UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 20th Nov 2021 Shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Ethnographic method

Important Points

• Ethnographic methods
• It is a research approach where participants look at people in their cultural setting, with the goal of producing a narrative account of that particular culture, against a theoretical backdrop.
• The methods used by participants in learning the various socio‑cultural systems that they interact with are the same methods that are used by the ethnographer in learning a new cultural system that is by observation, interviewing, participating, and making interpretations.

Additional Information

• Experimental research
• It is research conducted with a scientific approach using two sets of variables. The first set acts as a constant, which you use to measure the differences of the second set.
• Historical research method:
• it involves studying, understanding, and interpreting past events is to reach insights or conclusions about past persons or occurrences.
• Exegetical method 
• it is the critical explanation or interpretation of a text, especially of scripture.

The correct answer is (B) and (C)

Hypothesis testing is the process of assessing the validity of an assumption by evaluating data from a sample of the population.

The three main categories of psychological research are descriptive, correlational, and experimental research.

Important Points

• .Experimental method:
• It is used in conducting scientific experiments,
• In this researchers develop hypotheses to guide experimental design.
• A hypothesis is a suggested explanation that is both testable and falsifiable and then it is tested to check the validity of the hypothesis to prove this to be  true or false.
• 3 types of hypothesis testing in experimental research:
• z-test
• t-test
• F-test
• Ex post facto research design:
• It is a method in which groups with qualities that already exist are compared on some dependent variable.
• It is Also known as "after the fact" research,
• It is also considered quasi-experimental as the subjects are not randomly assigned - they are grouped based on a particular characteristic or trait.
• ​For example,
• a researcher is interested in how weight influences self-esteem levels in adults. So the participants would be separated into differing groups (underweight, normal weight, overweight) and their self-esteem levels measured. ​

Additional Information

• Historical research method:
• it involves studying, understanding, and interpreting past events is to reach insights or conclusions about past persons or occurrences.
• it uses two types of research methods 
• ​Primary sources include first-hand information, such as eyewitness reposts and original documents.
• Secondary sources include secondhand information, such as a description of an event by someone other than an eyewitness, or a textbook author's explanation of an event or theory.
• Exegetical method 
• it is the critical explanation or interpretation of a text, especially of scripture.
• Descriptive Research method:
• ​Research studies that do not test specific relationships between variables are called descriptive, or qualitative, studies.
• Its primary focus is to simply describe the nature of the demographics under study instead of focusing on the “why”.
• It is also called an observational research method as none of the variables in the study are influenced during the process of the research.

the correct answer is Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct

Key Points Statement (I) : Achievement and aptitude tests are designed to assess the upper limits of the examinees' knowledge and abilities.

• Achievement test 
• it refers to assessments in which scores are often used to determine the level of instruction for which a student is prepared.
• High achievement scores generally indicate that a level of mastery of grade-level material has been reached and that the student is prepared for advanced instruction.
• Aptitude tests
• It measures the ability of a student to acquire a set of skills or training by measuring the student's natural talents and inclinations

​Hence we can conclude Statement I is correct

Statement (II) : Objective personality tests and projective personality tests are designed to measure the typical behaviour and characteristics of examinees.

• Personality test 
• A personality test is a tool used to assess human personality.
• Objective personality test
• It uses clear and unambiguous questions, stimuli, or techniques for measuring personality traits.
• it is a self-reporting system that measures personality traits on a yes or no scale.
• Projective personality tests
• it uses designed to let a person respond to ambiguous stimuli, presumably revealing hidden emotions and internal conflicts projected by the person into the test.
• The most commonly used projective techniques are the Rorschach, the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT), figure drawings, and sentence completion tests.

Hence we can conclude Statement II is correct

Thus we conclude that Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct

Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in education is the mode of education that uses information and communications technology to support, enhance, and optimize the delivery of information.

Key Points

Assertion (A): The pupose underlying modern and ICT-based support system in teaching is to optimize learning outcomes.

• In schools, classroom teaching constitutes the primary means of impacting student learning.
• While organizing teaching-learning, the teacher makes use of a host of learning support systems available in school.
• These learning support systems supplement what the teacher teaches in the classroom.
• Some of these learning systems are libraries, laboratories, etc.
• Although these learning support systems have been contributing to student learning in conventional ways, their efficiency and effectiveness have increased with the use of ICT.

Reason (R): An effective instructional support system has to be linked with the enhancement of learning conditions.

• A learning support system refers to any system which provides academic resources to support student learning in educational institutions.
• Learning support systems in schools such as a library, laboratory, etc. have been greatly transformed with the use of ICT.
• ICT-based learning support services such as a digital library, virtual laboratory, e-content repository, e-mail, Internet, etc. are increasingly being used by schools. Such methods lead to enhanced learning conditions.​

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

The correct answer is (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Key Points

Steps in Research Process

1. Identification of the Problem:

• The first and most important step for identifying a problem is asking a question or identifying a need that arises as a result of curiosity and to which it becomes necessary or pivotal to find an answer
• The research question determines the direction of the study

2. View of Literature

• The main purpose of the review of the literature gives an idea about the variables which have been found to be conceptually and practically important and unimportant in the related field.
• Thus the review of literature helps in discovering and selecting variables relevant for the given study

3. Formulating a Hypothesis

• The hypothesis may be defined as a tentative statement showing a relationship between variables understudy
• When the researcher has identified the problem and reviewed the relevant literature he formulates a hypothesis. From a careful examination of relevant theory and previous findings, the psychologist would be able to state one or more prepositions whose validity could be tested
• it helps in Setting up relationships among variables of research

4. Identifying, Manipulating, and Controlling Variables

• At least three types of variables must be recognized at the outset – the dependent variable, the independent variable and the extraneous variable

5. Formulating a Research Design

• A research design may be regarded as the blueprint of those procedures which are adapted by the researcher for testing the relationship between the dependent variable and the independent variable. T

6. Constructing Devices for Observation and Measurement

• it is to construct or collect and choose appropriate tools of research for scientific observation and measurement.
• Depending on the nature of the research problem a researcher may choose the particular method (e.g. observation, experiment, case study, correlation, and survey)

7. Sample Selection and Data Collection

• it decides about the participants of the study for which purpose usually a small sample is drawn which represents the population.
• Then the actual study proceeds.
• So Drawing a subset from a larger set comes under this step

8. Data Analysis and Interpretation

• The purpose of the analysis is to make sense of the data and see what light they throw on the problem and the hypotheses of the study.
• Data can be in the form of charts or tables

​Thus we conclude that The correct answer is (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

The correct answer is Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true

Key Points

Statement (I) : There is no difference between format and styles of writing and referencing in a thesis and a research article.​ 

• The difference in thesis and research article:
• A thesis is concerned with the central question or statement of a scientific hypothesis that results in further investigation, while a research article is concerned with proving that central argument.
• Thesis formatted as a table of content manner whereas A research article or journal article should follow a manuscript format.
• There is no particular word limit in thesis writing. (approx 25,000 words) but Word limits are applicable to an article based on the research journal.
• The length of the thesis abstract is longer than a journal paper. (approx 350 words)
• The Abstract in the article is smaller in lengthapprox 150 to 250 words) as compared to thesis.

