electrostatic, and planar magnetic speakers, each with its own strengths and weaknesses.
• Speakers are commonly used for playing back recorded sound, amplifying live music, and providing sound for movies and television shows.

The correct answer is  A and C only.

Important Points

The National Solar Mission has the following targets:

A. Creating favorable conditions for solar manufacturing capability, which includes increasing the domestic production of solar photovoltaic cells, modules, and other components.

C. Deploying 20 million solar lighting systems for rural areas by 2022, which aims to provide access to clean and affordable lighting to remote and underserved communitie

• A and C only, correctly identify the two targets under the National Solar Mission.
• Option 2) B and D only, Option 3) B, C, and D only, and Option 4) A and B only, are all incorrect as they either identify only one target or include targets that are not a part of the National Solar Mission.

Key Points

Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission

• The Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission, also known as National Solar Mission, is one of the eight key National Mission which comprises India’s National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC).
• It was launched on 30^th June 2008 and was approved in 2010 focusing on developing the solar energy capacity of India. Hence statement a is incorrect.
• Initially, the target was 20 GW by 2022, which has been increased by the NDA government to 100 GW or 1,00,000 MW. Hence statement b is correct.
• The Mission has set the ambitious target of deploying 20,000 MW of grid-connected solar power by 2022, which was revised to 1,00,000 MW by 2022 in June 2015.

Objectives

• To achieve 100 GW of Solar Energy by the year 2022 (increased from 20 GW).
• To reduce the harmful impact on the environment due to power generation.
• To promote the use of cleaner fuel.
• To promote both on-grid and off-grid power.

targets 

• The 100GW solar power capacity has been divided into the following 4 parts:

1. The rooftop solar energy generation of 40 GW.
2. Large and medium-scale grid-connected solar projects of 60 GW.
3. To achieve 15 million square meters of solar thermal collector area by 2017 and 20 million by 2022.
4. To deploy 20 million solar lighting systems for rural areas by 2022.
5. To create favorable conditions for solar manufacturing capability, particularly solar thermal, for indigenous production and market leadership.

Given:

A tradesman sold an article at a loss of 20%.

If the selling price had been increased by Rs. 100, there would have been a gain of 5%

Formula Used:

Profit =SP−CP

Calculation:

Let the cost price of the article = x

Given tradesman sold an article at a loss of 20%

((100 − 20) /100)x = 0.8x

If the price is increased by Rs.100

Then selling price becomes = (0.8x + 100)

He gains 5% with selling price = 0.8x + 100

Profit =SP − CP=(0.8x + 100) − x 

⇒ 0.2x + 100 = 5/100 of CP

⇒ −0.2x + 100 = 0.05x

⇒ 0.25x = 100

⇒x = 400

The correct answer is Anvayavyatireki

Important Points 

Anumana or Inference:

• This word is derived from two Sanskrit words, 'Anu' means after, and 'Mana' means measurement. So it means measuring after something.
• Anumana is the knowledge after proof.
• Anumana is a means of knowledge or one of the six types of Pramans in Indian Philosophy

Anvayavyatireki is the type of anuma̅na where the middle term is both positively and negatively related to the major term.

In this type of inference, the presence or absence of the middle term is found in conjunction with the presence or absence of the major term, and this relationship is observed in both positive and negative instances. 

Anvayavya̅tireki:

• It occurs when the middle term is both positively and negatively related to the major term.
• In other words, it is called a Double Agreement.
• In it, there is a universal relation between the hetu and sadhya in respect of both their presence and absence.
• Example: All smoky objects are fiery;
• The hill is smoky; Therefore the hill is fiery

Key Points 

According to the Application,  Based on Vyapti, anumāna is of three kinds:

1. Kevalānvayi:

• An inference is called Kevalānvayi when it is based on a middle term that is only positively related to the major term.
• For example, All knowable objects are namable. The Pot is a knowable object. Therefore, The Pot is a namable object.

1. Kevalavyatireki:

• An inference is kevalavyatireki when it is based on a middle term that is only negatively related to the major term.
• It is based on the invariable concomitance between the middle term, which is established by the method of agreement in the absence (Vyatireka) since there can be no positive instances of agreement in the presence of the terms.
• For example,  No non-soul substance has life. All beings possessing animal functions have life, Therefore, all beings possessing animal functions have souls.

