Official Paper

UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 1st Mar 2023 Shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

50 questions · 60 minutes · with answers · free

Paper 1 (50 questions)

The following table presents the findings of a survey into how people travel to work :

Number of People Travelling to Work by
CycleCarBusWalk
72183555

Note :

(a) 1 in 8 of the people who cycled to work were found to be over 65 years of age.

(b) 1 in 3 of the Cyclists stated that they travelled to work by bus on rainy days.

Based on the above, answer the question :

1

How many people cycled to work on a rainy day?

  1. ((a))

    24

  2. ((b))

    48

  3. ((c))

    72

  4. ((d))

    64

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

48

Given:

Number of People Travelling to Work by Cycle = 72

Calculation:

On rainy days, number of people who went by cycle = 72 - 72 × 1/3 = 72 - 24 = 48.

∴ The required answer will be 48.

2

How many respondents indicated that they cycled to work and were over 65 years of age?

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    9

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    7

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

9

Given:

Number of People Travelling to Work by
CycleCarBusWalk
72183555

Calculation:

Number of people who cycled to work and were 65 years old = 1/8 × 72 = 9

∴ The required answer will be 9.

3

Which of the following statements is true?

  1. ((a))

    Slightly fewer than twice as many people indicated that they travelled to work by bus than by car.

  2. ((b))

    Slightly more than twice as many people indicated that they travelled to work by bus than by car.

  3. ((c))

    Slightly more people indicated that they travelled to work by bus than by car.

  4. ((d))

    Slightly fewer people indicated that they travelled to work by car than by bus.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Slightly fewer than twice as many people indicated that they travelled to work by bus than by car.

Given:

35 people indicated that they travelled to work by bus while 18 indicated they travelled by car;

According to Option: Ã

2  × 18 = 36 which is 1 more than 35.

∴ The required answer will be Options 1.

4

The sum of which modes of travelling to work represents half the number of responses represented in the survey?

1. Cycle and Car 2. Bus and Car 3. Walk and Bus 4. Walk and Cycle

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. ((a))

    1 and 2 Only

  2. ((b))

    1 and 3 Only

  3. ((c))

    2 and 3 Only

  4. ((d))

    2 and 4 Only

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1 and 3 Only

Given:

Number of People Travelling to Work by
CycleCarBusWalk
72183555
  1. Cycle and car
  2. Walk and bus

The sum of cycle and car = 72 + 18 = 90

The sum of Walk and bus = 35 + 55 = 90

Total = 90 + 90 = 180,

Now, Half of the total responses represented in the survey.

∴ The required answer will be Option 2.

5

How many more people indicated that they cycled to work compared with those who travelled by either bus or car?

  1. ((a))

    72

  2. ((b))

    35

  3. ((c))

    18

  4. ((d))

    19

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

19

The total who travel by either bus or car = (35 +18)= 53

To find how many more cycled = 72 - 53 = 19.

∴ The required  answer will be 19.

6

According to some experts like Marshal McLuhan, the following are considered hot media :

  1. Telephone
  2. Television
  3. Radio
  4. Cinema
  5. Print

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. ((a))

    1, 2, 3 Only

  2. ((b))

    2, 3, 4 Only

  3. ((c))

    3, 4, 5 Only

  4. ((d))

    1, 3, 5 Only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3, 4, 5 Only

Key Points Hot Media:

  • According to Marshall McLuhan, hot media are those that are high definition, provide a lot of information, and require little participation from the audience.
  • They are typically associated with visual and auditory sensory inputs.

Important Points

The following can be considered hot media:.

  • Radio: Radio is an auditory medium that provides a lot of information through sound. It requires little participation from the audience and is a one-way communication tool.
  • Cinema: Cinema is a visual medium that provides a lot of information through high-definition images and sound. It is a one-way communication tool that requires little participation from the audience.
  • Print: While print may not seem like a hot medium, according to McLuhan, it is a high-definition medium that requires little participation from the audience. It provides a lot of information in a fixed form and can be re-read multiple times.

Hence, Ratio, Cinema and Print are called as hot media.

7

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Internet itself is a network and also a model for Cyberspace relations.

Statement II : Global interactive technologies, aided by the Internet, heralded the arrival of the 'second media age' by the end of the twentieth century.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Important Points

Statement I: Internet itself is a network and also a model for Cyberspace relations.

  • Internet is a global network of interconnected computers and devices that use standard communication protocols to connect with each other.
  • It is a model for cyberspace relations as it enables people to communicate and interact with each other regardless of their location.
  • The internet allows for the creation of virtual communities and online social networks, which are based on shared interests and common goals.
  • The internet also enables the sharing of information and resources and facilitates collaboration and cooperation across geographic and cultural boundaries.

Hence, the statement is true. 

Statement II: Global interactive technologies, aided by the Internet, heralded the arrival of the 'second media age' by the end of the twentieth century.

  • Advent of global interactive technologies, such as the internet, social media, and mobile devices, has transformed the media landscape and ushered in a new era of communication.
  • These technologies have enabled people to create and consume media content in new ways, leading to a proliferation of user-generated content and the emergence of new forms of media such as podcasts, vlogs, and online streaming.
  • The internet has also facilitated the globalization of media, allowing people to access and share information and media content from around the world.
  • This has had a profound impact on the media industry and has led to the development of new business models and revenue streams.

Hence, the statement is also true.

Hence, Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

8

The monthly income of a person in the year 2020 was Rs. 65,000 and his monthly expenditure was Rs. 45,000. In the year 2021 his monthly income increased by 15% and his monthly expenditure by 7%. What is the percentage increase in his savings?

  1. ((a))

    33%

  2. ((b))

    31%

  3. ((c))

    35%

  4. ((d))

    28%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

33%

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Income : Expenditure : Savings = 65,000 : 45,000 : 20,000 = 13 : 9 : 4.

Using the weighted average method: Total Increase = (Part1 × Change1 + Part2 × Change2) ÷ Total Parts.

15% × 13 = (7% × 9) + (S% × 4)

195 = 63 + 4S ⇒ 4S = 132 ⇒ S = 33%.

∴ The correct answer is 33%.

Alternate Method

Given: Monthly Income (2020) = ₹65,000, Monthly Expenditure (2020) = ₹45,000.

Savings (2020) = Income − Expenditure = ₹65,000 − ₹45,000 = ₹20,000

Income (2021) = 65,000 + (15% of 65,000) = 65,000 + 9,750 = ₹74,750

Expenditure (2021) = 45,000 + (7% of 45,000) = 45,000 + 3,150 = ₹48,150

Savings (2021) = 74,750 − 48,150 = ₹26,600

Increase in Savings = 26,600 − 20,000 = ₹6,600

Percentage Increase = (6,600 ÷ 20,000) × 100 = 33%

∴ The correct answer is 33%.

Additional Information

Percentage Change Formula

Percentage Increase/Decrease = [(New Value − Old Value) ÷ Old Value] × 100.

Income-Expenditure Relation

Income = Expenditure + Savings. This remains the fundamental base for all such calculations.

Alligation Method in Income

The percentage change in income is the weighted average of percentage changes in expenditure and savings, weighted by their respective initial values.

9

5/9 of a number is equal to twenty five percent of a second number. Second number is equal to 1/4 of a third number. The value of the third number is 2960. How much is the 30% of the first number?

  1. ((a))

    9.99

  2. ((b))

    99.9

  3. ((c))

    89.9

  4. ((d))

    88.9

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

99.9

Shortcut Trick

Third number = 2960

Second number = 2960 ÷ 4 = 740

25% of Second number = 740 × 0.25 = 185

First number = 185 × 9 ÷ 5 = 333

30% of First number = 333 × 0.3 = 99.9

∴ The correct answer is 99.9.

Alternate Method

Given:

Third number = 2960

Second number = 1/4 × Third number

5/9 × First number = 25% × Second number

Calculations:

Second number = 2960 ÷ 4 = 740

25% of Second number = 740 × (25/100) = 185

⇒ According to the question, 5/9 × First number = 185

First number = 185 × (9/5)

First number = 37 × 9 = 333

30% of First number = 333 × (30/100)

30% of First number = 333 × 0.3 = 99.9

∴ The correct answer is 99.9.

Additional Information

Percentage to Fraction Conversion

To simplify calculations, convert percentages to fractions: 25% = 1/4, 50% = 1/2, 75% = 3/4, and 20% = 1/5.

