Official Paper

UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 21st August 2024 Shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

50 questions · 60 minutes · with answers · free

Paper 1 (50 questions)

The following table shows the percentage (%) distribution of students in M. Tech. (Computer Science) class, who got employment in the areas of Hardware, Software Quality Assurance (SQA), Software Development and others during the five years from 2019 to 2023, alongwith the average starting salaries of students per month (in Rs.) in these areas during the same years. The total numbers of students who passed out in the years 2019-2023 are 800, 600, 1100, 1200, and 1000, respectively. Based on the data in the table, answer the questions that follow

Employment - Area wise details of students
Employment Area20192020202120222023
IIIIIIIIIIIIIII
%%%%%
Hardware22545001763800237550019892003298100
SQA365170048639004376300378960032102200
Software Development19529002364400217050016776002086400
Other23426001250900136020028664001675400

 

Where I represents percentage distribution of students who got employment and II represents the average starting salary of students per month (in ₹)

1

In all the five years, the number of students getting employment in Hardware is _______ less than the number of students getting employment in SQA.

  1. ((a))

    826

  2. ((b))

    650

  3. ((c))

    734

  4. ((d))

    548

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

734

Given: 

The total numbers of students who passed out in the years 2019-2023 are 800, 600, 1100, 1200, and 1000, respectively.

Now,

Number of students getting employment in hardware all five years :-

In 2019:

⇒ 22% of 800 = 22 × 8 = 176

In 2020:

 ⇒  17% of 600 = 17 × 6 = 102

In 2021:

⇒ 23% of 1100 = 23 × 11 = 253

In 2022:​

⇒ 19% of 1200 = 19 × 12 = 228

In 2023:

⇒ 32% of 1000 = 32 × 10 = 320

Total number of students getting employment in hardware all five years = (176 + 102 + 253 + 228 + 320) ⇒ 1079

Now, number of students getting employment in SQA

In 2019:

⇒ 36% of 800 = 36 × 8 = 288

In 2020:

 ⇒  48% of 600 = 48 × 6 = 288

In 2021:

⇒ 43% of 1100 = 43 × 11 = 473

In 2022:​

⇒ 37% of 1200 = 37 × 12 = 444

In 2023:

⇒ 32% of 1000 = 32 × 10 = 320

Total  number of students getting employment in SQA = (288 + 288 + 473 + 444 + 320) ⇒ 1813

Now, Difference between both = (1813 - 1079) = 734

Therefore,  the number of students getting employment in Hardware is "734" less than the number of students getting employment in SQA.

2

What is the average monthly salary offered to an M. Tech. (Computer Science) student in 2020?

  1. ((a))

     ₹ 60750

  2. ((b))

    ₹ 63300

  3. ((c))

    ₹ 62438

  4. ((d))

    ₹ 64030

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

₹ 62438

Given:

From the table for the year 2020:

Hardware: 17% of students, Average salary = ₹63800

SQA: 48% of students, Average salary = ₹63900

Software Development: 23% of students, Average salary = ₹64400

Other: 12% of students, Average salary = ₹50900

Total number of students who passed out in 2020 = 600

Formula used:

Average monthly salary = (Sum of (Percentage of students in an area × Average salary in that area)) / 100

Calculation:

Average monthly salary in 2020 = (17 × 63800 + 48 × 63900 + 23 × 64400 + 12 × 50900) / 100

⇒ Average monthly salary = (1084600 + 3067200 + 1481200 + 610800) / 100

⇒ Average monthly salary = 6243800 / 100

⇒ Average monthly salary = ₹62438

∴ The average monthly salary offered to an M. Tech. (Computer Science) student in 2020 is ₹62438.

3

The average monthly salary offered to an M. Tech (Computer Science) student in 2023 is Approximately ________ % more than that in 2022.

  1. ((a))

    15.2

  2. ((b))

    17.14

  3. ((c))

    25

  4. ((d))

    5.43

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15.2

Step 1: Data for 2022 and 2023

For 2022:

Total Students = 1200

% in Hardware = 19%, Salary = ₹ 89200

% in SQA = 37%, Salary = ₹ 89600

% in Software Dev = 16%, Salary = ₹ 77600

% in Other = 28%, Salary = ₹ 66400

For 2023:

Total Students = 1000

% in Hardware = 32%, Salary = ₹ 98100

% in SQA = 32%, Salary = ₹ 102200

% in Software Dev = 20%, Salary = ₹ 86400

% in Other = 16%, Salary = ₹ 75400

Calculate Average Salary for 2022:

Average Salary (2022) =

((19 × 89200) + (37 × 89600) + (16 × 77600) + (28 × 66400) ) ÷ 100

= (1694800) + (3315200) + (1241600) + (1859200) ÷ 100

= 8110800 ÷ 100

= ₹81108

Calculate Average Salary for 2023

= ((32 × 98100) + (32 × 102200) + (20 × 86400) + (16 × 75400) ) ÷ 100

= (3139200) + (3270400) + (1728000) + (1206400) ÷ 100

= 9344000 ÷ 100

= ₹93440

Calculate % increase

% increase = ( (93440 – 81108) ÷ 81108 ) × 100

= (12332 ÷ 81108) × 100 ≈ 15.2%

4

What is the percentage increase in the average starting salary (per month) of employment in Hardware in the year 2023 with reference to the year 2019?

  1. ((a))

    60%

  2. ((b))

    32%

  3. ((c))

    96%

  4. ((d))

    80%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

80%

Given: 

Average salary of employment in hardware in 2019 = 54500

Average salary of employment in hardware in 2023 = 98100

Percentage increase in the year 2023 with reference to the year 2019:

⇒ (98100 - 54500) × 100 ÷ 54500

⇒ 43600 ÷ 545 

⇒ 80%

Therefore, The correct answer is "option 4".

5

In 2021, students getting employment in Hardware earned ₹ ______ lakhs more than those getting employment in Software Development (per annum).

  1. ((a))

    430

  2. ((b))

    337.92

  3. ((c))

    284.12

  4. ((d))

    324.3

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

337.92

Given:

In 2021

Total students = 1100

Number of students in hardware = 23%

Number of students in Software Development = 21%

Calculation:

Number of students in hardware = 23% of 1100 = 253

So, Salary earned by students in hardware (monthly) = 253 × 75500

Number of students in Software Development = 21% of 1100 = 231

So, Salary earned by students in Software Development (monthly)

 = 231 × 70500

Now,

Difference in earning = 253 × 75500 - 231 × 70500

= Rs. 2816000

Hence, the difference in earnings per annum

= 12 × 2816000 = 33792000 = 337.92 lakhs

∴ The correct answer is 337.92 lakhs.

6

The National Education Policy, 2020 recommended the integration of humanities at the undergraduate level with subjects of

A. Science

B. Technology

C. Engineering

D. Mathematics

E. Propaganda techniques

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. Only A, B, C, D
  2. Only B, C, E
  3. Only A, C, D, E
  4. Only A, B, D, E
  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

The correct answer is 'Only A, B, C, D'

Key Points

  • National Education Policy (NEP) 2020:
  • The NEP 2020 aims to transform the education system in India by making it more holistic, flexible, multidisciplinary, aligned to the needs of the 21st century, and aimed at bringing out the unique capabilities of each student.
  • One significant recommendation of the NEP 2020 is the integration of humanities with subjects like Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics (STEM) at the undergraduate level.
  • This interdisciplinary approach is designed to provide students with a more well-rounded education, equipping them with a broader skill set and diverse perspectives.
7

In the letter series, some of the letters are missing. Complete the given letter series by choosing the correct alternatives from the options given below.

b_b_bb_ _bbb_bb_b

  1. bbbbba
  2. bbaaab
  3. ababab
  4. aabaab
  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

4

In the given letter series: b_b_bb_ _bbb_bb_b, we need to complete the series by choosing the correct option.

1bbbbbbbbbbbbbbab
2bbbbbbaabbbabbbb
3babbbbabbbbabbbb
4bababbbabbbabbbb

The pattern followed in the series is:

baba/bbba/bbba/bbbb

Hence, option 4 (aabaab) is the correct answer.

8

Which of the following are essential elements of mass communication?

