UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 20th Oct 2022 Shift 2 (Previous Year Paper)

Calculation:

Adding up the population of City-P for all the years, we get:

40 + 45 + 60 + 50 + 70 + 65 + 80 = 410

Dividing this sum by 7, we get:

410/7 = 58.57 ≈ 59 Lakhs

Therefore, the average population of City-P for all the given years is 59 Lakhs

Total population of City-P for the years 2014, 2015 and 2016 together

⇒  40 + 45 + 60 = 145 lakhs

Total population of City-R for the years 2018, 2019 and 2020 together

⇒  80 + 90 + 100 = 270 lakhs

Therefore, the ratio of the total population of City-P for the years 2014, 2015 and 2016 together to the total population of City-R for the years 2018, 2019 and 2020 together is:

⇒  145/270

⇒  29/54

Hence, the required ratio is 29 : 54.

Population of City-R in 2016 = 60 lakhs

Population of City-R in 2017 = 70 lakhs

The rise in population = Population of City-R in 2017 - Population of City-R in 2016

⇒ 70 - 60 = 10 lakhs

The percentage rise in population of City-R from the year 2016 to 2017 can be calculated as: 

[(Rise in population) / (Population in 2016)] × 100%

⇒ (10 / 60) × 100%

⇒ 16.67%

Therefore, the percentage rise in population of City-R from the year 2016 to 2017 is approximately 16.67%.

To find the difference in the total population of City-R and City-Q for all seven years, we need to add the population of each city over the seven years:

Calculation:

Total population of City-R = 50 + 40 + 60 + 70 + 80 + 90 + 100 = 490 lakhs

Total population of City-Q = 20 + 30 + 50 + 55 + 60 + 70 + 75 = 360 lakhs

The difference in the total population of City-R and City-Q for all seven years is:

490 - 360 = 130 lakhs

Therefore, the difference in the total population of City-R and City-Q for all seven years is 130 lakhs.

Calculation:

For City P:

In 2015, the population increased by (45-40)/40 × 100% = 12.5%

In 2016, the population increased by (60-45)/45 × 100% = 33.33%

In 2017, the population decreased by (50-60)/60 × 100% = -16.67%

In 2018, the population increased by (70-50)/50 × 100% = 40%

In 2019, the population decreased by (65-70)/70 × 100% = -7.14%

In 2020, the population increased by (80-65)/65 × 100% = 23.08%

For City Q:

In 2015, the population increased by (30-20)/20 × 100% = 50%

In 2016, the population increased by (50-30)/30 × 100% = 66.67%

In 2017, the population increased by (55-50)/50 × 100% = 10%

In 2018, the population increased by (60-55)/55 × 100% = 9.09%

In 2019, the population increased by (70-60)/60 × 100% = 16.67%

In 2020, the population increased by (75-70)/70 × 100% = 7.14%

For City R:

In 2015, the population decreased by (40-50)/50 × 100% = -20%

In 2016, the population increased by (60-40)/40 × 100% = 50%

In 2017, the population increased by (70-60)/60 × 100% = 16.67%

In 2018, the population increased by (80-70)/70 × 100% = 14.29%

In 2019, the population increased by (90-80)/80 × 100% = 12.5%

In 2020, the population increased by (100-90)/90 × 100% = 11.11%

From the above calculations, we can see that City Q had the highest percentage rise in population from the previous year in the year 2016 with an increase of 66.67%.

Open educational resources (OER) are teaching, learning, and research tools. 

Key PointsAssertion A: Open Educational Resources (OERs) are available for free.

• It has been purposefully produced and licenced so that anyone can use, copy, and, in most circumstances, change them.
• The word OER refers to materials and resources that are made available to the public.
• It may be used, remixed, improved, and redistributed by anybody with certain licences.

Thus, A is correct. 

Reason R: The basic philosophy behind OERs is to provide freely accessible, openly licensed text and media to all, that are useful for teaching and learning.

• It is publicly accessible internet resources that can be used by anybody for instruction or study.
• OERs are accessible to and usable by anybody with internet access; access is neither location- or institution-specific.
• OERs is to provide freely accessible, openly licensed text and media to all, that are useful for teaching and learning.

So, Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

MOOCs stands for Massive Open Online Courses. 

Key PointsAssertion A: MOOCs are learner­-centric courses.

• MOOCs are one technique to make high-quality educational materials available to a big group of learners.
• It is gaining popularity as a way for learners of all backgrounds to advance their knowledge and abilities.
• It is a learner-centric course.

So, A is correct. 

Reason R: MOOCs can only be accessed by a learner in the presence of his/her teacher.

• Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs) are open enrollment, free online courses.
• MOOCs offer a flexible and economical approach to enhancing your career, learning new skills, and delivering high-quality educational experiences at scale.
• An open online course is one that is designed for open access and limitless participation over the Internet.

Thus, R is not correct. 

Therefore, A is correct but R is not correct.

Research ethics is applying fundamental ethical concepts to research activities. 

Key Points

Therefore, A ‐ IV, B ‐ III, C ‐ II, D ‐ I is the correct matching.

Key Points

A questionnaire is a research tool that is used to collect data from individuals. It typically consists of a set of questions that are designed to elicit specific information from respondents. When preparing a questionnaire, several factors should be considered in order to ensure that the data collected is reliable and valid.