1. Anvaya-Vyatireki:

• An inference is anvaya-vyatireki when it is based on a middle term that is both positively and negatively related to the major term.
• The universal relation (vyāpti) in this inference is established by the method of agreement in the presence (anvaya) and agreement in the absence (vyātireka). (a) All Smokey objects are fiery ,The hill is smoky Therefore, the hill is Fiery. (b) No non-fiery objects are Smokey. The hill is Smoky. Therefore, the hill is fiery.

Additional Information 

Gautama has classified anumana into three,

The correct Option is It has no moving parts and consumes very little power.

Key Points

Flash memory technology.

• Flash memory is a type of non-volatile memory that can retain data even when the power is turned off.
• It has no moving parts, which makes it more reliable and durable than other storage technologies that use mechanical components.
• It operates by storing data using electrical charges and erasing data by removing the charges.
• It consumes very little power compared to other storage technologies, making it ideal for portable devices.
• Flash memory is used in a wide range of devices, including USB drives, solid-state drives (SSDs), memory cards, and smartphones.
• It has a limited number of write cycles, which means that it can only be written a certain number of times before it starts to degrade.
• There are different types of flash memory, including single-level cell (SLC), multi-level cell (MLC), and triple-level cell (TLC), which differ in their performance and durability characteristics.
• Flash memory has revolutionized the storage industry, enabling the development of smaller, faster, and more energy-efficient devices.

Additional Information

• Flash memory is a non-volatile computer storage chip,
• It is made up of EEPROM.
• EEPROM is the acronym for electrically erasable programmable read-only memory,
• EEPROM is a Programmable ROM that can be erased and reprogrammed using an electrical charge.
• It was first developed by George Perlegos.
• It allows the user to update the computer BIOS without having to open the computer or remove any chips.
• It is organized as arrays of floating-gate transistors.
• USB flash drives, Memory cards are examples of flash memory storage.
• BIOS is stored in a Flash memory chip.

the correct Option is  "Statement I is false but Statement II is true"

Important Points 

Statement I: "Increased carbon dioxide concentration in the ambient atmosphere is likely to make the world's oceans less acidic."

This statement is false. 

• Increased carbon dioxide concentration in the ambient atmosphere is likely to make the world's oceans more acidic, not less acidic.
• This is due to the process of ocean acidification, where carbon dioxide in the atmosphere dissolves into the ocean and reacts with seawater to form carbonic acid, which lowers the pH of the water and makes it more acidic.

Statement II: "Increased carbon dioxide concentration in the ambient atmosphere is likely to impact the coral reefs adversely."

• This statement is true.
• As also mentioned earlier, increased carbon dioxide concentration in the ambient atmosphere can lead to ocean acidification, which can have a negative impact on coral reefs.
• When the pH of seawater decreases, it becomes more difficult for corals to build their skeletons and forams to build their shells, leading to slower growth rates and weaker structures.
• This can make them more susceptible to damage from storms and other environmental stresses. Additionally, ocean acidification can affect the behavior of fish and other marine organisms that live in or near coral reefs.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Statement I is false but Statement II is true."

Additional Information 

• Carbon dioxide is an important trace gas in Earth's atmosphere nearly constitutes about 0.03% of the atmosphere.

• Being its relatively small concentration, CO2​ is a potent greenhouse gas and plays an essential role in regulating Earth's surface temperature through the radiative process and the greenhouse effect.

• The atmospheric (dry air) composition of gas on Earth is:

• Nitrogen = 78%

• Oxygen = 21.675%

• Argon = 0.9%

• Carbon Dioxide = 0.03%

• Trace = 0.1%

The correct answer is  Both Statements I and Statement II are correct.

Important Points 

Statement I: Chemical fertilizers can cause nitrate pollution in water.

• Because chemical fertilizers contain high levels of nitrates which can leach into the ground and water bodies,
• Causing nitrate pollution. This pollution can lead to health problems in humans and animals.

Hence, Statement I is correct

Statement II: Nitrate pollution in drinking water generally affects children more than the adults.

• Because nitrate pollution in drinking water can affect infants and young children more than adults.
• This is because nitrate can interfere with the ability of the blood to carry oxygen, which can cause a condition called methemoglobinemia or "
• Blue baby syndrome, also known as infant methemoglobinemia.
• This occurs due to a decreased amount of hemoglobin in the baby’s blood.
• It is a condition where a baby's skin turns blue.
• This happens when there is not enough oxygen in the blood.
• Methemoglobinemia is a condition that some babies are born with (congenital) or some develop early in life (acquired).
• Methemoglobin is a form of hemoglobin that has been oxidized, changing its hemoglobin iron configuration from the ferrous (Fe2+) to the ferric (Fe3+) state.
• Unlike normal hemoglobin, methemoglobin does not bind oxygen and as a result, cannot deliver oxygen to the tissues.
• This condition is most commonly seen in infants under 6 months of age.

