UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 20th Oct 2022 Shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is A and C, and D only.

Key Points

• Creativity is an important 21^st-century skill that allows students to think outside the box and develop innovative solutions to complex problems.
• Critical thinking is another important skill that helps students evaluate information, analyze arguments, and make informed decisions.
• Lifelong learning is essential for students to develop the ability to continuously learn, adapt and grow in their personal and professional lives.  Lifelong learning is a skill that involves the ability to acquire, process, and apply new knowledge and skills effectively.

Additional Information

• Rote learning is a memorization technique based on repetition. This technique is useful in memorizing information through repetition without necessarily understanding the underlying concepts.
• Learning only for examination emphasizes acquiring knowledge solely to achieve good grades rather than developing the skills and competencies needed for success in the 21^st century.

The correct answer is option 02.

The CBCS framework, or the Choice Based Credit System framework, is a system of higher education used in many universities and colleges worldwide.

Key Points

In India, the CBCS framework was introduced by the University Grants Commission (UGC) in 2015 to modernize the higher education system and bring it in line with international standards. The CBCS framework was initially introduced for undergraduate programs in all universities and colleges in India and has since been expanded to include postgraduate programs.

Under the CBCS framework in India,

• Students can choose from a range of elective courses and the core courses required for their degree. These electives are organized into modules, each with a certain number of associated credits. Students must accumulate a certain number of credits to complete their degree, with the total number of credits required varying depending on the program and the institution.
• It is designed to provide students with a more flexible and interdisciplinary approach to higher education. By allowing students to choose from various electives, the framework enables them to customize their learning experience and develop the skills and knowledge they need to succeed in their chosen careers.
• It allows students to tailor their education to their individual needs and interests. Students can choose courses from various disciplines and create a customized learning plan that suits their career goals and aspirations.

The correct answer is The student may develop a negative attitude towards his/her studies, teachers, and institution.

Key Points

• Physical and emotionally abused students develop anxiety that causes loss of concentration and poor learning (ibid). Guthrow (2002) argues that if the school becomes an anxiety-producing environment for a student, it is likely that academic performance will be negatively impacted.
• The student may develop a negative attitude towards his/her studies, teachers, and institution.
• The teacher who enforces corporal punishment enables the student to lose interest in the subject and have negative feelings against the teacher and the classes.
• Physical punishment can cause troubles in students' minds, which can lead to psychological problems such as fear, anxiety, and long-range mental problems connected to the loss of self-confidence and concentration in learning.
• The pupils' reactions as a result of the severe punishment (physical and verbal) include lack of concentration during the lesson, difficulty in reading, writing, solving mathematical questions, and escaping from school.

The correct answer is Open Educational Resources.

Important Points

• Open Educational Resources (OERs) are any educational materials either in the public domain or published under open licenses (e.g. Creative Commons) that specify how materials can be used, reused, adapted, shared, and modified according to specific needs.

Key Points

• Open Educational Resources (OER) are learning, teaching, and research materials in any format and medium that reside in the public domain or are under the copyright that has been released under an open license that permits no-cost access, re-use, re-purpose adaptation, and redistribution by others.
• Open educational resources (OER) are teaching, learning, and research materials intentionally created and licensed to be free for the end user to own, share, and in most cases, modify.
• The term "OER" describes publicly accessible materials and resources for users to use, re-mix, improve, and redistribute under some licenses.
• These are designed to reduce accessibility barriers by implementing best practices in teaching and to be adapted for local unique contexts.
• The development and promotion of open educational resources are often motivated by a desire to provide an alternative or enhanced educational paradigm.

The correct answer is Administration, documentation, tracking, reporting, and delivery of educational courses.

Key Points

• An LMS is a software company to develop Administration, documentation, tracking, reporting, and delivery of educational courses and delivers and tracks training for their employees, clients, and partners.
• Until recently, hearing the word “training” made us think of a classroom with an instructor lecturing in front of students. And if we were talking about “corporate training,” we would picture a large conference or a day-long workshop.
• A learning management system (LMS) is a software application for the administration, documentation, tracking, reporting, automation, and delivery of educational courses, training programs, materials, or learning and development programs.
• The learning management system concept emerged directly from e-Learning. Learning management systems make up the largest segment of the learning system market. The first introduction of the LMS was in the late 1990s.
• Learning management systems have faced massive growth in usage due to the emphasis on remote learning during the COVID-19 pandemic.

Additional Information

• A learning management system is software for creating, managing and delivering e-learning content. In the early 2000s, the corporate world began adopting and adapting LMS software to help meet their learning and development (L&D) needs.
• With an influx of interest and cash, LMSs evolved from clunky e-learning course-delivery systems to comprehensive online learning platforms with course-building, administration, and analytics features. **Today, corporate LMSs are a $2.5 billion business, and 79% of all LMS users are outside of the education industry.**$

The correct answer is  B, C and D only.

Important Points

• Participant observation is a qualitative data collection methodology that provides rich descriptive information on human behaviours and experiences in a particular context. This approach enables a researcher to participate in a social group and observe people and the environment.
• In doing so, the researcher develops a holistic understanding of how people make sense of their experiences and what is occurring around them. Participant observation is used in disciplines such as anthropology, sociology, and education.

Key Points

• The participatory observation method is a research technique that involves the researcher actively participating in the activities of the group being studied while also observing and recording their behaviour and interactions. Hence he observes the decision‐making process.
• This method is commonly used in social science research, particularly anthropology and sociology.
• In participatory observation, the researcher becomes a member of the group being studied and participates in their activities, conversations, and rituals while observing and recording their behaviour and interactions. This allows the researcher to understand the group's culture, values, beliefs, and norms, as well as the social structures and power dynamics that shape their behaviour. In this process, an organisation's social meaning can be studied.
• Participatory observation is a qualitative research method that emphasizes the importance of subjective experience and context. The goal is not simply to gather data but to immerse oneself in the lived experience of the group being studied and gain a nuanced and holistic understanding of their worldviews and perspectives.

The correct answer is Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.

Important Points

• Central Limit Theorem (CLT): In probability theory, the central limit theorem (CLT) states that the distribution of a sample variable approximates a normal distribution (i.e., a “bell curve”) as the sample size becomes larger, assuming that all samples are identical in size, and regardless of the population's actual distribution shape.

Key Points

Statement I: For a small number of samples, the sampling distribution of means is approximate, a normal distribution is false because-

• The central limit theorem (CLT) states that the distribution of sample means approximates a normal distribution as the sample size gets larger, regardless of the population's distribution.
• Sample sizes equal to or greater than 30 are often considered sufficient for the CLT to hold.
• The distribution of sample means will be approximately normal as long as the sample size is large enough. This discovery is probably the most important result in introductory statistics courses. It is stated formally as the Central Limit Theorem.