Finding a Number from its Part

If (a/b) of a number X is equal to K, then the original number X can be found as X = K × (b/a).

Calculating Percentage of a Value

The x% of any value V is calculated using the formula: Result = (x × V) ÷ 100.

10

A man invested 1/3 of his retirement gratuity at 6% simple interest; 1/4 of his gratuity at 7% and the rest at 8% simple interest. If his annual return on these investments is Rs. 7012.5, find the total amount of gratuity invested by the man.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 89,000

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 99,000

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 95,000

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 1,05,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rs. 99,000

Shortcut Trick

Let the total gratuity be 1200 units (LCM of 3 and 4 multiplied by 100 for easy percentage calculation).

Investment parts: 400 units (1/3rd), 300 units (1/4th), and remaining 500 units.

Total Interest = (400 × 6%) + (300 × 7%) + (500 × 8%) = 24 + 21 + 40 = 85 units.

Given 85 units = ₹7012.5 ⇒ 1 unit = 7012.5 ÷ 85 = ₹82.5

Total gratuity = 1200 units = 1200 × 82.5 = ₹99,000.

∴ The correct answer is ₹99,000.

Alternate Method

Given:

1/3 of gratuity invested at 6%

1/4 of gratuity invested at 7%

Rest of the gratuity invested at 8%

Total Annual Return (Simple Interest) = ₹7012.5

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (I) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ Let the total gratuity be 1200x (for ease of calculation).

⇒ Fraction of principal at 8% = 1 − (1/3 + 1/4) = 1 − 7/12 = 5/12

⇒ Amount invested at 6% = (1/3) × 1200x = 400x

⇒ Amount invested at 7% = (1/4) × 1200x = 300x

⇒ Amount invested at 8% = (5/12) × 1200x = 500x

⇒ Total Simple Interest = [(400x × 6 × 1) ÷ 100] + [(300x × 7 × 1) ÷ 100] + [(500x × 8 × 1) ÷ 100]

⇒ 7012.5 = 24x + 21x + 40x

⇒ 7012.5 = 85x

⇒ x = 7012.5 ÷ 85

⇒ x = 82.5

⇒ Total Gratuity = 1200x = 1200 × 82.5 = 99000

∴ The correct answer is ₹99,000.

Additional Information

Simple Interest (SI)

It is calculated only on the initial principal for all years. The formula is SI = PRT/100, where P is Principal, R is Rate of Interest, and T is Time.

Effective Rate of Interest

When parts of principal P are invested at different rates R1, R2... the effective overall rate is the weighted average of the individual rates.

Compound Interest (CI)

Interest is calculated on both the initial principal and the accumulated interest from previous periods. The formula for the amount is A = P(1 + R/100)T.

11

If in a certain, Coding language, 'Cheater' is coded as 'ejgcvgt', then how 'Preacher' will be coded in that language?

  1. ((a))

    'rtgcejgt'

  2. ((b))

    'qsfbdifs'

  3. ((c))

    'rtgbdjgt'

  4. ((d))

    'stgbdjgt'

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

'rtgcejgt'

The correct answer is 'rtgcejgt'.

To code 'Preacher' in the same coding language as 'Cheater', we need to apply the same coding scheme to each letter in 'Preacher'.

So, the letter 'C' in 'Cheater' is coded as 'e'. The position of 'C' in the alphabet is 3, and the position of 'e' is 5, so the shift is 2. Applying the same shift to each letter in 'Preacher', we get:

P + 2 = R

r + 2 = t

e + 2 = g

a + 2 = c

c + 2 = e

h + 2 = j

e + 2 = g

r + 2 = t

∴  'Preacher' is coded as 'rtgcejgt' in the given coding language.

12

Which of the following statements about email security best describes email encryption?

  1. ((a))

    This is a self replicating program that can spread by email.

  2. ((b))

    This disguises the content of email messages in order to protect sensitive information.

  3. ((c))

    This consists of sending numerous duplicate mails to the same email address.

  4. ((d))

    The email header is changed so that the message appears to have come from someone else.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

This disguises the content of email messages in order to protect sensitive information.

Key Points

 Email encryption:

  • Email encryption disguises the content of email messages in order to protect sensitive information.
  • It involves transforming the original text of the message into an unreadable format that can only be deciphered by the intended recipient who has the decryption key.
  • Encryption uses complex algorithms to scramble the text of an email message, making it unreadable to anyone who does not have the key to decode it.
  • Only the intended recipient with the correct decryption key can access the original message content.
  • This ensures that even if the message is intercepted by unauthorized persons, they will not be able to read or understand the contents.
  • Email encryption is an important aspect of email security, especially when sensitive or confidential information is being transmitted.

Hence, email encryption disguises the content of email messages in order to protect sensitive information.

13

Given below are two statements about music files :

Statement I : A music clip stored in MP3 format would take up more memory than the same clip stored in WAV format.

Statement II : Music files stored in MP3 format are of better quality than files stored in WAV format.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

Important Points 

Statement I: A music clip stored in MP3 format would take up more memory than the same clip stored in WAV format.

  • MP3 is a compressed audio file format that is designed to reduce the size of audio files without significant loss of audio quality.
  • On the other hand, WAV is an uncompressed audio file format that retains all of the original audio data, resulting in larger file sizes.
  • Therefore, a music clip stored in MP3 format would take up less memory than the same clip stored in WAV format.

Hence, this statement is false. 

Statement II: Music files stored in MP3 format are of better quality than files stored in WAV format.

  • While MP3 is a popular file format because of its smaller size, it is a lossy compression format.
  • This means that some audio information is lost during the compression process, resulting in a slight degradation in audio quality.
  • In contrast, WAV is a lossless file format, which means that it retains all of the original audio data and, therefore, has better audio quality than MP3.
  • So, music files stored in WAV format are of better quality than files stored in MP3 format.

Hence, this statement is also false.

Hence, Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

14

Which of the following statements are accurate?

  1. Web 2.0 is a simple static website without any interaction with its users.
  2. Web 2.0 brings people closer together with information using machines.
  3. Web 3.0 brings machines closer together using information.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. ((a))

    1 Only

  2. ((b))

    2 Only

  3. ((c))

    2 and 3 Only

  4. ((d))

    4 only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2 and 3 Only

Key Points

 Web 2.0:

  • Web 2.0 refers to the second generation of the World Wide Web that emphasizes user-generated content, collaboration, and interaction.
  • Web 2.0 websites and applications allow users to create and share content, connect with others, and participate in social networking activities.

Web 3.0:

  • Web 3.0 is a term used to describe the next evolution of the internet, where the web will become more intelligent and intuitive, powered by technologies like Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Machine Learning (ML).
  • It is envisioned as a more semantic web, where data is understood by machines and can be used to deliver more personalized and relevant content to users.

Important Points Statement 1: Web 2.0 is a simple static website without any interaction with its users.

  • Web 2.0 is characterized by its interactive and dynamic nature, where users can actively participate in content creation and sharing.
  • This is in contrast to the static nature of early web pages.

This statement is inaccurate.

Statement 2: Web 2.0 brings people closer together with information using machines.

  • Web 2.0 does bring people closer together with information.
  • It does so through user-generated content and social networking platforms.
  • Web 2.0 technologies have enabled users to interact and collaborate with each other, share information, and create content.
  • So, it is true that Web 2.0 has brought people closer together with information, and machines play a vital role in facilitating this interaction.

This statement is accurate.

Statement 3: Web 3.0 brings machines closer together using information.

  • Web 3.0, also known as the "Semantic Web," is focused on creating a more intelligent and interconnected web by using artificial intelligence and machine learning to analyze and connect vast amounts of data.
  • This aims to provide a more personalized and efficient user experience.

This statement is accurate.

Hence, Statements 2 and 3 Only are correct.