• The purpose of research: It is an important consideration while preparing a questionnaire. The questions should be designed in such a way that they align with the research objectives and provide relevant information.
• Brevity of questions: It is another important consideration. The questions should be clear, concise, and easy to understand. Long and complex questions can confuse respondents and lead to inaccurate responses.
• Avoidance of leading questions: It is crucial in order to ensure that the data collected is unbiased. Leading questions are those that suggest a particular answer or bias the respondent towards a particular response.

Additional InformationQuestions that seek detailed information: It may be appropriate in certain cases, but they should be used sparingly. Respondents may become fatigued or overwhelmed if they are asked to provide too much detailed information.

Preference for double‐barrelled questions: It is not recommended as it can lead to confusion and inaccurate responses. Double-barrelled questions are those that ask two questions in one and can be difficult for respondents to answer accurately.

Hence option 1 is the correct answer.

The term blended learning refers to a process of integrating digital learning resources with more conventional face-to-face instruction in a classroom. 

Key Points

• Blended learning combines traditional face-to-face instruction with technology-mediated online instruction.
• It is referred to as mixed-mode instruction, which combines several delivery methods.
• Teachers may now streamline their lessons to help all students attain their potential.
• It can reduce expenses by holding classes online.
• It essentially substitutes expensive textbooks with electronic devices that students frequently bring to class.

Thus, it combines elements of face‐to‐face and online / ICT tools for teaching‐learning is the correct phrase best to describe blended learning.

Additional Information

• There are various types of Blended Learning Models such as Flipped models, Face-to-Face Driver models, Rotational models and flex models.
• Online learning offers self-paced personalized learning with interactive media such as games, videos, tutorials, quizzes, etc. all

A good working relationship between the teacher and the student in the classroom is essential to fostering mutual respect and trust. 

Key Points

• This relationship can include getting to know students better, giving them choices, and motivating them to improve as learners every day.
• Teachers who act in this way respect their students, value their uniqueness and are kind.
• Positive interactions with students increase their academic progress.
• Teachers play the role of a guide/facilitator with a desire to help them.
• It creates a friendly and safe environment for all children in your classroom.

Thus, Playing the role of a guide/facilitator with a desire to help them can a teacher establish a good rapport with his/her students. 

Additional Information

• The learning atmosphere is notably more pleasant when a teacher and their class have a strong connection.
• Students are comfortable making errors, asking questions, and trying difficult things.

Plagiarism is the act of using another person's words or ideas without properly citing them.

Key Points

• Plagiarism in academic writing refers to the use of ideas, phrases, or data from a source without properly attributing it.
• Plagiarism is the false depiction of another person's words, ideas, or expressions as one's own unique work.
• It may be penalized in court for discrimination brought about by copyright infringement, violations of moral rights, or torts, just like counterfeiting.
• Some of the tools used for checking plagiarism such as Turnitin, Urkund, ithenticate, Dupli Checker and Grammarly etc.

Thus, Latex is not used for checking plagiarism. 

Additional Information

• Turnitin: It is a plagiarism detection tool that has access to the majority of content databases and makes use of the industry-leading plagiarism detection technology
• iThenticate: Its tool can be used to check papers and proposals before submission by faculty and graduate students. S&T academics, employees, and graduate students get free access
• Urkund: It is an Indigenous plagiarism tool developed by the Ministry of Education for all Universities and Institutes and managed by INFLIBNET.

Key Points

Reductionism:

• Reductionism is a philosophical approach that seeks to explain complex phenomena by reducing them to their smaller, more fundamental parts.
• It involves breaking down a complex system or concept into its constituent elements or components, with the belief that understanding these smaller parts will allow for a greater understanding of the whole.

The quantitative research is based on Reductionism

• Quantitative research is often associated with reductionism because it seeks to reduce complex phenomena into smaller, measurable components in order to study them objectively.
• This approach is grounded in the belief that by breaking down a problem into smaller, more manageable parts, it becomes easier to measure and understand.

Key Points

Stratified Random Sampling:

• Stratified random sampling involves dividing the population into smaller, more homogeneous subgroups called strata, and then selecting a random sample from each stratum.
• This approach allows for a more representative sample of the population, as it ensures that each subgroup is proportionally represented in the sample.
• Example, if a researcher wants to study the effects of a new educational program on student achievement in a large school district, stratified random sampling could involve dividing the population into smaller strata based on factors such as grade level, socioeconomic status, and academic performance. A random sample of students would then be selected from each stratum, ensuring that the sample is representative of the larger population.

Hence, when a research problem is related to a heterogeneous population, the most suitable sampling method is often stratified random sampling.

Cluster sampling:

• It is a type of sampling technique used in research studies where the population is too large and widely spread out to be practically studied as a whole.
• Cluster sampling involves dividing the population into smaller, more manageable groups or clusters, and then selecting a sample of these clusters for the study.

Convenient sampling:

• It is a type of non-probability sampling technique used in research studies where the researcher selects study participants based on their convenience or availability.
• This method involves selecting individuals or groups who are readily accessible to the researcher, rather than randomly selecting from a larger population.

The lottery method:

• The lottery method is a type of random sampling technique used in research studies to select a sample of participants from a larger population.
• In this method, each member of the population is assigned a unique number, and these numbers are placed into a container or database.
• The researcher then randomly selects numbers from the container, and the individuals associated with those numbers are chosen as participants in the study

LMS stands for the learning management system. 