Statement II: In case the population is normally distributed, the sampling distribution of means is also normally distributed, even for a small number of samples is correct, because-

• If the population is normal, to begin with, then the sample mean also has a normal distribution, regardless of the sample size.
• If the population is normal, then the result holds for samples of any size (i..e, the sampling distribution of the sample means will be approximately normal even for samples of size less than 30).
• For samples of any size drawn from a normally distributed population, the sample mean is normally distributed, with mean μX=μ and standard deviation σX=σ/√n, where n is the sample size.

The correct answer is A ‐ III, B ‐ IV, C ‐ I, D ‐ II.

Key Points

Intrapersonal communication:

• Intrapersonal communication is the process by which an individual communicates within themselves, acting as both sender and receiver of messages, and encompasses the use of unspoken words to consciously engage in self-talk and inner speech.
• Intrapersonal communication is communication with oneself. There are many other names for the same concept – self-talk, meditation, internal monologue, inner speech, inner experience, and internal discourse.

Group communication:

• Group communication is a mode of communication in groups of people, in an organization, between employers and employees, and employees in teams/groups or people, in general, to discuss a topic or communicate a message.
• Company parties, Board meetings, wellness retreats, or team-building events are some examples of in-person group communication between groups belonging to the same organization.

Transaction communication:

• The Transaction Model of communication describes communication as a process in which communicators generate social realities within social, relational, and cultural contexts.
• Examples of the transactional model include a face-to-face meeting, a telephone call, a Skype call, a chat session, interactive training, or a meeting in which all attendees participate by sharing ideas and comments.

Massive communication:

• Massive communication is the process of imparting and exchanging information through mass media to large population segments. It is understood as relating to various forms of media, as its technologies are used for the dissemination of information, of which journalism and advertising are part.
• Massive communication is practiced through various channels known as mediums, such as radio, satellite television, social networking, billboards, newspapers, magazines, books, film, and the Internet.

Concept Used:-

In English Alphabets, there are total of 26 letters from A to Z. These letters can be numbered according to their place in Alphabet as,

The below table shows all 26 letters and its place number in Alphabet, which is helpful to solve Alphabet Reasoning type problems.

Explanation:-

The given word is 'POWERFUL'.

If we look at the Alphabet, the place number of words of this latter is same like the below table.

Now, according to the number, the given word can be rearranged in the order of English alphabet as,

⇒ E F L O P R U W

Now, comparing the position of letter in given and new word,

Here, only the position of letter U is remained unchanged. 

So, the position of one letters will remain unchanged.

Hence, the correct option is 1.

Concept Used:-

When 100 is divided by a number, then we move each digit of this number to 2 place value columns to the right.

For example, if 100 is divided by 23, then,

\(\Rightarrow \dfrac{100}{23} =\dfrac{1}{0.23}\)

Similarly, when 1000 divided by a number, then we move 3 place. For example,

\(\Rightarrow \dfrac{1000}{0.23} =\dfrac{1}{0.00023}\)

In multiplication, we move the digit left side.

Explanation:-

Given equation is,

⇒ \(\frac{1}{3.718}\) = 0.2689

Multiply both sides with number 10,000, we get,

⇒ \(\frac{1}{3.718}\times 10000\) = 0.2689 × 10000

⇒ \(\frac{1}{3.718}\times 10000\) = 0.2689 × 10000

Since the value 3.718 of left-hand side is divided by 10000, so its each digit will be moved 4 place right. Also, right-hand side each digit move 4 digit left as it is multiplied by 10000.

So, the above equation become,

⇒ \(\frac{1}{0.0003718}\) = 2689

So, the value of \(\frac{1}{0.0003718}\) is 2689.

Hence, the correct option is 2.

Concept Used:-

In a series, the wrong numbers or letters are those which are wrongly placed in the series in do not follow the pattern of the series.

To find the wrong number, the pattern among the numbers or terms of the series need to be figure out. 

Explanation:-

Given series is,

15, 16, 22, 29, 45, 70,…

The difference between two terms of the series,

⇒ 16 - 15 = 1 = 12

⇒ 22 - 16 = 6 = Not a square term

⇒ 29 - 22 = 7 = Not a square term

⇒ 45 - 29 = 16 = 42

⇒ 70 - 45 = 25 = 5²

Here, difference of terms is a perfect apart from 6 and 7. Also, this difference is increasing with value 1.

So, there is difference of 12, 22, 3², 42 and 52 among the terms. By this difference, the new numbers of series we get,

\(\Rightarrow 15+1^2=16 \ \Rightarrow 16+2^2=20 \ \Rightarrow 20+3^2=29 \ \Rightarrow 29+4^2=45 \ \Rightarrow 45+5^2=70 \)

Here, 20 should come in the series in place of 22.

So, the wrong term in the series is 22.

Hence, the correct option is 1.

Concept Used:-

Time = Distance / Speed

Calculation:

Total distance = 24 km.

Distance covered in 1 hour 40 minutes = 5/7 of the remaining distance.

Suppose, the speed of the man = x km/hr.

So, the distance is covered in 1 hour and 40 minutes.

⇒ Distance = (x) × (1 + 40/60)  (∵ 1 min = 1/60 hr)

⇒ Distance = (x) × (1 + 2/3) 

⇒ Distance = (5x/3)

Now, according to the questions,

Distance covered in 1 hour 40 minutes = 5/7 of the remaining distance.

⇒ 5x/3 = (5/7) × {24 - (5x/3)}

⇒ 7x/3 = (72 - 5x)/3

⇒ 7x + 5x = 72

⇒ 12x = 72

⇒ x = 6

So, the speed of the man is 6 km/hr.

Hence, the correct option is 3.

Alternate MethodCalculation:

Assume, Remaining Distance = x

⇒ x +  5x/7 = 24

⇒ x = 14 km

So Distance covered = 10 km

total time = 1 h 40 minute = 100 minutes = 5/3 h

So, D = V × T

⇒ 10 = V x 5/3

⇒ V = 6 km/h

∴ The correct option is 3.

Shortcut Trick

Combined Discount Factor = (1 − 1/5) × (1 − 1/16) = 4/5 × 15/16 = 3/4

Net Profit Factor = 1 + 1/5 = 6/5

Ratio of Marked Price (MP) to Cost Price (CP) = Profit Factor ÷ Discount Factor

MP/CP = (6/5) ÷ (3/4) = 6/5 × 4/3 = 8/5

Markup Percentage = (8 − 5)/5 × 100 = 3/5 × 100 = 60%

∴ The correct answer is 60% above the cost.