Hence statement I is Incorrect

Statement (II) : Research ethics and its observance is mandatory for all researches.

• Implications of Research ethics:
• ​Research ethics and its observance are necessary for the interest of credibility and quality of research.
• This is because the policy-making bodies have to be accountable for pursuing research with an eye on promoting excellence.
• Research misconduct can have dire consequences.
• For instance,
• surgeon Paolo Macchiarini conducted experiments on patients without sound preclinical data.
• He worked on artificial transplantation of the trachea within several patients, which turned out to be pathbreaking in medical history.
• However, it was all based on fabricated data.
• Most of the patients who took part in his trial (seven of nine) died. He altered his published results to make it look as if his trachea transplant work was more successful than it really was. This was a severe consequence of the breach of research ethics.

​Hence statement II is correct

Thus we conclude that Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true

A hypothesis is a precise, testable statement of what the researchers predict will be the outcome of the study. Hypothesis testing is the process of making a choice between two conflicting hypotheses. 

Key Points

Assertion (A): A research hypothesis (H1), has to be tested with the help of a Null hypothesis called (H0).

• In hypothesis testing, there are two mutually exclusive hypotheses; the Null Hypothesis (H0) and the Alternative Hypothesis (H1).
• The null hypothesis, H0, is a statistical proposition stating that there is no significant difference between a hypothesized value of a population parameter and its value estimated from a sample drawn from that population.
• The alternative hypothesis, H1 or Ha, is a statistical proposition stating that there is a significant difference between a hypothesized value of a population parameter and its estimated value. When the null hypothesis is tested, a decision is either correct or incorrect.
• The reason to test the null hypothesis is that we think it is wrong. We state what we think is wrong about the null hypothesis in an alternative hypothesis.

Hence it concludes that the assertion is correct.

Reason (R): Tenability of research hypothesis (H1) cannot be directly affirmed.

• The relationship between the research hypothesis (H₁) and the null hypothesis (H₀) is that, if the null hypothesis (H₀) is rejected then the research hypothesis (H₁) is accepted.
• But in the beginning stage, the researcher makes an affirmative statement, as a prediction of the solution that she proposes to test later.
• At the stage of statistical analysis of data, the research hypothesis is converted into a null hypothesis. All statistical tests are the tests for the null hypotheses.
• Rejecting or accepting the null hypothesis asserts that observed differences or relationships may result from chance errors due to the sampling procedure.

Hence it concludes that the reasoning is also correct. 

Therefore, both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

The correct answer is November 16

Important Points

 Press Council of India:

• The is a statutory, adjudicating organization in India formed in 1966
• It is the self-regulatory watchdog of the press, for the press and by the press, that operates under the Press Council Act of 1978
• National Press Day is observed on November 16th every year to acknowledge and honor the Press Council of India
• Smt. Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai  is the Chairman of the Council. (2022)

Additional Information

• January 30 
• Martyrs' Day  is observed in India annually to mark the death anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi
• October 15.
• ​World Student's Day is celebrated every year in honor of the birth anniversary of the former president of India, Late Dr APJ Abdul Kalam.
• 9 November.
• ​National Legal Services Day is marked across the country annually on 9 November.

New Media represents digital platforms that are equal to magazines, newspapers, radio, and television. They are consumed on cell phones, laptops, desktops, and tablets, and they often contain the same information as the traditional media, although they may be delivered in a different style.

Key Points

Assertion (A): The more performative broadcast is also more cohesive and popular, but owing to new media its effect is decreasing.

• Broadcast media is the inclusion of different mediums that are used for communicating, transmitting, and broadcasting to the public or masses.
• It uses a wide range of audio-visual materials as well as electronic or electro-magnetic mediums to share news, information, entertainment, ads, etc with the target audiences or general public.
• New media is enabling unprecedented levels of communication, social interaction, and community building across boundaries of time, place, and social context.
• It is enabling individuals and speeding up the democratization of knowledge.

Hence it concludes that the assertion is correct.

Reason (R): The Internet is tending to eclipse broadcast media.

• From the early 1990s onwards, a few years after the Internet began its exponential growth, the theoretical necessity of analyzing the social implications of communication ‘mediums’ had become paramount, if not unavoidable.
• In providing an alternative to the homogenizing structure of broadcast communication, the Internet is said to offer almost unlimited democratic freedoms to track down information, to correspond with thousands of other enfranchised individuals, and spontaneously form virtual communities which would not otherwise be possible.

Hence it concludes that the reasoning also is correct.

Therefore, both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Key Points

 The psychological barrier of communication is the influence of the psychological state of the communicators (sender and receiver) which creates an obstacle for effective communication.

Important PointsSome psychological barriers to communication are as follows-

• Disinterest- When a person's mind is distracted or preoccupied with other things, he or she is unable to form proper messages, listen to what others say, interpret the message as needed, and provide appropriate feedback.
• Inattention- Indifference and lack of interest create barriers to communication, resulting in lower communication quality. The intended message is either not received at all or is incomplete and, worse, incorrectly understood.
• Prejudice- This type of prejudice is a barrier to effective listening because when a person is judged based on his or her identity or ideas, one usually stops listening actively and/or ethically. And shows prejudice in one's listening in a variety of ways, some more obvious than others.
• Emotions- Emotional issues, whether within an individual or between individuals, can directly impact thinking and communication skills. Fear, anxiety, anger and other common emotions can and do hamper how you relay your messages to others as well as interpret their messages to you.

Additional InformationNoise is one of the most common communication barriers. It is any persistent or random disturbance that reduces, obscures or confuses the clarity of a message. Physical barriers are closely related to noise as they can obstruct the communication transmission process. Invisibility - This is a physical communication barrier as invisibility can lead to distorted messages because the sender and the receiver cannot physically see each other. Therefore, the correct answer is options (C), (D) and (E) only.

The correct answer is Times of India

Important Points

• Times of India
• ​ It is the third-largest newspaper in India by circulation and the largest selling English-language daily in the world.
• It is nicknamed as "The Old Lady of Bori Bunder",[8][9] and is an Indian "newspaper of record".
• It is owned and published by Bennett, Coleman & Co. Ltd. (B.C.C.L.)
• Its tagline is"Let Truth prevail"

Additional Information

• The tagline of the statesman newspaper is" People’s Parliament, Always In Session"
• The tagline of the Tribune newspaper is" Voice Of The People"
• The tagline of the Hindu newspaper is '"Indian’s National Newspaper Since 1878"

Paul Lazarsfeld (1901–1976), made significant contributions to media and communication theory. Some of his work, including the two-step flow model of mass communication reception, continues to resonate in studies of audience reception.

