UGC NET Paper 1: Held On 17 June 2023 Shift 2 (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Information societies.

Important Points

Face-to-screen relations are the characteristics of information societies.

In information societies, there is a significant reliance on technology, particularly computers, smartphones, and other digital devices.

• People in information societies often interact with screens, such as computer monitors, mobile phone screens, or television screens, for various purposes like communication, information access, entertainment, and work.
• The term "face-to-screen relations" highlights the shift from face-to-face interactions to interactions mediated through screens.
• In information societies, individuals commonly communicate through digital platforms, such as social media, email, or video conferencing, which rely on screen-based interfaces.
• This shift is driven by the widespread adoption of digital technologies and the increasing integration of technology into various aspects of life.
• agricultural societies are primarily characterized by subsistence farming and a close connection to the land.
• Industrial societies emerged with the industrial revolution and are characterized by mass production, urbanization, and a shift toward factory-based manufacturing.
• Mass societies refer to societies where large-scale institutions and mass media play a significant role in shaping social life.

Therefore, face-to-screen relations align more closely with the characteristics of information societies, as described in option 4.

The correct answer is option 3) A-II, B - III, C - IV, D - I.

Important Points

Let's match the computer terms in List I with their corresponding descriptions in List II:

The correct answer is Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Important Points 

POPs, or persistent organic pollutants, are a group of chemical substances that are characterized by their persistence, meaning they do not easily break down in the environment.  Examples of POPs include certain pesticides, industrial chemicals, and unintentional by-products of industrial processes.

Assertion A: Some persistent organic pollutants (POPs) have become extremely widespread and are found from the tropics to the poles.

• This statement is true. POPs are chemical substances that are resistant to degradation and persist in the environment for long periods.
• Due to their chemical properties and global transport mechanisms, POPs have indeed become widespread, being detected in various regions worldwide, from tropical areas to polar regions.

Reason R: They often accumulate in food webs and reach high concentrations in long-living top predators.

• This statement is also true. One characteristic of POPs is their ability to bioaccumulate and biomagnify in the food chain.
• These pollutants can enter the lower levels of the food web through contaminated air, water, or soil.
• As organisms consume contaminated prey, the POPs accumulate and increase in concentration as they move up the food chain.
• This process leads to higher levels of POPs in long-lived top predators, such as large fish, birds of prey, or mammals, as they consume a large number of contaminated organisms.

In this case, both Assertion A and Reason R are true, and Reason R provides the correct explanation for why Assertion A is true. Therefore, option 1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A, which is the correct answer.

The correct answer is A, B, and C only.

Key Points The visual dimension of non-verbal communication encompasses various visual cues and characteristics that convey meaning and messages without the use of verbal language. Let's examine each option: 

Physique:

• This refers to the physical characteristics, body shape, and size of an individual.
• The physique can play a role in non-verbal communication as it can convey information about a person's physical presence, posture, and overall appearance.

 Gender:

• Gender refers to the socially constructed roles, behaviors, and identities associated with being male or female.
• Non-verbal cues related to gender, such as clothing choices, hairstyles, and body language, can communicate information about a person's gender identity or expression.

Skin color

• Our skin color can also communicate information about our race, ethnicity, and cultural background. For example, in some cultures, lighter skin is associated with beauty and privilege, while darker skin is associated with poverty and disadvantage.

Additional Information

Soft voice:

• Soft voice primarily falls under the auditory dimension of non-verbal communication rather than the visual dimension.
• It pertains to the tone, volume, and pitch of a person's voice.
• Although voice characteristics can be visually observed through lip movements or facial expressions, it primarily relies on auditory perception.

Simple language:

• Language usage, including simplicity or complexity, primarily falls under the verbal dimension of communication rather than the visual dimension.
• It refers to the choice of words, grammar, and sentence structure used in verbal communication.

The most appropriate answer is Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Important Points

Assertion A: Deductive arguments are either invalid or valid.

• Deductive arguments are a type of logical argument that aims to provide conclusive reasoning.
• An argument can be either valid or invalid.
• A valid deductive argument is one in which the conclusion necessarily follows from the premises, meaning that if the premises are true, the conclusion must be true.
• An invalid deductive argument is one in which the conclusion does not necessarily follow from the premises, even if the premises are true.

Reason R: All deductive arguments claim that if the premises are true, then the conclusion must be true.

• Deductive arguments are based on the principle of logical necessity.
• The claim that if the premises of a deductive argument are true, then the conclusion must be true is a foundational characteristic of deductive reasoning.
• The validity of a deductive argument is determined by the logical connection between the premises and the conclusion.

In this case, both Assertion A and Reason R are correct, and Reason R provides the correct explanation for why Assertion A is true. Therefore, option 1) Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A is the most appropriate answer.

The fallacy committed in the given statement is Fallacy of Division

Important Points

The fallacy of division occurs when someone wrongly assumes that what is true of a whole must also be true of its individual parts. In this case, the statement claims that Thomas Carlyle said Walt Whitman was a big poet because he came from a big country. The fallacy occurs when the size or greatness of the country (the whole) is attributed to Walt Whitman (the part) as a reason for him being a big poet.

This reasoning is flawed because being from a big country does not necessarily make someone a great poet. The greatness of a poet is determined by their individual talent, creativity, and literary contributions, not by the size or greatness of their country of origin.

Therefore, the fallacy of division is committed in the statement, as it incorrectly attributes a characteristic of the whole (the country) to the individual part (Walt Whitman).

Therefore, the fallacy committed in this statement is the fallacy of Division.

Additional Information

Ad Hominem:

• Ad Hominem fallacy is committed when someone attacks the person making an argument rather than addressing the argument itself.
• It involves diverting attention from the actual issue by attacking the character, traits, or circumstances of the person presenting the argument.

Hasty Generalization:

This fallacy involves drawing a broad conclusion based on insufficient evidence or limited sample size. It occurs when someone makes a generalization about a whole group or category based on a small or unrepresentative sample.

The correct answer is Biomass.