15

Match List I with List II 

List I (Output Device)List II (Description)
A.Inkjet printerI.Flat panel display that uses the light modulating properties of liquid crystals.
B.LCD screenII.Flat panel display that uses an array of light-emitting diodes as pixels.
C.LED screenIII.Droplets of ink are propelled onto paper.
D.Laser PrinterIV.Electrically charged powdered ink is transferred onto paper.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. ((a))

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

  2. ((b))

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

  3. ((c))

    (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

  4. ((d))

    (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

Key Points

Output DeviceDescription
A. Inkjet printer- It is a type of printer that sprays small droplets of ink onto the paper to create text or images. - These printers are popular for home and office use because they are relatively inexpensive and can print high-quality color images.
B. LCD screen- It is a flat panel display that uses the light modulating properties of liquid crystals. - LCD screens are used in a variety of electronic devices, including televisions, computer monitors, and mobile phones.
C. LED screen- It is a flat panel display that uses an array of light-emitting diodes as pixels. - LED screens are commonly used for large-scale displays such as billboards, stadium screens, and outdoor advertising.
D. Laser Printer- It is a type of printer that uses an electrically charged powdered ink called toner, which is transferred onto paper to create text or images. - Laser printers are typically used in office environments because they are fast, efficient, and produce high-quality text and graphics.

Hence, the correct match is (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

16

Atmospheric haze is mainly caused by?

  1. ((a))

    Ultra fine size particulate matters

  2. ((b))

    Oxides of nitrogen and sulphur

  3. ((c))

    Ozone

  4. ((d))

    Carbon dioxide and Carbon monoxide

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ultra fine size particulate matters

Key Points

​Atmospheric haze: 

  • Atmospheric haze is the phenomenon of low visibility caused by the presence of a large number of airborne particles in the atmosphere.
  • These particles scatter and absorb sunlight, reducing the amount of light that reaches the ground.
  • The main cause of atmospheric haze is the presence of ultrafine size particulate matter in the atmosphere, such as dust, smoke, and other pollutants.
  • These particles can come from natural sources like volcanic eruptions or human-made sources like industrial pollution and vehicular emissions.

Additional Information

  • Oxides of nitrogen and sulphur: These gases are primarily responsible for causing acid rain and smog, which can lead to haze in the atmosphere.
  • Ozone: While ozone in the stratosphere is beneficial, protecting us from harmful UV radiation, ground-level ozone is a pollutant that can cause respiratory problems and contribute to the formation of haze.
  • Carbon dioxide and Carbon monoxide: These gases are greenhouse gases that contribute to climate change. They can indirectly cause haze by increasing temperature, which can lead to the formation of haze and smog. However, they are not directly responsible for atmospheric haze.

Direction : Read the following passage and answer the question given below :

Around the age of 2, children have a sense of intention, at least of their own intentions. They will announce, "I wanna peanut butter sandwich". As children develop a theory of mind, they also can understand that other people have intentions of their own. Older pre-schoolers who get along well with their peers can separate intentional from unintentional actions and react accordingly. For example, they will not get angry when another child accidentally knocks over their block tower. But aggressive children have more trouble assessing intention. They are likely to attack anyone who topples their tower, even accidently. As children mature, they are more able to assess and consider the intentions of others.

With a developing theory of mind, children are increasingly able to understand that other people have different feelings and experiences and therefore may have a different viewpoint or perspective. This perspective-taking ability develops over time until it is quite sophisticated in adults. Being able to understand how others might think and feel is important in fostering cooperation and moral development, reducing prejudice, resolving conflicts, and encouraging positive social behaviours in general. Some coaching in perspective taking from the teacher might help if children mistreat peers and the mistreatment is not part of a deeper emotional or behavioural disorder.

17

Children of which of the following ages would generally have the best perspective taking ability?

  1. ((a))

    3 years

  2. ((b))

    8 years

  3. ((c))

    13 years

  4. ((d))

    18 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

18 years

The correct answer is 18 years.

Key Points

  • As per the second para of the passage, Perspective-taking ability develops over time and becomes more sophisticated as individuals mature.
  • While young children may have a basic understanding that others have different feelings and experiences, it is not until later in development that they can fully appreciate and understand differing perspectives.
  • Adolescents and young adults are typically better able to take the perspective of others, as they have more experience and cognitive development to draw upon.
  • Therefore, option 4) 18 years would generally have the best perspective taking ability.
18

Give below are two statements:

Statement I : Aggressive children can assess intention of others with ease.

Statement II : Different persons may have different view points.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

The correct answer is Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Key Points

  • Refer to the line: But aggressive children have more trouble assessing intention.
  • The passage explicitly states that aggressive children have more trouble assessing intention, and are likely to attack anyone who topples their tower, even accidentally. Therefore, Statement I is incorrect.
  • Statement II, on the other hand, is clearly stated in the passage as a developing ability in children to understand that other people have different feelings and experiences and therefore may have a different viewpoint or perspective. This is important in fostering cooperation and moral development, reducing prejudice, resolving conflicts, and encouraging positive social behaviors in general.
  • Thus, we can infer that Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
19

Understanding how others feel is important in

  1. Developing empathy
  2. Reducing prejudice
  3. Conflict resolution
  4. Encouraging Selfishness
  5. Enhancing cooperation

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  1. ((a))
    1. 2, 3 and 4 Only
  2. ((b))

    1, 2, 3 and 5 Only

  3. ((c))

    2, 3, 4 and 5 Only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2, 4 and 5 Only

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1, 2, 3 and 5 Only

The correct answer is 1, 2, 3 and 5 Only.

Key Points

  • Refer to the lines: Being able to understand how others might think and feel is important in fostering cooperation and moral development, reducing prejudice, resolving conflicts, and encouraging positive social behaviours in general. Some coaching in perspective taking from the teacher might help if children mistreat peers and the mistreatment is not part of a deeper emotional or behavioural disorder.
  • Thus, we can infer that uderstanding how others feel is important in developing empathy, reducing prejudice, conflict resolution, and enhancing cooperation.
  • It is not important in encouraging selfishness which doesn't involve considering the needs and feelings of others.
  • Therefore, option 2) 1, 2, 3 and 5 Only is the correct answer.
20

Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : Older pre-schoolers have better chances of getting along well with their peers as compared to young pre-schoolers.

Reason R : Older pre-schoolers generally have a better understanding of the intentions of others.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

  3. ((c))

    A is correct but R is not correct.

  4. ((d))

    A is not correct but R is correct.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

The correct answer is Option 1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Key Points

  • Assertion A states that older pre-schoolers have better chances of getting along well with their peers as compared to young pre-schoolers.
  • This assertion is true because, as children develop a theory of mind and perspective-taking ability, they become better at understanding the intentions, feelings, and experiences of others. This understanding helps them to foster cooperation, reduce prejudice, resolve conflicts, and encourage positive social behaviors.
  • Reason R states that older pre-schoolers generally have a better understanding of the intentions of others. This reason is also true because as mentioned in the passage, older pre-schoolers are more able to assess and consider the intentions of others as compared to younger pre-schoolers.

Therefore, option 1) is the correct answer as both Assertion A and Reason R are correct, and Reason R correctly explains Assertion A.

21

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : A 2 years old child is likely to have a better understanding of his own intentions than those of others.

Statement II : It is always helpful to coach a child in perspective-taking if the child has the habit of mistreating others because of some behavioural disorder.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

The correct answer is Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Key Points

  • Statement I is supported by the given passage, which states that at the age of 2, children have a sense of intention, at least of their own intentions. As children develop a theory of mind, they also understand that other people have intentions of their own. However, the passage does not suggest that a 2-year-old child has a better understanding of his own intentions than those of others.
  • Statement II is incorrect because the passage suggests that coaching in perspective-taking might help if children mistreat peers, but only if the mistreatment is not part of a deeper emotional or behavioral disorder. The statement implies that coaching in perspective-taking is always helpful, which is not supported by the passage.
  • Thus, we can infer that Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
22

SWAYAM PRABHA is an education learning platform initiated by _________, that is available 24 × 7 through 40 DTH channels.

  1. ((a))

    Ministry of Human Resource and Development (Now Ministry of Education)

  2. ((b))

    University Grants Commission (UGC)

  3. ((c))

    Consortium for Educational Communication (CEC)

  4. ((d))

    All India Council of Technical Education (AICTE)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ministry of Human Resource and Development (Now Ministry of Education)

Key Points

SWAYAM PRABHA:

  • SWAYAM PRABHA is an initiative by the Ministry of Human Resource and Development (Now Ministry of Education), Government of India.
  • It is a group of 40 DTH channels dedicated to providing high-quality educational content to students and teachers across the country.
  • The channels are available 24x7 and cover a wide range of subjects and levels, from school to postgraduate education.
  • The content is prepared by experts from some of the top institutions in the country, including IITs, IIMs, and central universities.
  • The aim of the platform is to make quality education accessible to all, regardless of their location or socio-economic background.