Alternate Method

Given:

Trade Discount (D₁) = 20%

Cash Discount (D₂) = 6 1/4% = 25/4% = 6.25%

Net Profit (P) = 20%

Formula Used:

SP = CP × (1 + P/100) and SP = MP × (1 − D₁/100) × (1 − D₂/100)

Calculations:

Let the Cost Price (CP) be ₹100.

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = 100 + 20% of 100 = ₹120.

Let the Marked Price (MP) be x.

SP = MP × (100 − 20)/100 × (100 − 6.25)/100

⇒ 120 = x × 80/100 × 93.75/100

⇒ 120 = x × 4/5 × (375/4)/100

⇒ 120 = x × 4/5 × 375/400

⇒ 120 = x × 4/5 × 15/16

⇒ 120 = x × 3/4

⇒ x = (120 × 4)/3 = 160.

Markup = MP − CP = 160 − 100 = 60.

Markup Percentage = (60/100) × 100 = 60%.

∴ The correct answer is 60% above the cost.

Additional Information

Relation between MP and CP

The direct formula relating MP and CP is MP/CP = (100 + Gain%) / (100 − Discount%). If there are multiple discounts, use the net discount.

Successive Discounts

If two discounts d₁% and d₂% are given, the single equivalent discount is [d₁ + d₂ − (d₁ × d₂)/100]%.

Marked Price (MP)

It is also known as the List Price or Tag Price. Discounts are always calculated on the MP unless otherwise stated.

Key Points

Classical square of opposition:

• The square of opposition is a chart that was introduced within classical (categorical) logic to represent the logical relationships holding between certain propositions in virtue of their form

• The four corners of this chart represent the four basic forms of propositions recognized in classical logic:.

• ‘Every S is P’ and ‘Some S is not P’ are contradictories.

• ‘No S is P’ and ‘Some S is P’ are contradictories.

• ‘Every S is P’ and ‘No S is P’ are contraries.

• ‘Some S is P’ and ‘Some S is not P’ are subcontraries.

• ‘Some S is P’ is a subaltern of ‘Every S is P’.

• ‘Some S is not P’ is a subaltern of ‘No S is P’.

Important Points

Important Points

• To calculate the time it will take to download a movie of 16 gigabytes with a download speed of 64 megabytes per second, we first need to convert both the movie size and the download speed to the same units.
• Since 1 gigabyte is equal to 1024 megabytes, we have:
• 16 gigabytes = 16 x 1024 megabytes = 16384 megabytes
• If 64 megabytes are downloaded in 1 sec

16384 megabytes (16gigabytes) will be downloaded in 16384/64=256 sec

So, it will take 256 seconds to download a 16 gigabyte movie at a download speed of 64 megabytes per second.

A laser printer is a type of Non-Impact printer. It produces high-quality printouts and uses toner to print onto paper. A Dot Matrix printer can produce carbon copies because the print head makes contact with the paper.

Important Points

A. High Quality refers to the quality of the printout produced by a printer. High-quality printouts are typically sharp and clear, with crisp text and vivid images.

B. Dot Matrix refers to a type of printer that creates images by striking an ink-soaked ribbon against the paper to produce dots. Dot matrix printers are often used for printing invoices, receipts, and other forms where multiple copies are needed.

C. Non-impact refers to a type of printing technology that does not physically strike or impact the paper. Examples of non-impact printers include laser printers and inkjet printers.

D. Toner is a fine powder used in laser printers and some other types of printers to produce images on paper. The toner is melted onto the paper by heat and pressure, creating a permanent image that won't smudge or fade.

Therefore the correct order is C, A, D, B.

Noise level refers to the measurement of the sound pressure in a particular environment. It is usually measured in decibels (dB) and provides a way to describe the loudness of a sound relative to a reference level. The reference level is often set at the threshold of human hearing, which is generally considered to be 0 dB.

A low noise level would correspond to a quiet environment such as a library, while a high noise level would correspond to a noisy environment such as a construction site. The noise level in a given environment can vary depending on many factors, including the source of the sound, the distance from the source, and the type of environment (e.g., an open field or a room with walls and a ceiling).

 Key Points

The decibel (dB) is a logarithmic unit of measurement that is used to express the magnitude of a signal, such as sound pressure or electrical power, relative to a reference level. The decibel is not an absolute unit of measurement, but rather a relative one that allows for the comparison of two signals.

Important Points

 A 20 dB increase in noise level represents an enhancement in the intensity of sound by a factor of 100. This is because dB is a logarithmic unit and a 20 dB increase corresponds to a factor of 10^(20/10) = 100.

So, a sound that is 20 dB louder than another sound is 100 times more intense. Similarly, a 40 dB increase in noise level represents a sound that is 10,000 times more intense than another sound, and so on.

Therefore, the correct answer is 100.

Confusion Points

• As per the official answer key of UGC NET, option 3 was the correct answer, but based on the authentic data, Catastrophic has been mentioned as the correct answer.
• Typically, an earthquake within the magnitude range of about 6.0 to 7.0 might be considered disastrous. At these levels, earthquakes can cause significant damage, especially to poorly constructed buildings and infrastructure.
• Earthquakes with magnitudes of 7.0 or higher are often considered to have the potential to be catastrophic. Especially, magnitudes above 8.0 are almost universally categorized as capable of causing catastrophic damage.

 Key Points

• An earthquake in the magnitude range of 7-7.3 on the Richter scale is typically classified as a catastrophic earthquake.
• It can cause severe damage to buildings, infrastructure, and other structures, and can also lead to injuries and fatalities.
• The Richter scale is a logarithmic scale that measures the magnitude of earthquakes based on the amplitude of their seismic waves.

Each whole number increase on the Richter scale represents a tenfold increase in the earthquake's magnitude and a thirtyfold increase in the energy released.

• Therefore, an earthquake with a magnitude of 7 is ten times more powerful than one with a magnitude of 6, and an earthquake with a magnitude of 7.3 is approximately twice as powerful as one with a magnitude of 7.

Important Points Based on commonly accepted guidelines from historical USGS practices and earthquake studies:

Therefore, the correct answer is catastrophic

Important Points 

Statement I: Dioxins are chlorinated compounds.

The above statement is true as dioxins are a group of highly toxic, persistent, and ubiquitous environmental pollutants that are created as by-products of various industrial processes, including the manufacture of pesticides and herbicides. They are chlorinated compounds that are resistant to degradation and can persist in the environment for decades.

Statement II: Dioxins cause deaths of birds and other stray animals due to their widespread use as herbicides and pesticides.