Important Points

• Biomass is organic, meaning it is made of material that comes from living organisms, such as plants and animals. The most common biomass materials used for energy are plants, wood, and waste. These are called biomass feedstocks. Biomass energy can also be a nonrenewable energy source.
• Biomass contains energy first derived from the sun: Plants absorb the sun’s energy through photosynthesis, and convert carbon dioxide and water into nutrients (carbohydrates).
• The energy from these organisms can be transformed into usable energy through direct and indirect means. Biomass can be burned to create heat (direct), converted into electricity (direct), or processed into biofuel (indirect).

Coal is a solid fossil fuel formed from plants that remain over millions of years and has a high carbon content, making it an energy-dense fuel.

• Natural gas, primarily composed of methane, has a higher energy content per unit mass as well. It is a cleaner-burning fossil fuel and is considered a more environmentally friendly option compared to coal and oil.

Hydrogen, on the other hand, has a lower energy content per unit mass as it exists in a gaseous state and has a low atomic mass. It requires larger volumes or higher pressures to store the same amount of energy as other fuels with higher energy densities.

Therefore, among the given options, Biomass has the lowest energy content per unit mass.

Concept used:

• Perimeter of a circle = 2πr, where r = radius

• Perimeter of a square = 4 × side

Calculation:

According to the question, r = side of the square, then

2πr : 4 × r 

⇒ 2 × 22/7 : 4

⇒ 11 : 7

∴ The correct answer is 11 : 7

The correct answer is B and C only.

An operating system (OS) is system software that manages computer hardware and software resources and provides common services for computer programs.

 functions of an operating system can vary, but typically they include managing processes that run on the system and providing a user interface to the user. Let's examine each option:

Checking spellings in a document:

• performed by an operating system.
• Spell-checking is a feature found in word processors or specific software applications,
• but it is not a core function of an operating system.

 Managing the processes that run on the system:

• This is a crucial function of an operating system.
• The operating system oversees and manages the execution of processes, allocating resources, scheduling tasks, and ensuring efficient utilization of system resources such as CPU time, memory, and disk space.

Providing a user interface to the user:

• This is another important function of an operating system.
• The operating system provides a user interface that allows users to interact with the computer system.
• It can be a command-line interface (CLI) or a graphical user interface (GUI) that enables users to navigate and control the system, launch applications, and access various system functionalities.

Based on the above analysis, option 3) B and C only is the correct answer. Checking spellings in a document (option A) is not typically a function performed by an operating system.

The correct answer is Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.

Important Points

The NATIONAL ASSESSMENT AND ACCREDITATION COUNCIL (NAAC):

It conducts assessment and accreditation of Higher Educational Institutions (HEI) such as colleges, universities, or other recognized institutions to derive an understanding of the ‘Quality Status’ of the institution.

Statement I states that there is an opinion that India does not have a robust and holistic rating system for higher education and that the present system is susceptible to various interpretations of credibility.

• This statement acknowledges the existence of an opinion or viewpoint regarding the rating system in India's higher education.
• It suggests that there are concerns about the system's robustness and its ability to provide a comprehensive evaluation while allowing for multiple interpretations of credibility.

Statement II states that the NAAC (National Assessment and Accreditation Council) rating system should be adopted by all other countries as it is a perfect system in every respect.

• This statement presents an opinion that the NAAC rating system is flawless and should be universally adopted by all countries.
• However, this claim is an overgeneralization and not supported by evidence.
• It is unlikely that any rating system can be considered perfect in every respect, and different countries may have their own specific requirements and approaches to assessing and accrediting higher education institutions.

Based on the above analysis, Statement I is true as it acknowledges existing concerns about India's rating system for higher education

 However, Statement II is false as it presents an exaggerated and unsupported claim about the perfection and universal applicability of the NAAC rating system.

Therefore, option 3) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Relativism.

Important Points

The concept that maintains that behavioral phenomena can be understood only within the context of the culture in which they occur is known as relativism.

Relativism 

• Relativism emphasizes that cultural norms, values, and practices shape human behavior and that understanding behavior requires considering the cultural context in which it occurs.
• Relativism recognizes that different cultures have unique beliefs, customs, and social structures that influence individuals' behavior and interpretations of the world.
• It emphasizes that judgments or evaluations of behavior should be made relative to the cultural framework in which they are embedded. This means that what is considered acceptable or appropriate in one culture may not be the same in another culture.

Therefore, the concept that behavioral phenomena can be understood only within the context of the culture in which they occur aligns with option 1) Relativism.

Additional Information Absolutism 

• Asserts the existence of universal standards or truths that can be applied regardless of cultural context.

Universalism 

• Refers to the belief that there are universal principles or values that apply to all individuals, regardless of their cultural background.

Objectivism

• Generally pertains to philosophical positions that argue for the existence of objective reality and knowledge that is independent of individual perspectives or cultural influences.

The correct answer is Yashpal Committee.

Important Points 

The Yashpal Committee supported the recommendations of the Knowledge Commission regarding higher education in India.

• The Yashpal Committee, officially known as the "National Knowledge Commission,"
• it was established in 2005 by the Government of India to provide recommendations for reforming the Indian education system, including higher education.
• The committee, led by renowned scientist Professor Yash Pal, submitted its report titled "Renovation and Rejuvenation of Higher Education" in 2009.
• The report proposed various reforms and measures to enhance the quality, accessibility, and relevance of higher education in India.

thus the correct option is Yashpal Committee.

Additional Information Ramamurti Committee:

• The Ramamurti Committee, also known as the High-Power Committee on Urban Cooperative Banks, was formed in 2019 to review the regulatory framework of urban cooperative banks in India.
• Its focus was on strengthening the governance, operations, and financial health of these banks.

Nayudamma Committee:

• The Nayudamma Committee, officially known as the Committee on Financing Higher Education, was established in 1990 to examine and recommend measures for the financing of higher education in India.

 Kher Committee:

• The Kher Committee, also known as the Secondary Education Committee, was set up in 1948 to review the state of secondary education in India.
• Its recommendations focused on curriculum reform, teacher training, and infrastructure development in secondary schools.

The most appropriate answer is A, C, and E only.

Important PointsParticulate matter refers to tiny solid or liquid particles suspended in the air. These particles can vary in size, composition, and origin. They can be produced from natural sources such as dust, pollen, and sea salt, or from human activities such as combustion processes, industrial emissions, and vehicle exhaust.

 Soot:

• Soot is a type of particulate matter consisting of carbon particles produced by incomplete combustion of fossil fuels, biomass, or other organic matter.
• It is a common component of particulate pollution.