Hence, SWAYAM PRABHA is an education learning platform initiated by Ministry of Human Resource and Development (Now Ministry of Education), that is available 24 × 7 through 40 DTH channels.

Additional Information

  • University Grants Commission (UGC): UGC is a statutory body that provides funds to universities and higher education institutions in India.
  • Consortium for Educational Communication (CEC): CEC is an autonomous body under the UGC responsible for coordinating and implementing educational projects.
  • All India Council of Technical Education (AICTE): AICTE is a statutory body and a national-level council for technical education responsible for accrediting technical institutions and providing grants.
23

A learner combines her/his previous schemas or modifies them as per new experiences. The process of combining/modifying existing schemas and to arrive at new schemas is known as _________ .

  1. ((a))

    Accommodation

  2. ((b))

    Assimilation

  3. ((c))

    Adaptation

  4. ((d))

    Equilibration

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Adaptation

The Swiss psychologist, Jean Piaget, has developed a theory of cognitive development from birth till adulthood and his work is the major source of our understanding of how thought and thinking capabilities develop in humans from birth onwards.

Key PointsAdaptation in cognitive development, as described by Jean Piaget, involves both assimilation and accommodation, helping individuals adjust their cognitive structures to better fit new experiences.

  • Assimilation: Integrating new experiences into existing schemas without changing the schemas. For example, if a child already has a schema for dogs, they might assimilate new information about different dog breeds into this existing schema.
  • Accommodation: Modifying existing schemas or creating new ones in response to new experiences that do not fit into existing schemas. For example, if a child sees a cat for the first time and realizes it is different from their schema of dogs, they may modify their schema to include cats as a separate category.

Hint

  • Accommodation is a specific aspect of the broader process of adaptation. In the context of the question, since the learner is involved in both combining and modifying schemas, adaptation is the more comprehensive term that encompasses these activities.
  • Accommodation alone focuses specifically on the modification of schemas, whereas adaptation includes the broader process of adjusting to new experiences.

Hence, the correct answer is Adaptation.

24

Survey research is one of the key methods in

  1. ((a))

    Physics

  2. ((b))

    History

  3. ((c))

    Sociology

  4. ((d))

    Hermeneutics

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sociology

Key Points Survey Research:

  • Survey research is a research method used to collect data from a sample of individuals through the use of questionnaires or interviews.
  • It is used in various fields like marketing, psychology, healthcare, education, and especially in sociology.
  • Sociologists use survey research to study various aspects of society such as social structures, attitudes, beliefs, behaviours, and trends among the population.
  • The goal of survey research is to gather information about a specific population or group of individuals in order to draw conclusions about the larger population from which the sample was drawn.
  • Surveys can be conducted through various methods, such as online, by phone, by mail, or in person.
  • The results of survey research are typically presented in statistical form and used to inform decision-making or policy development.

Hence, Survey research is one of the key methods in Sociology.

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Additional Information

  • Physics - Survey research is not commonly used in physics as it involves experimental and theoretical methods to study natural phenomena.
  • History - Although survey research can be used in historical research, it is not commonly used as it relies on self-reported data from individuals who may not remember or accurately report past events.
  • Hermeneutics - Hermeneutics is a method of interpreting texts, and survey research is not relevant to this field.
25

Methods of social research are directly linked to different visions of 

  1. ((a))

    Social reality

  2. ((b))

    Laboratory experiments

  3. ((c))

    Simulations

  4. ((d))

    Virtual reality

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Social reality

Key Points

  • The methods of social research are directly linked to different visions of social reality, as they shape how researchers perceive, understand, and analyze social phenomena.
  • Different research methods, such as surveys, interviews, participant observation, case studies, and experiments, have different strengths and weaknesses in capturing and interpreting social reality.
  • For example, a qualitative approach may be more appropriate for exploring the subjective experiences and meanings that people attach to their actions, while a quantitative approach may be more suited for examining relationships and patterns between variables in a larger population.
  • The choice of research method is therefore based on the researcher's understanding of social reality and the research questions they seek to answer.

Important Points

Some of the commonly used methods of social research are:

  • Surveys: Surveys are a popular research method used to gather information about a large population. Surveys typically involve collecting data through questionnaires or interviews, and can be conducted in person, over the phone, or online.
  • Interviews: Interviews involve gathering information by asking people questions. They can be conducted in person, over the phone, or online, and can be structured or unstructured.
  • Case studies: Case studies involve in-depth examination of a specific individual, group, or situation. Researchers often use case studies to gain insight into complex social phenomena or to examine the effects of particular interventions.
  • Observation: Observation involves collecting data by watching people in their natural environment. Researchers may take notes, use video or audio recordings, or conduct structured or unstructured observations.
  • Experiments: Experiments involve manipulating one or more variables in order to study the effects on a dependent variable. Experiments are often used to establish causal relationships between variables.
  • Content analysis: Content analysis involves analyzing texts, images, or other forms of communication in order to identify patterns, themes, or other relevant information.
  • Secondary data analysis: Secondary data analysis involves using existing data sources, such as government statistics or previous research studies, to answer research questions.

Hence, methods of social research are directly linked to different visions of Social reality.

Additional Information

  • Laboratory experiments: This refers to a scientific method of research that involves conducting experiments in a controlled environment, such as a laboratory, to test hypotheses and establish causal relationships between variables.
  • Simulations: This refers to a method of research that involves creating artificial or computer-based models of social phenomena to analyze their behavior and dynamics.
  • Virtual reality: This refers to an immersive digital simulation of a three-dimensional environment that can be experienced through electronic devices, such as headsets, to create a sense of presence and interaction with virtual objects and characters.
26

De Saussure labeled language as a

  1. ((a))

    Technical code

  2. ((b))

    Profusion of signs

  3. ((c))

    Verbalism

  4. ((d))

    Macro generaliser

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Profusion of signs

Key Points

  • Ferdinand de Saussure was a Swiss linguist who is widely regarded as one of the founders of modern linguistics.
  • He is particularly known for his ideas about language structure and the nature of linguistic signs.
  • De Saussure viewed language as a system of signs that are composed of two parts: the signifier (the sound or written form of the word) and the signified (the concept or meaning associated with the word).
  • He argued that language is not just a collection of individual words, but a complex system of interrelated signs that are constantly evolving and changing.
  • De Saussure used the term "profusion of signs" to describe the vast number of words and concepts that make up any given language.
  • He believed that the meaning of a word is not fixed or absolute but is instead determined by its relationship to other words within the linguistic system.
  • In contrast to some earlier linguists who viewed language as a static and unchanging system, de Saussure emphasized the dynamic and constantly evolving nature of linguistic signs and their relationships.
  • His ideas had a profound influence on the development of modern linguistics and semiotics.

Hence, De Saussure labelled language as a Profusion of signs.

27

What number should replace question mark (?) in the series given below?

7, 10, 19, 46, 127 ?

  1. ((a))

    202

  2. ((b))

    192

  3. ((c))

    173

  4. ((d))

    370

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

370

The correct answer is 370.

We can notice that the difference between consecutive terms is not constant. However, the difference between the differences is constant.

The pattern followed by the numbers:

7 + 31 = 10

10 + 32 = 19

19 + 33 = 46

46 + 34 = 127

127 + 35 = 370

∴ The number that should replace the question mark (?) in the given series is 370.

28

Which fallacy is committed in the following argument?

"When I called you, you were neither in your class nor in the laboratory. Why are you avoiding me?"

  1. ((a))

    Circular argument

  2. ((b))

    'Red herring'

  3. ((c))

    Complex question

  4. ((d))

    Slippery slope

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

'Red herring'

The correct answer is Red Herring Fallacy.

Key Points

Red Herring Fallacy:

  • A red herring fallacy occurs when someone introduces irrelevant information to divert attention away from the main topic or issue at hand.
  • In this case, the speaker is trying to distract the listener from the original purpose of the call by making an accusation about why the listener was not available when the call was made.
  • The fact that the listener was not in class or in the laboratory is not relevant to the original purpose of the call, and therefore, it is a red herring.
  • The speaker is introducing a red herring because the fact that the listener was not in class or the laboratory is not necessarily relevant to why they were not available to take the call.
  • It is possible that the listener had a legitimate reason for not answering the call at that time, and their absence from class or laboratory may not have been related to that reason.
  • By introducing the listener's absence from class and laboratory, the speaker is attempting to distract from the original topic and create a false connection that may not exist.
  • Therefore, the speaker is committing a red herring fallacy by introducing irrelevant information that has nothing to do with the original purpose of the call or the issue being discussed.