Key Points

• In the late 1930s and early 1940s, mass society notions began to be empirically investigated by Paul Lazarsfeld.
• Trained in psychological measurement, Lazarsfeld fled the Nazis and came to the United States on a Ford Foundation fellowship (Lazarsfeld, 1969).
• For the emerging field of mass communication research, he proved to be a seminal thinker and researcher.
• Lazarsfeld was interested in exploring the potential of newly developed social science methods, such as surveys and field experiments, to understand and solve social problems.
• He combined academic training with a high level of entrepreneurial skill. Within a few years after arriving in the United States, he had established a very active and successful social research center, the Bureau for Applied Social Research at Columbia University.
• Lazarsfeld was committed to the use of empirical social research methods in order to establish the validity of theory.
• Lazarsfeld’s most famous research efforts, the “American Voter Studies,” actually began as an attempt to document the media’s power during election campaigns.
• By the mid-1950s, Lazarsfeld’s work and that of other empirical media researchers had generated an enormous amount of data.
• Lazarsfeld's conclusion from survey research contrary to popular assumptions, the mass media cannot directly change most people's strongly-held attitudes or opinions.
• Though Lazarsfeld and others never labeled this theory, it is now referred to as limited-effects theory.

Thus based on the above facts both statements A and D are correct.

Given:

Average monthly expenditure for the first 3 months = Rs. 4,000

Average monthly expenditure for the next 4 months = Rs. 4,500

Average monthly expenditure for the next 5 months = Rs. 5,000

Total saving during the year = Rs. 5,000

Formula Used:

Income = Expenditure + Savings

Average = (Sum of the terms)/(Number of the terms)

Calculation:

According to the question,

Average monthly expenditure for the first 3 months = Rs. 4,000

Total expenditure for the first 3 months = 4,000 × 3 = Rs. 12,000

Average monthly expenditure for the next 4 months = Rs. 4,500

Total expenditure for the next 4 months = 4,500 × 4 = Rs. 18,000

Average monthly expenditure for the next 5 months = Rs. 5,000

Total expenditure for the next 5 months = 5,000 × 5 = Rs. 25,000

Total expenditure during the year = 12,000 + 18,000 + 25,000

⇒ 55,000

Given, total saving during the year = Rs. 5,000

We know that, Income = Expenditure + Savings

Income during the year = 55,000 + 5,000 = Rs. 60,000

Average monthly income = Income during the year/Number of months in a year

Average monthly income = $\frac{60,000}{12}$ = Rs. 5,000

∴ The average monthly income of the family is Rs. 5,000.

Formula Used:

Average = (Sum of the terms)/(Number of the terms)

Calculation:

The prime numbers between 70 to 90 are 71, 73, 79, 83 and 89

Average = (Sum of the terms)/(Number of the terms)

Average = (71 + 73 + 79 + 83 + 89)/5

⇒ 395/5 = 79

∴ The average of all prime numbers between 70 to 90 is 79.

Given:

Gain = Selling price of 11 litres of milk

Formula Used:

Gain = Selling price - Cost price

Gain percentage = [(Selling price - Cost price)/Cost price] × 100

Calculation:

Let the selling price of 1 litre milk be Rs.x then, selling price of 33 litres of milk = 33x

Also given that,

Gain = Selling price of 11 litres = 11x

Gain = Selling price of 33 litres of milk - Cost price of 33 litres of milk

⇒ 11x = 33x - Cost price of  33 litres of milk

⇒ Cost price of  33 litres of milk = 33x - 11x = 22x

Gain percentage = [(Selling price - Cost price)/Cost price] × 100

Gain percentage = [(33x - 22x)/22x] × 100

⇒ (11/22) × 100 = 50%

∴ The gain percentage is 50%.

Given:

Cost price = 95% of selling price

Formula Used:

Profit = Selling price - Cost price

Profit % = (Profit/Cost price) × 100

Calculation:

Given, Cost price = 95% of selling price

Cost price = (95/100) × Selling price

CP/SP = 95/100 

CP/SP = 19/20

Here, Profit = SP - CP = 20 - 19

Profit = 1

Profit % = (Profit/Cost price) × 100

Profit % = (1/19) × 100 = 5.26%

∴ The profit percentage is 5.26%.

Given:

Selling price of an item = Rs.1200

Loss = 25%

Formula Used:

Loss = Cost price - Selling price

Selling price = Cost price × (100 + Profit)/100

Calculation:

Let the cost price of an item be 100x, then to find the cost price of an item,

Selling price = Cost price - Loss

⇒ 1200 = 100x - (25% × 100x)

⇒ 1200 = 100x - 25x = 75x

⇒ x = 1200/75 = 16

Hence, cost price = 100 × 16 = Rs.1600

Now, to earn profit of 30% selling price will be,

⇒ Selling price = Cost price × (100 + Profit)/100

⇒ Selling price = 1600 × (100 + 30)/100

⇒ Selling price = 1600  × 130/100 = 160 × 13

⇒ Selling price = Rs.2080

∴ The correct answer is Rs.2080.

Shortcut TrickGiven Loss = 25% = 1/4

Let, cost price = 4x, loss = 1x and selling price = 4x - 1x = 3x 

Given, selling price of an item = Rs.1200

⇒ 3x = 1200

⇒ x = 400

Cost price = 4x = 4 × 400 = Rs.1600

For profit of 30%, selling price = 1600 × 130/100

⇒ Selling price = Rs.2080

∴ The correct answer is Rs.2080.

Philosophy develops a fascination for wisdom which is different from knowledge. Philosophical wisdom manifests in several ways – mainly theoretical and applied. The former is explanatory while the latter is the combination of both theory and practice.

Key Points

• Knowledge can be valid or invalid.
• Valid knowledge is called praman and non-valid knowledge is known as apraman.
• Pramana is a valid means of knowledge and its important four means include perception (pratyaksa), inference (anumana), verbal testimony (sabda), and comparison (upamana).

COMPARISON (UPAMANA)

• It is knowledge derived from similarity.
• It has been defined as the knowledge of the relation between a word and its denotation.
• According to the Nyāya Philosophy, comparison (upamāna) is the third source of valid knowledge.
• The expression ‘upamāna’, is derived from two words, ‘upa’ and ‘māna’. The word ‘upa’ means similarity or ‘sādrusya’ and the word ‘māna’ means ‘cognition’.
• Example of Upamāna: A person does not know what a ‘squirrel’ is? S(he) is told by a forester that it is a small animal-like rat, but it has a long furry tail and strips on its body. After some period of time, when s(he) sees such an animal in the forest, s(he) knows that it is a squirrel.

Therefore, upamana is the sources of knowledge (pramana) in classical Indian philosophy that is based on the similarity of the unobserved object with a known object.

