UGC NET Paper 1: Held On 17 June 2023 Shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

Key Points 

The correct answer is 3) A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I.

The following is a brief explanation of the match between List I and List II:

• A. Data loss caused by a hard disk crash can be recovered by backup files.
• B. Introduction of software that self-replicates and can cause data loss can be prevented by anti-virus software.
• C. Reading of illegally accessed documents can be prevented by encryption.
• D. Software that records all key presses on your computer without you knowing can be prevented by anti-spyware software.

Here is a table that summarizes the match between List I and List II:

Key Points Statement I : The risk of rejecting the mull hypothesis when it should be confirmed, is more at 0.05 p - level than at 0.01 p - level

• Statement I correctly states that the risk of rejecting the null hypothesis when it should be confirmed (Type I error) is higher at a significance level of 0.05 compared to a significance level of 0.01.
• This is because a higher significance level allows for more potential false rejections of the null hypothesis.

Statement II : The risk of committing a type-I error is lower at 0.05 p - level than at 0.01 p - level

• However, Statement II is false.
• The risk of committing a Type I error (rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true) is actually higher at a significance level of 0.05 compared to a significance level of 0.01.
• Lowering the significance level decreases the risk of committing a Type I error because it requires stronger evidence to reject the null hypothesis.

Hence, Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Key Points Statement I : There is an argument that the emergence of cable and television audiences has brought in more personalised and interactive media culture.

• Statement I is true.
• The emergence of cable and television audiences has brought in more personalized and interactive media culture.
• This is because cable and television audiences have more choices of channels and programs, and they can interact with the media in more ways, such as by voting for their favorite contestants on reality shows or by participating in online discussions about TV shows.

Statement II : Within an integrated communication system, messages do not acquire communicability and socialisation.

• Statement II is false.
• Within an integrated communication system, messages do acquire communicability and socialization.
• This is because an integrated communication system allows messages to be shared more easily and widely, and it also allows messages to be tailored to different audiences.

The correct answer is 3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Here are some examples of how cable and television audiences have become more personalized and interactive:

• Cable television: Cable television offers a wider variety of channels and programs than broadcast television, which gives viewers more choices of what to watch. Cable television also allows viewers to record programs to watch later, which gives them more control over their viewing experience.
• Interactive television: Interactive television allows viewers to interact with the media in more ways, such as by voting for their favorite contestants on reality shows or by participating in online discussions about TV shows.

Here are some examples of how messages acquire communicability and socialization within an integrated communication system:

• Social media: Social media allows messages to be shared more easily and widely. For example, a user can share a news article on Twitter, which can then be seen by their followers.
• Targeted advertising: Integrated communication systems can be used to target messages to specific audiences. For example, an advertiser can target an ad for a new car to people who have shown an interest in cars on social media.

Key Points Statement I : A Cohort is a population whose members have some specific characteristics in common.

• Statement I is true.
• A cohort is a population whose members have some specific characteristics in common, such as age, gender, or occupation.
• For example, a cohort study might follow a group of people who were born in the same year to see how their health changes over time.

Statement II : In a prospective study, the researcher relies on people's memories and recollections of the past.

• Statement II is false.
• A prospective study is a type of study in which the researcher collects data on a group of people over time.
• The researcher does not rely on people's memories or recollections of the past.
• Instead, the researcher collects data from the participants directly, such as through surveys, interviews, or medical examinations.

The correct answer is 3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Here are some examples of prospective studies:

• The Framingham Heart Study, which has been following a group of people in Framingham, Massachusetts, since 1948 to study the risk factors for heart disease.
• The Nurses' Health Study, which has been following a group of women nurses since 1976 to study the risk factors for cancer and other diseases.
• The Vietnam Era Twin Study, which has been following a group of twins who served in the Vietnam War to study the effects of Agent Orange exposure.

Key Points 

The correct option for the formula to use in cell D2 to determine whether you will be able to join your friends based on the given results is:

= IF (AND (C3 >= B3, C4 >= B4), "Yes", "No")

The formula checks two conditions using the AND function. The conditions are:

• Whether the actual midterm score (C3) is greater than or equal to the minimal midterm score (B3).
• Whether the actual final exam score (C4) is greater than or equal to the minimal final exam score (B4).

If both conditions are met, meaning the actual scores meet or exceed the required minimal scores, the formula will return "Yes", indicating that you will be able to join your friends.

If either of the conditions is not met, the formula will return "No", indicating that you will not be able to join your friends.