Additional Information

  • Circular Argument- A circular argument, also known as begging the question, occurs when the argument assumes the conclusion in one of its premises, and uses that conclusion as support for the same conclusion.
  • Complex Question- A complex question fallacy is a type of informal fallacy that involves asking a question that presupposes a particular answer. The question is loaded with assumptions that the listener is forced to accept in order to answer the question.
  • Slippery Slope-  A slippery slope fallacy occurs when one argues that a particular event will inevitably lead to a chain reaction of negative events, without providing sufficient evidence to support this claim.

Hence, the correct answer is Red Herring Fallacy.

29

Consider the following MS-Excel spreadsheet in which the population column represents the city's population in millions of people :

ABCDEF
1.CityStatePopulationHaryanaMPUP
2.PatialaPanjab8.34
3.SonipatHaryana3.86
4.NoidaUP2.71
5.IndoreMP2.16
6.MandiHP1.49
7.SagarMP1.38
8.PanipatHaryana1.39
9.GwaliorMP1.24

Suppose the formula - IF(B2=DB2 = D1, $A2, 0) is entered into cell D2 and then the cell D2 is copied and pasted to D2 : F9. How many cells in the range D2 : F9 contains 0?

  1. ((a))

    0

  2. ((b))

    6

  3. ((c))

    12

  4. ((d))

    18

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

18

Key Points

 IF Function in Excel

The IF function in Excel is a logical function that allows you to test a condition and return one value if the condition is true and another value if the condition is false.

The syntax of the IF function is as follows:

=IF(logical_test, [value_if_true], [value_if_false])

Here's what each argument means:

  • logical_test: This is the condition that you want to test. It can be a value, expression, or reference to a cell containing a logical value (TRUE or FALSE).
  • value_if_true: This is the value that is returned if the logical_test is TRUE.
  • value_if_false: This is the value that is returned if the logical_test is FALSE.

Important Points 

In the Cell D2, Formula - IF(B2=DB2 = D1, $A2, 0) is entered and then the cell D2 is copied and pasted to D2 : F9.

Upon counting the cells with value 0, the number of cells found to be 18. 

Hence, 18 cells in the range D2 : F9 contain 0. 

Additional InformationInstead of counting each cell with 0 value manually, we can use COUNTIF function to count the number of cells with 0 value in the range.

Enter Formula: =COUNTIF(D2:F9,0) in any cell and pressing enter will give the count of cells with value 0 i.e., 18.

30

Match List I with List II 

List I (Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) number)List II (Goal)
A.SDG 2I.Sustainable cities and communities
B.SDG 3II.Zero hunger
C.SDG 6III.Good health and well being
D.SDG 11IV.Clean water and Sanitation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. ((a))

    (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

  2. ((b))

    (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

  3. ((c))

    (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

  4. ((d))

    (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

The correct answer is (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

Key Points

SDG NumberSDG Goal
SDG 2Zero hunger
SDG 3Good health and well-being
SDG 6Clean water and sanitation
SDG 11Sustainable cities and communities
  • SDG 2 aims to end hunger, achieve food security and improved nutrition, and promote sustainable agriculture.
  • SDG 3 aims to ensure healthy lives and promote well-being for all at all ages.
  • SDG 6 aims to ensure availability and sustainable management of water and sanitation for all.
  • SDG 11 aims to make cities and human settlements inclusive, safe, resilient, and sustainable.
31

What is the full form of 'SPARC'?

  1. ((a))

    Standard for Profession of Assessment and Research Communication

  2. ((b))

    Scheme for Promotion of Academic and Research Collaboration

  3. ((c))

    School for Promotion of Assessment and Right to commitment

  4. ((d))

    Social Protection of Advancement and Relationship Complex

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Scheme for Promotion of Academic and Research Collaboration

SPARC stands for "Scheme for Promotion of Academic and Research Collaboration".

Key Points

  • Scheme for Promotion of Academic and Research Collaboration:
  • It is a centrally sponsored scheme launched by the Ministry of Education (formerly known as Ministry of Human Resource Development) in 2018.
  • The scheme aims to promote research collaboration between Indian and foreign academic institutions, and to improve the quality of research in Indian universities and colleges.
  • The scheme provides financial assistance to Indian institutions to undertake joint research projects, workshops, seminars, conferences, and other collaborative activities with foreign institutions.
  • The objective of the SPARC scheme is to provide opportunities for Indian researchers to collaborate with the best researchers across the world, to leverage their expertise and knowledge, and to undertake cutting-edge research projects.
  • The scheme aims to facilitate collaboration between Indian and foreign universities, institutes, and industry to promote research in areas of national and international relevance.
32

The Government of India created Department of Science and Technology in the year :

  1. ((a))

    1990

  2. ((b))

    1985

  3. ((c))

    1978

  4. ((d))

    1971

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1971

The correct answer is 1971.

Key Points

  • The Department of Science and Technology (DST) was created by the Government of India in May 1971, with the objective of promoting new areas of science and technology and to play the role of a nodal department for organizing, coordinating, and promoting science and technology activities in the country.
  • Since then, the DST has been playing a crucial role in the development of science and technology in India.

Important Points Some facts of DST are:

  • Objective: The main objective of the DST is to promote and coordinate scientific and technological activities in India. It aims to foster the growth of science and technology in the country and encourage the development of new areas of research.
  • Structure: The DST operates through several divisions and programs, including the Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB), Technology Development Board (TDB), National Science and Technology Entrepreneurship Development Board (NSTEDB), and others.
  • Funding: The DST provides funding for research and development activities, as well as for the establishment of research institutions and laboratories. It also offers scholarships and fellowships to support the education and training of scientists and engineers.
  • International Collaborations: The DST collaborates with several international organizations and governments to promote scientific and technological cooperation and exchange of knowledge.
  • Achievements: The DST has been instrumental in the development of several scientific and technological advancements in India, including the creation of several research institutions and laboratories, the development of new technologies, and the establishment of collaborative partnerships with international organizations.

Hence, the correct answer is 1971.

33

The ancient system of education in India included education of which of the following ancient texts?

  1. Vedas
  2. Brahmanas
  3. Upanishads
  4. Dharma sutras

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  1. ((a))

    1 and 3 Only

  2. ((b))

    2 and 4 Only

  3. ((c))

    1, 3 and 4 Only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2, 3 and 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1, 2, 3 and 4

The correct answer is 1, 2, 3 and 4.

Key PointsThe ancient system of Education:

The ancient system of education in India included the education of all the texts mentioned in the options, i.e., Vedas, Brahmanas, Upanishads, and Dharma Sutras. These texts form the foundation of Hindu philosophy and religion and are collectively known as the "Vedas and Vedanta."

  • The Vedas are the oldest and most sacred texts of Hinduism and are considered the source of all knowledge. They are divided into four parts - Rigveda, Yajurveda, Samaveda, and Atharvaveda - and contain hymns, mantras, and rituals.
  • The Brahmanas are commentaries on the Vedas and explain the meaning and significance of the rituals described in the Vedas. They also provide guidance on how to perform the rituals correctly.
  • The Upanishads are philosophical texts that explore the nature of the self, the universe, and the relationship between the two. They are considered the final part of the Vedas and contain some of the most profound insights into Hindu philosophy.
  • The Dharma Sutras are texts that provide guidance on social and moral conduct and are part of the broader corpus of Hindu law known as the Dharma Shastras. They are attributed to various ancient Indian sages and provide guidance on how to live a virtuous life.

Overall, the education of these ancient texts was considered essential in the ancient system of education in India and was seen as a means to gain knowledge, wisdom, and spiritual enlightenment.

34

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Learner centerd approach is centerd on teacher needs.

Statement II : Learner centerd approach is centerd on cooperative determination of subject matter.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below :

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

The correct answer is Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Key Points Statement I: Learner-centered approach is centered on teacher needs.

  • A learner-centered approach is centered on the needs and interests of the learners, rather than the teacher.
  • The teacher's role is to facilitate the learning process, rather than to dictate it.

Statement II: Learner-centered approach is centered on cooperative determination of the subject matter.

  • A learner-centered approach involves a cooperative determination of subject matter, where learners are encouraged to participate in the selection and development of the topics and materials that will be covered in the learning process.
  • However, this is not the only defining characteristic of a learner-centered approach.
  • Other features of a learner-centered approach may include personalized learning, active and experiential learning, and a focus on metacognitive skills.