 Additional Information

• Arthapatti, (Sanskrit: “the incidence of a case”) in Indian philosophy, the fifth of the five means of knowledge (pramana) by which one obtains accurate knowledge of the world.
• Arthapatti is knowledge arrived at through presumption or postulation.
• Different schools of Indian thought accept or reject different ones of these methods. All methods are accepted by Mimamsa; only perception, inference, and testimony by Yoga; only perception and inference by Buddhism and Vaisesika; and only perception by Carvaka.

There are six major schools of Vedic philosophy—Nyaya, Vaisheshika, Samkhya, Yoga, Mīmāṃsā, and Vedanta, and five major heterodox (sramanic) schools—Jain, Buddhist, Ajivika, Ajñana, and Charvaka.

Important Points

Vaisesikas:

• Vaisheshika or Vaiśeṣika is one of the six schools of Indian philosophy (Vedic systems) from ancient India.
• In its early stages, the Vaiśeṣika was an independent philosophy with its own metaphysics, epistemology, logic, ethics, and soteriology.
• Over time, the Vaiśeṣika system became similar in its philosophical procedures, ethical conclusions, and soteriology to the Nyāya school of Hinduism, but retained its difference in epistemology and metaphysics.

Buddhists:

• Buddhists believe death is a natural part of the life cycle.
• They believe that death simply leads to rebirth.
• This belief in reincarnation – that a person’s spirit remains close by and seeks out a new body and new life – is a comforting and important principle.
• For Buddhists, death is not the end of life, so it is not something to be feared.
• Where and how a person is reborn depends on their good and bad actions in past lives.

Charvaka:

• Charvakas have refuted verbal testimony as a valid source of knowledge because it is based on the statement of some reliable person/ scripture.
• And to find a reliable person is based on inference which is not a valid source of knowledge.
• Comparison is also not accepted as the source of valid knowledge by charvakas.

Hence, Vaisesikas, Charvaka and Buddhists schools of Classical Indian Philosophy reduce Sabda pramãna (verbal authority) to inference.

Key Points

 In Indian logic inference is known as “Anumāna.” It is knowledge (mānā) which arises after (anu) other knowledge. Thus the literal meaning of anumāna is knowledge which comes after some other knowledge.

Important PointsPratijna (Thesis): It is the thesis to be established, which makes a statement. It means that through which something is proved. For example, 'the hill is fiery'.

Hetu (Reason): It states the reason for the statement. For Example, ‘Because there is smoke on the hill’.

Udaharana (Exemplification): It is the universal proposition that shows the invariable concomitance between the reason and the inferable predicate supported by an example ‘Whenever there is smoke there is fire’ e.g. the Kitchen.

Upanaya (Application): It is the application of the universal proposition to a particular instance. For example, the hill is smoking.

 Nigmana (conclusion):  It is the conclusion drawn from the preceding members. For example, ‘therefore the hill is fiery’.

Additional Information The following is a a typical nyaya syllogism.

1. This hill has fire (pratijna),
2. Because it has smoke (hetu),
3. Whatever has smoke has fire e.g. an oven (udaharana),  4. This hill as smoke which is invariably associated with fire (upanaya),  5. Therefore this hill has fire (nigamana).

Therefore the correct sequence of steps incase of inference (anumana) are- Pratijna, Hetu, Udharana, Upanaya, Nigamana.

Indian logic stands as one of the three original traditions of logic, alongside Greek and Chinese logic. The Indian tradition continued to develop through early to modern times, in the form of the Navya-Nyāya school of logic.

Key Points

Statement (I): According to classical Indian Logic the psychological sequence also corresponds to the logical sequence.

• Logic and psychology coincide, or rather if logic appears to be psychological, psychology of reasoning is also logicized.
• Tradition stipulates that logic and psychology are related on the basis of the assumption that thought is a common factor to them. However, a crucial point is missing in this correlation.
• The traditional approach is something like this. Psychology takes up the study of the origin and evolution of thought processes by examining the functions of animals, infants, abnormal persons, criminals etc. Its main concern is the mind and thought is a mental process.

Hence it concludes that statement I is correct.

Statement (II): The logical structure represents not how we ought to infer, but how, as a matter of fact, we do infer.

• Logic gets confined to the study of inferential thinking of only normal adult human beings.
• While logic attempts to abstract the forms in which the human mind thinks, psychology studies the actual process of thinking.
• The forms of thinking that logic abstracts from our thought processes are no events in our mind and, therefore, are not of interest to psychologists.
• Being a formal science, the logic looks upon those principles as regulative elements of reflective thinking. Psychology is concrete because its subject – matter is concrete, i.e., actual psychological events.
• Logic is abstract because its subject matter is abstract, i.e., forms of reflective thinking. Therefore in one sense, they are related and in some other sense, they are poles apart.

Hence it concludes that statement II is correct.

Therefore, both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true

Nyaya Philosophy:

• It is one of the six systems of Indian Philosophy.
• Gautama is the main proponent of Nayaya philosophy.
• The four Pramanas of Nyaya philosophy are perception, inference, analogical reasoning, and testimony.

Key Points

There are five members in nyaya syllogism:

• Pratigya or proposition: It is the logical statement that is to be proved.
• For example, The hill is fiery.
• Hetu or reason: which states the reason for the establishment of the proposition.
• For example: Because the hill is smoky.(hetu)
• Udharana: which gives the universal concomitance together with an example.
• For example: whatever is smoky is fiery, e.g. a kitchen.
• Upanaya: the application of the universal concomitance to the present case.
• For example, This hill is also smoky.
• Nigamana: conclusion drawn from the preceding propositions.
• For example: Therefore this hill is fiery.

Hence, the correct matching is (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

A new Laptop has been produced that weighs less, is smaller and uses less power than previous Laptop models Solid State Hard Drive technology has been used to accomplish.

Key Points

• Solid State Drive  (SSD) is a type of mass storage device similar to a hard disk drive (HDD).
• It supports reading and writing data and maintains stored data in a permanent state even without power.
• Internal SSDs connect to a computer like a hard drive, using standard IDE or SATA connections.
• While SSDs serve the same function as hard drives, their internal components are much different.
• Unlike hard drives, SSDs do not have any moving parts (which is why they are called solid-state drives). Instead of storing data on magnetic platters, SSDs store data using flash memory.

Additional Information

• A Blu-ray disk (BD) is a high-capacity optical disk medium developed for recording, rewriting, and playing back high-definition video. It can store large amounts of data and was designed to supersede the DVD.
• LCD displays use active-matrix technology. A thin-film transistor (TFT) arranges tiny transistors and capacitors in a matrix on the glass of the display.

The operating system, also known as an “OS,” interfaces with the computer's hardware and provides services that applications can use.

Key Points

Assertion (A): Every general-purpose computer must have an Operating System (OS) installed on it.

• OS is designed to serve two basic purposes: 
• ​It controls the allocation and use of the computing System's resources among the various user and tasks.
• It provides an interface between the computer hardware and the programmer that simplifies and makes it feasible for coding, creation, debugging of application programs.