 Pollen:

• Pollen refers to the tiny reproductive cells produced by plants for fertilization.
• While pollen is a particulate material, it is not considered an air pollutant.
• Pollen is a natural substance released by plants and is an important part of the reproductive process.

​Flyash:

• Flyash is a fine, powdery residue produced during the combustion of coal or other solid fuels in power plants.
• It contains various particles, including mineral matter and small particles of unburned carbon.
• Fly ash is classified as particulate matter and can contribute to air pollution.

Dioxins:

• Dioxins are a group of highly toxic compounds. However, they are not considered particulate matter.
• Dioxins are formed as by-products of various industrial processes, including waste incineration and chemical manufacturing.

 PAN (Peroxyacetyl nitrate):

• PAN is not classified as particulate matter.
• It is a secondary pollutant formed through chemical reactions involving nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds in the presence of sunlight. PAN is a gaseous pollutant.

Based on the above analysis, option 2) A, C, and E only is the most appropriate answer as it includes soot (particulate matter), pollen (particulate matter), and fly ash (particulate matter), which are all associated with particulate pollution.

The correct formula to count all customers who are adults and get a discounted price is: =COUNTIFS(B2:B101, "=Adult", C2:C101, "=0")

Important Points To count the number of customers who are adults and receive a discounted price, follow these steps:

• Look at columns B and C in the table.
• In column B, you'll find the customer category (e.g., Child or Adult), and in column C, you'll find the payment category (0 for discounted price or 1 for full price).
• We want to count only the customers who are adults (not children) and who receive a discounted price (payment category = 0).
• To do this, we can use the COUNTIFS function in Excel. It allows us to specify multiple criteria for counting.
• In the formula, we need to specify the range of cells for the customer category (column B) and the payment category (column C).
• The formula should look like this:

   ```

   =COUNTIFS(B2:B101, "Adult", C2:C101, 0)

   Here's what each part of the formula does:

• - B2:B101: This is the range of cells in column B where we want to check for the customer category "Adult".
• • **"Adult"**: This is the criteria we want to match in column B. We put it in double quotes because it's text.
• • **C2:C101:** This is the range of cells in column C where we want to check for the payment category of 0 (discounted price).
• - 0: This is the criteria we want to match in column C. We don't use double quotes because it's a number.

 thus The correct formula to count all customers who are adults and get a discounted price is: =COUNTIFS(B2:B101, "=Adult", C2:C101, "=0")

The correct answer is A and B only 

Important Points 

In hypothesis testing, the null hypothesis (H0) represents the assumption of no significant difference or no effect. The p-value is the probability of obtaining the observed results (or more extreme) under the assumption that the null hypothesis is true.

For a p-value to make the null hypothesis look plausible:

A. 43% - This p-value is relatively high (43%) and suggests that there is a substantial probability of obtaining the observed results if the null hypothesis is true. So, it makes the null hypothesis look plausible.

B. 0.27 - This p-value is also relatively high (27%) and suggests a considerable probability of obtaining the observed results under the null hypothesis, making it look plausible.

C. 3% - This p-value is lower than the previous two options but still not extremely small. While it provides some evidence against the null hypothesis, it does not necessarily make it implausible.

D. 0.43 or 1% - These p-values are very small (less than 5%) and suggest that the observed results are unlikely to occur if the null hypothesis is true. As a result, they would make the null hypothesis less plausible.

So, the correct answer is: A. 43%, and B. 0.27.

The formal fallacy committed in the given argument is Exclusive Premise.

Important Points

The correct formal fallacy committed in the given argument is the fallacy of exclusive premises.

The fallacy of exclusive premises occurs when both premises of a categorical syllogism (a type of argument with two premises and a conclusion) are negative. In the given argument:

No tragic actors are idiots. (Negative premise)

Some comedians are not idiots. (Negative premise)

In a valid categorical syllogism, at least one premise should be affirmative. Since both premises are negative in this argument, it commits the fallacy of exclusive premises. As a result, the conclusion "Therefore, some comedians are not tragic actors" cannot be logically inferred from the given premises.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1) Exclusive Premise.

Additional Information

Existential fallacy: This fallacy occurs when one mistakenly assumes that the existence of individuals with a particular property implies a particular relationship between those individuals.

Denying the antecedent: This fallacy involves incorrectly denying the consequent of a conditional statement based on the denial of the antecedent.

Affirming the consequent: This fallacy occurs when one mistakenly assumes that if the consequent of a conditional statement is true, then the antecedent must also be true.

The most appropriate answer from the given options would be  A, B, C, D, and E.

Important Points

Global climate change can have various consequences and impacts on the Earth's climate system. Climate change refers to long-term alterations in temperature, precipitation patterns, wind patterns, and other aspects of Earth's climate system. It is primarily driven by human activities, such as the burning of fossil fuels and deforestation, which release greenhouse gases into the atmosphere.

 Change in soil moisture content:

• Global climate change can lead to alterations in precipitation patterns, which can affect soil moisture content.
• Changes in temperature and precipitation can influence evaporation rates and water availability, impacting soil moisture levels.

 Change in El Nino:

• El Niño is a climate pattern that involves oceanic and atmospheric changes in the tropical Pacific region.
• Global climate change can potentially affect the occurrence and intensity of El Niño events, leading to changes in weather patterns worldwide.

 More floods:

• Climate change can contribute to an increase in extreme weather events, including heavy rainfall and severe storms.
• These changes can result in a higher risk of flooding in certain regions.

 More drought:

• Climate change can also lead to an increase in drought conditions.
• Higher temperatures and altered precipitation patterns can result in decreased water availability, which can lead to droughts in certain areas.

Change in ocean circulations:

• Global climate change can impact ocean circulations and currents.
• Changes in temperature, salinity, and wind patterns can influence oceanic circulation patterns, such as the Gulf Stream, which can have far-reaching effects on global climate and ecosystems.

Considering the range of potential consequences mentioned, the most appropriate answer is option 4) A, B, C, D, and E, as it includes all the mentioned consequences of global climate change.

The correct answer is Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

Important Points

Statement I: Situated learning is based on providing strategic help in the initial stages of learning, gradually diminishing as students gain independence.

• Situated learning, often associated with the work of Jean Lave and Etienne Wenger, emphasizes learning in specific contexts and through social interactions.
• It does not necessarily involve providing strategic help that diminishes over time. Instead, it focuses on the importance of participation in real activities within a community of practice.

Statement II: Assisted learning is based on the idea that skills and knowledge are tied to the situation in which they were learned and that they are difficult to apply in new settings.

• This statement does not accurately represents the concept of assisted learning. Assisted learning acknowledges that skills and knowledge acquired in one specific context or situation may have limitations in their transferability to new and unfamiliar settings.
• It highlights the challenges learners may face when trying to apply their knowledge and skills in different contexts.

Therefore, both Statement I and Statement II are false, making option 2) the correct answer.

Key Points

  Situated learning theory (SLT), first presented by Jean Lave and Etienne Wenger (1991), explains the process and development of learning when individuals have the opportunity to participate in a community of practice.

Shortcut Trick Total capacity = LCM of 3 and 5 = 15 units. Efficiency of A = 15 ÷ 3 = 5 units/hr, B = 15 ÷ 5 = 3 units/hr. A works alone from 7 am to 8 am → Fills 5 units, remaining = 15 − 5 = 10 units. Both A and B working together take = 10 ÷ (5 + 3) = 10/8 = 1 hour 15 minutes. Time when the tank is filled = 8:00 am + 1 hour 15 minutes = 9 : 15 am. ∴ The correct answer is 9 : 15 am.

Alternate Method Given: Time taken by Pipe A = 3 hours Time taken by Pipe B = 5 hours Pipe A was opened at 7 am and Pipe B at 8 am.

Pipe Time (Hours) Total Capacity (Units) Efficiency (Units/hr)

A 3 15 5

B 5 3

Calculations: ⇒ Between 7 am and 8 am (1 hour), only Pipe A is open. ⇒ Water filled by Pipe A in 1 hour = 5 × 1 = 5 units ⇒ Remaining capacity to be filled = 15 − 5 = 10 units ⇒ At 8 am, Pipe B is also opened. Now both are working simultaneously. ⇒ Combined efficiency of A and B = 5 + 3 = 8 units/hour ⇒ Time taken to fill the remaining 10 units = 10 ÷ 8 = 5/4 hours ⇒ 5/4 hours = 1 hour + (1/4 × 60) minutes = 1 hour 15 minutes ⇒ Time at which tank is completely filled = 8:00 am + 1 hour 15 minutes = 9 : 15 am ∴ The correct answer is 9 : 15 am.

Additional Information Combined Working Formula If Pipe A fills a tank in 'x' hours and Pipe B fills it in 'y' hours, the time taken when both are opened together is (x × y) ÷ (x + y) hours. Filling and Emptying Pipes If an inlet pipe fills the tank in 'x' hours and an outlet pipe empties it in 'y' hours, the net filling capacity in 1 hour is (1/x) − (1/y), given x < y. Time & Work vs Pipes & Cisterns Both topics follow identical LCM logic. Total work becomes the Total Capacity of the tank, and work done per day becomes the filling rate per hour.

The correct answer is  A, B, C, D, and E only.

Important Points

All of the mentioned tools, X-Mind, Mindomo, Coggle, Mindmeister, and Miro, are commonly used for creating and sharing mind maps. These tools provide features and functionalities that allow users to visually organize their thoughts, ideas, and information in a hierarchical and interconnected manner.