Hence, the correct answer is Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

35

Which of the following curriculum development models come under Technical-Scientific Model?

  1. ((a))

    Open Classroom Model

  2. ((b))

    Taba's Model

  3. ((c))

    Weinstein and Fantini Model

  4. ((d))

    Roger's Model of Interpersonal Relations

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Taba's Model

The correct answer is Taba's Model.

Key PointsTaba defines ‘curriculum’ as a document containing a statement of the aims and of the specific objectives; it indicates some selection and organization of content; it either implies or manifests certain patterns of learning and teaching. Because the objective demand or the content organization requires it includes a program of evaluation of the outcomes.

Steps of Hilda Taba's Model of Curriculum Development

Hilda Taba is the developer of this model of learning. Taba believed that there is a definite logical and sequential order in creating a curriculum. She promotes the “Down-Top model” or Grassroots approach. Taba’s grassroots model has seven steps as listed below, advocating a major role for teachers.

1. Diagnosis of Learners’ Needs:-

The teacher who is also the curriculum designer starts the process by identifying the needs of the students for whom curriculum is to be planned. For example; Majority of students are unable to think critically.

2. Formulation of Objectives:-

After the teacher has identified the needs of learners that require attention, he or she specifies the objectives by which needs will be fulfilled.

3. Selection of the Content:-

The objectives selected or created suggest the subject matter or content of the curriculum. Not only objectives and content should match, but also the validity and significance of the chosen content need to be determined. i.e. the relevance and significance of the content.

4. Organization of the Content:-

A teacher cannot just select content but must organize it in a Particular Sequence taking into consideration the maturity of learners, their academic achievement and their interests.

5. Selection of Learning Experiences:-

Content must be presented to students and they must be engaged with the content. At this point, teacher should select an appropriate instructional methodology that will involve the students with the content.

6. Organization of Learning Activities:-

The learning activities be organized in a sequence depending both on the content sequence and learners’ characteristics. The teacher needs to keep in mind the students he or she will be teaching.

7. Evaluation:-

The curriculum planner i.e. the teacher must determine what objectives have been accomplished. To assess the achievement of learning objectives, evaluation procedures need to be designed.

Additional Information The Open Classroom Model is an approach to teaching and learning that emphasizes flexibility, student-centered learning, and collaboration. In an open classroom, students have more control over their learning and are encouraged to take an active role in the learning process.

The Weinstein and Fantini Model is a curriculum development model that focuses on the development of intercultural competence. The model was developed by James Weinstein and Alvino Fantini, two educators who were interested in promoting intercultural understanding and communication.

Roger's Model of Interpersonal Relations is a model of communication developed by Carl Rogers, a prominent psychologist and psychotherapist. The model emphasizes the importance of empathy, genuineness, and unconditional positive regard in interpersonal relationships.

Hence, the correct answer is Tabas Model

36

Which of the following are the criteria for public service communication?

  1. Personal bias
  2. Ideological slant
  3. Accuracy
  4. Comprehensiveness
  5. Separation of opinion and facts

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. ((a))

    1, 2, 3 Only

  2. ((b))

    2, 3, 4 Only

  3. ((c))

    3, 4, 5 Only

  4. ((d))

    1, 4, 5 Only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3, 4, 5 Only

Key Points

 Public Service Communication:

  • Public service communication is a form of communication that aims to inform, educate, and raise awareness about social issues or public welfare initiatives.
  • It is a type of communication that is meant to serve the public good, rather than commercial interests.
  • Public service communication can be delivered through various mediums such as print, broadcast, or digital media, and it may be carried out by government agencies, non-profit organizations, or other entities that are committed to improving the well-being of society.
  • Examples of public service communication campaigns include anti-smoking campaigns, public health announcements, and campaigns to promote environmental conservation.

Important Points

The criteria for public service communication are as follows:

  • Accuracy: Public service communication should be accurate and factually correct. It should be based on credible sources and should be free from errors, omissions or misrepresentations.
  • Comprehensiveness: Public service communication should provide a complete picture of the issue being addressed. It should not leave out important details or aspects of the issue and should present all relevant information in a clear and concise manner.
  • Separation of opinion and facts: Public service communication should clearly distinguish between opinion and fact. It should not present opinions or subjective views as facts and should provide a balanced and unbiased account of the issue.

Hence, Accuracy, Comprehensiveness and Separation of opinion and facts are the criteria for public service communication.

Additional Information

  • Personal bias: Public service communication should be free from personal bias or any influence that could compromise the objectivity of the information being presented. It should be based on facts and should not reflect personal beliefs or prejudices.
  • Ideological slant: Public service communication should be free from any ideological slant or political bias. It should present information in a neutral and unbiased manner, and should not promote any particular political or ideological agenda.
37

According to Nyaya (Classical Indian School of Logic) Which of the following argument involves the fallacy of Anupsamhari (non-exclusive middle term)?

  1. ((a))

    The hill has smoke because it has fire.

  2. ((b))

    Sound is eternal because it is audible.

  3. ((c))

    All things are non-eternal because they are knowable.

  4. ((d))

    Sound is eternal because it is produced.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

All things are non-eternal because they are knowable.

The correct answer is All things are non-eternal because they are knowable.

Key Points

  • Anupasamhari: It occurs when the middle term is non-exclusive. So, the minor term is all-inclusive and leaves nothing by the way of sapaksa or vipaksa. For example, all things are non-eternal, because they are knowable.
  • In this argument, the term "knowable" is not distributed in either premise but in the conclusion.
  • This violates the Nyaya rule that the middle term must be distributed at least once in the premises in which it occurs.
  • Therefore, the argument commits the fallacy of Anupsamhari.

​ Additional Information

  • The statement "The hill has smoke because it has fire" is an example of the Nyaya school of Indian philosophy's method of inference known as Anumana, which is commonly translated as "inference" or "reasoning".
  • The statement "Sound is eternal because it is audible" is an example of a logical fallacy known in Nyaya (Classical Indian School of Logic) as Anavastha or infinite regress.This statement assumes that sound is eternal because it is audible, but does not provide any explanation or evidence for why sound is audible or how the quality of audibility relates to eternity. This leads to an infinite regress, where one explanation leads to another explanation, and so on, without ever reaching a satisfactory conclusion.

Hence, the correct answer is All things are non-eternal because they are knowable.

38

Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : The change in sea level at any coastal location depends on the sum of global, regional and local factors.

Reason R : Therefore, the global mean sea level rise translates into an uniform rise in sea level around the world.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

  3. ((c))

    A is correct but R is not correct

  4. ((d))

    A is not correct but R is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A is correct but R is not correct

The correct answer is A is correct but R is not correct.

Key Points Assertion A: The change in sea level at any coastal location depends on the sum of global, regional, and local factors.

Reason R: Therefore, the global mean sea level rise translates into a uniform rise in sea level around the world.

  • The change in sea level at any coastal location is influenced by a complex interplay of global, regional, and local factors, including changes in the amount and distribution of water in the oceans, land subsidence, tectonic uplift, and oceanic and atmospheric circulation patterns.
  • Therefore, Assertion A is true.
  • The global mean sea level rise does not translate into a uniform rise in sea level around the world.
  • Local sea level changes can be influenced by a variety of factors, such as changes in ocean currents and weather patterns, and can differ substantially from the global average.
  • Furthermore, the effects of sea level rise can be amplified or mitigated by local factors such as coastal erosion, sedimentation, and land use changes.
  • Therefore, while Assertion A is true, Reason R is not a valid explanation for it.
39

Grand theories of social sciences operate at a 

  1. ((a))

    Lower level

  2. ((b))

    Simplistic level

  3. ((c))

    Categorical level

  4. ((d))

    Higher level of abstraction

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Higher level of abstraction

The correct answer is Higher level of abstraction.

Key Points Grand Theories of Social Sciences:

  • Grand theories attempt to provide overarching explanations for complex social phenomena by identifying broad patterns and relationships that exist across multiple levels of analysis.
  • For example, grand theories like Marxism, feminism, and structuralism attempt to provide explanations for social phenomena by examining the relationships between different social groups, institutions, and power structures.
  • These theories operate at a high level of abstraction because they are designed to provide explanations that are applicable to a wide range of social contexts, rather than focusing on specific individuals, groups, or events.
  • While grand theories can be useful for understanding broad social patterns and relationships, they can also be criticized for their lack of specificity and applicability to real-world situations.
  • In many cases, more specific and localized theories and models may be more useful for understanding and addressing specific social problems.