Reasons (R): Man and Computer cannot communicate directly.

• Typically, men communicate to computers new material in the form of programs and data, requests for processing or retrieval of previously stored data or data entered from external sources, and other information required for processes performed by the computer.
• That is why we need OS in a computer as a man cannot directly communicate to the computer.

Thus both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Memory units:

1. The amount of data that can be stored in a storage unit is known as a memory unit.
2. A binary digit or 'bit' is the representation of '0' and '1' is considered the smallest unit of memory.
3. A group of binary digits (8-bit) is called bytes.

Key Points

The table below is showing the memory units and their equivalents:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Confusion Points

• 2 TB is equivalent to 2048 GB
• 1GB is equivalent to 1024 MB
• So, 1500 MB is greater than 1 GB or 1024 MB

Therefore, the correct sequence is 2 TBytes > 1500 M Bytes > 1 G Bytes > 5 K Bytes 

Hence, the correct sequence is (D), (A), (C), (B).

Key Points

Wi-Fi is a wireless technology that allows computers, tablets, smartphones, and other devices to connect to the internet.

Wi-Fi is a radio signal transmitted from a wireless router to a nearby device, which converts the signal into data that you can see and use. The device sends a radio signal back to the router, which is wired or cabled to the internet.

Important Points

Statement (I)  Wi-Fi has a shorter range than Bluetooth.

• WiFi is a technology for radio wireless local area networking of devices based on the IEEE 802.11 standards.
• WiFi operates on 2.4Ghz or 5Ghz frequencies and typically works over longer distances than Bluetooth.

Hence statement I is incorrect.

Statement (II) Wi-Fi can transmit data at a faster rate than Bluetooth.

• Wi-Fi has a maximum speed that is much faster than Bluetooth at least 54 Mbps for Wi-Fi, vs. only 3 Mbps for Bluetooth.
• As a result, Bluetooth is typically used for transferring small chunks of data, such as the numerical values from IoT sensors.

Hence statement II is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true.

Ozone is produced naturally in the stratosphere. But this “good” ozone is gradually being destroyed by man-made chemicals referred to as ozone-depleting substances (ODS).

Key Points

Ozone-depleting substances are chemicals that destroy the earth’s protective ozone layer. They include:

• chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
• halon
• carbon tetrachloride (CCl4)
• methyl chloroform (CH3CCl3)
• hydro Bromo fluorocarbons (HBFCs)
• hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs)
• methyl bromide (CH3Br)
• bromochloromethane (CH2BrCl)

Therefore, Methyl chloride a kind of CFC is an ozone-depleting substance.

Additional InformationProduction and import of ODS are controlled by the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer.

• Sulfur dioxide combines with water and air, it forms sulfuric acid, which is the main component of acid rain.
• Acid rain can cause deforestation to acidify waterways to the detriment of aquatic life.
• Methane is the primary contributor to the formation of ground-level ozone, a hazardous air pollutant, and greenhouse gas.
• Carbon dioxide creates an overabundance of greenhouse gases that trap additional heat. This trapped heat leads to melting ice caps and rising ocean levels, which cause flooding.

Important Points

• The rapid spread of disease to a large number of hosts in a given population over a short period of time is referred to as an epidemic
• Infectious disease epidemics are typically caused by a change in the ecology of the host population, a genetic change in the pathogen reservoir, or the introduction of an emerging pathogen into a host population.
• In general, an epidemic occurs when host immunity to an established pathogen or a newly emerging novel pathogen is suddenly reduced below the endemic equilibrium and the transmission threshold is exceeded.

An epidemic may be limited to a single location; however, if it spreads to other locations, it is considered a pandemic.

Additional Information 

• AN EPIDEMIC is a disease that affects a large number of people within a community, population, or region.
• A PANDEMIC is an epidemic that’s spread over multiple countries or continents.
• ENDEMIC is something that belongs to a particular people or country.
• AN OUTBREAK is a greater-than-anticipated increase in the number of endemic cases. It can also be a single case in a new area. If it’s not quickly controlled, an outbreak can become an epidemic.

Therefore, the correct answer is Epidemic.

Important PointsThe following table sows the terminologies and their purposes of use in short,

Therefore, the correct match is (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

Important Points

• The National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) has enunciated the launch of a National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem (NMSHE).
• The Mission needs to deliver a better understanding of the coupling between the Himalayan ecosystem and the climate factors and provide inputs for Himalayan Sustainable development while addressing also the protection of a fragile ecosystem.
• This requires the joint effort of climatologists, glaciologists, and other experts.
• Exchange of information with the South Asian countries and countries sharing the Himalayan ecology will also be required.

NMSHE aims to establish an observational and monitoring network for the Himalayan environment to assess freshwater resources and the health of the ecosystem. 

Additional Information

The mission attempts to address some important issues concerning-

1. Himalayan Glaciers and the associated hydrological consequences,
2. Biodiversity conservation and protection,
3. Wildlife conservation and protection,
4. Traditional knowledge societies and their livelihood and
5. Planning for sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem.

Therefore, the correct answer is National Mission on Sustaining Himalayan Ecosystem.

Pollutants with the strongest evidence for public health concerns include particulate matter (PM), carbon monoxide (CO), ozone (O3), nitrogen dioxide (NO2) and sulphur dioxide (SO2). Health problems can occur as a result of both short- and long-term exposure to these various pollutants. Some of these pollutants, i.e. Particulate matter (PM 2.5), Ozone are also responsible for climate change.

Important Points

Nitrogen dioxide:

A significant air pollutant that adversely affects human health (e.g., respiratory issues) and contributes to the formation of ground-level ozone and particulate matter.

Particulate matter (PM):

• Particulate matter is a term used to describe inhalable particles that are made up of sulphate, nitrates, ammonia, sodium chloride, black carbon, mineral dust, or water.
• PM is capable of penetrating deep into the lung and entering the bloodstream, where it can cause cardiovascular (ischemic heart disease), cerebrovascular (stroke), and respiratory effects.
• Long-term and short-term particulate matter exposure is linked to morbidity and mortality from cardiovascular and respiratory diseases.

Ozone:

• Ground-level ozone is a significant contributor to smog.
• It is formed as a result of photochemical reactions with pollutants such as nitrogen oxides (NOx) emitted by vehicles and industry.
• Because of the photochemical nature of ozone, the highest levels are observed during periods of sunny weather.
• Excessive ozone exposure can cause breathing difficulties, trigger asthma attacks, reduce lung function, and lead to lung disease.

Additional Information

• Methane is a significant greenhouse gas. It aids in the formation of ozone. Incomplete combustion of biomass, biofuel and fossil fuels in simple stoves, open fires, or wick lamps emits methane.
• Carbon monoxide is a toxic gas that is colourless, odourless, and tasteless and is produced by the incomplete combustion of carbonaceous fuels such as wood, gasoline, charcoal, natural gas, and kerosene.