A. Electronic observation

B. Technological medium

C. Large audience

D. Professional communicators

E. Organizational structure

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Only A, B, E

  2. ((b))

    Only A, C, D

  3. ((c))

    Only A, C, D, E

  4. ((d))

    Only B, C, D, E

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Only B, C, D, E

The correct answer is 'Only B, C, D, E'

Key Points

  • Mass Communication:
  • Mass communication refers to the process of imparting information from a source to a large audience via various technological mediums.
  • It is a crucial aspect of modern society, enabling the dissemination of information across large populations.
  • Technological Medium (B):
  • A technological medium is essential for mass communication as it facilitates the transmission of information to a wide audience.
  • This includes platforms like television, radio, the internet, and print media.
  • Large Audience (C):
  • Mass communication targets a large audience, distinguishing it from interpersonal or small group communication.
  • The reach of the communication medium must extend to a significant number of people.
  • Professional Communicators (D):
  • Professional communicators, such as journalists, broadcasters, and media professionals, play a pivotal role in shaping and delivering the message.
  • They ensure the content is appropriate, engaging, and accurate.
  • Organizational Structure (E):
  • An organizational structure is necessary to manage and coordinate the various elements involved in mass communication.
  • This structure helps streamline processes, from content creation to distribution.

Additional Information

  • Electronic Observation (A):
  • While electronic observation can be a part of mass communication, it is not an essential element by itself.
  • It refers more to surveillance or monitoring rather than the dissemination of information to a mass audience.
9

The convention of Biological Diversity (CBD) was first opened for signature during

  1. Conference on human environment
  2. Earth Summit
  3. Montreal Protocol
  4. COP1
  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2

The correct answer is - Earth Summit

Key Points

  • Earth Summit
  • The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) was first opened for signature during the Earth Summit, also known as the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992.
  • The Earth Summit was a pivotal event that focused on sustainable development, environmental protection, and collaboration between nations.
  • The CBD aimed to conserve biological diversity, promote sustainable use of its components, and ensure fair sharing of benefits arising from genetic resources.

Additional Information

  • Conference on Human Environment
  • This was the first major United Nations conference on international environmental issues and was held in Stockholm, Sweden, in 1972.
  • It laid the foundation for global environmental governance but did not involve the CBD.
  • Montreal Protocol
  • A treaty aimed at phasing out the production and consumption of substances that deplete the ozone layer.
  • It was adopted in 1987 and is not related to the CBD.
  • COP1
  • This refers to the first Meeting of the Conference of the Parties to the CBD.
  • COP1 occurred after the CBD was opened for signature and ratified, making it unrelated to the CBD's initial signing event.
10

Match the List-I with List-II

LIST I TermLIST II Meaning
ADecision makingIThe tendency to hold on a belief in the face of contradictory evidence.
BConfirmation biasIIThe tendency to have more confidence in judgement and decisions than we should based on probability.
CBelief perseveranceIIIThe tendency to search for and use information that supports our ideas rather than refuses them.
DOverconfidence biasIVEvaluating alternatives and making choices among them.

 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

  2. ((b))

    A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

  3. ((c))

    A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

  4. ((d))

    A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

The correct answer is - 'A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II'.

Key Points

  • Decision making - Evaluating alternatives and making choices among them
  • Decision making involves the process of selecting among different options and courses of action.
  • This is a fundamental aspect of human cognition used in both personal and professional contexts.
  • Confirmation bias - The tendency to search for and use information that supports our ideas rather than refutes them
  • Confirmation bias leads individuals to favor information that aligns with their pre-existing beliefs.
  • This bias can hinder objective decision making and critical thinking.
  • Belief perseverance - The tendency to hold on a belief in the face of contradictory evidence
  • Belief perseverance causes people to continue believing something even when presented with compelling evidence to the contrary.
  • This can result in maintaining outdated or incorrect beliefs despite new information.
  • Overconfidence bias - The tendency to have more confidence in judgement and decisions than we should based on probability
  • Overconfidence bias makes individuals overestimate their knowledge or predictive abilities.
  • This can lead to poor decision making due to an inflated sense of certainty.

Additional Information

  • Importance of Understanding Cognitive Biases
  • Acknowledging these biases can lead to better decision making and critical thinking.
  • Being aware of cognitive biases allows individuals to implement strategies to mitigate their effects.
11

Which of the following statements best describes a blog?

  1. A website that allows multiple users to collaborate and create information.
  2. A chronological list of posts on a website typically written by a single author about a subject.
  3. A series of audio or video episodes that subscribers download or stream to their devices.
  4. A standardised format that allows users to subscribe to view content updates from a creator.
  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2

The correct answer is - A chronological list of posts on a website typically written by a single author about a subject.

Key Points

  • Blog
  • A blog is a type of website or a section of a website where an individual, often referred to as a blogger, writes about various topics.
  • Blogs are typically presented in reverse-chronological order, with the newest posts appearing first.
  • The content of a blog, known as a post, can include text, photos, videos, and links to other websites.
  • Blogs often allow readers to leave comments, creating an interactive platform between the blogger and their audience.
  • The subject matter of blogs can range from personal diaries to commentary on politics, technology, travel, fashion, and many other topics.

Additional Information

  • Website that allows multiple users to collaborate and create information
  • This refers to wikis, collaborative websites where numerous users can add and edit content, such as Wikipedia.
  • Wikis are usually used for creating and maintaining knowledge bases.
  • Series of audio or video episodes that subscribers download or stream
  • This refers to podcasts, a form of digital media involving audio or video episodes produced by creators and distributed to subscribers.
  • Podcasts often cover specific topics or themes per series or episode.
  • Standardised format allowing users to subscribe to view content updates
  • This description aligns with RSS feeds (Really Simple Syndication), which allow users to receive updates from websites without having to visit them directly.
  • RSS feeds are used to publish frequently updated information like blog entries, news headlines, and podcasts.
12

"Molecules are in random motion. Qutub Minar is composed of Molecules. Therefore, Qutub Minar is in constant random motion." Identify the fallacy committed in the above statement.

  1. Equivocation
  2. Slippery slope
  3. Hasty generalization
  4. Fallacy of composition
  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

4

The correct answer is - Fallacy of composition

Key Points

  • Fallacy of composition
  • Occurs when it is assumed that what is true of the parts must be true of the whole.
  • The argument incorrectly moves from the motion of individual molecules to the idea that the entire Qutub Minar must be in random motion.
  • This is a logical error because the properties of parts do not always transfer to the whole.

Additional Information

  • Equivocation
  • Occurs when a word is used in two different senses in an argument, causing a misleading conclusion.
  • Slippery slope
  • Argues that a relatively small first step leads to a chain of related events resulting in a significant impact, without proper evidence to support the inevitability of this chain.
  • Hasty generalization
  • Involves drawing a broad conclusion from a small or unrepresentative sample of data.
13

The National Education Pollicy, 2020 aims to create

  1. fragmented universities
  2. online universities
  3. knowledge hubs
  4. corporate clusters of education
  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3

The correct answer is 'knowledge hubs'

Key Points

  • National Education Policy (NEP) 2020:
  • The NEP 2020 aims to overhaul the Indian educational system to meet the demands of the 21st century.
  • One of its primary objectives is to create integrated and holistic educational institutions known as 'knowledge hubs.'
  • These knowledge hubs will foster a multidisciplinary approach to education and research.
  • The policy promotes the idea of large, well-resourced, and vibrant multidisciplinary institutions that provide high-quality education and research opportunities.

Additional Information

  • Fragmented universities:
  • Fragmented universities refer to isolated and specialized institutions with limited scope and interaction.
  • This approach is contrary to the NEP 2020's vision of creating interconnected and comprehensive educational institutions.
  • Online universities:
  • While the NEP 2020 does emphasize the use of technology and online resources, the focus is not solely on creating online universities.
  • The policy advocates for a blended approach that combines traditional and digital methods of learning.
  • Corporate clusters of education:
  • The NEP 2020 does not aim to create corporate clusters of education.
  • Its focus is on enhancing public educational institutions and ensuring equitable access to high-quality education for all, rather than corporatization.
14

Which of the following, in communication, are the rhetorical structures"?