Therefore, the correct formula to use in cell D2 is: = IF (AND (C3 >= B3, C4 >= B4), "Yes", "No")

• Option 1 is incorrect because it uses the IF function twice. This is unnecessary, as the AND function can be used to combine two conditions into one.
• Option 3 is incorrect because it uses the colon (:) operator. This operator is used to reference a range of cells, but it is not necessary in this case.
• Option 4 is incorrect because it uses the OR function. The OR function would return "Yes" if either of the conditions were met, but in this case we need to check if both conditions are met.

Key Points

Ipsative Assessment

• The process of comparing a student's performance against his/her previous performance is known as Ipsative Assessment.
• Ipsative assessment focuses on an individual's progress and improvement over time by comparing their current performance to their previous performance.
• It emphasizes self-assessment and self-improvement rather than comparing the student's performance against external standards or other students.
• Ipsative assessment is often used in educational settings to track individual growth, set goals, and monitor progress.
• It provides valuable feedback to the student about their own development and helps them understand their strengths and areas for improvement.

The other options mentioned are as follows:

Diagnostic evaluation:

• This refers to the assessment process used to identify a student's strengths and weaknesses, diagnose learning difficulties, and determine appropriate instructional strategies.

Summative assessment:

• This refers to the evaluation of learning at the end of a unit, course, or academic period to determine the overall achievement or mastery of a subject or set of learning outcomes. It is typically used to assign grades or make judgments about the student's performance.

Informal assessment:

• This refers to the assessment methods that are not standardized or formalized. It involves observing, questioning, and gathering information about the student's performance and progress in a less structured manner.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3) Ipsative Assessment

Key Points

Attrition threat:

• Attrition threat is a threat to internal validity that occurs when participants drop out of a study, leading to a change in the nature of the sample.
• This can happen for a variety of reasons, such as participants becoming bored or frustrated with the study, or experiencing side effects from the intervention.
• When attrition occurs, it can bias the results of the study. For example, if participants who are more likely to drop out are also more likely to have certain characteristics (such as being less motivated or having more severe symptoms), then the results of the study may not be generalizable to the population as a whole.
• Therefore, it is important to minimize attrition in research studies.
• This can be done by carefully selecting participants, providing them with incentives to stay in the study, and monitoring them for signs of attrition.

When participants drop out of a study, leading to a change in the nature of the sample, it poses an attrition threat to internal validity.

Additional Information

• Selection threat occurs when participants are not randomly assigned to the different groups in a study. This can lead to bias, as the groups may not be equal in terms of their characteristics.
• History threat occurs when events that happen outside of the study influence the results. For example, if a natural disaster occurs during a study, it could affect the participants' responses.
• Testing threat occurs when participants are tested multiple times, and their scores improve or decline over time. This can lead to bias, as the results may be affected by the participants' memory of the previous test.

Key PointsStatement I : A valid deductive argument that also has all true premises is called a "sound" argument. 

• Statement I is correct because a sound argument is a deductive argument that is both valid and has all true premises.
• This means that the conclusion of the argument must be true if the premises are true.

Statement II : A strong inductive argument that has all true premises is called a "cogent" argument.

• Statement II is also correct because a cogent argument is an inductive argument that is both strong and has all true premises.
• This means that the conclusion of the argument is probably true if the premises are true.

Therefore, both statements are correct.

Here are some additional information about sound and cogent arguments:

• Valid arguments are those where the conclusion follows logically from the premises. In other words, if the premises are true, then the conclusion must also be true.
• Strong arguments are those where the premises provide strong support for the conclusion. In other words, the probability of the conclusion being true is high if the premises are true.
• Sound arguments are valid arguments that also have all true premises. This means that the conclusion of a sound argument must be true.
• Cogent arguments are strong arguments that also have all true premises. This means that the conclusion of a cogent argument is probably true.

Key PointsMessages: 

When people metacommunicate, they engage in communication about the process of communication itself. In other words, metacommunication involves sending messages or discussing aspects related to the communication process, rather than focusing solely on the content of the conversation.

Metacommunication can take various forms, such as:

• Clarifying Communication: When someone asks for clarification or feedback about the effectiveness of their communication, they are engaging in metacommunication. For example, saying, "Did you understand what I meant by that?" or "Was I clear in my explanation?" seeks feedback on the communication process.
• Relationship-Level Communication: Metacommunication can address the dynamics and relationship between communicators. For instance, someone might say, "I feel like we are not connecting during this conversation" or "We should talk about how we communicate when we have disagreements."
• Nonverbal Cues: Nonverbal behaviors like tone of voice, facial expressions, and body language can also be forms of metacommunication. A speaker might raise their voice or use hand gestures to emphasize a point or show frustration about the ongoing conversation.
• Contextual Elements: Discussing the setting or context of the communication can be a form of metacommunication. For instance, acknowledging the significance of a particular conversation or recognizing the potential impact of the message on others.