Therefore, the correct answer is Nitrogen dioxide, Particulate matter 2.5 and Ozone as they two have adverse health effects compared to other pollutants.

Solar energy is the radiation from the Sun capable of producing heat, causing chemical reactions, or generating electricity. 

Key Points

• Coal is a combustible black or brownish-black sedimentary rock with a high amount of carbon and hydrocarbons.
• Coal is classified as a nonrenewable energy source because it takes millions of years to form.
• Coal contains the energy stored by plants that lived hundreds of millions of years ago in swampy forests.
• Layers of dirt and rock covered the plants over millions of years. The resulting pressure and heat turned the plants into the substance we call coal.
• Coal contains more carbon than other fossil fuels such as oil and gas, resulting in the release of greater quantities of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere when it is burned.
• Coal, therefore, contributes more to climate change than any other energy source.

Therefore, coal is not a form of solar power.

Additional Information

• Tidal energy is one of the oldest forms of energy generation.
• It is a renewable form of energy that converts the natural rise and fall of the tides into electricity.
• Tides are caused by the combined effects of gravitational forces exerted by the Moon, the Sun, and the rotation of the Earth.
• Wind power is a form of energy conversion in which turbines convert the kinetic energy of wind into mechanical or electrical energy that can be used for power. Wind power is considered a renewable energy source.
• Hydropower, or hydroelectric power, is one of the oldest and largest sources of renewable energy, which uses the natural flow of moving water to generate electricity.

The University Grants Commission (UGC) of India is a statutory body set up in 1956 and is charged with coordination, determination, and maintenance of standards of higher education.  

Previously, UGC was formed in 1946 to oversee the work of the three Central Universities of Aligarh, Banaras, and, Delhi. In 1947, a Committee was entrusted with the responsibility of dealing with all the then existing Universities.

Important Points After independence, the University Education Commission was set up in 1948 under the Chairmanship of S. Radhakrishnan and it recommended that the UGC be reconstituted on the general model of the University Grants Commission of the United Kingdom.

The UGC was, however, formally established in November 1956, by an Act of Parliament as a statutory body of the Government of India.

Important functions performed by the commission:

• It provides recognition to universities in India.
• It oversees the distribution of grants to universities and colleges in India.
• It provides scholarships/fellowships to beneficiaries.
• It monitors conformity to its regulations by universities and colleges.

The University grant commission UGC has recently instructed its affiliated universities and colleges to introduce a compulsory six-module course on Environmental Studies at all branches of an undergraduate degree.

Additional Information

• NCTE: National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE). It is a statutory body of Central Government set up under NCTE Act, 1993. Set up in 1995. It was set up to formally oversee standards, procedures, and processes in the Indian education system.
• NCERT- The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) is an autonomous organization of the Government of India which was established in 1961 as a literary, scientific, and charitable Society under the Societies Registration Act.
• The All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) is a statutory body and a national-level council for technical education. It comes under the Department of Higher Education. Established in November 1945 first as an advisory body and later on in 1987 given statutory status by an Act of Parliament, AICTE is responsible for proper planning and coordinated development of the technical education and management education system in India.

Therefore, the correct answer is UGC.

The correct answer is 'Health'.

Key Points

• Let's refer to the passage:
• The Corona Virus COVID - 19 pandemic is the defining global health crisis of our time and the greatest challenge we have faced since World War Two.
• From the above-mentioned statement, it is evident that the major crisis faced by the world since World War II is in the area of health.

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'Telecommunication'.

Key Points

• Let's refer to the passage:
• But the pandemic is much more than a health crisis, its also an unprecedented socio economic crisis.
• Stressing every one of the country it touches, it has the potential to create devastating social, economic and political effects that will leave deep and longstanding scars.
• Small island nations, heavily dependent on tourism, have empty hotels and deserted beaches.
• From the above-mentioned statements, it is evident that the pandemic has left the area of telecommunication unaffected.

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'Antarctica'.

Key Points

• Let's refer to the passage:
• The Corona Virus COVID - 19 pandemic is the defining global health crisis of our time and the greatest challenge we have faced since World War Two.
• Since its emergence in Asia late last year, the virus has spread to every continent except Antarctica.
• From the above-mentioned statements, it is evident that the continent least affected by COVID-19 is Antarctica.

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'UNDP'.

• Let's refer to the passage:
• UNDP is the technical lead in the UN's socio economic recovery, alongside the health response lead by WHO, and the Global Humanitarian Response Plan, and working under the leadership of the UN Resident Coordinators.
• From the above-mentioned statement, it is evident that UNDP is the technical lead in the UN's socio-economic recovery plan.

Thus, option 1 is the correct answer. 

Additional Information 

• The UNDP stands for United Nations Development Programme .
• It was established in 1965.
• Its main objective is to help countries eradicate poverty and support   sustainable human development.

The correct answer is 'Health care centres'.

Key Points

• Let's refer to the passage: 
• But the pandemic is much more than a health crisis, its also an unprecedented socio economic crisis.
• Stressing every one of the country it touches, it has the potential to create devastating social, economic and political effects that will leave deep and longstanding scars.
• Every day, people are losing jobs and income, with no way of knowing when normality will return.
• Small island nations, heavily dependent on tourism, have empty hotels and deserted beaches.
• Thus, from the above-mentioned statements, it is evident that in the wake of COVID - 19, health care centres will have least chances of closure.

Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

Important Points 

Therefore, the correct answer is (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

E-learning is a learning system that is based on formalized teaching but uses electronic resources. While teaching can take place in or out of the classroom, computers and the Internet are the most important components of E-learning. E-learning is also known as a network-enabled transfer of skills and knowledge in which education is delivered to a large number of recipients at the same or different times.

Important Points

Therefore, the correct answer is (A), (C), (D) only.

​

 Additional Information

MOOC

• A MOOC is an online course with the option of free and open registration, a publicly-shared curriculum, and open-ended outcomes.
• MOOCs integrate social networking, accessible online resources, and are facilitated by leading practitioners in the field of study.

PARAKH

• The All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) launched the first-of-its-kind multi-lingual student learning assessment portal 'PARAKH'.
• In an effort to evaluate technical education students in India and make them industry-ready in accordance with global standards (Performance Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic Development)

National Education Policy 2020 envisage setting up of an autonomous body - National Educational Technology Forum (NETF) to provide a platform for free exchange of ideas on the use of technology to enhance learning, assessment, planning, administration and so on, both for School and Higher Education.