Key Points

• LMSs are primarily focused on delivering online learning.
• It is a piece of software or web-based technology that is used to organize, carry out, and evaluate a particular learning activity.
• An LMS may provide classroom management for instructor-led instruction or a flipped classroom in the higher education setting.
• LMS is used for providing online content, assessments, and for seamless virtual interaction of teachers with learners.
• LMS may provide classroom management for instructor-led instruction or a flipped classroom in the higher education setting.
• It works best when it can scale and adapt to the different demands of your students.

So, for effective integration of ICT in teaching-­learning of Learning Management System should be used for providing online content, assessments, and for seamless virtual interaction of teachers with learners.

Additional Information

• Content Management System: It is software that enables people to add, edit, and manage content without having to possess specialist technical skills on a website.
• WhatsApp: It enables users to share photographs, documents, user locations, and other content in addition to text and voice messages, phone conversations, and video calls.
• Facebook: It is a website that enables users to connect online with friends, coworkers, and strangers after creating a free profile.

The correct matching is A ‐ IV, B ‐ I, C ‐ II, D ‐ III

Key Points

Formula Used:

Average = Sum of all observation ÷ Number of observations

Solution:

The prime numbers between 30 and 50 are 31, 37, 41, 43, and 47.

So, the sum of these numbers is: 31 + 37 + 41 + 43 + 47 = 199.

Dividing this by 5 gives us: 199/5 = 39.8.

Therefore, the average of all the prime numbers between 30 and 50 is 39.8.

The given series follows the following pattern:

Here 5,7,9,11,13,15 are all odd numbers and are added to the given series, 

3 + 5 = 8

8 + 7 = 15

15 + 9 = 24

24 + 11 = 35

35 + 13 = 48

48 + 15 = 63.

Hence 34 must be replaced by 35.

Shortcut Trick

Age ratio 18 years ago = 3 : 1 (Difference = 2 units)

Present age ratio = 2 : 1 (Difference = 1 unit)

Equating differences: Present ratio becomes 4 : 2 (Difference = 2 units)

Ratio change: 3 → 4 or 1 → 2 is 1 unit, which equals 18 years.

Sum of present ages = (4 + 2) units = 6 units = 6 × 18 = 108 years.

∴ The correct answer is 108 years.

Alternate Method

Given: Ratio 18 years ago was 3:1 and present ratio is 2:1.

Let the present age of the son be x and the man be 2x.

⇒ 18 years ago, (2x − 18) = 3 × (x − 18)

⇒ 2x − 18 = 3x − 54

⇒ 3x − 2x = 54 − 18

⇒ x = 36

⇒ Present age of man = 2 × 36 = 72 years

⇒ Present age of son = 36 years

⇒ Sum = 72 + 36 = 108 years

∴ The correct answer is 108 years.

Additional Information

Ratio Difference Method

To solve age problems quickly, always keep the difference between the ages constant by multiplying the ratios with the difference of the other ratio.

Linear Equations in Ages

If 'n' years ago the age was x, the present age is x + n. If 'n' years hence the age is y, the present age is y − n.

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

⇒ Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Solution:

Let the speed of B be x km/hr.

Then, the speed of A = (x - 4) km/hr. (as A travels 4 km/hr slower than B)

When B turns back and meets A, the distance travelled A = 60 - 12 km = 48 km.

Distance traveled by B = 60 km + 12 km = 72 km (as B travels 12 km extra to meet A)

Time taken by B = distance/speed = 72/x hours.

Time taken by A in the trip = 48/(x - 4) hours.

As both A and B start at the same time, their travel time should be the same.

Therefore, we can equate their respective time taken in their trips.

72/x = 48/(x - 4)

⇒ 6/x = 4/(x - 4)

⇒ 6x-24 = 4x

⇒ 2x = 24

⇒ x = 12

Therefore, the speed of A = (x - 4) = 8 km/hr.

Hence, the speed of A is 8 km/hr.

Given:

P% = 20%

SP = Rs. 14,400

New CP = 1.15CP

Concept used: 

CP = \(\dfrac{100}{100 + P%} × SP\)

SP = \(\dfrac{100 + P%}{100} × CP \)

Calculation:

⇒ CP = \(\dfrac{100}{100 + 20} × 14400\)

⇒ CP = Rs. 12,000

New CP = 1.15 × 12000 = Rs. 13,800

To gain 15% profit, the new SP must be,

⇒ SP = \(\dfrac{100 + 15}{100} × 13800 \)

⇒ SP = 1.15 × 13800 = Rs. 15,870

∴ The new selling price of a T.V. set so as to gain a profit of 15% must be Rs. 15,870.

Shortcut Trick In questions where CP is increased by m% and the profit also should be increased by m%, the new SP can be calculated as,

SP = (1+ \(\dfrac{m}{100}\))² × CP

where, SP = New selling price

CP = Earlier cost price

In this question,

CP = Rs. 12,000

New SP = (1.15)² × 12000 = Rs. 15,870

The Classical Square of Opposition is a diagram that represents the logical relationships between four types of propositions: A (universal affirmative), E (universal negative), I (particular affirmative), and O (particular negative). 