Dioxins are highly toxic to a variety of species, including birds, fish, and other animals. They can cause a range of health effects, including death, due to their widespread use as herbicides and pesticides. In addition, dioxins can accumulate in the food chain, leading to increased concentrations in the tissues of higher-level predators, such as birds and mammals. This can lead to increased health risks and even death in wildlife populations. Hence, statement II is true.

Therefore, the correct answer is Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

"Joint Implementation" (JI) was one of the mechanisms suggested in meeting the objectives of the Kyoto Protocol, an international treaty signed in 1997 aimed at combating global climate change. The Kyoto Protocol established binding targets for developed countries to reduce their greenhouse gas emissions, and JI was one of the mechanisms established to help countries achieve these targets.

Important Points Under JI, a developed country with a target under the Kyoto Protocol could earn credits for reducing greenhouse gas emissions in another country. The idea behind JI was to promote collaboration and investment between countries in order to reduce global emissions in a cost-effective and efficient manner. JI projects typically involved transfer of technologies and investment from developed countries to developing countries in order to reduce emissions in sectors such as energy, industry, and agriculture.

JI was seen as a way for countries to meet their Kyoto Protocol targets by working together and sharing the benefits of emissions reductions. However, JI has been criticized for a lack of transparency and accountability in some projects, as well as potential double-counting of emissions reductions. Despite these challenges, JI remains an important mechanism for reducing emissions and achieving the goals of the Kyoto Protocol.

Key Points

The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty signed in 1997 that aims to combat global climate change. It is a legally binding agreement under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), and its primary objective is to reduce greenhouse gas emissions from industrialized countries.

Under the Kyoto Protocol, developed countries committed to reduce their emissions of six key greenhouse gases, including carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), and nitrous oxide (N2O), by an average of 5% below 1990 levels during the period 2008-2012. The treaty also established mechanisms, such as the Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) and Joint Implementation (JI), to help countries achieve their targets in a cost-effective and efficient manner.

Therefore,the correct answer is kyoto Protocol.

Concept Used:-

The percentage is a way of comparing the quantities. Suppose, x% of 20 is y. Then, the reaction between x and y can be given as,

\(\dfrac{x}{100}\times 20=y\)

Question based on table and percentage can be solved using the above formula.

Explanation:-

Given information;

Total income of the family in 2020 = Rs. 50000

Total income of the family in 2021 = Rs. 75000

Using the percentage formula, the above table can be given as,

Here,

Money spent on Health Budget in 2020 = 2500

Money spent on Health Budget in 2021 = 4500

Difference between both,

⇒ 4500 - 2500 = Rs. 2000

So, the increase in the amount of money spent on the health budget head from 2020 to 2021 is Rs. 2000. Hence, the correct option is 1.

Concept Used:-

The percentage is a way of comparing the quantities. Suppose, x% of 20 is y. Then, the reaction between x and y can be given as,

\(\dfrac{x}{100}\times 20=y\)

Question based on table and percentage can be solved using the above formula.

Explanation:-

Given information;

Total income of the family in 2020 = Rs. 50000

Total income of the family in 2021 = Rs. 75000

Using the percentage formula, the above table can be given as,

Here,

Money spent on travel in 2020 = Rs. 17000

Money spent on travel in 2021 = Rs. 18000

Ratio of total amount spent on Travel by the family in 2020 to that in 2021,

⇒ 17000 : 18000= 17000 / 18000

⇒ 17000 : 18000= 17 : 18

So, the ratio of total amount spent on Travel by the family in 2020 to that in 2021 is 17 : 18.

Hence, the correct option is 3.

Concept Used:-

The percentage is a way of comparing the quantities. Suppose, x% of 20 is y. Then, the reaction between x and y can be given as,

\(\dfrac{x}{100}\times 20=y\)

Question based on table and percentage can be solved using the above formula.

Explanation:-

Given information;

Total income of the family in 2020 = Rs. 50000

Total income of the family in 2021 = Rs. 75000

Using the percentage formula, the above table can be given as,

Here,

Money spent on Entertainment and Food in 2020,

⇒ 5500 + 9500 = Rs. 15000

Money spent on Entertainment and Food in 2021, 

⇒ 6750 + 15750 = Rs. 22500

Difference in the amount of money spent on Entertainment and Food together during the years 2020 and 2021,

⇒ 22500 - 15000 = Rs. 7500

So, the difference in the amount of money spent on Entertainment and Food together during the years 2020 and 2021 is Rs. 7500. Hence, option 3 is correct.

Concept Used:-

The percentage is a way of comparing the quantities. Suppose, x% of 20 is y. Then, the reaction between x and y can be given as,

\(\dfrac{x}{100}\times 20=y\)

Question based on table and percentage can be solved using the above formula.

Explanation:-

Given information;

Total income of the family in 2020 = Rs. 50000

Total income of the family in 2021 = Rs. 75000

From the given table, we can see that the family spent 19% of income on food in 2020.

So, the total amount spent on food in 2020,

⇒ Amount spent on food = 19% of 50000

⇒ Amount spent on food = 19% of 50000

⇒ Amount spent on food = \(\dfrac{50000\times 19}{100}\)

⇒ Amount spent on food = Rs. 9500

So, the amount spent on food in the year 2020 is Rs 9500.

Hence, the correct option is 2.

Concept Used:-

The percentage is a way of comparing the quantities. Suppose, x% of 20 is y. Then, the reaction between x and y can be given as,

\(\dfrac{x}{100}\times 20=y\)

Question based on table and percentage can be solved using the above formula.

Explanation:-

Given information;

Total income of the family in 2020 = Rs. 50000

Total income of the family in 2021 = Rs. 75000

Using the percentage formula, the above table can be given as,

We can see that in each of the given Budget head the expenditure of year 2021 is more than the year 2020.

So, in all the given options, Health (A), Clothing (B) and Travel (C), the family spend more amount of money in 2021 than they spent in 2020.

Hence, the correct option is 4.

The correct answer is B and C only.

Key Points

• The three significant criticisms of Aristotle’s model are No Feedback, No Noise, and Public Speaking Centered.
• The most crucial weakness of Aristotle’s communication model is that it is a linear communication process. It is a linear model of one-way communication.
• It did not include and explain feedback essential for the interactive communication process. Due to the lack of audience feedback and openness in this communication model, the conversation is ineffective.
• Additionally, its credibility and usefulness are limited because it is only helpful for public speaking.  Finally, Aristotle’s model shows no concept regarding noise barriers in communication. Noise is an unwanted but paramount element of the communication process.

Additional Information

Aristotle's model of communication, also known as the classic model of communication, is one of the earliest and most influential communication models. It was developed by the Greek philosopher Aristotle in his work "Rhetoric" over 2,000 years ago.