In summary, when people metacommunicate, they are sending messages about the messages. Therefore, the correct answer is option 4) messages.

Key Points 

Statement I: The electronic space of the Internet has failed to displace the institutional space in a society even an iota.

• This statement is false. The Internet has had a significant impact on various aspects of society, including communication, commerce, education, and governance.
• It has provided new avenues for information exchange, social interaction, and organizational structures.
• While it may not have completely displaced institutional spaces, it has certainly influenced and transformed them to a great extent.

Statement II: The Internet communication has broken down the hierarchies of race, ethnicity, and gender.

• This statement is true
• The Internet has provided a platform for marginalized voices and diverse perspectives to be heard, which can challenge traditional hierarchies based on race, ethnicity, and gender. It has enabled increased access to information and opportunities for people from various backgrounds.
• However, it is essential to note that the Internet alone cannot completely eradicate deeply entrenched societal hierarchies, as such changes require broader social and systemic efforts.

Therefore, both statements are false, and the most appropriate answer is that Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Calculation:

A, B and C can complete a piece of work in 3, 5 and 6 days respectively

Total work = LCM of (3, 5, 6) = 30 unit

Now, efficiency of A = 10 unit, efficiency of B = 6 unit and efficiency of C = 5 unit

Now, together they will complete the work in 30/(10 + 6 + 5) = 10/7 = \(1 \frac{3}{7} \text { days }\)

∴ The correct answer is \(1 \frac{3}{7} \) days

Key PointsStatement I : Due to climate change, Arctic sea ice is significantly thinner now than about a century ago 

• Statement I: "Due to climate change, Arctic sea ice is significantly thinner now than about a century ago." This statement is correct. Climate change has led to a warming of the Arctic region, resulting in the melting and thinning of Arctic sea ice. Numerous scientific studies and observations support this finding.

Statement II : Due to climate change, tropical regions have warmed much faster than the rest of the world.

• Statement II: "Due to climate change, tropical regions have warmed much faster than the rest of the world." This statement is incorrect.
• Climate change is a global phenomenon, and while different regions may experience varying rates of warming, the statement that tropical regions have warmed much faster than the rest of the world is not accurate.
• In reality, warming trends are evident in various regions across the globe, and different regions may experience distinct temperature changes, but none can be definitively stated as warming much faster than the rest.

There is a wealth of scientific evidence to support both of these statements.

• For example, a 2019 study by the National Snow and Ice Data Center found that Arctic sea ice thickness has declined by an average of 1.3 meters since 1980.
• And a 2018 study by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) found that tropical regions have warmed by an average of 0.2 degrees Celsius per decade since the late 19^th century.

Hence, Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Key Points Fallacy of division:

• Fallacy of division is a type of logical fallacy in which a conclusion is made about a part based on the assumption that it is true for the whole.
• In this case, the statement assumes that because American Indians are disappearing as a whole, then that man, who is an American Indian, must also be disappearing.
• However, this is not necessarily true. Just because American Indians are disappearing as a whole does not mean that every American Indian is disappearing.

Additional Information

• Red herring is a fallacy that occurs when an irrelevant topic is introduced in order to distract from the main issue.
• Hasty generalization is a fallacy that occurs when a conclusion is made about a whole group based on the observation of a small number of members of that group.
• Begging the question is a fallacy that occurs when the conclusion of an argument is assumed in the premises.

Therefore, the informal fallacy committed in the following statement is fallacy of division.

The answer is 2) Completely Automated Public Turing test to tell Computers and Human.

Key Points

CAPTCHA:

• CAPTCHA stands for Completely Automated Public Turing test to tell Computers and Humans Apart.
• It is a challenge-response test used in computing to determine whether the user is a human or a computer. CAPTCHAs are often used to prevent bots from accessing websites or services.
• The most common form of CAPTCHA is an image of distorted text that the user must type in order to verify that they are human.
• This type of CAPTCHA is effective because it is difficult for bots to decipher the distorted text.
• Other types of CAPTCHAs include audio CAPTCHAs, which require the user to listen to a distorted audio clip and type in what they hear, and reCAPTCHAs, which require the user to solve a simple math problem or select images that contain certain objects.
• CAPTCHAs are an important tool for protecting websites and services from bots.
• They help to ensure that only humans can access these resources, which helps to prevent spam, fraud, and other malicious activity.