Key Points

 

Relationships between Propositions:

• According to the square of opposition, if 'All S is P' is given as false (which means that there is at least one S that is not P), we can immediately infer that 'Some S is not P' is true (O proposition).
• Therefore, the correct answer is C. 'Some S is not P' is true.
• Option A ('No S is P' is true) would be true if the statement was 'No S is P' instead of 'All S is P'. Hence, it is false.
• Option B ('Some S is not P' is false) would be true if the statement was 'All S is P' instead of 'All S is P' being false. Hence, this option is also false.
• Option D ('No S is P' is undetermined) and Option E ('Some S is P' is undetermined) both can be true.

Hence, C, D and E only are correct.

'The acronym 'NHEQF' is for' 'National Higher Education Qualification Framework'.

Key Points

• The NHEQF was developed by the Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD) in consultation with various stakeholders, including universities, colleges, industry, and professional bodies.
• The NHEQF aims to provide a common reference framework for higher education qualifications, which will make it easier for employers, students, and other stakeholders to understand and compare different qualifications.
• It is based on a set of learning outcomes, which describe the knowledge, skills, and competencies that students are expected to acquire during their studies.
• The NHEQF consists of multiple levels, ranging from certificate level to doctoral level. Each level is defined in terms of a set of learning outcomes, and is associated with a specific credit system.
• The framework also provides for the recognition of prior learning, which allows individuals to gain credit for their existing skills and knowledge.
• The NHEQF is intended to promote quality and relevance in higher education, and to improve the employability of graduates.
• It is aligned with international best practices, such as the European Qualifications Framework (EQF) and the Qualifications Framework for the European Higher Education Area (QF-EHEA).

Key PointsInstitutions of National Importance:

• Institutions of National Importance are institutions that are established by the government and are considered to be of utmost importance for the development of the country.
• These institutions are given special status and recognition by the government, which allows them to have a greater degree of autonomy and flexibility in their functioning.
• They are usually established to promote excellence in education, research and development in specific fields, and to produce skilled professionals who can contribute to the growth and development of the country.

 

Rashtriya Raksha University (RRU) Gandhinagar:

• It is a newly established institution of national importance located in Gandhinagar, Gujarat, India.
• It was established in 2020 by upgrading the Raksha Shakti University (RSU), which was originally set up in 2009 to offer courses in the fields of internal security, police science, and law enforcement.
• The RRU aims to provide quality education and training in various fields related to national security, including cybersecurity, counterterrorism, forensic science, and disaster management.
• It is recognized as an institution of national importance under the Rashtriya Raksha University Act, 2020, which was passed by the Parliament of India.

​​

Hence, Rashtriya Raksha University, Gandhinagar is the institution of National Importance.

Key Points

Banabhatta's Kadambari is a classical Sanskrit novel that dates back to the 7^th century AD.

• The novel describes the story of a princess named Kadambari and her love interest, Prince Chandrapida.
• In the novel, good education is described as knowledge of 64 arts, which were considered essential for the education and upbringing of a noble person during ancient times in India.
• These arts are referred to as "Chausath Kalas" in Sanskrit, and they include a wide range of disciplines such as music, dance, painting, sculpture, cooking, gardening, weaving, and many others.
• The 64 arts were considered essential for a person's all-round development and were often taught to young princes and princesses in the ancient Indian gurukul system of education.
• These arts were not only meant to provide a well-rounded education but were also seen as a means of developing a person's creativity, imagination, and aesthetic sensibilities.

 

Hence, Ancient literary work such as Banabhatta's Kadambari described good education as knowledge of 64 arts (Kalaas).

The correct answer is - "Waning influence"

Key Points

• Waning means to become gradually weaker or less important
• In the 1^st - 2^nd line of the passage, it is said that UN lost its influence worldwide one of its example is in response to ceasefire to help to combat the pandemic.
• The line is "The UN (United Nations) has lost its sheen in recent times. One example is of its Secretary General Guterres' entreaty for a global ceasefire to help combat the Coronavirus has gone largely unheeded."

Thus, Option 3 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is - "The power of Security Council to deploy military force"

Key Points

• The line is "But its basic structure gives little real power to the main body, the General Assembly, and the most to the World War II victors‐ Britain, China, France, Russia and the United States ‐ with each wielding a veto on the 15‐seat Security Council as permanent members. The council is empowered to impose economic sanctions and is the only entity permitted to deploy military force. No permanent member seems willing to alter the power structure. The outcome is chronic Security Council deadlocks on many issues"
• Above lines explains that UN economic council is the only entity to deploy military power that leads to the deadlock on issues between P-5 countries that obstructs UN to become real global body.
• Thus, Option 1 is correct answer.

The correct answer is "Lack of reforms in the UN power structure".

Key Points

• In the 19^th - 21^st lines of the passage, it is said that P-5 of UN are reluctant on any reform in the power structure of the UN.
• The line is " No permanent member seems willing to alter the power structure. The outcome is chronic Security Council deadlocks on many issues, often pitting the United States against not only China and Russia but also against US allies."

Thus, Option 1 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is - "Tepid response to SDGs"

Key Points

• The lines of the passage is
• "The outcome is chronic Security Council deadlocks on many issues, often pitting the United States against not only China and Russia but also against US allies. It is not only on questions of war and ceasefire where the United Nations is struggling for results. The Sustainable Development Goals, 17 UN objectives aimed at eliminating inequities that include poverty, gender bias and illiteracy by 2030 are imperiled."
• Above given line clears that the outcome of the power conflict inside UN members is obstructing SDG 2030.

Thus, Option 2 is correct answer.