A. paralanguage

B. clusters

C. form

D. genre

E. narrative

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Only A, B, C, D

  2. ((b))

    Only B, C, D, E

  3. ((c))

    Only A, C, E

  4. ((d))

     Only A, D, E

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only B, C, D, E

The correct answer is 'Only B, C, D, E'

Key Points

  • Rhetorical Structures:
  • Rhetorical structures are frameworks that help in organizing and presenting information effectively in communication.
  • They are used to persuade, inform, or entertain the audience.
  • Clusters:
  • Clusters refer to groups of related ideas or concepts that are presented together to strengthen the argument or narrative.
  • Form:
  • Form pertains to the overall structure or shape of the communication, including the arrangement of its parts.
  • Genre:
  • Genre refers to the category or type of communication, such as a speech, essay, or narrative, each with its own conventions and styles.
  • Narrative:
  • Narrative involves telling a story or recounting events, often used to engage the audience and convey a message more effectively.

Additional Information

  • Paralanguage:
  • Paralanguage refers to the non-verbal elements of communication used to modify meaning and convey emotion, such as tone of voice, pitch, and volume.
  • While important in communication, paralanguage is not considered a rhetorical structure.
15

To understand the Global Climate Change, GCM model are widely used. GCM stands for

A. Global Circulation Model

B. General Circulation Model

C. Global Climate Model

D. General Climate Model

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Only A and B

  2. ((b))

    Only B and C

  3. ((c))

    Only C and D

  4. ((d))

    Only A and D

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only B and C

The correct answer is Only B and C.

Key PointsTo understand the Global Climate Change, GCM model is widely used, and it stands for:

  • General Circulation Model (B):
  • General Circulation Models are mathematical models used to simulate the Earth's atmosphere or oceans.
  • These models are integral for climate change research and predicting future climate scenarios.
  • They help in understanding the dynamics of the climate system over time.
  • Global Climate Model (C):
  • Global Climate Models are similar to General Circulation Models but often encompass a broader scope including the entire climate system.
  • These models simulate climate interactions between the atmosphere, oceans, land surface, and ice.
  • They are crucial for predicting future climate patterns based on various greenhouse gas emissions scenarios.

Additional InformationUnderstanding GCM Models

  • GCMs are essential tools for climate scientists to study past, present, and future climate conditions.
  • They rely on complex equations that simulate atmospheric processes such as wind, heat transfer, radiation, relative humidity, and surface hydrology.
  • These models help in making informed decisions about climate policy and mitigation strategies by providing projections of climate change impacts.
16

Which of the following statements are logically equivalent?

A. Some non-birds are mammals.

B. Some birds are not mammals.

C. Some non-mammals are non-birds.

D. Some non-mammals are not non-birds.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A, B and C Only

  2. ((b))

    A and C Only

  3. ((c))

    C and D Only

  4. ((d))

    B and D Only

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

B and D Only

The correct answer is B and D Only.

Key PointsAnalyzing each statement to find logical equivalences:

  • Statement A: Some non-birds are mammals.
  • This means there exist some creatures that are mammals but are not birds.
  • Hence, this statement is correct but stands alone in equivalence.
  • Statement B: Some birds are not mammals.
  • This means there exist some creatures that are birds but are not mammals.
  • Hence, this statement is correct and needs to be checked for equivalence.
  • Statement C: Some non-mammals are non-birds.
  • This means there exist some creatures that are neither mammals nor birds.
  • Hence, this statement is correct but stands alone in equivalence.
  • Statement D: Some non-mammals are not non-birds.
  • This can be simplified to mean: Some creatures that are not mammals are actually birds.
  • Hence, this statement is correct and is equivalent to Statement B.

Additional Information

  • Logical Equivalency
  • Logical equivalency means that two statements are true in the same situations; they have the same truth value in all possible scenarios.
  • Two statements can be considered logically equivalent if one can be transformed into the other through logical operations such as negation, conjunction, disjunction, etc.
  • Logical equivalences are crucial in mathematics, computer science, and philosophical logic because they allow reasoning about different statements in a consistent and structured manner.
  • Common logical equivalences include De Morgan's Laws, Double Negation, and Contraposition.
17

Description of 'actual words, written or spoken, used to tell a story' and images or pictures come under the category of

  1. ((a))

    Discourse

  2. ((b))

    Event

  3. ((c))

    Law

  4. ((d))

    Performance

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Discourse

The correct answer is 'Discourse'

Key Points

  • Discourse:
  • Discourse refers to the actual words, written or spoken, used to tell a story. It encompasses the way language is used in texts and spoken interactions.
  • In literature and communication studies, discourse is a broad term that includes various forms of communication, including storytelling, arguments, and dialogues.
  • Discourse analysis is a method used to study the structure and pattern of these communications to understand social and cultural contexts.

Additional Information

  • Event:
  • An event is an occurrence or happening, especially one of significance. It does not refer to the words or images used to describe it.
  • Events can be real-world incidents, historical moments, or fictional happenings within a story.
  • Law:
  • Law is a system of rules created and enforced through social or governmental institutions to regulate behavior.
  • It does not encompass the actual storytelling or narrative elements used to describe events or actions.
  • Performance:
  • Performance refers to the act of presenting a form of entertainment, such as a play, concert, or other forms of artistic expression.
  • While performances can include elements of storytelling, the term itself does not specifically refer to the words and images used to convey the story.
18

The number of digits an individual can report back without error in a single presentation represents

  1. ((a))

    chunking

  2. ((b))

    memory span

  3. ((c))

    phonological loop

  4. ((d))

    Time Zone

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

memory span

The correct answer is 'memory span'

Key Points

  • Memory Span:
  • Memory span refers to the number of items an individual can retain and recall accurately in the correct order after a single presentation.
  • This measure is often used in cognitive psychology to assess the capacity of short-term memory.
  • Typically, the average adult can hold about 7±2 items in their short-term memory, a concept often referred to as Miller's Law.

Additional Information

  • Chunking:
  • Chunking is a strategy used to enhance memory by grouping individual pieces of information into larger, more manageable units or "chunks."
  • While chunking can help improve memory span, it is not the measure of the number of items one can recall in a single presentation.
  • Phonological Loop:
  • The phonological loop is a component of Baddeley and Hitch's model of working memory that deals with auditory and verbal information.
  • It is responsible for the temporary storage and manipulation of phonological information, but it is not the measure of memory span.
  • Time Zone:
  • Time Zone is unrelated to cognitive psychology and memory span. It refers to a region of the globe that observes a uniform standard time for legal, commercial, and social purposes.
19

According to classical Indian school of logic (Nyaya) which fallacy is committed in the following argument "Anything that is thinkable is nameable because it is thinkable".

  1. Asādhārana
  2. Saadhārana
  3. Asrayāsiddha
  4. Svarupāsiddha
  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

The correct answer is - Asādhārana

Key Points

  • Asādhārana
  • This fallacy, known as 'uncommon,' occurs when the reason given does not apply to anything other than the subject in question.
  • The argument "Anything that is thinkable is nameable because it is thinkable" commits the Asādhārana fallacy because the reason (being thinkable) applies only to thinkable things and is not a distinguishing characteristic.

Additional Information

  • Saadhārana
  • This fallacy, known as 'common,' occurs when the reason (hetu) can apply to both the subject (paksha) and non-subject (sapaksha).
  • An example is saying "All things have weight because they are made of matter," which is too general as both living and non-living things can be made of matter but may or may not have weight in every context.
  • Asrayāsiddha
  • This fallacy occurs when the subject (paksha) itself is not established or is imaginary.
  • An example is stating "The horns of a hare are useful for digging," presupposing that hares have horns, which they do not.
  • Svarupāsiddha
  • This fallacy occurs when the reason (hetu) itself is not established.
  • An example is stating "Sound is permanent because it is eternal," where the eternity of sound is not an established fact.
20

Which of the following research approaches suggests that theory is an outcome of research?

  1. ((a))

    deductive approach

  2. ((b))

    inductive approach

  3. ((c))

    quantitative approach

  4. ((d))

    cross-sectional approach

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

inductive approach

The correct answer is - Inductive Approach

Key Points

  • Inductive Approach
  • This approach involves collecting data and then developing a theory based on the analysis of that data.
  • Theory is an outcome of research in the inductive approach, where patterns, themes, and generalizations emerge from the data itself.
  • Researchers start with specific observations and measures, detect patterns and regularities, formulate some tentative hypotheses that can be explored, and finally end up developing general conclusions or theories.