Key PointsPhotovoltaic array:

• A photovoltaic array is a collection of solar panels that are connected together to produce electricity.
• Solar panels are made up of individual solar cells, but a photovoltaic array is more than just a collection of solar cells.
• It is a system that is designed to collect and convert sunlight into electricity.
• Photovoltaic arrays can be used to power homes, businesses, and even entire communities.
• They are a clean and renewable source of energy, and they are becoming increasingly popular as the cost of solar panels continues to decline.

Here is a table that summarizes the different types of photovoltaic systems:

Hence, the answer is 4) combination of solar panels.

Key PointsStatement I: A dichotomous variable is the one which has more than two categories.​

• This statement is false.
• A dichotomous variable is a categorical variable that has only two categories or levels. For example, gender (male/female) is a dichotomous variable.

Statement II: A nominal variable can have more than two categories.

• This statement is true.
• A nominal variable is a categorical variable that represents data in non-numeric form and has two or more unordered categories.
• Examples of nominal variables include marital status (single, married, divorced) or eye color (blue, brown, green).

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Key Points 

Statement I: Metacognition is the understanding about one's own use of language.

• This statement is incorrect.
• Metacognition refers to the awareness and understanding of one's own cognitive processes, which includes thinking, learning, and problem-solving.
• It involves reflecting on and monitoring one's thoughts, knowledge, and strategies. It is not specifically related to the understanding of one's own use of language.

Statement II: Mnemonics is the knowledge about our own thinking processes.

• This statement is also incorrect.
• Mnemonics refers to techniques or strategies used to improve memory and enhance the retention and recall of information.
• It involves using memory aids, such as acronyms, visual imagery, or associations, to facilitate the encoding and retrieval of information.
• It does not pertain to the knowledge about our own thinking processes in general.

Therefore, both statements are incorrect, and the most appropriate answer is that both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

Key Points Adaptive teaching:

• Adaptive teaching is a type of instruction that provides all students with challenging instructions and uses supports when needed but removes those supports as students become able to handle more on their own.
• This type of teaching is based on the idea that all students can learn, but they may need different levels of support in order to do so.

Additional Information

• Recessive teaching is a type of instruction in which the teacher takes a back seat and allows students to learn on their own. This type of teaching is not effective for all students, and it can be particularly challenging for students who need more support.
• Active teaching is a type of instruction in which the teacher is very involved in the learning process. The teacher provides clear instructions, asks questions, and provides feedback. This type of teaching can be effective for some students, but it can be overwhelming for others.
• Problem-oriented teaching is a type of instruction that focuses on solving problems. This type of teaching can be effective for students who are motivated by challenges and who enjoy working independently.

Therefore, the teaching that provides all students with challenging instructions and uses supports when needed but removes those supports as students become able to handle more on their own is called adaptive teaching.

Key Points

 The chronological order of the following open universities in India is:

• Nalanda Open University (1987)
• Madhya Pradesh Bhoj Open University (1991)
• Karnataka State Open University (1996)
• Netaji Subhas Open University (1997)
• UP Rajarshi Tandon Open University (1998)

Therefore, the correct answer is 2) E, D, A, B, C.

Here is a brief description of each university:

• Nalanda Open University: Founded in 1987, Nalanda Open University is the second-largest open university in India. It offers a wide range of courses at various levels and has a student enrollment of over 1 million.
• Madhya Pradesh Bhoj Open University: Established in 1991, Madhya Pradesh Bhoj Open University is one of the largest open universities in India. It has a student enrollment of over 600,000.
• Karnataka State Open University (KSOU) is a state-open university located in Dharwad, Karnataka. It was founded in 1996, Karnataka State Open University is one of the most popular open universities in India. It has a student enrollment of over 400,000.
• Netaji Subhas Open University (NSOU) is a state open university in Kolkata, West Bengal. It was established in 1997 by the Government of West Bengal. NSOU offers various courses, including undergraduate, postgraduate, and doctoral programs.
• UP Rajarshi Tandon Open University is a state-open university in the state of Uttar Pradesh, India. It was established in 1998 and is named after the famous freedom fighter Rajarshi Tandon. The university offers a wide range of undergraduate and postgraduate programs in various disciplines, including arts, science, commerce, law, and education

Calculation:

Let the speed of the goods train be x km/hr.

The passenger train covers in 6 hr = 75 × 6 = 450 km 

The goods train covers a distance of x × 15 = 15x km in 15 hours.

Now, 15x = 450

⇒ x = 450/15 = 30 km/hr

∴ The speed of the goods train is 30 km/hr.

Key Points The answer is 3) 14.