Hence, the correct answer is Higher level of Abstraction.

40

Which of the following are considered major types of qualitative research question?

  1. Non-purposive
  2. Causes and consequences
  3. Predictive
  4. Evaluative
  5. Descriptive
  1. ((a))

    1, 2 and 3 only

  2. ((b))

    1, 3 and 4 only

  3. ((c))

    1, 4 and 5 only

  4. ((d))

    2, 3, 4 and 5 only

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

2, 3, 4 and 5 only

Key Points

 ​Qualitative research:

  • Qualitative research is a type of research that aims to gain an understanding of a particular phenomenon or behaviour through exploring the perspectives and experiences of individuals or groups.
  • Qualitative research questions are designed to explore this phenomenon or behaviour in depth and are open-ended in nature.

Important Points

 

<br>

The five types of qualitative research questions are:

Exploratory: These questions are used to explore a topic or phenomenon that is not well understood. They are often used to generate hypotheses or research questions for further study.

Descriptive: These questions are used to describe a particular phenomenon or group of people. They are often used to document the experiences of a particular group or to understand the context of a particular phenomenon.

Interpretative: These questions are used to understand the meaning of a particular phenomenon or group of people. They are often used to understand the perspectives of the participants or to interpret the data in a particular way.

Critical: These questions are used to critique or challenge the status quo. They are often used to identify power imbalances or to raise awareness of social injustice.

Action-oriented: These questions are used to inform or guide action. They are often used to develop policies or programs or to advocate for social change.

Of the options listed, only descriptive and interpretative are considered major types of qualitative research questions.

Non-purposive is not a type of qualitative research question. It is a term used to describe research that is not conducted with a specific purpose in mind.

Causes and consequences is a type of question that is often asked in quantitative research. It is not typically used in qualitative research.

Predictive is a type of question that is often asked in quantitative research. It is not typically used in qualitative research.

Evaluative is a type of question that can be asked in both qualitative and quantitative research. However, it is not considered to be a major type of qualitative research question.Hence, major types of qualitative research question are Causes and consequences, Predictive, Evaluative, Descriptive.

41

Which of the following statements are logically equivalent ?

  1. Some animals are birds.
  2. Some animals are not non-birds.
  3. Some non-birds are not non-animals.
  4. Some birds are animals.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. ((a))

    2 and 3 Only

  2. ((b))

    2, 3, 4 Only

  3. ((c))

    1, 2 and 4 Only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2 and 3 Only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1, 2 and 4 Only

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 4 only.

Key PointsSyllogism:

  • A syllogism is a type of deductive reasoning that involves two premises and a conclusion. The conclusion is drawn from the premises based on their logical relationship.
  • A syllogism typically consists of a major premise, a minor premise, and a conclusion.
  • The major premise is a general statement that establishes a broad relationship between two things.
  • The minor premise is a specific statement that relates to the major premise. The conclusion is a statement that follows logically from the major and minor premises.

Important Points

  • Statement 1 says "Some animals are birds," which means that there is a non-empty intersection between the set of animals and the set of birds.
  • Statement 2 says "Some animals are not non-birds," is equivalent to Statement 1. It can be rewritten as "Some animals are birds," by using the double negation of "not non-birds" to mean "birds."
  • Statement 3 says "Some non-birds are not non-animals," is not logically equivalent to Statement 1 or 2. It can be rewritten as "Some things that are not birds are animals," which is different from "Some animals are birds."
  • Statement 4 says "Some birds are animals," is equivalent to Statement 1 because all birds are animals. It can also be written as "All birds are animals," which is logically equivalent to Statement 1.

Hence, the correct answer is 1, 2, and 4 only.

42

If the statement "no animals are fishes" is given as false, then which of the following statements can be immediately inferred to be true?

  1. All fishes are animals.
  2. Some animals are not fishes.
  3. All animals are fishes.
  4. Some animals are fishes.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. ((a))

    2 and 4 Only

  2. ((b))

    1, 3 and 4 Only

  3. ((c))

    3 and 4 Only

  4. ((d))

    4 Only

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

4 Only

Tthe statement "no animals are fishes" being false:

  1. If "no animals are fishes" is false, it means that there is at least one animal that is a fish. This means "some animals are fishes" must be true.

 Key Points

  1. All fishes are animals: This can still be true regardless of the falsity of the given statement.
  2. Some animals are not fishes: This can also be true, as not all animals have to be fishes.
  3. All animals are fishes: This cannot be immediately inferred as true based on the falsity of the given statement.
  4. Some animals are fishes: This is definitely true because the given statement is false.

Therefore, the correct answer is 4 Only.

Important Points

  • All fishes are animals:
  • This statement cannot be immediately inferred to be true based on the given false statement.
  • It is possible that some fishes are animals, but not all fishes need to be animals.
  • For example, if there are other types of aquatic creatures that are not considered animals but are classified as fishes, then this statement could be false.
  • Some animals are not fishes:
  • This statement can be immediately inferred to be true based on the given false statement.
  • If "no animals are fishes" is false, it means that there are animals that are fishes.
  • Therefore, it is true that some animals are not fishes, as there are animals that do not fall into the category of fishes.
  • All animals are fishes:
  • This statement cannot be immediately inferred to be true based on the given false statement.
  • The false statement "no animals are fishes" does not necessarily imply that all animals are fishes.
  • It is possible that there are other types of animals that are not considered fishes.
  • Some animals are fishes:
  • This statement can be immediately inferred to be true based on the given false statement.
  • If "no animals are fishes" is false, it means that there are animals that are fishes.
  • Therefore, it is true that some animals are fishes, as there are animals that fall into the category of fishes.
43

What is the full form of 'NCIVE'?

  1. ((a))

    Non-Governmental course for the Initiation of Vocational Enhancement

  2. ((b))

    National Committee for the Integration of Vocational Education.

  3. ((c))

    Non-Governmental Council for the Integration of Veterinary Education

  4. ((d))

    National Commission for the Information of Veterinary Education

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

National Committee for the Integration of Vocational Education.

The correct answer is the National Committee for the Integration of Vocational Education

Key Points

  • The National Council for Vocational Education and Training (NCVET) was notified by MSDE on 5th December 2018. NCVET will subsume the existing skill regulatory bodies- National Skill Development Agency (NSDA) & National Council for Vocational Training (NCVT) and acts as an overarching skills regulator.
  • It was operationalized on 04.11.2019 through the assumption of additional charge by Secretary, MSDE and Senior Economic Advisor, MSDE as Chairperson, NCVET and Executive Member, NCVET respectively.
  • The NCVET will regulate the functioning of entities engaged in vocational education and training, both long & short-term, and establish minimum standards for the functioning of such entities.
  • The major functions of NCVET would be recognition and regulation of Awarding Bodies, Assessment Agencies, and Skill related Information Providers; approval of Qualifications; monitoring and supervision of recognized entities and grievance redressal.
44

Which of the following is a technique to provide right kind of support in right amount at right time to increase child's competence?

  1. ((a))

    Scaffolding

  2. ((b))

    Assistance

  3. ((c))

    Accommodation

  4. ((d))

    Schemas

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Scaffolding

The correct answer is Scaffolding.

Key Points Scaffolding:

  • Scaffolding is a teaching approach where the teacher provides temporary support to help the learner acquire new skills or knowledge.
  • This support is gradually reduced as the learner gains competence and independence.
  • Scaffolding involves breaking down complex tasks into smaller, more manageable steps, and providing guidance and support to the learner as they work through each step.
  • The teacher may use prompts, cues, feedback, and modeling to help the learner understand the task and develop their skills.
  • As the learner becomes more competent, the teacher gradually reduces the level of support until the learner can complete the task independently.

Additional Information Assistance- Assisting students is a key responsibility of teachers, and there are many ways in which teachers can support their students' learning. 

Accommodation- Accommodation in teaching and learning refers to a teaching strategy that involves making adjustments to the way instruction is delivered, the materials used, or the way assessments are administered to better meet the individual learning needs of students. 

Schemas- Schemas in teaching and learning refer to the mental frameworks or structures that individuals use to organize and interpret information. Schemas are developed through experience and can influence how individuals perceive, remember, and process new information.

Hence, the correct answer is Scaffolding.