• X-Mind: X-Mind is a popular mind mapping software that offers various features for creating, organizing, and sharing mind maps.
• Mindomo: Mindomo is a web-based mind mapping tool that enables users to create and collaborate on mind maps online.
• Coggle: Coggle is an online mind mapping tool that allows users to create and share mind maps in real-time.
• Mindmeister: Mindmeister is a cloud-based mind mapping tool that enables users to create, share, and collaborate on mind maps across different devices.
• Miro: Miro is a versatile online collaboration platform that supports various visual tools, including mind mapping, for teams to ideate, organize, and collaborate.

Therefore, the correct answer is A, B, C, D, and E only.

Given:

Number of male members in health club E = 576

Calculation:

8% (Male) = 576

1% (Male) = 576 ÷ 8 = 72

Using the above information,

Number of male members in A = 72 × 21 = 1512

Number of male members in B = 72 × 32 = 2304

Number of male members in C = 72 × 19 = 1368

Number of male members in D = 72 × 20 = 1440

Number of male members in E = 576 (given)

Ascending order = 576, 1368, 1440, 1512, 2304 

∴ The median of the number of male members for all the five health clubs A - E is 1440.

Given:

Total number of members (both male and females) in health club C = 1764

Calculation:

14% = 1764

1% = 1764 ÷ 14 = 126

Number of female members in A = 21 × 126 - 1512 = 1134

Number of female members in B = 33 × 126 - 2304 = 1854

Number of female members in C = 14 × 126 - 1368 = 396

Number of female members in D = 20 × 126 - 1440 = 1080

Number of female members in E = 12 × 126 - 576 = 936

∴ Number of female members is more than 1100 in exactly two health club(s).

Given:

Number of male members in health club E = 576

Calculation:

8% (Male) = 576

1% (Male) = 576 ÷ 8 = 72

Using the above information,

Number of male members in A = 72 × 21 = 1512

Number of male members in C = 72 × 19 = 1368

Total members in B & C = 1854 + 396 + 2304 + 1368 = 5922

Difference = 5922 - (1512 + 1368) = 3042

Required Percentage = \(\dfrac{3042}{5922} \) × 100 = 51.37%

∴ Number of male members in health clubs A and C is approximately 51.37% less than the number of members (both male and female) of health clubs B and C.

Calculation:

Number of female members in A = 21 × 126 - 1512 = 1134

Number of female members in B = 33 × 126 - 2304 = 1854

Number of female members in C = 14 × 126 - 1368 = 396

Total = 1134 + 1854 + 396 = 3384

Average = 3384 ÷ 3 = 1128

∴ The average number of female member in health cluibs A, B & C is 1128.

Calculation:

Number of female members in E = 12 × 126 - 576 = 936

Number of male members in B = 72 × 32 = 2304

Difference = 2304 - 936 = 1368

Required Percentage = \(\dfrac{1368}{2304} \) × 100 = 59.375% = 59\(\dfrac{3}{8} \)%

∴ Number of female members in health club E is 59\(\dfrac{3}{8} \)% less than the number of male in health club B.

The correct answer is option 1) A, B, D, and E only.

Important Points

Ipsative assessment refers to a form of assessment where an individual's performance is evaluated based on their own progress and improvement rather than comparing them to others. It focuses on self-reflection, self-assessment, and personal growth. Let's examine each option:

 Self and peer assessment:

• This component is part of the ipsative assessment. It involves individuals assessing their own performance and providing feedback to their peers.
• It promotes self-reflection and encourages individuals to evaluate their progress and areas for improvement.

 Sharing learning goals:

• This component is also part of the ipsative assessment.
• Sharing learning goals involves individuals setting personal objectives and targets for their own learning and development.
• It helps individuals focus on their own growth and improvement rather than competing with others.

 Effective questioning:

• This component is included in the ipsative assessment.
• Effective questioning can help individuals reflect on their learning, prompt self-assessment, and encourage critical thinking.
• It supports the process of personal evaluation and growth.

 Effective feedback:

• This component is also part of the ipsative assessment.
• Effective feedback provides individuals with information about their strengths and areas for improvement.
• It helps individuals understand their progress and make adjustments to enhance their learning and development.

 Discriminating pupils: This option is not a component of ipsative assessment. 

In summary, the components of ipsative assessment are A (self and peer assessment), B (sharing learning goals), D (effective questioning), and E (effective feedback). Therefore, the correct answer is option 1) A, B, D, and E only.

The correct answer is option 1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Important Points

Assertion A: Smart wearable technology is rapidly becoming part of everyday life.

• Smart wearable technology, such as smartwatches, fitness trackers, augmented reality glasses, and other wearable devices, has indeed gained popularity and is increasingly integrated into people's daily lives.
• These devices offer various functionalities, including fitness tracking, health monitoring, communication, and access to information, making them valuable tools for many individuals.

Reason R: Watches, glasses, activity monitors, and many other wearable items have been enriched with technology.

• Traditional accessories like watches and glasses, as well as other wearable items such as activity monitors, have undergone technological advancements and integration.
• They have been enhanced with features like wireless connectivity, sensors, and data processing capabilities to provide additional functionalities beyond their traditional purposes.

In this case, both Assertion A and Reason R are true, and Reason R provides the correct explanation for why Assertion A is true. Reason R clarifies that various wearable items have indeed been enriched with technology, contributing to the rapid integration of smart wearable technology into everyday life.

Therefore, option 1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A is the correct answer.

The correct answer is option 3) A, B, and D only.

Important Points 

 Pānini:

• Pānini, an ancient Indian scholar, is renowned for his work on Sanskrit grammar.
• He composed the "Ashtadhyayi," a comprehensive treatise on grammar and phonetics.
• Pānini's work is highly influential and considered foundational in the field of grammar.

 Bharthari:

• Bharthari, an ancient Indian philosopher, is known for his philosophical contributions, particularly in the fields of linguistics, grammar, and poetry.
• Bharthari was an ancient Indian philosopher and grammarian, known for his work in the fields of linguistics and philosophy, but he did not write a major treatise on grammar like Pāṇini.

 Kapila:

• Kapila, an ancient Indian sage and philosopher, is most famous as the founder of the Samkhya School of philosophy.
• While his teachings encompass various aspects of philosophy, including metaphysics and epistemology, there is no evidence to suggest that he wrote treatises on grammar.

 Patanjali:

• Patanjali, an ancient Indian sage, is renowned for his compilation of the "Yoga Sutras."
• Although primarily focused on the philosophy and practice of yoga, Patanjali also wrote the "Mahabhashya," an important commentary on Pānini's "Ashtadhyayi," which provides insights into Sanskrit grammar.

Based on the above analysis, the ancient thinkers who wrote treatises on the subject of grammar (Vyākaraṇa) are A. Pānini, B. Bharthari, and D. Patanjali. Therefore, the correct answer is option 2) A, B, and D only.

The correct answer is A, D, B, C.

Important Points

To arrange the terms in decreasing intention, we consider the specificity and inclusiveness of each term:

Tiger -

• This term refers to a specific species of feline.
• It is less inclusive and more specific than the broader categories of animals or mammals.

 Feline -

• This term refers to a specific subgroup within the animal kingdom, namely the family Felidae, which includes tigers.
• It has a higher level of specificity compared to the other terms.

 Mammal -

• This term is even more general and inclusive, referring to a larger category of animals that give birth to live young and nurse them with milk.
• It encompasses a wide range of species, including felines.

 Animal -

• This term is a more general category that encompasses various species, including felines like tigers.
• It is less specific and more inclusive compared to the previous terms.