• According to the UGC (University Grants Commission) Regulations 2018 on plagiarism, common knowledge or coincidental terms up to 14 consecutive words shall be excluded while checking similarity for the detection of plagiarism.

Here are some examples of common knowledge or coincidental terms that may be excluded from plagiarism checks:

• The names of people, places, and things
• Scientific or technical terms
• Mathematical formulas
• Quotations
• Common phrases
• It is important to note that the 14-word exclusion rule is just a guideline.
• Plagiarism detection tools may vary in how they implement this rule, and it is always best to check the specific tool's documentation for more information.

Key Points Statement I: Cultural eutrophication is caused by increased nutrient input into a water body, mainly due to human activities.

• This statement is correct.
• Cultural eutrophication refers to the excessive enrichment of a water body with nutrients, such as nitrogen and phosphorus, which often results from human activities like agriculture, industrial discharges, and wastewater treatment.
• The increased nutrient input can lead to excessive growth of algae and other aquatic plants, negatively impacting water quality and ecosystem health.

Statement II: Cultural eutrophication decelerates the 'aging' of a water body enormously over natural rates.

• This statement is incorrect.
• Statement II: "Cultural eutrophication decelerates the 'aging' of a water body enormously over natural rates." This statement is incorrect. In reality, cultural eutrophication accelerates the aging process of a water body rather than decelerating it. The excess nutrients promote algal blooms and aquatic plant growth, leading to an increase in organic matter.
• As this organic matter decomposes, it consumes dissolved oxygen in the water, resulting in hypoxia (low oxygen levels) or anoxia (no oxygen), which is harmful to aquatic life. This process is detrimental to the health of the water body and can lead to ecological imbalances.

Therefore, both statements accurately describe cultural eutrophication, its causes, and its effects on water bodies. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Key PointsStatement I: Reputed scholars like Panini and Chanakya had their education from Nalanda University

• Statement I: "Reputed scholars like Panini and Chanakya had their education from Nalanda University." This statement is not correct. Panini was an ancient Indian grammarian and linguist who is known for his work on Sanskrit grammar.
• He is traditionally believed to have lived around the 4^th century BCE, while Nalanda University was established later, around the 5^th century CE. Therefore, there is a significant chronological gap between Panini's time and the founding of Nalanda University.
• Similarly, Chanakya, also known as Kautilya or Vishnugupta, was an ancient Indian teacher, philosopher, economist, and royal advisor who lived around the 4^th century BCE. Nalanda University was not in existence during his time.

Statement II: "Taxila (Thakshashila) was a university known for its education in Indian arts and science, especially medicine."

• This statement is correct. Taxila, also known as Takshashila, was one of the oldest and most renowned centers of learning in ancient India. It is located in present-day Pakistan.
• Taxila was a significant hub for education and attracted scholars from various parts of the world. It offered a wide range of subjects, including arts, science, medicine, philosophy, and military strategy

Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

The correct answer is 306

Explanation:

Calculation:

Employees % in HR Department = (28 ÷ 1.4) = 20%

Employees in IT department = 900 * (1 - 0.18 - 0.28 - 0.2) = 306

∴ The number of employees who work in IT department in Delhi is 306

The correct answer is 494

Explanation:

Calculation:

Number of IT employees in Mumbai = 760 × 0.30 = 228

Number of IT employees in Gurgaon = 700 × (1 - 0.2 - 0.22 - 0.2) = 266

⇒ Required Total = 228 + 266 = 494

∴ Total number of employees in Mumbai and Gurgaon who work in IT department are 494.

The correct answer is 208

Explanation:

Given:

Total = 4260 employees

Number of employees in Bengaluru is 10% less than the number of employees in Hydrabad

Calculation:

Let's assume Total employees in Bengaluru = 0.9m

Number of Employees in Hyderabad = m

⇒ 900 + 760 + 0.9m + m + 700 = 4260

⇒ 1.9m = 4260 - 900 - 1460

⇒ m = 1000

Total employees in Bengaluru = 900

Number of Employees in Hyderabad = 1000

Accountants in Bengaluru & Hyderabad = (0.32 × 900) + (0.35 × 1000) = 638

Finance Employees in Bengaluru and Hyderabad = (900 × 0.2) + (1000 × 0.25) = 430 

Required Difference = 638 - 430 = 208

∴ The difference between the number of employees in the Accounts department and the number of employees in the Finance department in these 2 cities is 208.