The correct answer is - "Multilateralism vs National Sovereignty"

Key Points

• The lines in the passage are " An expert belonging to the Global Policy Forum, a UN monitoring group, told a conference previously that the objectives were "seriously off track" even before the pandemic, according to a news site that covers the United Nations. UN veterans say multilateralism‐solving the problems together, a tenet of the organisation's charter‐ increasingly collides with principles in the same charter emphasising national sovereignty and nonintervention in the country's internal affairs."
• Above line explains that UN's objectives now are not remain efficient and a news sites said UN veterans have dispute over Multilateralism and sovereignty emphasised by principles of charter.

Thus, Option 3 is correct answer.

One of the barriers to reception in communication is environmental stimulus.

Key Points

It refers to any external factor that interferes with the ability of the receiver to understand the intended message.

Environmental stimuli can be physical, psychological, or social, and can affect communication in a variety of ways.

Physical environmental stimuli:

• It include factors such as noise, poor lighting, and uncomfortable seating, which can make it difficult for the receiver to focus on the message being communicated.
• For example, if a person is trying to listen to a lecture in a noisy environment, they may find it difficult to hear and understand the speaker's words.

Psychological environmental stimuli:

• It include factors such as stress, anxiety, and distraction, which can affect the receiver's ability to focus on the message.
• For example, if a person is worried about a personal problem, they may have difficulty paying attention to a conversation they are having with someone else.

Social environmental stimuli:

• It include factors such as cultural differences, language barriers, and social norms, which can affect the way that messages are received and interpreted.
• For example, if a person from one culture is communicating with someone from another culture, they may have different expectations about how communication should be conducted.

Hence, environmental stimulus is the correct answer.

The correct answer is A, C, D and E only

Key Points

Naya Philosophy:

• According to Nyaya, four means of valid knowledge are admitted: perception, inference, comparison, and verbal testimony. Hetu is the equivalent of the middle term. It also goes by the names "linga," "mark," and "sign." For example, ​ Major Premise: All things which have smoke have a fire. Minor Premise: This hill has smoke.

1. An inference is constituted with at least three sentences and these three sentences are again constituted of three different terms.
2. These three sentences are named as; major premise, minor premise, and conclusion respectively.
3. The major term is found in the major premise.
4. Similarly minor term is found in the minor premise.
5. And, the term which is found in both major premise and minor premise is called as middle term.
6. In the conclusion only major term and minor term are found.
7. The middle term makes a link between minor term and major term. Major, minor, and middle terms are used interchangeably as ‘sadhya’, ‘paksa’ and ‘hetu’ in Nyāya Philosophy.​

Major and Middle terms:

• It has to be a necessary relation.
• It can be causal relation.
• It can be species-­genus relation.
• It can be member-­class relation.

An example will clarify the above analysis. Major Premise: All things which have smoke have fire. Minor Premise: This hill has smoke Conclusion: Therefore, this hill has fire

Wearable technology refers to electronic devices that can be worn as accessories, embedded in clothing, or implanted in the body. These devices typically have sensors and wireless connectivity that enable them to collect and transmit data.

Key Points

Regarding the tasks accomplished by wearable devices: 

A. Providing more security compared to other computing devices:

• This statement is not necessarily true. Wearable devices, like any other computing devices, can be vulnerable to security threats.
• However, some wearable devices may include biometric sensors that can provide an additional layer of security.

B. Sharing of a wearable device's Internet connection with other connected computers:

• This statement is not a common feature of wearable devices.
• While some devices may allow for tethering, where the device can be used as a hotspot to share its internet connection, it is not a common use case for wearable devices.

C. Assisting hearing impaired persons:

• This statement is true. Wearable devices can assist hearing-impaired persons by providing audio feedback directly to the wearer's ear.
• For example, some hearing aids are now connected to smartphones and can adjust settings based on the wearer's environment.

Therefore, the correct answer is C Assisting hearing impaired persons.

The correct answer is Disposal.

Key Points

Lifecycle assessment:

Essentially, a product life-cycle assessment takes an overall view of that item’s impact on the environment – and in doing so, offers a true picture of how green that product really is. The aim is for consumers, manufacturers and policy makers to be given a true environmental picture of any product.

1. Life cycle assessment is employed in different manufacturing sectors from the sustainable manufacturing aspect .
2. The LCA method presented in was coupled with a Discrete-Event Simulation (DES) tool to optimize manufacturing systems' environmental sustainability
3. Life cycle assessment done in keeping mind with Disposal.
4. Life cycle impact assessment (LCIA) covers all relevant inputs from the environment (e.g., ores and crude oil, water, land use) as well as emissions into air, water and soil (e.g., carbon dioxide and nitrogen oxides).

Additional InformationGoal & Scope Definition

• In this phase, you define the product or service that you wish to assess, you choose a functional basis for comparison and you define the required level of detail l. You then set a goal which determines the scope , including objective, application and audience. Lastly, you determine whether or not there has to be a critical review of that goal.

Inventory Analysis

• Here you perform a data compilation and an inventory analysis of extractions from and releases into the environment.
• The final inventory provides a list of all inputs and outputs associated with the life cycle of your product or service.

Impact Assessment

• In impact assessment, you classify resource use and emissions generated according to their potential impacts.
• Quantify them for a limited number of impact categories, which you may then assess in terms of their relative importance for the goal of the LCA study.