Hence, the correct answer is A, D, B, C.

The correct answer is Implicit memory.

Important Points

Implicit memory

Implicit memory refers to the type of memory that influences our behavior or thought processes without our conscious awareness or intentional recall.

• It involves the retention and utilization of information that has been acquired in the past, but we are not consciously aware of accessing or recalling it.
• Implicit memory can affect our behavior, attitudes, and skills without us consciously remembering the specific experiences or knowledge that is guiding our actions.

Therefore, the correct answer is Implicit memory, as it best describes the knowledge that influences our behavior or thought without our awareness.

Additional Information

• explicit memory refers to conscious, intentional memory retrieval, where we consciously recall and remember specific information or events. It involves the conscious recollection of facts, experiences, and events.
• Schemas are cognitive frameworks or mental structures that organize and interpret information. They help us make sense of the world by providing expectations and knowledge about different concepts, objects, or situations. Schemas can influence our perception, understanding, and memory, but they are not specifically related to unconscious or implicit memory.
• Episodic memory refers to the explicit memory of personal experiences or events. It involves the conscious recollection of specific episodes or episodes of one's life.

The correct answer is Cohort study.

Important Points

In a cohort study, the researchers select a group of individuals who share a common characteristic (such as age, occupation, exposure to a specific factor, etc.) and then follow them over an extended period. This study aims to observe and analyze how certain factors or exposures may influence the development of specific outcomes or diseases over time.

Cohort studies are particularly useful for studying the incidence of diseases, identifying risk factors, and determining cause-and-effect relationships between exposures and outcomes. They provide valuable longitudinal data and allow researchers to assess changes and trends within the cohort over time.

 Additional Information 

A panel study is a type of longitudinal study in social and behavioral sciences where a group of individuals, households, or entities (the panel) is surveyed or observed repeatedly over an extended period. The same participants are re-interviewed, re-examined, or re-observed at multiple time points, allowing researchers to track changes and developments within the group over time.

Cross-sectional study:

• A cross-sectional study is a research design that collects data from a population or sample at a specific point in time. It aims to gather information about the prevalence or characteristics of a condition or phenomenon at a specific moment.
• Unlike panel studies, cross-sectional studies do not involve following individuals over time but instead gather data from different individuals at a single time point.

Retrospective study:

• A retrospective study looks back at past events or data to analyze the relationship between exposure or factors and outcomes.
• It involves collecting and analyzing data from the past, often relying on existing records or information. Retrospective studies do not necessarily involve following a specific population over time.

the correct answer is Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect

Important Points

Dioxins and Furans are highly toxic substances that are formed as byproducts of various industrial processes, including solid waste incineration, chemical manufacturing, and certain natural processes such as forest fires. These substances are persistent organic pollutants (POPs) and are of great concern due to their toxic effects on human health and the environment. 

Statement I states that dioxins and furans are highly toxic substances produced as byproducts of solid waste incineration,

• Solid waste incineration is one of the significant sources of dioxin and furan emissions.
• When organic materials, such as plastics, are burned at high temperatures, dioxins and furans can be formed as a result of incomplete combustion processes.
• These compounds can then be released into the environment through the emissions from incinerators.

Statement II, however, claims that dioxins and furans are very unstable and short-lived once they are released in the atmosphere,

• In reality, dioxins and furans are characterized by their environmental persistence.
• They have a tendency to persist in the environment for a long time due to their chemical stability and resistance to degradation.
• This persistence allows them to travel long distances through air currents and be deposited in different areas, including far away from their original source.
• The persistence of dioxins and furans in the environment is a major concern because it means that they can bioaccumulate in the food chain. These compounds can be absorbed by plants and then transferred to animals through the consumption of contaminated vegetation.

In conclusion, Statement I is correct in stating that dioxins and furans are highly toxic substances produced as byproducts of solid waste incineration.

However, Statement II is incorrect in claiming that dioxins and furans are very unstable and short-lived once released in the atmosphere. Dioxins and furans are persistent organic pollutants that can persist in the environment for extended periods, posing risks to ecosystems and human health.

The correct option that represents the symbolic forms containing codes and syntax of media communication is Grammar.

Important Points

Grammar is a set of rules that govern the structure and arrangement of words, phrases, and sentences in a language. It enables effective communication and understanding among speakers of that language. Similarly, in the context of media communication, there is a concept known as "media grammar."

Media grammar refers to the rules, codes, and syntax used to construct and organize the elements of various media forms, such as newspapers, television, radio, websites, social media, etc. It involves understanding how different media elements are arranged and combined to convey meaning and messages effectively to the audience.

For example, in television media grammar, the sequence of shots, camera angles, use of transitions, and audio elements like music or voiceovers follow specific rules and patterns to create a cohesive and engaging narrative. Similarly, in print media grammar, the layout, typography, use of images, headlines, and captions all adhere to certain conventions to convey information effectively.

Additional Information Sub-text:

• Sub-text refers to the underlying or hidden meaning or message that is not explicitly stated in a media text.
• It involves the implied or inferred meaning that can be interpreted by the audience based on context, symbolism, and subliminal cues.

Sense:

• Sense, in the context of media communication, generally refers to the overall understanding or comprehension of the message being conveyed.
• It encompasses the ability to make sense of the information presented and to derive meaning from it.

The correct answer is option 4) Global citizenship education.

Important PointsThe National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, which was approved by the Government of India, envisions that the new education system in India should aim at promoting global citizenship education.

• The NEP 2020 emphasizes the importance of developing a holistic and multidisciplinary approach to education that prepares students to be global citizens.
• Global citizenship education focuses on cultivating knowledge, skills, attitudes, and values that empower individuals to actively engage in addressing global challenges, promoting social justice, and contributing to a sustainable and inclusive world.
• It emphasizes understanding and appreciating diverse cultures, fostering empathy, and promoting global awareness and responsibility.

While nationalism, regionalism, and conventional education may have their place in certain contexts, the NEP 2020 aims to move beyond these narrow frameworks and embrace a broader perspective that prepares students to thrive in an interconnected and rapidly changing world.

Therefore, option 4) Global citizenship education aligns with the vision of the new education system as outlined in the National Education Policy 2020.

the correct answer is B, C, A, D, E

Important Points

Based on the establishment dates, the chronological order of the institutions is as follows