​Statement II is also correct

Therefore, both statements are correct and the correct answer is option 1.

Key Points 

• Agricultural runoff contains dissolved salts such as nitrates, phosphates, ammonia, and other nutrients, and toxic metal ions and organic compounds.
• Fertilizers contain major plant nutrients such as nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium.
• Excess fertilizers may reach the groundwater by leaching or may be mixed with surface water.
• Pesticides include insecticides, fungicides, herbicides, etc. They contain a wide range of chemicals such as chlorinated hydrocarbons (CHCs. E.g. DDT, Endosulfan, etc.), organophosphates, metallic salts, carbonates, etc.
• Many pesticides are non-degradable, and their residues have a long life.
• Wastes from poultry farms, piggeries, slaughterhouses, etc. reach the water through runoff.

Given, 

15 Person in a conference and all of them shake hands with each other only once.

Calculation:

Handshake between 2 people.

Total number of Handshake between 15 people = ¹⁵C₂ = 105

The correct answer is PNG (Portable Network Graphics)

Key Points

PNG (Portable Network Graphics) is the most appropriate format for graphics that are to be embedded within an Internet document.

BMP (Bitmap) and TIFF (Tagged Image File Format) are not typically used for web graphics because they tend to result in large file sizes, which can slow down the loading time of web pages.

PNG, on the other hand, is a compressed image format that supports transparency and provides a high-quality image with a relatively small file size. It is well-suited for web graphics and is widely supported by web browsers.

HTML (Hypertext Markup Language) is not an image format, but rather a markup language used to structure content within a web page.

Therefore correct answer is PNG (Portable Network Graphics)

Important Points

• PNG (Portable Network Graphics) is a file format for digital images that was developed to replace the older GIF format.
• PNG is a lossless compression format, meaning that it doesn't lose quality when the file size is reduced.
• It supports transparency and alpha channels, allowing for complex image layers and transparency effects.
• PNG images can be displayed on a wide range of devices and platforms, including web browsers, desktop applications, and mobile devices.
• PNG is well-suited for web graphics and is widely supported by web browsers.
• However, PNG files can sometimes be larger than other formats such as JPEG, so they may take longer to load on slower internet connections.

The correct answer is A, B, C, and D only

Important Points

The fundamental principles that will guide both the education system at large and individual institutions within it, according to the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, are:

A. Ethical, human, and constitutional values: This principle emphasizes the importance of education in fostering a sense of ethics, morality, and citizenship in students, and instilling respect for diversity and inclusivity.

B. Emphasis on conceptual understanding: This principle emphasizes the importance of providing students with a deeper understanding of the concepts and principles that underlie various subjects, rather than simply rote learning and memorization.

C. Creative and critical thinking: This principle emphasizes the importance of encouraging students to think creatively and critically, question assumptions, and engage in problem-solving.

D. Extensive use of technology: This principle emphasizes the importance of incorporating technology into the teaching-learning process, to enhance access, equity, and quality.

E. Flexibility and student-centric education: While not explicitly mentioned in the options, this principle emphasizes the importance of providing students with a flexible and personalized education, tailored to their needs and interests.

***Therefore ,*The correct answer is  A, B, C, and D only

Additional Information

The National Education Policy 2020 proposed various reforms in school education as well as higher education including technical education that has to be adopted by all educational institutions.  It has replaced the 34-year-old national education policy formulated in 1986.

NEP 2020 is based on 5 Pillars and these are- Access, Equity, Quality, Affordability, and Accountability.

• Access- all children, irrespective of caste, creed, location, or gender should have access to elementary education of comparable quality.
• Equity- offering individualized support to students.
• Quality- deliver Quality education to all the students.
• Affordability- Free and compulsory education for 3-18 years students.
• Accountability- It is the collection of policies and procedures used to hold schools and districts accountable for improving educational outcomes for all students and forcing and facilitating needed improvements

The correct answer is A, B, C, and E only.

Important Points

The National Programme on Technology Enhanced Learning (NPTEL) is an initiative by the Ministry of Education, Government of India, aimed at enhancing the quality of engineering education in the country.

• The program is jointly developed by seven Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) and the Indian Institute of Science (IISC), Bangalore.
• Out of the given options, only IIT Bombay, IIT Delhi, IIT Kanpur, and IISC Bangalore are part of the NPTEL initiative.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3: A, B, C, and E only. IIT Rohtak is not a part of the NPTEL initiative.