The model consists of five key elements:

Speaker: The person who delivers the message or speech.

Speech: The message or content that is being conveyed by the speaker.

Audience: The person or group of people who receive the message or speech.

Context: The situation or occasion in which the speech is delivered.

Effect: The intended impact or outcome of the speech on the audience.

The correct answer is Both Statements I and Statement II are correct.

Key PointsStatement I: Mediated communication flourishes in a free and democratic environment is correct, because-

• Mediated communication also called mediated interaction is the term by which we call communication carried out using any technical medium for transmission across time and space and can be contrasted to face-to-face communication which we call non-mediated communication.
• Mediated communication engages fewer senses, transmits fewer symbolic cues (most mediated communication does not transmit facial expressions), and is seen as more private.
• Mediated communication flourishes in a free and democratic environment, Freedom of speech is a principle that supports the freedom of an individual or a community to articulate their opinions and ideas without fear of retaliation, censorship, or legal sanction.

Statement II: Power distortions always affect the flow of communication, whatever may be the political system is also correct, because-

• The Barriers to effective communication could be of many types like linguistic, psychological, emotional, physical, cultural, and Power of Distortion always affect the flow of communication, whatever may be the political system.
• Distortion is a result of communication in which the original, intended meaning of a message is replaced with a different interpretation as the receiver reconstructs the meaning of the message.

The correct answer is (B) and (E) only.

Important Points

• An informal fallacy occurs because of an error in reasoning. Unlike formal fallacies which are identified by examining the structure of the argument, informal fallacies are identified through analysis of the content of the premises.
• In this group of fallacies, the premises fail to provide adequate reasons for believing the truth of the conclusion. There are numerous different types of informal fallacies. In the following, we consider some of the more common types.

Key Points

• The fallacy of converse accident (also called reverse accident, destroying the exception) is an informal fallacy that can occur in a statistical syllogism (an argument based on a generalization) when a rule that applies only to an exceptional case is wrongly applied to all cases in general.
• A type of informal fallacy or a persuasive technique that involves arguing from a qualified position or particular case to an unqualified and general rule.
• For example, because patients with certain illnesses are permitted to use marijuana, marijuana use should be legal for everyone.
• In empirical research, the same fallacy can result from drawing conclusions from data based on small or non -representative samples, also called hasty generalization.
• A hasty generalization is a type of informal fallacy. It occurs when you generalize a singular experience or small sample size, essentially stating that limited experience is a universal fact.
• For example, a traveler from another country who visits New York City and concludes that most Americans don't own cars would be making a hasty generalization.

Additional Information

• The slippery slope fallacy is a logical fallacy that claims one event or action will lead to another, more extreme event or action. This could be by directly causing that follow-up event, setting a precedent for it, or simply creating an environment where that follow-up event can occur.
• The fallacy of accident is an informal fallacy and a deductively valid but unsound argument occurring in a statistical syllogism (an argument based on a generalization) when an exception to a rule of thumb is ignored.
• A Fallacy of Division is the reasoning error that occurs when one argues or assumes that if something is true for a whole then it must also be true for some or all of its parts.

The correct answer is Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Logic: an abstract form of thinking that uses step-by-step inferences to arrive at a conclusion.

Key PointsStatement I: According to the Classical Indian School of Logic, proof of a statement is given with the help of a syllogism.

• Syllogisms are a type of logical reasoning often used in philosophical arguments.
• Logical reasoning involves abstract thinking: you approach a problem by organizing a series of steps (called premises) into a particular order.
• Syllogisms are the most common way of arranging premises into a good argument.
• A syllogism is a form of deductive argument where the conclusion follows from the truth of two (or more) premises.
• A syllogism is valid (or logical) when its conclusion follows from its premises.
• A syllogism is true when it makes accurate claims – that is, when the information it contains is consistent with the facts.
• To be sound, a syllogism must be both valid and true.
• Thus, we can say that proof of a statement is given with the help of a syllogism.
• Hence statement I is correct.

Statement II: According to the Classical Indian School of Logic, the thesis has to be mentioned thrice as a hypothesis, second as an example, and third as a conclusion.

• In Indian Philosophy, Anumana means the knowledge (mana) which we get after other knowledge.
• From the knowledge of the sign, we get a knowledge of the object possessing it.
• The Nyaya believes in a five-membered inference (of a syllogism): Pratijna (Thesis), Hetu (Reason), Udaharana (Exemplification), Upanaya (Application), Nigamana (Conclusion).
• Thus statement II is incorrect.

The correct answer is Postulation (Arthāpatti)

Key Points

• Arthāpatti, or postulation or presumption, is one of the six means of knowledge (Pramanas) recognized in Indian philosophy. It is a unique form of inference used to explain a particular fact or observation that cannot be explained by any other means of knowledge.
• In Arthāpatti, we assume the existence of a fact or condition necessary to explain a certain observation or fact. This assumption is based on the logical necessity of the fact or condition and the absence of any other possible explanation.
• Arthāpatti is considered a valid means of knowledge, but it is not infallible. The validity of the inference depends on the logical necessity of the postulation and the absence of any other possible explanation. It is also subject to criticism and correction based on further observation and analysis.

Additional Information

• Upamana is the association of something previously unknown by its similarity to something known. For example, someone who has never seen a wild ox is told it resembles a cow. When the person sees the wild ox, he/she observes that it is similar to a cow and, thus, believes it to be a wild ox.
• Sabda, or verbal testimony, is an independent source or means of knowledge, according to Nyaya. According to Nyaya, epistemology sabda is the school's fourth and last accepted pramana. According to them, sabda is a pramana from a trustworthy person.
• Anupalabdhi is one of the six means of knowledge (Pramanas) recognized in Indian philosophy. It refers to the knowledge of the non-existence or absence of an object or phenomenon.

Anupalabdhi is often used to establish the non-existence of an object or phenomenon when other means of knowledge, such as Perception (Pratyaksha), Inference (Anumana), or Testimony (Shabda), fail to do so.

Value education is a holistic approach to education that emphasizes the development of a student's moral and ethical values, as well as their intellectual and academic skills. The goal of value education is to help students develop a strong moral and ethical character so that they can become responsible and productive members of society.

Key Points

 Value education typically covers a wide range of topics, including human rights and responsibilities, social justice, equality, peace, respect for diversity, and the environment. It may also address issues such as personal integrity, honesty, trustworthiness, and self-discipline.

Value education is often integrated into the curriculum of schools and colleges, and may be taught as a separate subject or woven into other subjects such as history, literature, and social studies. It may also be delivered through extracurricular activities, such as community service projects, and may involve community leaders, teachers, and parents.