Key Points Functions of NETF are as follows-

• Articulate new directions for research and innovation in technology.
• Provide a platform for a free exchange of ideas on the use of technology to understand learning.
• Build intellectual and institutional capacities in Educational technology.
• To provide independent evidence-based advice to Central and State Government agencies on technology-based interventions;
• To lay down standards of content, technology, and pedagogy for online/digital teaching-learning. These standards will help to formulate guidelines for e-learning by States, Boards, Schools, HEIs, etc.
• To maintain a regular flow of authentic data from multiple sources including educational technology innovators and will engage with a diverse set of researchers to analyze the data.
• To conduct multiple regional and national conferences, workshops, etc. to solicit inputs from national and international educational technology researchers, entrepreneurs, and practitioners.
• To Identify technological interventions for the purpose of improving teaching-learning
• and evaluation process, supporting teacher preparation, and professional development.
• To categorize emergent technologies based on their potential and estimated frame for disruption, and periodically present this analysis to MoE.

Therefore, the correct answer is an option (A), (B), (E) only.

The United Nations approved the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), also known as the Global Goals, in 2015 as a universal call to action to end poverty, safeguard the environment, and ensure that by 2030, everyone lives in peace and prosperity.

The 17 SDGs are interconnected; they recognize that actions taken in one area have an impact on outcomes in others and that development must strike a balance between social, economic, and environmental sustainability.

Key PointsGoal 4 - Quality Education

Achieving inclusive and quality education is the main target of this goal.

Some targets of this goal include:

• By 2030, ensure that all girls and boys complete free, equitable, and quality primary and secondary education leading to relevant and Goal-4 effective learning outcomes.
• By 2030, ensure that all girls and boys have access to quality early childhood development, care, and preprimary education so that they are ready for primary education.
• By 2030, ensure equal access for all women and men to affordable and quality technical, vocational and tertiary education, including university.

Important Points

1. SDG 1: End poverty in all its forms everywhere.
2. SDG 2: End hunger, achieve food security and improve nutrition and promote sustainable agriculture.
3. SDG 3: Ensure healthy lives and promote well-being for all at all ages.
4. SDG 4: Ensure inclusive and equitable quality education and promote lifelong learning opportunities for all.
5. SDG 5: Achieve gender equality and empower all women and girls.
6. SDG 6: Ensure availability and sustainable management of water and sanitation for all.
7. SDG 7: Ensure access to affordable, reliable, sustainable, and modern energy for all.
8. SDG 8: Promote sustained, inclusive, and sustainable economic growth, full and productive employment, and decent work for all.
9. SDG 9: Build resilient infrastructure, promote inclusive and sustainable industrialization, and foster innovation.
10. SDG 10: Reduce inequality within and among countries.
11. SDG 11: Make cities and human settlements inclusive, safe, resilient, and sustainable.
12. SDG 12: Ensure sustainable consumption and production patterns.
13. SDG 13: Take urgent action to combat climate change and its impacts
14. SDG 14: Conserve and sustainably use the oceans, seas, and marine resources for sustainable development.
15. SDG 15: Protect, restore and promote sustainable use of terrestrial ecosystems.
16. SDG 16: Promote peaceful and inclusive societies for sustainable development, provide access to justice for all, and build effective, accountable, and inclusive institutions at all levels.
17. SDG 17: Strengthen the means of implementation and revitalize the global partnership for sustainable development.

Therefore, the correct answer is Quality education.

Given:

Total workforce in all the sectors put together is 80 lakhs.

Calculation:

Total Workforce in Service (SE) = 15% of 80 lakhs

⇒ $\frac{15}{100}$ × 80 lakhs = 12 lakhs

Ratio (Male : Female) = 3 : 2

Male workforce = 12 lakh × $\frac{3}{5}$ = 7.2 lakh

Total Workforce in Sales (SA) = 12% of 80 lakhs

⇒ $\frac{12}{100}$ × 80 lakhs = 9.6 lakhs

Ratio (Male : Female) = 5 : 3

Male workforce = 9.6 lakh × $\frac{5}{8}$ = 6 lakhs

Total Workforce in Construction and Maintenance (M) = 9% of 80 lakhs

⇒ $\frac{9}{100}$ × 80 lakhs = 7.2 lakhs

Ratio (Male : Female) = 5 : 4

Male workforce = 7.2 lakh × $\frac{5}{9}$ = 4 lakhs

Total Workforce in Professional (PR) = 18% of 80 lakhs

⇒ $\frac{18}{100}$ × 80 lakhs = 14.4 lakhs

Ratio (Male : Female) = 5 : 7

Male workforce = 14.4 lakh × $\frac{5}{12}$ = 6 lakhs

Total Workforce in Management (MA) = 21% of 80 lakhs

⇒ $\frac{21}{100}$ × 80 lakhs = 16.8 lakhs

Ratio (Male : Female) = 3 : 4

Male workforce = 16.8 lakh × $\frac{3}{7}$ = 7.2 lakhs

Total Workforce in Production and Transport (PT) = 19% of 80 lakhs

⇒ $\frac{19}{100}$ × 80 lakhs = 15.2 lakhs

Ratio (Male : Female) = 5 : 3

Male workforce = 15.2 lakh × $\frac{5}{8}$ = 9.5 lakhs

Total Workforce in Others (OT) = 6% of 80 lakhs

⇒ $\frac{6}{100}$ × 80 lakhs = 4.8 lakhs

Ratio (Male : Female) = 3 : 5

Male workforce = 4.8 lakh × $\frac{3}{8}$ = 1.8 lakhs

Average = (Total number of male workforce in all the sectors) / (Total sectors)

Average = (7.2 + 6 + 4 + 6 + 7.2 + 9.5 + 1.8)/7

⇒ $\frac{41.7}{7}$ = 5.96 lakhs

∴ The average number of male workforce in all the sectors is 5.96 lakhs.

Given:

Total workforce in all the sectors put together is 80 lakhs.

Calculation:

Total Workforce in Service (SE) = 15% of 80 lakhs

⇒ $\frac{15}{100}$ × 80 lakhs = 12 lakhs

Ratio (Male : Female) = 3 : 2

Female workforce in SE = 12 lakh × $\frac{2}{5}$ = 4.8 lakhs

Total Workforce in Professional (PR) = 18% of 80 lakhs

⇒ $\frac{18}{100}$ × 80 lakhs = 14.4 lakhs

Ratio (Male : Female) = 5 : 7

Female workforce in PR = 14.4 lakh × $\frac{7}{12}$ = 8.4 lakhs

Total Workforce in Construction and Maintenance (M) = 9% of 80 lakhs

⇒ $\frac{9}{100}$ × 80 lakhs = 7.2 lakhs

Ratio (Male : Female) = 5 : 4

Male workforce in CM = 7.2 lakh × $\frac{5}{9}$ = 4 lakhs

Required percentage = [(female workforce in SE and PR sectors put together)/(the number of male workforce in CM sector)] × 100

⇒ [(4.8 + 8.4)/4] × 100 = 330%

∴ The required percentage is 330%.

Given:

Total workforce in all the sectors put together is 80 lakhs.