Interpretation

• With the above information, you discuss the results in terms of contributions, relevance, robustness, data quality and limitations, and you systematically evaluate any opportunities for reducing the negative effects of the product(s) or service(s).
• On the environment while avoiding burden shifting between impact categories or life cycle phases. Avoiding burden shifting is a core strength of the LCA approach.​

SDGs stands for Sustainable Development Goals. These are a set of 17 goals established by the United Nations General Assembly in 2015 as part of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. The SDGs are a global call to action to end poverty, protect the planet and ensure that all people enjoy peace and prosperity by 2030.

Important Points

The 17 SDGs are:

1. No Poverty
2. Zero Hunger
3. Good Health and Well-being
4. Quality Education
5. Gender Equality
6. Clean Water and Sanitation
7. Affordable and Clean Energy
8. Decent Work and Economic Growth
9. Industry, Innovation and Infrastructure
10. Reduced Inequalities
11. Sustainable Cities and Communities
12. Responsible Consumption and Production
13. Climate Action
14. Life Below Water
15. Life on Land
16. Peace, Justice and Strong Institutions
17. Partnerships for the Goals

Key Points

The contribution of energy efficiency enhancement measures could be significant in the realization of the following Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):

• SDG 7: Affordable and Clean Energy - Energy efficiency measures can help reduce energy consumption and increase the use of renewable energy sources, leading to a more affordable and cleaner energy system.
• SDG 11: Sustainable Cities and Communities - Energy-efficient buildings and transport systems can help reduce greenhouse gas emissions and improve the quality of life in urban areas.
• SDG 12: Responsible Consumption and Production - Energy efficiency measures can help reduce resource consumption and waste generation, leading to more responsible consumption and production patterns.
• SDG 13: Climate Action - Energy efficiency measures can help reduce greenhouse gas emissions and mitigate the impacts of climate change.

Hence SDGs 7, 11, 12, 13 is the correct answer.

Key Points

• The Indian Universities Act was passed in 1904 during the British colonial rule in India.
• The act was introduced to improve the standard of education in India and aimed to establish proper universities with modern facilities and research centers.
• Before the passing of the act, the British government had initiated various efforts to reform the education system in India, and one of those efforts was the announcement of the white paper on Indian Education.
• The white paper on Indian Education was a document that contained proposals and recommendations for the reform of education in India. It was announced by the British government in 1901, three years before the passing of the Indian Universities Act.
• The white paper emphasized the need for a better education system in India, especially for the Indian elites, who were being sent to Britain for education.
• It proposed the establishment of universities in India that would offer degrees recognized by British universities.
• The act allowed for the establishment of universities in India, which were granted the power to award degrees.
• The first such university established under the act was the University of Calcutta, followed by the University of Bombay and the University of Madras.
• The act also provided for the establishment of the University Grants Commission, which is still the apex body for higher education in India.

 

Hence, the white paper on Indian Education was announced a few days before the passing of the Indian Universities Act in 1904.

Successful communication can be defined as the exchange of information, ideas, or thoughts between two or more individuals in a way that is clear, concise, and effective. It involves not just speaking, but also listening and understanding the message being conveyed.

Key Points 

• Successful communication with students can promote cognitive appreciation, which refers to the ability to understand and appreciate complex ideas and concepts. Effective communication can help students develop their critical thinking skills, expand their knowledge base, and deepen their understanding of the world around them.
• Effective communication can help students develop a range of important skills, including interpersonal skills, emotional intelligence, and self-awareness. By communicating effectively with students, educators can help them develop confidence, resilience, and a strong sense of self.
• Effective communication can help students appreciate the diversity of human experience and foster a more inclusive understanding of different cultures and perspectives. Through effective communication, educators can help students develop a broader understanding of beauty, creativity, and art, and encourage them to explore different forms of cultural expression.

Hence option 3 is the correct answer.

According to Roland Barthes, all narratives have similar structural elements that they all weave in their own unique ways.

Key Points

• Every narrative is unique, and all of them use a small number of organisational structures.
• Barthes contends that he should view this position as an invitation to interpret a book.
• It brings out its numerous meanings and connotations rather than perceiving it as a constraint.
• According to Roland Barthes, the sequence of narrative codes is 
• Action code
• Semantic code
• Enigma code
• Referential code
• Symbolic code

Thus, according to Roland Barthes, the sequence of narrative codes is Action code⇒ Semantic code⇒ Enigma code⇒ Referential code⇒ Symbolic code. 

Additional Information

• Barthes promotes what he terms a "writer" rather than a "readerly" approach to texts.
• In other words, those five narrative codes are; hermeneutic code, proairetic code, cultural code, connotative code, and symbolic code.

Fallacy of Relevance:

• The fallacy of relevance is a type of logical fallacy where an argument is made that, while it may be persuasive or emotionally appealing, is not actually relevant to the issue at hand. This type of fallacy is also known as a non sequitur, which means "it does not follow" in Latin.

Key Points 

There are different types of fallacies of relevance, including:

• Ad hominem
• Appeal to authority
• Appeal to force
• Appeal to emotion
• Red herring
• Straw man

Hence The Appeal to Force  is a type of Fallacy of Relevance. 

Important Points

Appeal to force: 

• It is also known as the argumentum ad baculum.
• The appeal to force occurs when someone uses a threat or force to make others accept their argument, rather than providing valid reasoning and evidence.
• The appeal to force is a type of fallacy because it does not address the actual issue at hand and instead relies on coercion or intimidation.