Additional Information

  • Deductive Approach
  • This approach starts with a theory or hypothesis and then designs a research strategy to test that hypothesis.
  • It is often associated with scientific research and seeks to test the validity of existing theories rather than create new ones.
  • Quantitative Approach
  • This approach focuses on quantifying data and typically involves statistical analysis. It can be used with either the inductive or deductive approach.
  • The approach itself does not determine whether theory development is the outcome of research.
  • Cross-Sectional Approach
  • This is a research design that involves observations of multiple variables at a single point in time.
  • It is a type of observational study and can be used with various research methods but does not inherently lead to theory development as an outcome.
21

When the sample has been randomly selected, which among the following may be expected in cross-sectional research designs?

A. strong external validity

B. weak external validity

C. weak internal validity

D. strong internal validity

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Only A and C

  2. ((b))

    Only A and D

  3. ((c))

    Only B and C

  4. ((d))

    Only B and D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A and C

The correct answer is 'Only A and C'.

Key Points

  • Statement A: Strong external validity
  • This statement is correct.
  • When the sample has been randomly selected, it increases the likelihood that the findings can be generalized to the larger population. Hence, strong external validity is achieved.
  • Statement B: Weak external validity
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • In cross-sectional research designs with random sampling, external validity is typically strong, not weak, because the sample is representative of the population.
  • Statement C: Weak internal validity
  • This statement is correct.
  • Cross-sectional studies often face challenges in establishing causal relationships due to their observational nature, leading to weaker internal validity.
  • Statement D: Strong internal validity
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • Internal validity tends to be weak in cross-sectional designs because they do not control for variables over time, making it difficult to determine cause and effect.

Hence the Statements A and C are correct, while Statements B and D are incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Internal Validity:
  • Internal validity refers to the degree to which a study can establish a causal relationship between variables.
  • To achieve strong internal validity, a research design must control for extraneous variables that could influence the results.
  • Cross-sectional studies collect data at a single point in time, which makes it difficult to control for all variables, weakening internal validity.
  • Common threats to internal validity include selection bias, history, maturation, testing effects, instrumental changes, and regression to the mean.
  • Cross-sectional studies are observational and inherently less capable of establishing causation compared to experimental or longitudinal studies.
  • Randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are often considered the "gold standard" for research with high internal validity due to their design that specifically aims to minimize the impact of confounding variables.
22

Which of the following is correct in the context of Syllogism?

A. With two negative premise; affirmative conclusion can be drawn.

B. Predicate of the conclusion is the minor term.

C. Middle term must be distributed at least once in the premises.

D. With two universal premises, particular conclusion can be drawn.

E. The term distributed in the conclusion must be distributed in the premises

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    B and C Only

  2. ((b))

    A and C Only

  3. ((c))

    D and E Only

  4. ((d))

    C and E Only

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

C and E Only

The correct answer is: C and E Only.

Key Points

  • Statement A: With two negative premises; affirmative conclusion can be drawn.
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • No conclusion can be drawn if both premises are negative.
  • Statement B: Predicate of the conclusion is the minor term.
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • The predicate of the conclusion is actually the major term, not the minor term.
  • Statement C: Middle term must be distributed at least once in the premises.
  • This statement is correct.
  • To validly derive a conclusion in syllogism, the middle term must be distributed in at least one of the premises.
  • Statement D: With two universal premises, particular conclusion can be drawn.
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • From two universal premises, a particular conclusion cannot necessarily be drawn.
  • Statement E: The term distributed in the conclusion must be distributed in the premises.
  • This statement is correct.
  • Any term that is distributed in the conclusion must also be distributed in the premises from which the conclusion is derived.

Hence, the Statements C and E are correct, while Statements A, B, and D are incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Syllogism:
  • A syllogism is a form of reasoning in which a conclusion is drawn from two given or assumed propositions (premises).
  • The premises and the conclusion are typically structured in a way to determine the validity of the argument.
  • The middle term must appear in both premises but not in the conclusion, and it must be distributed at least once.
  • A term distributed in the conclusion must also be distributed in the premises to ensure logical consistency and a valid conclusion.
23

A history teacher wants to create an interactive timeline showcasing the evolution of different art movements over centuries? Which tool would best support the creation of this multimedia presentation?

  1. ((a))

    Prezi

  2. ((b))

    Adobe Illustrator

  3. ((c))

    Flipgrid

  4. ((d))

    Google forms

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Prezi

The correct answer is 'Prezi'

Key Points

  • Prezi:
  • Prezi is a presentation tool that allows for the creation of dynamic and visually engaging presentations.
  • It supports multimedia elements such as images, videos, and animations, making it ideal for creating an interactive timeline.
  • The zooming user interface (ZUI) in Prezi enables users to navigate through different time periods and art movements seamlessly.
  • It is user-friendly and provides templates specifically designed for creating timelines.

Additional Information

  • Adobe Illustrator:
  • Adobe Illustrator is a vector graphics editor used for creating detailed and scalable illustrations.
  • While it is powerful for designing static graphics, it lacks the interactive and multimedia capabilities needed for an engaging timeline presentation.
  • Flipgrid:
  • Flipgrid is a video discussion platform primarily used for educational purposes.
  • It is designed for creating and sharing short video responses and lacks the functionality required to create a comprehensive multimedia timeline.
  • Google Forms:
  • Google Forms is a tool used for creating surveys and quizzes.
  • It is not suitable for creating interactive multimedia presentations as it is limited to text-based questions and responses.
24

If the statement "Some birds are not mammals" is given as true, which of the following statements can be immediately inferred to be false?

  1. ((a))

    Some mammals are not birds.

  2. ((b))

    Some birds are mammals.

  3. ((c))

    No birds are mammals.

  4. ((d))

    All birds are mammals.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

All birds are mammals.

The correct answer is 4.

Key PointsAnalyzing the statements based on the given statement "Some birds are not mammals":

  • Statement 1: Some mammals are not birds.
  • This statement does not contradict the given statement. It merely asserts that some members of the group mammals are not members of the group birds, which aligns with common knowledge in biology.
  • Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Statement 2: Some birds are mammals.
  • This statement can be true or false based on the provided information. Since the given statement doesn’t provide a definitive claim about all birds, we cannot conclude this is false.
  • Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Statement 3: No birds are mammals.
  • The given statement "Some birds are not mammals" implies that at least one bird is not a mammal. However, it does not categorically state that no birds are mammals. Therefore, it doesn’t directly contradict statement 3.
  • Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • Statement 4: All birds are mammals.
  • This is directly contradicts the given statement, which asserts that some birds are not mammals. If "Some birds are not mammals" is true, then "All birds are mammals" cannot be true.
  • Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Understanding Logical Inferences:
  • From the given statement "Some birds are not mammals," we understand that there is at least one bird that does not belong to the category of mammals.
  • This helps us infer that not all birds can be mammals, which directly makes the statement "All birds are mammals" false.
25

In a breeder reactor

  1. More fissile materials are produced than it is consumed
  2. Less fissile materials are produced than it is consumed
  3. Neutrons are slowed down by moderator
  4. U-238 a fissile material is produced from Pu-239 a fertile material.
  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

The correct answer is 1.

Key PointsBreeder reactor:

  • Statement 1: More fissile materials are produced than it is consumed.
  • In a breeder reactor, a significant feature is its ability to produce more fissile material than it consumes.
  • This is achieved through a process where fertile materials like U-238 or Th-232 are converted into fissile materials like Pu-239 or U-233.
  • Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Statement 2: Less fissile materials are produced than it is consumed.
  • This contradicts the fundamental operation of a breeder reactor, which is designed to produce more fissile material than it consumes.
  • Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Statement 3: Neutrons are slowed down by moderator.
  • Breeder reactors typically use fast neutrons and do not employ moderators to slow them down. Neutron moderation is a characteristic of thermal reactors.
  • Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Statement 4: U-238 a fissile material is produced from Pu-239 a fertile material.
  • This statement is factually incorrect. U-238 is not a fissile material but a fertile material, and Pu-239, which is a fissile material, is produced from U-238.
  • Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Breeder Reactors are a type of nuclear reactor that generates more fissile material than it consumes. This is typically achieved using fast neutrons and without the use of neutron moderators.
  • Fertile Materials such as U-238 and Th-232 can be converted into fissile materials like Pu-239 and U-233 respectively in a breeder reactor.
26

Which of the following electronic technologies is the key technology for making the first generation electronic computer?