Formula Used:

Required percentage = [(Male workforce in SA + Male workforce in MA sectors)/(Total number of workforce in PT sector)] × 100

Calculation:

Total Workforce in Sales (SA) = 12% of 80 lakhs

⇒ $\frac{12}{100}$ × 80 lakhs = 9.6 lakhs

Ratio (Male : Female) = 5 : 3

Male workforce = 9.6 lakh × $\frac{5}{8}$ = 6 lakhs

Total Workforce in Management (MA) = 21% of 80 lakhs

⇒ $\frac{21}{100}$ × 80 lakhs = 16.8 lakhs

Ratio (Male : Female) = 3 : 4

Male workforce = 16.8 lakh × $\frac{3}{7}$ = 7.2 lakhs

Total Workforce in Production and Transport (PT) = 19% of 80 lakhs

⇒ $\frac{19}{100}$ × 80 lakhs = 15.2 lakhs

Required percentage = [(Male workforce in SA + Male workforce in MA sectors)/(Total number of workforce in PT sector)] × 100

⇒ $\frac{6 + 7.2}{15.2}$ × 100 

⇒ $\frac{13.2}{15.2}$ × 100 = 86.84 ≈ 87%

∴ The required percentage is 87%.

Given:

Total workforce in all the sectors put together is 80 lakhs.

Calculation:

Total Workforce in Sales (SA) = 12% of 80 lakhs

⇒ $\frac{12}{100}$ × 80 lakhs = 9.6 lakhs

Ratio (Male : Female) = 5 : 3

Female workforce = 9.6 lakh × $\frac{3}{8}$ = 3.6 lakhs

Total Workforce in Management (MA) = 21% of 80 lakhs

⇒ $\frac{21}{100}$ × 80 lakhs = 16.8 lakhs

Ratio (Male : Female) = 3 : 4

Female workforce = 16.8 lakh × $\frac{4}{7}$ = 9.6 lakhs

Total Workforce in Production and Transport (PT) = 19% of 80 lakhs

⇒ $\frac{19}{100}$ × 80 lakhs = 15.2 lakhs

Ratio (Male : Female) = 5 : 3

Female workforce = 15.2 lakh × $\frac{3}{8}$ = 5.7 lakhs

Difference = (The number of female workforce in SA and MA sectors put together) - (the number of female workforce in PT sector)

Difference = (3.6 + 9.6) - 5.7 = 7.5 lakhs

∴ The difference in the number of female workforce in SA and MA sectors put together and the number of female workforce in PT sector is 7.5 lakhs.

Given:

Total workforce in all the sectors put together is 80 lakhs.

Calculation:

Total Workforce in Construction and Maintenance (CM) = 9% of 80 lakhs

⇒ $\frac{9}{100}$ × 80 lakhs = 7.2 lakhs

Ratio (Male : Female) = 5 : 4

Female workforce in CM = 7.2 lakh × $\frac{4}{9}$ = 3.2 lakhs

Total Workforce in Professional (PR) = 18% of 80 lakhs

⇒ $\frac{18}{100}$ × 80 lakhs = 14.4 lakhs

Ratio (Male : Female) = 5 : 7

Male workforce in PR = 14.4 lakh × $\frac{5}{12}$ = 6 lakhs

Total Workforce in Others (OT) = 6% of 80 lakhs

⇒ $\frac{6}{100}$ × 80 lakhs = 4.8 lakh

Ratio (Male : Female) = 3 : 5

Male workforce in OT = 4.8 lakh × $\frac{3}{8}$ = 1.8 lakhs

Required ratio = (The number of female workforce in CM sector) : (The number of male workforce in PR and OT sectors put together)

Required ratio = 3.2 : (6 + 1.8) = 3.2 : 7.8 = 16 : 39

∴ The required ratio is 16 : 39.

The correct answer is: "Memory level"

Key Points

• Memory Level of Teaching:
• The Memory Level is the first and most basic level of teaching in the hierarchy.
• The primary focus of this level is on rote learning, where learners memorize and recall factual information, ideas, and systematic data without necessarily understanding the underlying concepts.
• The teacher's role is to present the material systematically, ensuring that the learners can retain and reproduce it whenever necessary.
• This level of teaching is particularly suitable for young learners, as their cognitive abilities may not yet be developed enough for deep understanding or critical thinking.
• Examples of memory-level teaching include learning multiplication tables, historical dates, definitions, and basic formulas.
• Characteristics of Memory Level Teaching:
• It emphasizes repetition, drills, and structured presentation of information.
• The learner's role is passive, as they focus on absorbing and reproducing information provided by the teacher.
• Assessment typically involves recall-based questions such as fill-in-the-blanks, multiple-choice questions, or direct recall tests.
• This level serves as a foundation for higher levels of teaching, as it provides the basic knowledge required for understanding and application.

Additional Information

• Understanding Level of Teaching:
• This level focuses on comprehension and understanding of the subject matter.
• Learners are encouraged to grasp the meaning of concepts and principles, rather than just memorizing facts.
• Teaching involves explanations, demonstrations, and discussions to ensure learners can relate new knowledge to prior understanding.
• Examples include solving word problems in mathematics or explaining the causes and effects of historical events.
• Reflective Level of Teaching:
• The Reflective Level is the highest level of teaching, where learners critically analyze and evaluate information.
• It emphasizes problem-solving, hypothesis testing, and decision-making.
• Learners actively participate in the learning process, applying their knowledge to real-world situations.
• This level is suitable for advanced learners, such as university students, and involves activities like research projects and case studies.
• Autonomous Development Level:
• This level focuses on self-directed learning, where learners take full responsibility for their educational growth.
• The teacher acts as a facilitator, guiding learners to explore, discover, and construct knowledge independently.
• Learners develop critical thinking, creativity, and lifelong learning skills through this approach.

The correct answer is (B) and (D)

Behavioral competencies are also known as soft skills or general competencies.

Important Points

The teacher's behavior to make the teaching-learning process effective is known as the behavioral competency of a teacher. Some of the behavioral competencies of a teacher are as follows,

• Planning
• it ensures students' time in the classroom is worthwhile. As their teacher, he/she ties all activities to specific learning objectives and connects daily lessons to all long-term units.
• Communication competency
• it states that an individual should be able to “articulate thoughts and ideas clearly and effectively in written and oral forms to persons inside and outside of the organization.
• Interacting Well with Students
• Problem Solving/Judgment
• Productivity
• Being Responsibility

Additional Information

• Teachers' self-efficacy,
• namely teachers' beliefs in their ability to effectively handle the tasks, obligations, and challenges related to their professional activity
• Locus of control
• A locus of control orientation is a belief about whether the outcomes of our actions are contingent on what we do (internal control orientation) or on events outside our personal control (external control orientation)
• Flexibility
• Effective teachers are great at being flexible, which means that they can balance several responsibilities at once and still make students smile and feel appreciated.

Hence we conclude that Self efficacy, locus of control and flexibility are not under the Behavioral competencies but these are included in the personality competencies. 

Therefore the correct answer  is (B) and (D)

The correct answer is (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Key Points

Hence we conclude that The correct answer is (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)