Important Points

Value education is about promoting the development of sound moral and ethical principles, rich cultural and spiritual heritage, equality and social justice, national cohesion and democratic citizenship, and a respect for diversity and tolerance. All of these elements contribute to a well-rounded and holistic education that prepares students to be responsible and active members of society.

In particular, value education helps students understand the importance of ethical and moral values, such as honesty, fairness, respect, and responsibility. It also provides students with an appreciation for cultural and spiritual traditions and encourages them to think critically about social issues and to work towards creating a more just and equitable society.

Therefore, the correct answer is A, B, C and E only.

The correct answer is A and B only.

Important Points

• A literature review is a comprehensive summary of previous research on a topic. The literature review surveys scholarly articles, books, and other sources relevant to a particular area of research.

Key Points

• The purpose of a literature review is to gain an understanding of the existing research and debates relevant to a particular topic or area of study and to present that knowledge in the form of a written report.
• To familiarize yourself with the current state of knowledge on your topic of research so that the significance of the proposed research question is clear.
• To ensure that you're not just repeating what others have already done.
• To identify gaps in knowledge and unresolved problems that your research can address.
• It gives a correct context to the scope of the work proposed in the thesis.
• Describe the relationship of each work to the others under consideration. Identify new ways to interpret prior research.
• Reveal any gaps that exist in the literature. Resolve conflicts amongst seemingly contradictory previous studies.

The correct answer is Both Statements I and Statement II are correct. 

Key Points

Statement I: In communication, language involves different degrees of identification for generalization.

• Generalization is when a communicator can apply a skill in different contexts and settings.
• Language provides simple ways of communicating generalizable knowledge to each other. Though found in every language and emerging early in development, the language of generalization is philosophically puzzling and has resisted precise formalization. In communication, language involves different degrees of identification for generalization.
• Here, we propose the first formal account of generalizations conveyed with language that makes quantitative predictions about human understanding. We test our model in three diverse domains: generalizations about categories (generic language), events (habitual language), and causes (causal language).

Statement II: Abstraction is described as a process of leaving out details and for effective communication, an awareness of the details left out is necessary is also correct, because-

• Abstraction uses a strategy of simplification, wherein formerly concrete details are left ambiguous, vague, or undefined; thus effective communication about things in the abstract requires an intuitive or common experience between the communicator and the communication recipient.
• Abstraction is the process of taking away or removing characteristics from something to reduce it to a set of essential characteristics, and leaving out details for effective communication, an awareness of the details left out is necessary.

The International Solar Alliance (ISA) is an intergovernmental organization founded in 2015 with the goal of promoting solar energy and increasing its deployment and use in member countries. The ISA was established with the support of the Indian and French governments and is headquartered in Gurugram, India.

Key Points The ISA primarily focuses on promoting the use of solar energy in countries located near the equator and receiving significant amounts of sunshine, as these countries can generate large amounts of solar power. The organization works to promote the use of solar energy through the development of new technologies, the promotion of investment in solar projects, and the sharing of knowledge and best practices between member countries.

Important Points A. It was founded in 2012.

False. ISA was founded in 2015. Established by Prime Minister Narendra Modi and President of France Francois Hollande on November 30, 2015,

B. India is one of the founding countries.

True, India and France launched the International Solar Alliance (ISA) to boost solar energy in developing countries. It was launched at the United Nations Climate Change Conference in Paris in November 2015 by the Indian Prime Minister and French President

C. Its headquarters are in Geneva.

False, The HQ of ISA is in Gurugram, India.

D. It was signed by over 100 countries.

True, The ISA is open to all countries, regardless of their level of development, and currently has over 120 member countries from all over the world. The organization works closely with other international organizations, such as the United Nations and the World Bank, to achieve its goals and promote the use of solar energy globally.

E. Most sunshine countries are members of this alliance.

True. The International Solar Alliance is an alliance of 123 signatory countries, most being sunshine countries, which lie either completely or partly between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.

Key Points The objectives of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) are:

• To provide a dedicated platform for cooperation among solar resource-rich countries which lie completely or partially between the Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn.
• To mobilize financial resources for promoting and developing solar energy.
• To work towards reducing the cost of finance and technology for solar energy.
• To promote the use of solar energy for improving energy access and security, particularly in developing countries.
• To encourage and promote joint research and development efforts in the field of solar energy.
• To create an enabling environment for solar energy deployment by developing policies, regulations, and standards.

Therefore, the correct answer is B, D and E.

Institution of Eminence (IoE) is a status conferred on select higher education institutions in India by the Ministry of Education, Government of India. The objective of the IoE scheme is to enable Indian universities to achieve world-class status by providing them with greater autonomy and resources to compete globally.

Under the scheme, a maximum of 20 institutions, including public and private universities, are selected based on certain criteria, such as academic and research excellence, international collaborations, and innovation. Selected institutions are given greater autonomy in academic, administrative, and financial matters, and are eligible for financial assistance from the government.

What benefits of having IoE status?

The universities with IoE status can enjoy the following privileges –

• They have the option to admit merit-based overseas students to fill up to 30% of the number of admitted domestic students.
• They will get unrestricted flexibility to charge fees to international students.
• They have the authority to choose the domestic student cost, with the condition that no accepted student should be turned away for financial reasons.
• They have the freedom to set their own curriculum and admission procedures, the freedom to hire foreign faculty and collaborate with international institutions, and access to greater funding for research and infrastructure development.

Therefore, the correct answer is 30%.

The Executive Council in a government university is a governing body responsible for making decisions and providing direction on key aspects of university administration and operations. The Executive Council typically includes senior administrators, faculty representatives, and other key stakeholders, and is responsible for making decisions on a wide range of topics, including academic programs, budgeting, staffing, and facilities management.

Key PointsThe specific structure and responsibilities of the Executive Council in a government university may vary depending on the size and complexity of the university, as well as the laws and regulations governing higher education in the region. However, in general, the Executive Council is responsible for ensuring that the university operates in a manner that is consistent with its academic mission and goals, and for making decisions that promote the overall welfare and success of the university.

Important PointsThe Chairperson of the Executive Council is typically the highest-ranking administrative official in the university, which is Vice Chancellor and is responsible for leading the council and working with its members to make decisions and provide direction to the university.

Therefore, the correct answer is Vice-Chancellor.

the answer Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Key Points 

Analogical arguments and inductive arguments are both forms of reasoning that involve drawing inferences or conclusions based on available evidence.