  1. ((a))

    Transistor based

  2. ((b))

    Integrated Circuit based

  3. ((c))

    Vacuum Tube based

  4. ((d))

    Dual Core CPU based

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Vacuum Tube based

The key technology for making the first generation electronic computer is Vacuum Tube based.

Key Points

  • Vacuum Tube based
  • The first generation of electronic computers, developed during the 1940s and 50s, primarily used vacuum tubes as the key technology.
  • Vacuum tubes acted as electronic switches and were fundamental to the operation of early computers.
  • Examples of first-generation computers include the ENIAC (Electronic Numerical Integrator and Computer) and the UNIVAC (Universal Automatic Computer).
  • While effective, vacuum tubes were large, consumed a lot of power, and generated significant heat, which led to frequent failures.

Additional Information

  • Transistor based
  • Transistors were used in the second generation of computers, starting in the late 1950s and 1960s.
  • They replaced vacuum tubes, providing greater efficiency, lower power consumption, and reduced size.
  • Transistor-based computers were more reliable and generated less heat than their vacuum tube predecessors.
  • Integrated Circuit based
  • Integrated circuits (ICs) marked the third generation of computers, beginning in the mid-1960s.
  • ICs allowed for the miniaturization of computer components, improving performance and reducing costs.
  • This technology paved the way for modern computing by enabling more complex and efficient systems.
  • Dual Core CPU based
  • Dual-core CPUs are part of the multi-core processors technology, which became prominent in the mid-2000s.
  • This technology involves multiple processing units (cores) within a single CPU, significantly enhancing processing power and efficiency.
  • Dual-core CPUs are part of the development of modern computers, beyond the first, second, and third generations.
27

An important feature of the third five year plan was

  1. ((a))

    Abolition of Education Commission

  2. ((b))

    Reduction in the number of colleges

  3. ((c))

    Setting up examination research units in some universities

  4. ((d))

    More emphasis on open book examination

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Setting up examination research units in some universities

Setting up examination research units in some universities

Key Points

  • Third Five Year Plan (1961-1966):
  • The Third Five Year Plan was focused on establishing a self-sufficient economy and aimed to accelerate the growth of agriculture and industry.
  • Emphasis was placed on education and research as a means to support economic development.
  • Examination Research Units:
  • One of the significant features of the Third Five Year Plan was the establishment of examination research units in some universities.
  • These units were intended to improve the quality of education by conducting research on examination systems and methods.
  • The goal was to develop more effective and fair examination processes, contributing to better educational outcomes.

Additional Information

  • Abolition of Education Commission:
  • This option is incorrect as the Education Commission (Kothari Commission) was established during the Third Five Year Plan (1964-66) to examine all aspects of the educational sector in India.
  • Reduction in the number of colleges:
  • This option is incorrect. There was no specific focus on reducing the number of colleges during the Third Five Year Plan. Instead, efforts were geared towards improving the quality of education.
  • More emphasis on open book examination:
  • This option is incorrect. The Third Five Year Plan did not place particular emphasis on open book examinations. The focus was on research and improvement in examination systems.
28

Dissolved Oxygen (DO), a water quality parameter, is essential in which of the following water bodies/sources?

A. River Water

B. Lake Water

C. Tap Water

D. Underground Water

E. Pond Water

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. A, B and E Only
  2. C and D Only
  3. B, D and E Only
  4. A, C, D and E Only
  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

The correct answer is -  A, B and E Only.

Key Points

  • River Water
  • Dissolved Oxygen (DO) is crucial in river water because it supports aquatic life such as fish and other organisms.
  • Rivers often have a continuous flow, which helps in maintaining higher levels of dissolved oxygen.
  • Lake Water
  • Lakes require dissolved oxygen for the same reasons as rivers – to support aquatic life.
  • Stagnant water bodies like lakes can sometimes have lower DO levels, so maintaining adequate DO is essential.
  • Pond Water
  • Similar to lakes, pond water needs dissolved oxygen to sustain the ecosystem of plants and animals living within it.
  • Ponds are generally smaller and can become depleted of oxygen quicker, making DO monitoring important.

Additional Information

  • Tap Water
  • Tap water typically has dissolved oxygen, but it is not crucial in the same way it is for natural water bodies.
  • The DO in tap water is primarily a consideration for water taste and quality rather than for supporting aquatic life.
  • Underground Water
  • Underground water generally has very low levels of dissolved oxygen.
  • DO is not a critical parameter for underground water because it is not exposed to the air and does not support the same types of aquatic life as surface water.
  • Therefore:
  • Statement 1 is correct: River Water, Lake Water, and Pond Water are the appropriate sources for Dissolved Oxygen (DO).
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Tap Water and Underground Water do not require dissolved oxygen for the same reasons as natural water bodies.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Including Underground Water as a necessary source for DO is not accurate.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: While River Water, Lake Water, and Pond Water require DO, including Tap Water does not align with the primary consideration for Dissolved Oxygen (DO).
29

Working 9 hours a day, 12 persons complete a work in 25 days. Working 6 hours a day, 15 persons can do the same work in

  1. ((a))

    28 days

  2. ((b))

    29 days

  3. ((c))

    30 days

  4. ((d))

    32 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

30 days

Given: Working 9 hours a day, 12 persons complete a work in 25 days

Step 1: Calculate the total amount of work.

The total work done can be expressed as:

Total Work = Number of persons × Number of hours per day × Number of days

For the first case (12 persons, 9 hours a day, 25 days), the total work is:

Total Work = 12 × 9 × 25 = 2700 person-hours

Step 2: Set up the equation for the second case.

Let the number of days required in the second case be x. For 15 persons working 6 hours a day, the total work done in x days is:

Work = 15 × 6 × x = 90x person-hours

Since the total work in both cases is the same, we set the equations equal to each other:

90x = 2700

Step 3: Solve for x.

x = 2700 / 90 = 30 days

Therefore, it will take 30 days for 15 persons working 6 hours a day to complete the work.

Answer: Option 3 (30 days)

30

The general context of communication is known as communication -

  1. ((a))

    situation

  2. ((b))

    position

  3. ((c))

    praxis

  4. ((d))

    convention

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

situation

The correct answer is 'communication situation'

Key Points

  • Communication situation:
  • The term "communication situation" refers to the overall context in which communication takes place.
  • It encompasses the environment, the participants, the purpose of communication, and the medium used.
  • Understanding the communication situation is crucial for effective interaction, as it influences the way messages are sent, received, and interpreted.

Additional Information

  • Communication position:
  • This term is not typically used to describe the context of communication. It might refer to the stance or viewpoint of a communicator, but it does not encapsulate the entire situation.
  • Communication praxis:
  • Praxis refers to the practice or practical application of a theory. In communication, it might relate to the application of communication theories, but it is not the general context.
  • Communication convention:
  • Conventions are the accepted norms or standards in communication. They are part of the communication situation but do not represent the entire context.
31

A person travels from X to Y at a speed of 50 km/hr and returns from Y to X by increasing his speed by 50%. His average speed during the journey is

  1. ((a))

    62.5 km/hr

  2. ((b))

    60 km/hr

  3. ((c))

    62 km/hr

  4. ((d))

    64 km/hr

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

60 km/hr

Given: X to Y at a speed of 50 km/hr and Y to X by increasing his speed by 50%

Step 1: Calculate the speed while returning.

The speed while returning is increased by 50%. So, the new speed is:

Speed while returning = 50 + (50 × 50 / 100) = 50 + 25 = 75 km/h

Step 2: Use the formula for average speed when the distances are equal:

The formula for average speed when the distance is the same in both directions is:

Average Speed = (2 × Speed1 × Speed2) / (Speed1 + Speed2)

Here, Speed1 is the speed while going (50 km/h), and Speed2 is the speed while returning (75 km/h). Let's calculate the average speed:

Average Speed = (2 × 50 × 75) / (50 + 75)

= (7500) / 125

= 60 km/h

Therefore, the average speed during the journey is 60 km/h.