Key Points

NPTEL:

• It was initiated by seven Indian Institutes of Technology (Bombay, Delhi, Kanpur, Kharagpur, Madras, Guwahati, and Roorkee) along with the Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore in 2003.
• Five core disciplines were identified, namely, civil engineering, computer science and engineering, electrical engineering, electronics and communication engineering, and mechanical engineering, and 235 courses in web/video format were developed in this phase.
• It is a project funded by the MHRD, Government of India.
• NPTEL is one of the largest online repositories of engineering course material and one of the most successful multi-institutional projects in the country.
• NPTEL is also an online platform to learn, explore, and implement new things concerning different branches of engineering.

The correct answer is A, C, and D only.

Key Points

• Statement A is correct.
• Distance education reduces the cost of imparting education as it does not require the physical infrastructure of a traditional classroom setting.
• Statement B is incorrect.
• Distance education is not meant to replace formal education but rather provides an alternative mode of education delivery that complements formal education.
• Statement C is correct.
• Distance education enhances access to education by providing opportunities for individuals who are unable to attend traditional classroom-based courses due to geographical or personal constraints.
• Statement D is correct.
• ​ Distance education provides an opportunity for the upgradation of skills and qualifications for individuals who are unable to attend regular classes.
• Statement E is incorrect.
• Distance education is governed by the Distance Education Bureau (DEB), which is a regulatory body under the University Grants Commission (UGC), and not the National Board of Accreditation (NBA).

Additional Information

The open and Distance Learning (ODL) system is a system wherein teachers and learners need not necessarily be present either at the same place or same time and is flexible in regard to modalities and timing of teaching and learning as also the admission criteria without compromising necessary quality considerations.

The main objective of launching Open Distance Learning (ODL) and online programs are-

• To enhance Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER).
• To enhance online teaching and learning.
• It aims to democratize higher education to large segments of the Indian population particularly to reach out to the unreached and to meet the demands of lifelong learning
• ODL can be raised as an alternative way of making education accessible and providing scope for skill-based education at a minimum cost.​
• It provides an opportunity for lifelong learning.

Disadvantages of ODLs:

• Questionable credibility of degrees: 
• Even though distance and online education is starting to get recognition, there are still a lot of fraudulent and non-accredited degrees being offered.
• With the increase in the number of distance/online programs, the number of scam operators is also rising.
• This form of learning somewhere reduces the quality of learning as well.
• Focus on Theoretical Knowledge Instead of Practice:
• Online learning can cause students to lose hands-on activities.
• For example, it’s difficult for science teachers to conduct experiments without a physical classroom. Students require practical applications to comprehend abstract theories.
• One 2014 study by Harris Interactive reported that 52 percent of Americans prefer hands-on training, followed by 28 percent for visual training.

The correct option is less than 5%.

Important Points 

As per the 12^th Five Year Plan (2012-2017), the percentage of the Indian workforce in the age group of 19-24 receiving formal vocational education is less than 5%.

• This means that a small fraction of the Indian workforce in the age group of 19-24 received formal vocational education during the 12^th Five-Year Plan period.
• Formal vocational education refers to education or training that is designed to equip individuals with specific skills for a particular job or trade. This type of education can lead to the acquisition of a diploma, certificate, or degree.
• The low percentage of the workforce with formal vocational education suggests that there may be a skills gap in the workforce, as many individuals may lack the specific skills needed for certain jobs.
• The Indian government has recognized the importance of vocational education in addressing this skills gap and has implemented various initiatives to promote and expand vocational education and training programs in the country

Key Points 

12^th Five-Year Plan:

• The Twelfth Five-Year Plan of the Government of India has been decided to achieve a growth rate of 9% but the National Development Council (NDC) on 27 December 2012 approved a growth rate of 8% for the Twelfth Plan.
• Compared to previous FYPs, the 12^th FYP focuses more on quality, rather than the rate of growth, as well as ensuring more Chinese citizens benefit from that growth

The objectives of the Twelfth Five-Year Plan were:

• To create 50 million new work opportunities in the non-farm sector.
• To remove gender and social gap in school enrolment.
• To enhance access to higher education.
• To reduce malnutrition among children aged 0–3 years.
• To provide electricity to all villages.
• To ensure that 50% of the rural population has access to proper drinking water.
• To increase green cover by 1 million hectares every year.
• To provide access to banking services to 90% of households

The correct answer is 'Economic development '.