Calculation:

Number of employees who work in Accounts department in Mumbai = 38 + number of employees who work in IT department in Gurgaon

Number of employees who work in IT department in Gurgaon = 700 × (1 - 0.2 - 0.22 - 0.2) = 266

Number of employees who work in Accounts department in Mumbai = 38 + 266 = 304

Number of employees who work in Finance department in Mumbai = 760 - 304 - (760 × 0.45) = 114

∴ The number of employees who work in Finance department in Mumbai is 114.

The correct answer is Three

Explanation:

Given: 

Number of employees in Bengaluru = 10% less than the number of employees in Hyderabad

Calculation:

Number of employees in Bengaluru = 900

Number of Employees in Hyderabad = 1000

Total number of employees who work in Finance and Accounts departments in;

Delhi = 900 × (0.18 + 0.28) = 414

Mumbai = 760 × (1 - 0.15 - 0.3) = 418

Bengaluru = 900 × (0.2 + 0.32) = 468

Hydrabad = 1000 × (0.25 + 0.35) = 600

Gurgaon = 700 × (0.22 + 0.2) = 294

∴The total number of employees who work in Finance and Accounts departments of the organization is more than 415 in exactly three cities.

Key PointsRasa theory: 

• Rasa theory is a Sanskrit word that means "flavor" or "sentiment." It is a theory of aesthetic experience that originated in India.
• The theory was developed by Abhinavagupta, a 10^th-century scholar, and it is still influential in Indian aesthetics today.
• According to Rasa theory, the goal of art is to evoke a rasa, or aesthetic experience, in the audience.
• This experience is not just a physical or emotional response, but also a moral one.
• The rasa theory argues that art can help us to cultivate our moral character by providing us with opportunities to experience different emotions in a safe and controlled environment.

The answer is 4) Moral cultivation.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Literary taste. While Rasa theory does involve the appreciation of literature, it is not limited to literature. It can also be applied to other forms of art, such as music, dance, and painting.
• Option 2: Materialistic welfare. Rasa theory is not concerned with material welfare. It is concerned with the cultivation of the soul.
• Option 3: Socialisation. Rasa theory can be used to promote social interaction, but it is not primarily concerned with this. Its primary goal is to cultivate the soul.

Key Points

 The answer is 4) Sound is eternal because it is produced.

The fallacy of contradicted middle:

• The statement "Sound is eternal because it is produced" is not a logically correct answer, and it does not hold up to scrutiny. Let's reiterate the reasons:

Lack of Logical Connection: The statement does not provide a valid logical connection between sound being produced and it being eternal. Being produced does not imply eternality.

Temporal Nature of Sound: Sound is a temporal phenomenon, which means it exists within a specific time frame and requires energy to be produced. It propagates through a medium, and its existence depends on the presence of the medium and the energy driving the vibrations. It is not eternal in the sense of being timeless or existing indefinitely.

Definition of Eternality: Eternality refers to something existing outside the constraints of time, without a beginning or an end. Sound, as a physical wave, has a starting point when it is produced and ceases to exist when the vibrations dissipate.

The other options do not commit the fallacy of contradicted middle.

• Option 1: All things are non-eternal because they are knowable. This argument is valid because the middle term, "knowable," is connected to the major term, "non-eternal," in both premises.

Option 2: Sound is a quality because it is visible.

• This argument is invalid because the middle term, "visible," is not connected to the major term, "quality," in both premises..

Key Points

 The answer is 3) Techno-social.

Media interactivity:

• Media interactivity is the ability of users to interact with media content in a meaningful way.
• This can be done through a variety of means, such as clicking on links, responding to polls, or participating in online discussions.

Techno-social relations:

• Techno-social relations are the relationships between technology and society.
• These relations are complex and constantly evolving, as technology changes the way we interact with each other and the world around us.
• Media interactivity is experienced at different levels in different techno-social relations.
• For example, in some cases, media interactivity may be limited to simply clicking on links or reading comments.
• In other cases, media interactivity may be more complex, such as participating in online discussions or creating and sharing content.
• The level of media interactivity that is experienced depends on a number of factors, such as the type of media, the technology used, and the social context.
• Here are some examples of techno-social relations in which media interactivity is experienced:
• Social media: Social media platforms allow users to interact with each other in a variety of ways, such as by liking, commenting, and sharing content.
• Online gaming: Online games allow users to interact with each other in real time, through chat, voice chat, and other means.
• E-commerce: E-commerce websites allow users to interact with each other by asking questions, leaving reviews, and participating in forums.
• Media interactivity is a complex phenomenon that is constantly evolving. As technology changes, the ways in which we interact with media will continue to change as well.