32

When a water body becomes extremely low in nutrient content, then it is called as

  1. Dystrophic
  2. Oligotrophic
  3. Mesotrophic
  4. Eutrophic
  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2

The correct answer is -  Oligotrophic.

Key Points

  • Oligotrophic
  • An oligotrophic water body has very low levels of nutrients such as phosphates and nitrates.
  • These water bodies are characterized by clear water with a low amount of algae and high oxygen levels throughout the water column.
  • Oligotrophic lakes typically support a limited population of aquatic life, but the species that do inhabit these waters are usually well adapted to such conditions.
  • They are often found in regions with hard, slow-weathering granitic rocks.

Additional Information

  • Dystrophic
  • Dystrophic water bodies contain high levels of organic material, particularly from plant and peat moss decay.
  • They are often brownish in color due to the high concentration of humic substances and tend to be acidic with low clarity.
  • Such water bodies have low productivity and are usually found in bogs and swamps.
  • Hence, Dystrophic is incorrect for describing extremely low nutrient content.
  • Mesotrophic
  • Mesotrophic water bodies have an intermediate level of nutrients, more than oligotrophic but less than eutrophic.
  • They are moderately productive and often have clear water with moderate amounts of aquatic plants and algae.
  • Such lakes support a diverse and balanced population of aquatic life.
  • Hence, Mesotrophic is incorrect for describing extremely low nutrient content.
  • Eutrophic
  • Eutrophic water bodies are rich in nutrients, especially nitrogen and phosphorus.
  • They support high levels of primary productivity, often resulting in dense algal blooms and low water clarity.
  • Such lakes can suffer from hypoxic or anoxic conditions due to the decomposition of organic matter, which depletes oxygen levels.
  • Hence, Eutrophic is incorrect for describing extremely low nutrient content.
33

The students' t-test would be useful for?

A. comparing two groups to see whether their means differ.

B. comparing multiple groups (more than two) to see whether their means differ.

C. testing the significance of correlation coefficient.

D. testing the significance of regression coefficient.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Only A, B and C

  2. ((b))

    Only B and D

  3. ((c))

    Only A, C and D

  4. ((d))

    Only A, B, C and D

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Only A, C and D

The correct answer is Only A, C and D .

Key PointsThe usefulness of the students' t-test:

  • Comparing Two Groups
  • The t-test is used for comparing two groups to see whether their means differ. This usage addresses specific comparisons, especially with small sample sizes.
  • Typical scenario: Evaluating the effectiveness of a treatment (group 1) compared to a control (group 2).
  • Hence statement A is correct.
  • Comparing Multiple Groups
  • The t-test is not designed for comparing more than two groups; ANOVA (Analysis of Variance) is more appropriate for that purpose.
  • Hence statement B is incorrect.
  • Testing the Significance of Correlation Coefficient
  • The t-test can be used to test the significance of the correlation coefficient in determining the strength and direction of a linear relationship between two variables.
  • Hence statement C is correct.
  • Testing the Significance of Regression Coefficient
  • The t-test is used to test the significance of individual regression coefficients in a regression model, to see if a predictor variable significantly predicts the outcome variable.
  • Hence statement D is correct.

Additional Information

  • Other Statistical Tests
  • ANOVA (Analysis of Variance): Used for comparing the means of three or more groups.
  • Chi-Square Test: Often used for categorical data to examine the relationship between two categorical variables.
  • Z-Test: Used when sample sizes are large (n > 30).
34

If (L) represents a number L in base-M number system, then which of the following equalities are true?

A. (127.125)10 (1111111.001)2

B. (127.125)10 (1333.02)4

C. (127.125)10 (177.1)8

D. (127.125)10 (7F.2)16

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A only

  2. ((b))

    A and B only

  3. ((c))

    A, B and C only

  4. ((d))

    A, B, C and D

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A, B, C and D

The correct answer is 'A, B, C, and D'

Key Points

  • Base-M Number Systems:
  • A number in base-M number system is represented with digits from 0 to M-1.
  • When converting from one base to another, the number's value remains the same, but its representation changes.
  • For instance, the decimal number (127.125)10 can be represented differently in binary (base-2), quaternary (base-4), octal (base-8), and hexadecimal (base-16) systems.
  • Conversions:
  • (127.125)10 to binary:
  • 127 in binary is 1111111.
  • 0.125 in binary is 0.001.
  • So, (127.125)10 is (1111111.001)2.
  • (127.125)10 to quaternary:
  • 127 in quaternary is 1333.
  • 0.125 in quaternary is 0.02.
  • So, (127.125)10 is (1333.02)4.
  • (127.125)10 to octal:
  • 127 in octal is 177.
  • 0.125 in octal is 0.1.
  • So, (127.125)10 is (177.1)8.
  • (127.125)10 to hexadecimal:
  • 127 in hexadecimal is 7F.
  • 0.125 in hexadecimal is 0.2.
  • So, (127.125)10 is (7F.2)16.

Additional Information

  • Base Conversion Methodologies:
  • To convert the integer part of a decimal number to another base, divide the number by the new base and record the remainders.
  • To convert the fractional part, multiply it by the new base and record the integer part of the result.
  • Repeat these steps until you reach a terminating or repeating sequence.
  • Practical Applications:
  • Understanding different base systems is crucial in fields like computer science, where binary (base-2) and hexadecimal (base-16) are frequently used.
  • Octal (base-8) and quaternary (base-4) systems are also used in various computing and digital applications.
35

Match the List-I with List-II

LIST I Swayamprabha Channel No.LIST II Theme
AChannel 03 (PRABODH)IEducation and Home Science
BChannel 04 (SAARASWAT)IIInformation, Communication and Management Studies
CChannel 05 (PRABANDHAN)IIILaw and Legal Studies
DChannel 06 (VIDHIK)IVSocial and Behavioural Sciences
<br>

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  2. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  3. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  4. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3

The correct answer is A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Key Points

  • Matching the Lists:
  • Channel 03 (PRABODH) - Social and Behavioural Sciences: This channel focuses on themes related to social and behavioral sciences, including sociology, psychology, and related fields.
  • Channel 04 (SAARASWAT) - Education and Home Science: This channel covers educational methodologies, pedagogy, and home science topics.
  • Channel 05 (PRABANDHAN) - Information, Communication, and Management Studies: This channel provides content related to management studies, information technology, and communication.
  • Channel 06 (VIDHIK) - Law and Legal Studies: This channel is dedicated to law and legal studies, providing educational content on various legal topics.
36

Identify the probability sampling techniques?

A. simple random sampling

B. snowball sampling

C. stratified random sampling

D. convenience sampling

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Only A and B

  2. ((b))

    Only B and C

  3. ((c))

    Only A and C

  4. ((d))

    Only B and D

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Only A and C

The correct answer is Only A and C​.

Key Points

  • Simple Random Sampling
  • It is a technique where every member of the population has an equal chance of being selected.
  • It is a type of probability sampling.
  • Hence, statement A is correct.
  • Snowball Sampling
  • In this technique, existing study subjects recruit future subjects from among their acquaintances.
  • It is typically used in qualitative research and is a type of non-probability sampling.
  • Hence, statement B is incorrect.
  • Stratified Random Sampling
  • This involves dividing the population into subgroups (strata) and then taking a simple random sample from each stratum.
  • It ensures that specific subgroups are represented in the sample.
  • It is a type of probability sampling.
  • Hence, statement C is correct.
  • Convenience Sampling
  • This involves selecting samples based on their availability and ease of access.
  • It is a type of non-probability sampling and is often prone to bias.
  • Hence, statement D is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Understanding probability sampling is essential for statistically valid inferences:
  • Systematic Sampling: Select every nth member from the population after a random start.
  • Cluster Sampling: Divide the population into clusters (usually geographically), then randomly select clusters and sample all or random members within them.
  • Non-probability sampling methods include:
  • Quota Sampling: Similar to stratified sampling but without random selection.
  • Judgmental (Purposive) Sampling: Samples are selected based on the researcher's knowledge and judgment.
37

Match the List-I with List-II

LIST I
(Malware types)
LIST II
(Characteristics)
A.Trojan HorseI.Propagates copies of itself through a network
B.WormII.Triggers action when certain condition occurs
C.Logic BombIII.Hooks standard OS calls to hide the existence of malware
D.RootkitIV.Contains unexpected covert effect
<br>

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
  2. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  3. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  4. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

4

The correct answer is - 'A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III'.