Key Points

• Let's consider the following statements from the passage.
• 'The relationship between democracy and peace could be a product of the fact that both democracy and peace share a common cause. What could this common cause be? One possibility is economic development. There is a strong tendency for democracy to emerge and survive in states that are relatively wealthy; in poorer countries by contrast, democratic institutions are more likely to break down............................................................'.
• ​From the highlighted statements it is clear that the common cause that binds democracy and peace is economic development.

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'Capitalist peace'.

Key Points

• Let's consider the following statements from the passage.
• '............................There is a strong tendency for democracy to emerge and survive in states that are relatively wealthy; in poorer countries by contrast, democratic institutions are more likely to break down. While there is no general tendency for wealth alone to promote peace between countries, there is evidence consistent with a 'capitalist peace' among countries with free-market economies.............................................'.
• ​From the highlighted statement it is clear that wealth alone doesn't promote peace between countries but there is evidence that 'capitalist peace' exists among countries with free-market economies.

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'Peaceful relations with each other'.

Key Points

• Let's consider the following statements in the passage.
• '........................................Another possibility is that peace causes democracy - that democracy is more likely to emerge in regions where countries already have peaceful relations with one another. A menacing international environment and threats to the state's territory tend to empower the central government and the military, making it hard for democracy to take root...............................................................'.
• ​From the highlighted statement it is clear that democracy flourishes in regions where countries already have peaceful relations with one another.

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'Common strategic alliances'.

Key Points

• Let's consider the following statement from the passage.
• '................................Finally, it has been argued that democratic peace is really a product of shared strategic interests among democratic states that have nothing to do with their democratic institutions............................................'.
• ​From the highlighted statement it is clear that democratic peace is a product of strategic interests among democratic states.

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is, 'The relation between peace and democracy '.

Key Points

• Let's consider the following statements from the passage.
• 'The relationship between democracy and peace could be a product of the fact that both democracy and peace share a common cause. What could this common cause be? One possibility is economic development.................................'.
• ​From the highlighted statements it is clear that the passage mostly focuses on the relationship between peace and democracy and discusses reason for the same.

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

The correct option is Interval scales

Important Points

• Interval scales are used to measure variables in which the intervals between values are equal, but there is no true zero point.
• The scale is divided into equal units, and the distance between any two adjacent units is the same throughout the scale.
• Examples of interval scales include temperature, time, and IQ scores.
• A grading scale based on the division into 100 units of equal size for 100 marks is an example of an interval scale.
• However, a mark of 0 does not indicate the complete absence of the variable being measured; it is simply a reference point on the scale.
• Interval scales are useful for measuring variables that have no true zero point, but they cannot be used for meaningful comparisons of absolute values or for calculating ratios or proportions.

Key Points

1. Nominal or classificatory scale:

• A  nominal scale enables the classification of individuals, objects, or responses based on a common/shared property or characteristic.
• These people, objects, or responses are divided into a number of subgroups in such a way that each member of the subgroup has a common characteristic.
• A variable measured on a nominal scale may have one, two, or more subcategories depending upon the extent of variation.
• For example, 'water' and 'taxi' have only one subgroup, whereas the variable 'gender' can be classified into two subcategories: male and female. Political parties in Australia can be similarly classified into four main subcategories: Labor, Liberal, Democrats, and Greens.
• Classification by means of a nominal scale ensures that individuals, objects, or responses within the same subgroup have a common characteristic or property as the basis of classification.
• The sequence in which subgroups are listed makes no difference as there is no relationship among subgroups.

2. Ordinal or ranking scale:

• An ordinal scale has all the properties of a nominal scale  - categorizing individuals, objects, responses, or properties into subgroups on the basis of a common characteristic - but also ranks the subgroups in a certain order.
• They are arranged in either ascending or descending order according to the extent that a subcategory identifies the magnitude of variation in the variable.

3. Interval scale:

• Interval An Scale Has All The  Characteristics Of An Ordinal Scale K  In addition, it uses a unit of measurement with arbitrary starting and terminating points.  For example, the Celsius scale is from 0 ° C to 100 ° C.

4. Ratio scale:

• They are used to gather quantitative information. It combines the properties of nominal, ordinal, and interval scales.
• In addition, it has its own property. It has a fixed starting point.
• The ratio scale consists of equidistant points and has a meaningful zero point.
• If we ask respondents about their ages, the difference between any two years would always be the same, and zero signifies the absence of age or birth. A 20-year-old person is twice the age of a 10-year-old one.