• Statement I is correct because analogical arguments are a type of inductive argument.
• Inductive arguments are arguments that reach a conclusion based on evidence that supports it, rather than proving it beyond a doubt.
• Analogical arguments use the similarities between two things to infer that they are alike in some other aspect as well.
• Statement II is also correct because, in an analogical argument, the conclusion is drawn based on the similarities between two things.
• The argument says that since two entities are alike in some respects, they must also be alike in some other respect that is not yet known or established.
• This type of argument relies on the principle that things that are alike in some ways are likely to be alike in other ways as well.

Important Points 

• Analogy Infers there are similarities between two things or more
• Analogical reasoning:
• A type of inductive argument that is one of the most essential tools in constructing one which can be quite persuasive; it is also based on probability and experience.
• The framework of analogical

Arguments:

• First, must refer to traits that two or more things share
• Second, one must identify a new trait in the items being compared
• Third, concludes the other item being compared probably has the new trait too.

Additional Information 

 Inductive Reasoning :

• A type of reasoning that involves drawing a general conclusion from a set of specific observations.
• Also known as “bottom-up” logic, because it involves widening specific premises out into broader generalizations to come up with new theories/knowledge.
• Inductive reasoning, while not 100% accurate 100% of the time, is still a relatively quick way to make decisions.
• We use inductive reasoning in everyday life to build our understanding of the world.
• Inductive reasoning also underpins the scientific method: scientists gather data through observation and experiment, make hypotheses based on that data, and then test those theories further. That middle step—making hypotheses—is an inductive inference, and they wouldn’t get very far without it.

Deductive Reasoning :

• A type of logical thinking that starts with a general idea and reaches a specific conclusion.
• Also known as "top-down" thinking or moving from the general to the specific.
• A common example is the if/then statement. If A = B and B = C, then deductive reasoning tells us that A = C.
• In deductive reasoning, the conclusions are based on the premises and if one of the premises is not true, it follows that the conclusion is not true, even though it is valid. If one of the premises is not true, then the conclusion is also not true.
• Example: All dogs have a tail. Buddy is a dog. Therefore, Buddy has a tail.

SWAYAM is a massive open online course (MOOC) platform in India. It was launched by the Government of India to provide access to quality education to all, regardless of location and socio-economic status. The platform offers a wide range of courses, from school-level courses to postgraduate courses, across a variety of disciplines.

SWAYAM courses are delivered through a combination of video lectures, interactive quizzes, and self-paced learning materials. The courses are designed and delivered by some of the best teachers and institutions in India, and they are available free of charge to anyone with an internet connection.

Key Points

• The SWAYAM platform is designed to be flexible and accessible so that students can learn at their own pace and on their own schedule. It also provides students with the opportunity to earn credits towards their degree by completing SWAYAM courses.
• The UGC (University Grants Commission) has also approved the use of SWAYAM courses as part of the credit framework for online learning courses, which allows students to earn credits for completing online courses offered through the SWAYAM platform. This provides students with greater flexibility and access to quality education.

Important Points

• The University Grants Commission (UGC) has allowed universities to offer around 40 per cent of courses per semester online to students through the SWAYAM (Study Webs of Active Learning for Young Aspiring Minds) application.
• UGC’s new regulations called ‘Credit Framework for Online Learning Courses through Study Webs of Active Learning for Young Aspiring Minds Regulations, 2021’ will allow universities across the country to offer 40 per cent of all courses in a programme online via the SWAYAM platform.

Therefore, the correct answer is 40%.

The correct answer is 'Guidelines do not have legal sanctity'.

Key Points

• Let's understand the given passage.
• From these sentence, '........................................It is recognised "as the single biggest environmental threat to human health". WHO guidelines, which are not legally binding and intended as a reference for policymakers, advocacy groups and academics, stipulate permissible concentrations of six pollutants known to have impacts on health: two types of particulate matter known as PM2.5 and PM10, as well as Ozone, Nitrogen dioxide, Sulphur dioxide and Carbon monoxide.............................................................................................'.
• From the highlighted statement. it is understood that the guidelines issued by WHO has no legal binging. It shall be used by policy makers and advocacy groups as a reference.
• Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

​Therefore, the correct answer is -'Guidelines do not have legal sanctity'.

The correct answer is 'Threshold concentration of identified pollutants'.

Key Points

• Let's understand the given lines from the passage:
• WHO guidelines, which are not legally binding and intended as a reference for policymakers, advocacy groups and academics, stipulate permissible concentrations of six pollutants known to have impacts on health: two types of particulate matter known as PM2.5 and PM10, as well as Ozone, Nitrogen dioxide, Sulphur dioxide and Carbon monoxide. ​

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'Change lifestyles'.

Key Points

• Let's understand the passage.
• From the passage, '...................................It advised people to do their part by changing their lifestyles ‐ not running car engines uselessly; avoiding use of plastics that could end up being incinerated; and walking, riding bikes or using public transportation to get to work...........................'
• WHO has advised people to change their lifestyle to reduce air pollution.
• Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

Therefore, the correct answer is -'Change lifestyles'.

The correct answer is 'Setting a new standard of air quality in its updated guidelines'.

Key Points

• Let's understand the passage.
• From the given sentences, '................................The harmful health effects of air pollution kick in at lower levels than previously thought, the World Health Organisation has said as it has set a new standard for policymakers and the public in the first update of its air quality guidelines in 15 years.....................................'.
• From the highlighted points, it is understood that WHO set a new standard for policymakers and public in its first update of air quality guidelines.
• Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

​Therefore, the correct answer is -'Setting a new standard of air quality in its updated guidelines'.

The correct answer is "Do not ignore the harmful health effects of air pollution.".

Key Points

• Let's refer to the following sentences:
• It should be noted that "because of air pollution, the simple act of breathing contributes to 7 million deaths a year. Almost everyone around the world is exposed to unhealthy levels of air pollution".
• The harmful health effects of air pollution kick in at lower levels than previously thought, the World Health Organisation has said as it has set a new standard for policymakers and the public in the first update of its air quality guidelines in 15 years.
• Since the last update of the WHO recommendations, better monitoring and science have cleared up the global picture about the effects of six major air pollutants on human health.
• According to the agency, 90% of the world's people already live in areas with at least one particularly harmful type of pollutant.

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Individual.

Key Points

• The stimulus-response model, also known as the transmission model, is a communication model that describes communication as a linear process of transmitting information from a sender to a receiver.
• According to this model, the sender produces a message (stimulus) that is transmitted through a channel to a receiver who then responds to the message (response).
• The model suggests that communication is a one-way process, where the sender's goal is to convey a message to the receiver accurately and completely.

Synchronous communication is where two or more participants must be present and actively engaged simultaneously to exchange messages. This real-time exchange of information creates a sense of immediacy and allows for a more direct form of interaction between parties. 