Key Points

  • Trojan Horse - Contains unexpected covert effect
  • Trojan Horses masquerade as legitimate software but contain hidden malicious functions.
  • They do not self-replicate like viruses or worms.
  • Typically used to create backdoors, steal data, or harm the system in covert ways.
  • Worm - Propagates copies of itself through a network
  • Worms are self-replicating malware that spread without user intervention.
  • They exploit vulnerabilities in network protocols to propagate.
  • Their propagation can lead to widespread damage and network congestion.
  • Logic Bomb - Triggers action when certain condition occurs
  • Logic bombs are snippets of code embedded within legitimate programs.
  • They activate when specific conditions are met (e.g., a particular date/time or an action by the user).
  • Commonly used to delete data or cause system malfunctions at a predefined time.
  • Rootkit - Hooks standard OS calls to hide the existence of malware
  • Rootkits are designed to hide the existence of other malware.
  • They manipulate the operating system to conceal their processes, files, or data.
  • Often used to maintain persistent, undetected access to a system.
38

Match the List-I with List-II

LIST I Patterns of CommunicationLIST II Social Unit
A.Physical situationI.Participants
B.Persons involved in interactionII.Key
C.Manner of communication enactedIII.Instrumentality
D.Channels of communicationIV.Scene or setting
<br>

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

  2. ((b))

    A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

  3. ((c))

    A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

  4. ((d))

    A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

The correct answer is 'A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III'

Key Points

  • Physical situation (A) - Scene or setting (IV):
  • The physical situation in communication refers to the environment or setting where the communication takes place. It encompasses the location, time, and context, which are collectively referred to as the 'scene or setting'.
  • Persons involved in interaction (B) - Participants (I):
  • This involves the individuals or groups who are engaged in the communication process. These participants are the key elements in any communication scenario, as they are the ones who exchange messages.
  • Manner of communication enacted (C) - Key (II):
  • The manner in which communication is carried out refers to the 'key', which includes the tone, style, and formality of the communication. It is how the message is delivered and perceived.
  • Channels of communication (D) - Instrumentality (III):
  • This refers to the medium or channels used for communication, such as verbal, non-verbal, written, or digital means. 'Instrumentality' encompasses the tools or instruments used to facilitate the exchange of information.
39

If you want to understand the theoretical reasons that led researchers to conduct a study that appeared as a research article in a journal, you would read which of the following sections of the research article?

  1. ((a))

    discussion

  2. ((b))

    abstract

  3. ((c))

    introduction

  4. ((d))

    results

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

introduction

The correct answer is - Introduction

Key Points

  • Introduction
  • Provides the background and rationale for the study.
  • Outlines the theoretical framework and the research questions or hypotheses.
  • Explains why the study is necessary and what it aims to contribute to the field.

Additional Information

  • Discussion
  • Interprets the results and how they relate to the original research questions or hypotheses.
  • Discusses the implications of the findings and suggests areas for future research.
  • Abstract
  • Provides a brief summary of the research, including its purpose, methods, results, and conclusions.
  • It is useful for a quick overview but lacks detailed theoretical background.
  • Results
  • Presents the data and findings of the study without interpretation.
  • Includes tables, graphs, and statistical analyses.
40

In a certain coding language, if the word 'STORK' is coded as 'VQRON', then the word 'TIRED' will be coded as

  1. V E T C F
  2. W F U B G
  3. W E T C G
  4. V F U B F
  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2

Given:

The word 'STORK' is coded as 'VQRON'.

We need to find how the word 'TIRED' will be coded.

Let's break it down letter by letter:

S → V (+3 positions)

T → Q (-3 positions)

O → R (+3 positions)

R → O (-3 positions)

K → N (+3 positions)

It alternates between adding 3 and subtracting 3 positions in the alphabet. Now, let's apply the same rule to the word 'TIRED':

T → W (+3 positions)

I → F (-3 positions)

R → U (+3 positions)

E → B (-3 positions)

D → G (+3 positions)

Therefore, the word 'TIRED' will be coded as W F U B G.

41

Identify the sequence of words A-E that correctly fills the blanks in the following paragraph:

The ________ is the 'brain' of the computer and the ________ processor made by Intel is an example of this. The speed of the processor is measured in ________. ________ is a volatile memory whereas ________ is used in most computers to hold a small special piece of software known as the 'boot up' program.

A. ROM

B. CPU

C. RAM

D. Pentium

E. Hertz

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. B, D, E, C, A
  2. D, B, C, E, A
  3. C, D, E, A, B
  4. B, E, D, A, C
  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

B, D, E, C, A is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • CPU
  • CPU (Central Processing Unit) is referred to as the 'brain' of the computer.
  • It performs the basic arithmetic, logic, and control operations required by the computer programs.
  • Hence, it correctly fills the first blank in the sentence.
  • Pentium
  • Pentium processor by Intel is a specific example of a CPU.
  • Pentium processors were widely used in personal computers and are known for their reliable performance.
  • Therefore, it accurately completes the second blank.
  • Hertz
  • The speed of processors is measured in Hertz (Hz), including units like MHz (Megahertz) or GHz (Gigahertz).
  • It denotes the number of cycles per second, indicating the processor’s speed.
  • This makes it the appropriate choice for the third blank.
  • RAM
  • RAM (Random Access Memory) is a volatile memory, meaning its contents are lost when the power is turned off.
  • It temporarily stores data that the CPU needs while performing tasks.
  • Thus, it fittingly fills the fourth blank.
  • ROM
  • ROM (Read-Only Memory) is used to store firmware or software that is rarely changed, such as the boot-up program.
  • This boot-up program initiates the process of loading the operating system after the computer is powered on.
  • Hence, it appropriately completes the final blank.
42

A collection of the student's work in an area, showing growth, self reflection, and achievements is known as:-

  1. Modelling
  2. Portfolio
  3. Mastery goal
  4. Problem solving
  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2

The correct answer is 'Portfolio'

Key Points

  • Portfolio:
  • A portfolio is a collection of a student's work that showcases their growth, self-reflection, and achievements in a particular area.
  • It often includes various types of work, such as essays, projects, artwork, and other assignments, along with reflections on their learning process.
  • Portfolios are used to assess both the process and the product of learning, providing a comprehensive view of a student's abilities and progress.
  • They are widely used in educational settings to encourage students to take ownership of their learning and to provide a holistic assessment tool for educators.

Additional Information

  • Modelling:
  • Modelling refers to demonstrating a process, behavior, or skill so that others can learn by observing.
  • It is often used in teaching to provide students with a clear example to follow.
  • Mastery goal:
  • A mastery goal focuses on achieving a high level of competence or understanding in a specific area.
  • It emphasizes personal growth, effort, and the learning process over performance relative to others.
  • Problem solving:
  • Problem solving is the process of finding solutions to difficult or complex issues.
  • It is a critical skill in many fields and involves identifying the problem, generating potential solutions, and implementing the best one.
43

Three successive discounts of 30% on the marked price of an item are together equivalent to a single discount of

  1. 90%
  2. 27%
  3. 65.7%
  4. 78.2%
  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3

Given: Three successive discounts of 30% on the marked price of an item.

We need to find the equivalent single discount percentage.

The formula for calculating equivalent successive discounts is:

Equivalent Discount Formula:

Let the successive discounts be d1, d2, and d3. The equivalent discount, D, is given by:

D = d1 + d2 + d3 - (d1 * d2 / 100) - (d2 * d3 / 100) - (d1 * d3 / 100) + (d1 * d2 * d3 / 10000)

In this case, d1 = 30%, d2 = 30%, and d3 = 30%.

Let's calculate the equivalent single discount.