In Indian philosophy, Pramāṇa refers to the means of valid knowledge, which are the sources or methods through which knowledge is acquired. There are six recognized Pramāṇas, which are:

• Pratyaksha (Perception): Knowledge gained through direct sense perception, such as seeing, hearing, touching, smelling, and tasting.
• Anumāna (Inference): Knowledge gained through reasoning or inference based on previous knowledge or experience.
• Upamāna (Comparison): Knowledge gained through comparison or analogy with something already known.
• Śabda (Testimony): Knowledge gained through the testimony or authority of reliable sources, such as scriptures, teachers, or experts.
• Arthāpatti (Postulation): Knowledge gained through the assumption of a non-perceived fact as the only possible explanation for a perceived fact.
• Anupalabdhi (Non-perception): Knowledge gained through the absence of something, such as the absence of a perceived object.

Key Points

Arthāpatti (Postulation):

• Arthāpatti (Postulation) is is used when there is no other way to explain a known fact.
• In the argument "Anamika must be elsewhere since she is known to be alive and not seen at her house," we assume that Anamika must be elsewhere because we know she is alive and not present in her house.
• This assumption of her being elsewhere is the only possible explanation for her absence from her house.
• We do not have any direct evidence of her being elsewhere, but we infer it as the only possible explanation for her absence.
• This is where postulation comes into play - we postulate that she must be elsewhere as the only possible explanation for her absence.

Therefore, the argument can be considered an example of postulation (Arthāpatti) in Indian philosophy.

Key Points

• If the software company requires a minimum of 1 GB RAM to run their new Operating System (OS) software, attempting to install this OS on a computer with 1 GB RAM will likely cause the system to run extremely slowly, freeze, crash or even fail to start at all.
• Running an OS with insufficient memory can result in several issues, including insufficient resources to perform tasks, slow response times, and an overall degraded system performance.
• It is important to note that the recommended 2 GB RAM is what the software company suggests for optimal performance, and even then, other hardware requirements and considerations should be taken into account.

Hence, the correct answer is that the computer will not run at its optimum performance.

Mahatma Gandhi is accredited with the view that 'knowledge without character' is a sin.

Key Points

• Gandhi was born on October 2, 1869, in Porbandar, a coastal town in present-day Gujarat, India.
• Mahatma Gandhi is a prominent figure in the history of Indian education. He believed in the holistic development of an individual and emphasized the role of education in building character.
• According to him, education should not only provide knowledge and skills but also instill values like truth, non-violence, and empathy in individuals.
• He believed that education should be accessible to all and that it should be relevant to the practical needs of society.
• He emphasized the need for a decentralized education system that was grounded in the cultural and social realities of India.
• He envisioned a system that would promote self-reliance, community service, and vocational skills.
• Gandhi also advocated for the use of indigenous languages in education, as he believed that language played a crucial role in preserving and transmitting culture.
• He was a strong proponent of experiential learning and believed that education should be linked to the lived experiences of individuals.

Peripheral device is an internal or external device that connects to a computer or other digital device directly. 

Key Points

• It facilitates end users' access to and usage of a computer's features.
• Digital signals are converted by output peripherals into information that the end user can understand or use.
• It is possible to further categorise a peripheral as an internal or external peripheral device depending on whether it is housed within or outside the computer system enclosure.
• Examples of input devices are peripheral devices are an optical mark reader (OMR), a graphic tablet and a light pen.

Thus, Optical Mark Readers, Graphic Tablet and Light Pen of peripheral devices are considered as the only input devices. 

Additional Information

• Input devices translate incoming user commands or actions into usable data that the computer can comprehend.
• Digital signals are converted by output peripherals into information that the end user can understand or use.

The International Solar Alliance (ISA) is an intergovernmental organization that aims to promote solar energy deployment and the sustainable use of solar resources.

Key Points

• The idea of the ISA was jointly conceived by India and France, and was officially launched by the Prime Minister of India, Narendra Modi, and the President of France, François Hollande, during the United Nations Climate Change Conference in Paris in November 2015.
• The ISA is headquartered in Gurugram, India.
• The idea behind the formation of the ISA was to bring together countries that receive abundant sunlight to harness the potential of solar energy and promote its use for sustainable development.
• As of March 2023, the ISA has 82 signatories and 63 members.
• The ISA's primary objective is to reduce the cost of solar energy and make it affordable for all, and to promote research and development in the field of solar energy.
• The ISA also aims to create a platform for cooperation and collaboration among member countries in the areas of solar energy research, development, and deployment.

Hence, India and France  conceived the idea of the International Solar Alliance.

Organizational communication is a subfield of communication studies that focuses on all aspects of communication and information flow. 

Key PointsAssertion A: Organisational communication flows downwards, upwards and horizontally within its network of inter­dependent relations.

• In an organisation, information can move in four different directions: down, up, across, and diagonally.
• The majority of the information flow depends on the organization's size, composition, and structure.
• It flows downwards, upwards and horizontally within its network of inter­dependent relations.

So, A is true. 

Reason R: Organisational communication is not necessary to achieve the organization's objectives.

• Organizational communication helps the Organizational to complete tasks related to specific roles and responsibilities of sales, services, and production.
• Furthermore, it helps to acclimatize to changes through individual and organisational creativity and adaptation.
• It is forging relationships where "human messages are directed at people within the organization-their attitudes.