Key Points

In synchronous communication, participants can receive immediate feedback, clarify misunderstandings, and resolve conflicts in real-time. This type of communication is often used for important or time-sensitive conversations where a rapid response is required.

However, synchronous communication can also have some drawbacks. For example, it may not be possible for all participants to be available simultaneously, which can limit the ability to hold a conversation. Additionally, synchronous communication can be an effective tool for communicating with others, especially in business and personal relationships where immediate feedback and real-time interaction are important.

Important Points Examples of synchronous communication are:

1. Live chat or instant messaging.
2. Video conferencing or webinars.
3. Face-to-face conversation.
4. Telephone calls.
5. Interactive whiteboard sessions.
6. Group audio calls.
7. In-person meetings.

Additional Information 

Therefore, the correct answer is options D and E only.

The correct answer is Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.

Key Points

Statement I: Codes of ethics are formulated to regulate the relations of researchers to the people and fields they intend to study correctly because- 

• A code of ethics sets out an organization's ethical guidelines and best practices for honesty, integrity, and professionalism.
• A code of ethics document may outline the mission and values of the business or organization, how professionals are supposed to approach problems, the ethical principles based on the organization's core values, and the standards to which the professional is held.
• Codes of ethics are formulated to regulate the relations of researchers to the people and fields they intend to study.
• Thus statement 1 is correct.

Statement II: All the risks involved in the study need not be explained to the participants in advance.

• All activities pose some level of risk, and research participation is no exception.
• It is generally accepted that participation in research should pose no more than minimal risk to participants, that researchers should assess the potential risks, and that participants should be fully informed of these and the benefits of participating in the research.
• All the risks involved in the study must be explained to the participants in advance.
• Ensuring the safety and well-being of research participants is an important element of ethical research practice.
• While much qualitative research may pose only minimal risks to participants, it is important not to disregard the risks that can occur, particularly in research on topics that are in some way ‘sensitive’ because they focus on personal issues, taboo issues, or issues which pose a threat for those participating in it.
• Thus statement II is incorrect.

Each type of printer uses a different technology to produce the printed output. | | Secondary Storage Device | - A pen drive, also known as a USB flash drive or thumb drive, is a portable (Secondary) storage device that is used to store and transfer digital data. - It typically consists of a small, rectangular plastic or metal casing that contains a flash memory chip and a USB connector. - Pen drives can store a large amount of digital data, ranging from a few megabytes to several gigabytes or more, depending on the capacity of the drive. - They are commonly used to store and transfer files, such as documents, photos, music, and videos, between computers and other electronic devices. |

The correct answer is Both Statements I and Statement II are true.

Key PointsStatement I: The panel design influences the statistical analysis in research is correct because-

• A panel design is used when researchers sample a group, or panel, of participants and then measure some variable or variables of interest at more than one point in time from this sample.
• Panel data contains more information, variability, and efficiency than pure time series data or cross-sectional data. Panel data can detect and measure statistical effects.
• Panel data analysis refers to the statistical analysis of data sets consisting of multiple observations on each sampling unit that influences the statistical analysis in research.

Statement II: The panel design does not suffer from the issue of mortality is incorrect because-

• The panel design, which involves  a group of individuals over time and measuring changes in their characteristics or outcomes, can be subject to the issue of mortality if study participants die or drop out of the study before the end of the follow-up period.
• This can potentially bias the results if the characteristics or outcomes of those who drop out differ systematically from those who remain in the study.
• To address this issue, researchers can use various methods such as modelling the missing data or adjusting for the differences in baseline characteristics between those who drop out and those who remain in the study.

The correct answer is E, C, A, B, and D.

Key Points

 L1 Cache:

• L1 (Level 1) cache is the fastest memory in a computer system.
• In terms of priority of access, the L1 cache has the data the CPU is most likely to need while completing a certain task.
• The size of the L1 cache depends on the CPU.
• Some top-end consumer CPUs now feature a 1MB L1 cache, like the Intel i9-9980XE, these cost a huge amount of money and are still few and far between.

Some server chipsets, like Intel's Xeon range, also feature a 1-2MB L1 memory cache.

L2 Cache:

• L2 (Level 2) cache is slower than the L1 cache but bigger.
• Where an L1 cache may measure in kilobytes, modern L2 memory caches measure in megabytes.
• For example, AMD's highly rated Ryzen 5 5600X has a 384KB L1 cache and a 3MB L2 cache (plus a 32MB L3 cache).

RAM:

• All instructions and storage addresses for the processor must come from RAM.
• Although RAM is very fast, there is still some significant time for the CPU to access it (latency).
• RAM is stored in separate, dedicated chips attached to the motherboard, which is much larger than cache memory.

Hard disk:

• A hard disk is also known as a hard drive or fixed disk. It is said to be a rigid magnetic disc that stores data. It is located within a drive unit.
• A hard disk is a non-volatile storage device that contains platters and magnetic disks rotating at high speeds.
• Non-volatile means the data retains when the computer shuts down. It is installed internally in our computer systems.
• A hard disk is located within a drive unit on the computer's motherboard and comprises one or more platters packed in an air-sealed casing.

CD-ROM:

• CD-ROM, an abbreviation of compact disc read-only memory, type of computer memory in the form of a compact disc that is read by optical means.
• A CD-ROM drive uses a low-power laser beam to read digitized (binary) data encoded in tiny pits on an optical disk. The drive then feeds the data to a computer for processing.

Statement I: Pitroda Commission recommended setting up 1500 universities in India to avoid stagnation in Higher Education.

Key Points

• The National Knowledge Commission (NKC) was a high-level advisory body to the Prime Minister of India, with the objective of transforming India into a knowledge society.
• In its endeavour to transform the knowledge landscape of the country, the National Knowledge Commission submitted around 300 recommendations on 27 focus areas during its three-and-a-half-year term. The implementation of the NKC's recommendations is currently underway at the Central and State levels.
• The increase in the number of universities to 1500 was the key recommendation of the Sam Pitroda commission. Hence, the statement I is correct.

 

Statement II: To address the problem of low enrolment in higher education in India, Indira Gandhi National Open Universities was set up in 1975.

Key Points

• Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) was established in 1985, with the objective of providing distance education and open learning opportunities to individuals who are unable to pursue regular full-time education.
• The primary aim of IGNOU is to democratize education by providing flexible and accessible learning opportunities to a diverse range of learners, including those who are geographically isolated, working professionals, or financially disadvantaged.
• The university offers a wide range of undergraduate, postgraduate, diploma, and certificate programs in various disciplines, including science, arts, commerce, and management.

Therefore Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.