 B. CSIR (Council of Scientific and Industrial Research) - Established in 1942.

C. IIAS (Indian Institute of Advanced Study, Shimla) - Established in 1965.

A. ICSSR (Indian Council of Social Science Research) - Established in 1969.

D. ICHR (Indian Council of Historical Research) - Established in 1972.

E. ICPR (Indian Council of Philosophical Research) - Established in 1977.

Therefore, the correct answer is option B, C, A, D , E.

Key Points ICSSR (Indian Council of Social Science Research):

• ICSSR is an autonomous organization under the Government of India that promotes and funds research in the field of social sciences.
• It provides grants, fellowships, and research support to scholars and institutions engaged in social science research in India.

 CSIR (Council of Scientific and Industrial Research):

• CSIR is India's premier research and development organization. It is dedicated to scientific and industrial research, technological development, and innovation.
• CSIR operates numerous national laboratories and institutes across various scientific disciplines to address societal needs and foster scientific advancements.

 IIAS (Indian Institute of Advanced Study, Shimla):

• IIAS is a research institute based in Shimla, Himachal Pradesh, India. It is an autonomous organization that promotes advanced research in humanities, social sciences, and related fields.
• IIAS provides a platform for scholars to engage in interdisciplinary research and intellectual exchange.

 ICHR (Indian Council of Historical Research):

• ICHR is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Education, Government of India.
• It aims to promote and fund historical research in India. ICHR supports research projects, fellowships, and publications to encourage the study and interpretation of various aspects of Indian history.

 ICPR (Indian Council of Philosophical Research):

• ICPR is an autonomous organization that promotes and supports research in philosophy in India.
• It funds research projects, organizes seminars and conferences, and offers fellowships to scholars engaged in philosophical inquiry.
• ICPR aims to advance philosophical knowledge and understanding in India.

The correct answer is Motivation to learn.

Important Points

Motivation to learn refers to the inclination or drive to engage in academic activities with the belief that they are meaningful and valuable.

• According to (Brophy, 1988), student motivation to learn is “a student tendency to find academic activities meaningful and worthwhile and to try to derive the intended academic benefits from them”. Student motivation to learn is a critical aspect of learning and student achievement.
• It involves a desire to acquire knowledge, skills, and understanding, and to derive personal satisfaction and benefit from the learning process.
• Motivation to learn can be influenced by various factors, such as intrinsic interest, personal goals, perceived relevance, and a sense of competence and autonomy.
• When individuals are motivated to learn, they tend to find academic activities meaningful and worthwhile.
• They believe that the knowledge and skills they acquire through their educational endeavors are valuable and important for their personal growth and development.

Thus The tendency to find academic activities meaningful and worthwhile and try to benefit from them is called Motivation to learn.

The correct answer is  C, D, and E only.

Important Points

The Eastern approach to communication is rooted in certain premises that shape the way communication is understood and practiced. The Eastern and Western approaches to communication differ in several key aspects due to cultural, philosophical, and historical factors. 

The individual is not responsible to society -

• This premise does not align with the Eastern approach to communication.
• In Eastern cultures, there is often a strong emphasis on collective harmony and interconnectedness.
• Individuals are seen as part of a larger social fabric and are considered to have responsibilities toward society.

 Nature should be controlled for effective communication -

• This premise also does not align with the Eastern approach.
• Eastern philosophies often emphasize the idea of living in harmony with nature rather than trying to control it.
• Nature is often seen as a source of wisdom and inspiration, and communication is influenced by the principles of balance, flow, and interconnectedness found in nature.

 Time is infinite -

• This premise aligns with the Eastern approach to communication.
• Eastern cultures often have a different perception of time compared to Western cultures.
• Time is seen as cyclical and continuous, rather than linear and limited. This understanding of time influences communication practices, such as patience, long-term thinking, and a focus on the present moment.

The world and universe are a single unit -

• This premise aligns with the Eastern approach.
• Eastern philosophies often emphasize the interconnectedness and interdependence of all things.
• The world and the universe are viewed as a unified whole, and this holistic perspective influences communication, emphasizing the interconnectedness of individuals, communities, and the natural world.

People should live in harmony with nature -

• This premise aligns with the Eastern approach to communication. Eastern cultures often value living in harmony with nature, recognizing the importance of ecological balance and sustainability.
• Communication practices often reflect this value, emphasizing respect for nature, cooperation, and a sense of interconnectedness with the natural environment.

Therefore, C, D, and E only correctly represent the premises that align with the Eastern approach to communication.

The correct option for the typical use of the student's t-test is in comparing two groups to see if their means differ.

Important Pointst-test:

The t-test is a powerful tool for testing hypotheses about the difference between means. However, it is important to note that the t-test is only valid if the assumptions of the t-test are met.

These assumptions include:

• The data is independent.
• The data is normally distributed.
• The data is homogeneous.
• The student's t-test is a statistical test used to determine if there is a significant difference between the means of two independent groups.
• It is commonly employed when the objective is to compare the average values of a particular variable between two distinct groups.
• By calculating the t-statistic and comparing it to a critical value, the t-test assesses whether the observed difference between the group means is statistically significant or if it could have occurred by chance.

thus the correct answer is the Student's t-test in comparing two groups to see if their means differ.

The most appropriate answer is option 1) Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Important Points

Assertion A states that the argument "the hill has fire because it is knowable" is fallacious according to the classical Indian school of logic, Nyaya.

• This means that according to Nyaya's logic, this particular argument is flawed or invalid.

Reason R provides an explanation for why the argument is fallacious.

• According to Nyaya's logic, a valid argument should have a middle term that is more specific and directly related to the conclusion being drawn.
• In this case, the middle term "knowable" is too wide and does not provide a direct connection to the presence of fire.
• Therefore, the argument is considered fallacious according to Nyaya's logic

In this case, both Assertion A and Reason R are correct, and Reason R provides the correct explanation for why Assertion A is fallacious. Therefore, option 1) Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A is the most appropriate answer.

Additional Information

Naya Philosophy:

• It is one of the six systems of Indian philosophy
• Gautama is the main proponent of Naya philosophy
• It is a philosophy of atomistic pluralism and logical realism.
• The four Pramanas of Naya philosophy are perception, inference, analogical reasoning, and testimony.

The logic followed here is:

Logic → The words are coded as the sum of their positional values.

Let's check as per the logic,

UNIVERSITY → (21 + 14 + 9 + 22 + 5 + 18 + 19 + 9 + 20 + 25) = 162

Similarly,

STUDENTS → (19 + 20 + 21 + 4 + 5 + 14 + 20 + 19) = 122

Hence, the correct answer is "122".

The Correct answer is: Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Key Points

• Statement I: A pdf (portable document format) file is a generic image file
• This statement is incorrect.
• A PDF is a file format used to present documents in a manner independent of software, hardware, or operating systems.