The correct answer isA, C, D and E only

Explanation:

Key PointsJohn Keller's model of motivation:

• John Keller's model of motivation in the teaching and learning process consists of four interrelated phases that aim to stimulate and sustain learner motivation. These phases are as follows:
• Attention:
• This phase focuses on capturing the learners' attention and interest.
• It involves using engaging strategies, such as presenting novel and intriguing information, using multimedia, or posing thought-provoking questions, to grab learners' attention and make them curious about the topic or content being presented.
• Relevance:
• ​The relevance phase aims to establish the connection between the learning content and the learners' interests, needs, and goals.
• It involves demonstrating the practical applicability and value of the knowledge or skills being taught, showing learners how the content relates to their personal experiences or future aspirations.
• By highlighting the relevance, learners are more likely to perceive the importance and meaningfulness of the learning material.
• Confidence:
• ​ Building learners' confidence is the focus of this phase.
• It involves providing opportunities for learners to experience success and develop a sense of competence in their ability to understand and apply the knowledge or skills being taught.
• Teachers can facilitate this phase by offering support, constructive feedback, and progressively challenging tasks that help learners develop their confidence and self-efficacy.
• Satisfaction:
• ​The satisfaction phase aims to reinforce learners' motivation by providing a sense of accomplishment and reward.
• This phase involves offering positive feedback, recognition, and opportunities for learners to apply their newly acquired knowledge or skills in real-world contexts.
• By experiencing a sense of satisfaction and achievement, learners are more likely to maintain their motivation and continue their learning journey.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1) A, C, D, and E only.

Key PointsHumayun Kabir Committee:

• The Humayun Kabir Committee was set up by the Union Government in 1964 to review the state of higher education in India.
• The committee was asked to explore the possibility of privatizing public universities, setting up new universities, establishing correspondence courses, and funding private universities.
• The committee's report, which was submitted in 1966, recommended that the government should not privatize public universities.
• The committee argued that public universities play an important role in providing affordable and accessible higher education to all sections of society.
• The committee also argued that privatization of public universities would lead to a decline in the quality of education.
• The committee's report was accepted by the government, and no public universities have been privatized in India.
• However, the government has set up new universities, established correspondence courses, and funded private universities.
• Here are some of the recommendations of the Humayun Kabir Committee:
• The Humayun Kabir Committee, also known as the Education Commission 1964-66, was appointed by the Government of India in 1964 under the chairmanship of Humayun Kabir. The primary mandate of the committee was to review the state of education in India and make recommendations for the development and improvement of the education system.

As mentioned, one of the specific tasks assigned to the committee was to explore the possibility of setting up new universities. The committee's objective was to assess the need for higher education institutions in different regions of India and propose the establishment of new universities to cater to the growing demand for education.

The Education Commission 1964-66 submitted its report in 1966, and its recommendations had a significant impact on the development of education in India. The report covered various aspects of education, including primary education, secondary education, higher education, teacher training, vocational education, and adult education. It provided a comprehensive roadmap for educational reforms in the country.

The answer is option 2.

The word "WOMEN" is coded as 23 + 15 + 13 + 5 + 14 = 70.

 The word "CHILDREN" is coded as 3 + 8 + 9 + 12 + 4 + 18 + 5 + 14 = 73.

∴ The correct answer is 73.

Given:

x = 0.25 and y = 0.16

Calculation:

\(\frac{y}{x}+\sqrt{x} \sqrt{y}-x y\)

⇒ \(\frac{0.16}{0.25} + \sqrt0.25\sqrt0.16 - 0.25 \times 0.16\) 

⇒ \(\frac{16}{25} + 0.5\times 0.4 - 0.04\)

⇒ \(\frac{16}{25} +0.20 - 0.04\)

⇒ \(\frac{16}{25} \) + 0.16

⇒ 20/25 

⇒ 0.8

∴ The correct answer is 0.8

The pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is "99".

Key Points The correct order of the terms A- E is B, E, D, A, C.

The paragraph should read as follows:

• A MAC address is a media access control address. A network device has a unique MAC address that can help identify the device in the network. An IP address is an Internet protocol address. An IP address can be static or dynamic.

Here is a brief explanation of each term:

• MAC address stands for Media Access Control address. It is a unique identifier assigned to a network device by the manufacturer.
• IP address stands for Internet Protocol address. It is a numerical identifier assigned to a network device by a network administrator.
• Static IP address means that the IP address is assigned to a device permanently.
• Dynamic IP address means that the IP address is assigned to a device temporarily.

Key Points

 The correct answer is 4) English.