Thus, R is false. 

Therefore, A is true but R is false.

Monty Python's Flying Circus television sketch is where the word "spam" first appeared.

Key PointsStatement I: 'Spam' is an attempt to acquire sensitive information for malicious reasons, by masquerading as a trustworthy entity.

• Spam refers to any unwanted and uninvited digital communication transmitted in bulk.
• It is the unsolicited bulk email of identical messages sent to numerous recipients.
• Spam is frequently transmitted by email, but it can also be sent through social media, text messages, and phone calls.

So, Statement I is false. 

Statement II: 'Phishing' is a type of unsolicited bulk email of identical messages sent to numerous recipients.

• Phishing is a type of cybercrime where a target or targets are contacted via email, phone call, or text message by someone posing as legitimate.
• It is an attempt to acquire sensitive information for malicious reasons, by masquerading as a trustworthy entity.
• It tricks people into disclosing sensitive information like passwords, banking and credit card information, and personally identifiable information.

Thus, Statement II is false.

Stable atmospheric conditions refer to weather conditions where there is little to no vertical movement of the air, which can lead to a buildup of pollutants in the lower atmosphere.

Key Points

• During stable conditions, there is little to no mixing of the air, which means that pollutants emitted from local sources can accumulate in the air and reach high concentrations.
• This is particularly true for pollutants that are heavy or have a low vapor pressure, such as particulate matter and nitrogen oxides.
• While Unstable atmospheric conditions, such as windy or stormy weather, promote the dispersion of pollutants and help to reduce their concentration in the air.
• This is because during unstable conditions, there is greater vertical mixing of the air, which helps to dilute the pollutants and disperse them over a larger area.

Additional Information

• Dispersion of the water pollutants  and neutralization of air pollutants are not directly related to stable atmospheric conditions.

Hence, stable atmospheric conditions help in Accumulation of the air pollutants

Key Points

Solar Water Still is a device used to purify water using solar energy. It works by using the sun's energy to evaporate water from a contaminated source, such as seawater, brackish water, or polluted freshwater, and then condenses the vapor back into pure, clean water. The Solar Water Still operates on the principle of distillation, which is a well-known process for purifying water.

• The Solar Water Still consists of a shallow basin that is filled with contaminated water, and a sloping, clear plastic cover that is placed over the basin.
• The cover is sloped towards the center of the basin, which allows the water to condense and drip into a collection container placed below.
• The solar energy heats the water in the basin, causing it to evaporate and rise up towards the cover.
• The rising water vapor condenses on the cooler plastic cover and then flows down the slope into the collection container.
• The purified water is collected in the container, leaving behind the impurities and contaminants in the basin

The process of using solar water to desalinate ocean water involves the following steps:

1. The solar water still is set up in a sunny location, with the clear cover facing the sun.
2. Seawater is poured into the still through a small opening in the top.
3. The sun's rays pass through the clear cover and heat up the seawater, causing it to evaporate.
4. The water vapor rises and condenses on the underside of the clear cover, which is cooler than the seawater.
5. The condensed water droplets run down the cover and collect in a trough or other container at the bottom of the still.
6. The purified water can be collected and used for drinking, cooking, and other purposes.

The answer is B and C only.

Key Points

a, b, c, d all have the attributes P and Q.

a, b, c all have the attribute R.

Therefore d probably has the attribute R.

• In this statement all have attributes P and Q.s
• In second part a,b,c all have there attribute R
• So,based on inductive and analogical based we can say d has the attribute of R.

Hence, B and C only  is correct .

 Inductive argument:

• An inductive argument is an assertion that uses specific premises or observations to make a broader generalization. Inductive arguments, by their nature, possess some degree of uncertainty.
• They are used to show the likelihood that a conclusion drawn from known premises is true.
• An inductive logical argument indicate some degree of support (inductive probability) for the conclusion but do not entail it; that is, they suggest truth but do not ensure it. In this manner, there is the possibility of moving from general statements to individual instances (for example, statistical syllogisms).

Analogical argument:

• Analogical argument  is one of the most important cognitive tools we use to structure our understanding of and beliefs about the world.
• In informal terms, to reason by analogy is merely to compare two unlike things and to make inferences based on the resulting analysis.
• Logicians and philosophers, however, have a stricter definition of analogical reasoning: reasoning by analogy means to use an analogical argument to form a conclusion. An analogical argument is a formal argumentative form, the structure of which is described in the following section.
• The primary difference between deductive arguments and analogical arguments is that if a deductive argument is valid and sound, the truth of the conclusion is guaranteed. Analogical arguments are called ampliative, meaning that the conclusion may be false even if the argument is valid and sound.

Key Points

If you wish to save the changed version of a document that was originally located on a standard CD-ROM, the best method to accomplish this.

You can read a document from a CD-ROM, modify it, and then save it to the hard disk by following these steps:

1. Insert the CD-ROM into your computer's CD/DVD drive.
2. Open the file explorer and locate the CD/DVD drive.
3. Navigate to the folder where the document is located and double-click on it to open it.
4. Make the necessary modifications to the document.
5. Click on "File" in the top left corner of the window and select "Save As".
6. Choose a location on your computer's hard disk where you want to save the modified document.
7. Give the modified document a new name, if desired.
8. Click "Save" to save the modified document to the hard disk.