Using the formula:

D = 30 + 30 + 30 - (30 * 30 / 100) - (30 * 30 / 100) - (30 * 30 / 100) + (30 * 30 * 30 / 10000)

= 90 - 9 - 9 - 9 + 2.7

= 90 - 27 + 2.7

= 65.7%

Therefore, the equivalent single discount is 65.7%.

44

Which of the following universities were multi-disciplinary in ancient India?

A. Banaras Hindu University

B. Takshashila

C. Nalanda

D. Vallabhi

E. Vikramshila

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. Only A, B, C
  2. Only A, C, E
  3. Only A, D, E
  4. Only B, C, D, E
  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

4

The correct answer is 'Only B, C, D, E'

Key Points

  • Ancient Indian Universities:
  • Takshashila: One of the oldest universities in the world, Takshashila was known for its diverse range of subjects including medicine, law, military science, and more.
  • Nalanda: A renowned center for learning, Nalanda offered studies in subjects like theology, grammar, logic, astronomy, and medicine.
  • Vallabhi: Vallabhi University was an important educational center in Western India, offering various disciplines including law, economics, and politics.
  • Vikramshila: Another major educational institution, it was known for specializing in subjects like Buddhist philosophy, grammar, logic, and metaphysics.

Additional Information

  • Banaras Hindu University:
  • While Banaras Hindu University is a well-known multi-disciplinary institution in modern India, it does not belong to the category of ancient universities.
45

Dr. Baba Saheb Ambedkar was associated with:

A. Presidency College, Kolkata

B. Khalsa College, Mumbai

C. Siddharth College, Mumbai

D. Milind College, Aurangabad

E. National College, Bengaluru

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Only A, B, C

  2. ((b))

    Only B, C, D

  3. ((c))

    Only C, D, E

  4. ((d))

    Only A, D, E

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only B, C, D

The correct answer is 'Only B, C, D'.

Key Points

  • Dr. Baba Saheb Ambedkar's association with educational institutions:
  • Siddharth College, Mumbai: Dr. Ambedkar founded Siddharth College in Mumbai in 1946 to provide higher education opportunities to the underprivileged sections of society.
  • Milind College, Aurangabad: He also established Milind College in Aurangabad with the same vision of promoting education among the oppressed classes.
  • Khalsa College, Mumbai: Although Dr. Ambedkar was associated with various educational initiatives, there is no significant record of his direct involvement with Khalsa College, Mumbai. However, given his general influence on educational reforms, his indirect impact might be acknowledged.

Additional Information

  • Presidency College, Kolkata:
  • There is no notable record of Dr. Ambedkar’s association with Presidency College, Kolkata. His educational journey primarily involved institutions like Columbia University and the London School of Economics.
  • National College, Bengaluru:
  • Similarly, Dr. Ambedkar did not have a significant connection with National College, Bengaluru. His focus was more on institutions within Maharashtra and initiatives that directly impacted the Dalit community.

A. K. Ramajujan was one of those thinkers, like Freud (whom he greatly, though not uncritically,

admired), who so transform our way of looking at a subject that we are in danger of undervaluing

their contribution, since we have come to take for granted precisely what they taught us, as we

view the subject through their eyes. At a time when the American Indo-logical establishment

regarded native Indian scholars merely as sources of information about language and texts, like

the raw fiber that were taken from India to be processed in British mills, but seldom as scholars

who might have their on ideas about how to process those texts, Raman taught them all how to

weave a theory, a folktale, a poem, a book. Long before it was politically respectable, let alone politically correct,

to study the works of women or of 'illiterate' peasants, Raman valued their poetry, their stories

and their counter-systems. At a time when Indian literature meant Sanskrit, and Sanskrit meant

Greek and Latin, Raman arrived in Chicago to join Edward C. Dimock and the other founding

fathers' in proclaiming to the world the relevance of Tamil and Bengali and the other mother

tongues. Without so much as raising his gentle voice, he blazed a great path through the centre of

Indological studies. He gave us so many new paradigms that no Indologist can now think about

India without thinking through his thoughts

46

Who were the 'Founding Fathers' that Ramanujan joined in Chicago?

  1. British Mill Owners
  2. American Indo-logical establishment leaders
  3. Edward C. Dimock and others
  4. Greek and Latin scholars
  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • The passage mentions that Ramanujan arrived in Chicago to join Edward C. Dimock and the other 'founding fathers'.
  • These individuals were instrumental in broadening the scope of Indological studies by highlighting the importance of Tamil, Bengali, and other mother tongues.
  • They played a critical role in expanding the study of Indian literature beyond just Sanskrit and drawing attention to other regional languages.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: British Mill Owners - The passage uses British mill owners as a metaphor and does not suggest that Ramanujan joined them.
  • Option 2: American Indo-logical establishment leaders - While Ramanujan interacted with members of the American Indological establishment, the passage specifically identifies Edward C. Dimock and others as the 'founding fathers' he joined.
  • Option 4: Greek and Latin scholars - The passage mentions Greek and Latin in the context of traditional Indian literature studies but does not indicate that Ramanujan joined Greek and Latin scholars.
47

What did Ramanujan teach in America?

  1. Process raw fibers in British mills
  2. Weave theories, folktales, poems and books
  3. Only Sanskrit literature
  4. Only English Literature
  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • Ramanujan taught how to weave theories, folktales, poems, and books.
  • This was a significant contribution because, at the time, native Indian scholars were viewed merely as sources of raw information about language and texts.
  • His approach allowed them to be seen as scholars capable of innovative thought and creativity in processing texts.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: Process raw fibers in British mills - This is a metaphor in the passage but not what Ramanujan taught.
  • Option 3: Only Sanskrit literature - Ramanujan's focus was broader, including many Indian languages and cultural traditions.
  • Option 4: Only English Literature - This is not mentioned in the passage as his area of teaching.
48

Who is A.K Ramanujan compared to in the text?

  1. Chomsky
  2. Sigmund Freud
  3. Brunvand
  4. British Mill Owners
  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • A.K. Ramanujan is compared to Sigmund Freud in the text.
  • The text mentions that Ramanujan, like Freud, transformed our way of looking at a subject.
  • This indicates a comparison based on the significant impact both thinkers had in their respective fields.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Additional Information

  • Chomsky: There's no mention or comparison to Chomsky in the provided text.
  • Brunvand: Also not mentioned or compared to in the text.
  • British Mill Owners: Referenced, but not in a comparative manner to Ramanujan's impact like Freud.
49

The languages that Ramanujan tried to bring to limelight in Indological studies is

  1. Greek and Latin
  2. Only Sanskrit
  3. Tamil, Bengali and other mother tongues
  4. French and German
  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • Ramanujan tried to bring to light the relevance of Tamil, Bengali, and other mother tongues in Indological studies.
  • The passage indicates that he and his colleagues were advocating for the recognition and study of these languages at a time when Indian literature was predominantly associated with Sanskrit and its similarities to Greek and Latin.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: Greek and Latin - These are mentioned as the focus of traditional Indian literature studies but not as the languages Ramanujan tried to highlight.
  • Option 2: Only Sanskrit - While Sanskrit was a significant language in Indian literature, Ramanujan aimed to bring attention to other regional languages as well.
  • Option 4: French and German - These languages are not mentioned in the passage in the context of Ramanujan's efforts.
50

Ramanujan emphasised on

  1. The criticism on the British mills
  2. Creating controversies in American Indological Studies
  3. A path through Indological Studies
  4. The study of Western languages only
  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • Ramanujan blazed a great path through the centre of Indological studies, indicating he emphasized creating a significant and innovative path in this field.
  • He gave many new paradigms, transforming how Indological studies were approached and perceived.
  • His contributions were profound and pivotal in reshaping Indological studies.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: The criticism on the British mills - This is a metaphor used in the passage and not the main emphasis of Ramanujan's work.
  • Option 2: Creating controversies in American Indological Studies - The passage does not suggest that Ramanujan aimed to create controversies.
  • Option 4: The study of Western languages only - Ramanujan's work was focused on broadening the scope of Indological studies to include various Indian mother tongues, not Western languages.

Attempt this paper under real exam conditions

Timed interface, section switching, instant scoring, and question-by-question analytics — free.

Start Timed Attempt