45

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Time and cost are not relevant in determining the sample size.

Statement II : Unit non-response and item non-response do not matter in deciding the sampling error.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

Important Points Statement I: Time and cost are not relevant in determining the sample size:

  • Time and cost are important considerations when determining the sample size.
  • In sampling, the sample size refers to the number of individuals or items to be included in the study. The larger the sample size, the more precise the estimates of the population parameters.
  • However, increasing the sample size also means more time and resources are required for data collection, analysis, and interpretation.
  • Therefore, researchers need to strike a balance between precision and practicality in determining the sample size.
  • Moreover, the sample size should be determined based on the research objectives, study design, sampling method, population size, and variability.
  • The sampling method used can also affect the sample size.
  • For example, in stratified sampling, the sample size is determined based on the strata rather than the entire population. In cluster sampling, the sample size may be determined based on the number of clusters to be included in the study.

Hence, this statement is false.

Statement II: Unit non-response and item non-response do not matter in deciding the sampling error.

  • Non-response refers to the failure of selected units or items to participate in the study.
  • There are two types of non-response: unit non-response and item non-response.
  • Unit non-response occurs when a selected individual or household refuses to participate or cannot be reached.
  • Item non-response occurs when a selected item or question is not answered by the respondent.
  • Non-response can lead to bias in the sample, which in turn affects the accuracy of the estimates and the sampling error.
  • The sampling error refers to the difference between the sample estimate and the population parameter.
  • The larger the sampling error, the less accurate the estimates are.
  • Non-response can increase the sampling error by introducing bias into the sample.
  • For example, if the non-responders have different characteristics than the responders, the estimates may be biased towards the characteristics of the responders.
  • Therefore, researchers need to take non-response into account when deciding the sample size and sampling method and should attempt to minimize non-response through various techniques such as follow-up calls or visits.

Hence, This statement is also false. 

Therefore, Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

46

The science of studying the feedback systems in humans, animals, and machines is described as

  1. ((a))

    Feedback science

  2. ((b))

    Experience study

  3. ((c))

    Message Hermeneutics

  4. ((d))

    Cybernetics

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Cybernetics

Key Points

 ​Cybernetics:

  • Cybernetics is the science of studying the communication and control systems in humans, animals, and machines.
  • It deals with feedback mechanisms and how they influence the behaviour of the system.
  • The term "cybernetics" comes from the Greek word "kybernetes," which means "steersman" or "governor."
  • The field of cybernetics was first introduced by mathematician Norbert Wiener in the 1940s, and it has since grown to encompass a wide range of applications, from artificial intelligence and robotics to biological systems and social organization.

Important Points

  • It is an interdisciplinary field that combines principles from mathematics, engineering, biology, and other sciences to study how feedback and control systems operate in complex systems.
  • In cybernetics, feedback refers to the process of returning a portion of the output of a system to the input, allowing for self-regulation and adjustment.
  • Feedback systems are used in a wide range of applications, from temperature control in a building to the regulation of hormone levels in the human body.
  • Cybernetics has applications in a variety of fields, including robotics, artificial intelligence, economics, and sociology.

Hence, the science of studying the feedback systems in humans, animals and machines is described as ​Cybernetics.

Additional Information Message Hermeneutics:

  • Hermeneutics is a branch of philosophy concerned with interpretation, particularly of texts.
  • Message hermeneutics refers specifically to the interpretation of messages, such as those found in literature, art, or communication.
  • While this field may involve understanding feedback within communication systems, it is not the same as the scientific study of feedback systems.
47

Which of the following propositions are contrary to each other?

  1. All fishes are mammals.
  2. Some fishes are mammals.
  3. No fishes are mammals.
  4. Some fishes are not mammals.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. ((a))

    2 and 4 Only

  2. ((b))

    1 and 3 Only

  3. ((c))

    1 and 4 Only

  4. ((d))

    2 and 3 Only

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1 and 3 Only

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

Key Points Let us study the statements:

  • Proposition 1, "All fishes are mammals," is a universal affirmative proposition. It asserts that every fish belongs to the category of mammals.
  • Proposition 3, "No fishes are mammals," is a universal negative proposition. It asserts that no fish belongs to the category of mammals.
  • Since Propositions 1 and 3 make opposite claims about the relationship between fishes and mammals, they are considered to be contrary propositions.
  • Propositions 2 and 4 are not contrary to each other, but they are contradictory.
  • Proposition 2, "Some fishes are mammals," is a particular affirmative proposition. It asserts that there is at least one fish that belongs to the category of mammals.
  • Proposition 4, "Some fishes are not mammals," is a particular negative proposition. It asserts that there is at least one fish that does not belong to the category of mammals.
  • Since Propositions 2 and 4 make opposite claims about the same subject (fishes), they are considered to be contradictories.

Hence, the correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

48

Oxygen demanding wastes

  1. ((a))

    Decrease the oxygen level in water.

  2. ((b))

    Increase the oxygen level in water.

  3. ((c))

    Do not change the oxygen level in water.

  4. ((d))

    Increase the temperature of water.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Decrease the oxygen level in water.

Oxygen demanding wastes decrease the oxygen level in water.

Key Points

  • Oxygen demanding wastes are organic compounds, such as sewage and agricultural runoff, which decompose through microbial action in water.
  • The process of microbial decomposition requires oxygen, and as a result, these wastes decrease the oxygen level in the water.
  • If the oxygen level drops below a certain level, aquatic organisms can die due to suffocation, which leads to a condition called hypoxia.
  • This can also cause a decrease in biodiversity and ecological productivity in water bodies.
  • Therefore, it is important to reduce the discharge of oxygen-demanding wastes into water bodies to maintain the ecological balance.

Important Points

  • As the oxygen levels decrease, aquatic organisms such as fish, insects, and plants that require oxygen to survive, may start to die.
  • In severe cases, if the oxygen depletion is significant enough, it can lead to a phenomenon called "dead zones" where aquatic life cannot be sustained.
  • Therefore, it is crucial to manage and treat wastewater and other sources of oxygen demanding wastes to prevent oxygen depletion in water bodies and protect aquatic life.
49

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Nano scale metallic and bimetallic particles can efficiently remove common water pollutants such as Poly Chloro Benzenes (PCB), Organo chlorine pesticides and halogenated organic solvents.

Statement II : Nano scale metallic and bimetallic particles cannot reduce heavy metals such as nickel, arsenic, mercury etc.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is incorrect Statement II is correct.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

The correct answer is Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Key Points Statement I: Nanoscale metallic and bimetallic particles can efficiently remove common water pollutants such as Poly Chloro Benzenes (PCB), Organochlorine pesticides and halogenated organic solvents.

Statement II: Nanoscale metallic and bimetallic particles cannot reduce heavy metals such as nickel, arsenic, mercury etc.

  • Nanoscale metallic and bimetallic particles have been found to efficiently remove common water pollutants such as PCBs, organo-chlorine pesticides, and halogenated organic solvents.
  • This is because these particles have a high surface area to volume ratio, which enhances their reactivity with water pollutants.
  • However, research has also shown that nano-scale metallic and bimetallic particles can reduce heavy metals such as nickel, arsenic, and mercury.
  • These particles have been found to be effective in removing heavy metals from water by adsorption, reduction, and precipitation mechanisms.
  • Nanoscale metallic and bimetallic particles can reduce heavy metals in water.

Therefore, Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.

50

According to NEP 2020, India will be promoted as a global study destination providing premium education at affordable costs thereby helping to restore its role as _________ .

  1. ((a))

    Economic power

  2. ((b))

    Knowledge Economy

  3. ((c))

    Vishwa Guru

  4. ((d))

    Shiksha Guru

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Vishwa Guru

The correct answer is Vishwa Guru.

Key Points According to NEP 2020, India will be promoted as a global study destination providing premium education at affordable costs thereby helping to restore its role as Vishwaguru (world leader in education).

To achieve this objective, the NEP 2020 proposes several measures, such as:

  • Setting up a National Research Foundation to foster research and innovation in higher education and attract foreign students and faculty.
  • Establishing an Internationalization of Higher Education Authority to promote collaboration between Indian and foreign institutions.
  • Developing world-class universities and institutions in India that can compete with the best in the world.
  • Offering scholarships and financial assistance to international students to study in India.
  • Providing a conducive environment for foreign students by ensuring their safety and well-being.

Hence, the correct answer is Vishwa Guru.

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