• It can contain text, images, links, forms, and other multimedia elements, but it is not a generic image file.
• PDFs are primarily designed for document exchange, not as a standard image format like JPEG, PNG, or GIF.
• Statement II: A mp3 (moving picture experts group layer 3) file is a generic audio file
• This statement is correct.
• MP3 is a widely used audio coding format for digital audio, particularly for music and speech.
• It compresses audio data while maintaining relatively high sound quality, making it a standard and generic audio file format.

Additional Information

• PDF Files:
• Developed by Adobe, PDF files preserve document formatting across devices.
• They can embed fonts, images, vector graphics, and interactive elements, making them versatile for document sharing.
• MP3 Files:
• MP3 is an audio compression format defined by the MPEG group.
• It reduces file size by removing inaudible sound components while keeping most of the audio quality intact.
• MP3 files are compatible with almost all audio playback devices and software.
• Difference Between File Types:
• PDF is a document format, not an image or audio format.
• MP3 is specifically designed for audio data compression and playback, making it a generic audio file format.

the correct answer is the student has committed plagiarism of level 2.

Key Points

Plagiarism:

Plagiarism is a moral, ethical and legal issue.

It is unscrupulously copying from someone else’s work and making use of it without their knowledge.    

According to the UGC (University Grants Commission) Regulation on Plagiarism, 2018, there are different levels of plagiarism defined. The regulation categorizes plagiarism into four levels:

Levels of Plagiarism

Plagiarism would be quantified into following levels in ascending order of severity for the purpose of its definition:

1. Level 0: Similarities up to 10% - Minor similarities, no penalty
2. Level 1: Similarities above 10% to 40%
3. Level 2: Similarities above 40% to 60%
4. Level 3: Similarities above 60%

In this case, the similarity detected in the student's thesis is 57%. Since the similarity index falls within the range of 10% to 60%, it indicates that the student has committed plagiarism of level 2.

The correct answer is 'returning from an anti - maoist operation.'

Key Points

• Let's have a look at the 1^st sentence of the first paragraph:
• "Ten Jawans and civilian driver, who were returning in a van following an anti - maoist operation were killed in a blast caused by an improvised Explosive Devise (IED)in Chattisgarh's Dantewada on April 26.​​"
• This sentence suggests that on April 26, ten Jawans and a civilian driver were killed in a blast caused by an IED in Chattisgarh's Dantewada.
• From the passage, it can be concluded that the incident of April 26 in Dantewada happened when the Jawans were returning from an anti - maoist operation.
• Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

The correct answer is 'Addressed.'

Key Points

• Let's have a look at the second paragraph:
• "Though this attack, which according to the State Police had been carried out by the proscribed communist party of India (Maoists), is under investigation, the larger issues of the use of IEDs and of tackling such devices must be seriously addressed at different levels - the government, industries, the Maoists, and the security forces -despite the government's claim that the base of the Maoists has shrunk and violence has decreased.​​"
• This sentence suggests that though this attack was carried out by the proscribed communist party of India (Maoists), according to the State Police, the larger issues of the use of IEDs and dealing with such devices must be seriously addressed at different levels - the government, industries, the Maoists, and the security forces - despite the government's claim that the Maoists' base has shrunk and violence has decreased."
• From the passage, it can be concluded that since the base of Maoists has shrunk and violence has decreased the issue of IEDs and tackling of such devices by the government should be addressed.
• Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

The correct answer is 'Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect​.'

Key Points

• Let us explore the last sentence in the third paragraph:
• "Therefore the recent theft of about 7,000 detonators by suspected Maoists from West Singhbum Jharkhand, is alarming.​"
• ​This sentence suggests that the recent theft of approximately 7,000 detonators by suspected Maoists from West Singhbum Jharkhand is concerning.
• So, the statement I is incorrect.
• Let's have a look at the first sentence of the last paragraph:
• "The technical equipment used by the security forces to detect IEDs has its limitations.​"
• This sentence suggests that the security forces' technical equipment for detecting IEDs has limitations.
• So, the statement II is incorrect.
• Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.​

The correct answer is 'B, D and E only​.'

Key Points

• Let us explore the last sentence in the second paragraph:
• "...-despite the government's claim that the base of the Maoists has shrunk and violence has decreased.​"
• ​This sentence suggests that despite the government's assertion the Maoist base has dwindled and violence has dropped.
• So, A is incorrect.
• Let's have a look at the last paragraph:
• "The technical equipment used by the security forces to detect IEDs has its limitations. If the quantity of metal in the IED is low or the IED is planted deep under the road, mine detectors may fail to find it. Though hundreds of IEDs are detected and diffused every year, the search party could always miss a few due to a technical reasons. Ground - penetrating radar, which can detect recent disturbances in the soil, subsurface, has also not proved successful.​​"
• This sentence suggests that the security forces' technical equipment for detecting IEDs has limitations.
• Mine detectors may fail to identify an IED.
• Ground - penetrating radar, which may identify recent alterations in the soil and subsurface, has also failed.
• So, B, D and E are correct.
• There is no details regarding the statement "Search parties are not thorough."
• So, C is also omitted.
• Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.​

The correct answer is 'Banned.'

Key Points

• The meaning of the word "PROSCRIBED" is to forbid or ban an action or practice officially. (मना करना, विशेषकर कानून द्वारा)
• Example: The sale of materials is proscribed by US law.
• ​Banned: to officially say that something is not allowed, often by law. (प्रायः क़ानूनी तौर पर प्रतिबंध या रोक लगाना; आधिकारिक)
• Example: The government has banned the logging of trees.
• ​So, the word closest in meaning to the word "PROSCRIBED" is "BANNED."
• Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Additional Information

• Let us explore the meanings of other words:
• Sanctified: to make something pure or holy
• Empowered: to give somebody power or authority (to do something)
• Prescribed: to say what medicine or treatment somebody should have

Concept used:

Total work = efficiency × time

Calculation:

According to the question,

20(A + B) = 5(A + B) + 45B

⇒ 15(A + B) = 45B

⇒ A + B = 3B

⇒ A = 2B

⇒ A/B = 2/1

So, total work = 20(A + B) = 20 × (2 + 1) = 60 unit

Now, A alone complete the work in = 60/2 = 30 hours

∴ The correct answer is 30 hours

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "80".

The correct answer is Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Important Points

Statement I correctly states that in communication, the notion of catharsis refers to the process of cleansing, purging, or purification.

• This concept comes from Aristotle's theory of catharsis in Greek tragedy,
• where it was believed that experiencing intense emotions through art or storytelling could lead to a release or purification of those emotions.
• According to Aristotle, tragedy provides an emotional outlet for the audience by evoking intense emotions, such as pity and fear.

Statement II is also true. Catharsis can take place in a person's fantasy or in the media.

• Catharsis can occur in a person's fantasy or imagination, where they may engage in daydreaming, role-playing, or other forms of mental escape to experience emotional release.
• Additionally, catharsis can also take place through various media forms, such as books, movies, television shows, or music, where individuals can vicariously experience and express their emotions.

Both statements align with the concept of catharsis as a psychological and emotional process, both within an individual's imagination and through the consumption of media.