Education Despatch of 1854:

• The Education Despatch of 1854, also known as the Wood's Despatch, was a document that outlined the British government's policy on education in India.
• The despatch recommended that the medium of instruction in Indian universities should be English.
• This was because English was seen as the language of the future, and it would allow Indians to access Western knowledge and ideas.
• The despatch also recommended that the curriculum in Indian universities should be based on the British model, and that Indian universities should be affiliated with British universities.
• These recommendations were controversial at the time, but they were eventually implemented.

Here are some of the reasons why the Education Despatch of 1854 recommended that the medium of instruction in Indian universities should be English:

• English was the language of the British government, and it was seen as the language of the future.
• English would allow Indians to access Western knowledge and ideas.
• English would help to create a common language among Indians from different parts of the country.

The decision to make English the medium of instruction in Indian universities had a profound impact on the development of education in India.

It led to the creation of a new class of English-educated Indians, who would play a leading role in the independence movement. It also led to the spread of Western ideas and values in India.

The correct answer is: B, A, C

Global warming is primarily caused by greenhouse gases (GHGs) which trap infrared radiation in the Earth's atmosphere. Although different gases vary in their concentration, each has a specific Global Warming Potential (GWP) that measures its heat-trapping ability relative to Carbon dioxide (CO₂). Based on this, their contribution to global warming can be arranged in an increasing order.

Key Points

• Carbon Dioxide (CO₂) (B):
• Used as the baseline gas with GWP = 1.
• Although present in the largest quantity, its heat-trapping ability per molecule is the lowest compared to CH₄ and N₂O.
• Mainly produced from fossil fuel burning, deforestation, and industrial processes.
• Methane (CH₄) (A):
• GWP ≈ 28–36 times higher than CO₂ over a 100-year period.
• Sources include livestock, rice paddies, landfills, and fossil fuel extraction.
• Second most significant greenhouse gas after CO₂ in terms of total impact.
• Nitrous Oxide (N₂O) (C):
• GWP ≈ 265–298 times higher than CO₂.
• Released from agricultural soil management (fertilizers), biomass burning, and certain industrial activities.
• Though present in smaller amounts, it has the highest warming potential per molecule among the three.

Additional Information

• Thus, in terms of increasing contribution to global warming: CO₂ (lowest) → CH₄ → N₂O (highest).
• While CO₂ dominates due to sheer volume, CH₄ and N₂O are far more powerful in warming potential per molecule.
• Mitigation strategies focus not only on reducing CO₂ but also controlling methane emissions (livestock, landfills) and nitrous oxide emissions (fertilizer management).

Key PointsStatement I : A binary number that ends in a 1, eg 110011, is always an odd decimal number.

• Statement I is true because a binary number that ends in a 1 is always an odd decimal number.
• This is because the binary number 1 represents the value 1 in decimal, and any number that ends in a 1 is always odd.

Statement II : HTML is a set of rules that must be obeyed when transferring files across the Internet

• Statement II is false because HTML is not a set of rules that must be obeyed when transferring files across the internet.
• HTML is a markup language that is used to create web pages.
• It is not a protocol, and it does not govern how files are transferred across the internet.

The correct answer is 3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Key Points The correct answer is 4) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II.

Here is a brief explanation of the match between List I and List II:

• A. Learning Management System (LMS) helps teachers to streamline course administration, and manage student records and grades. So the answer is III.
• B. Video conferencing helps teachers to deliver engaging and interactive class sessions and connect with remote learners. So the answer is IV.
• C. Discussion forums encourage student engagement and collaboration, fostering critical thinking and problem-solving. So the answer is I.
• D. Online Assessment platform helps teachers to create and administer assessments quickly and easily, automating grading and feedback. So the answer is II.

Here is a table that summarizes the match between List I and List II:

Key PointsInternational Labour Organization (ILO): 

• The International Labour Organization (ILO) is a United Nations agency that deals with international labor standards, employment, social protection, and social dialogue.
• The ILO's International Standard Classification of Occupations (ISCO) is a system for classifying occupations that is used in over 150 countries.
• The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 recommends that the Indian Standards of Skills (ISS) be aligned with the ISCO.
• This will help to ensure that Indian skills are internationally recognized and that Indian workers have the skills they need to compete in the global economy.

Additional Information

• UNDP is the United Nations Development Programme. It is not an organization that deals with international labor standards.
• UNESCO is the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization. It does deal with international labor standards, but its main focus is on education and culture.
• ITU is the International Telecommunication Union. It is an intergovernmental organization that deals with information and communication technologies. It does not deal with international labor standards.

Therefore, the Indian Standards of Skills will be aligned with the International Standard Classification of Occupations of the ILO.

Key Points Earth Summit:

• The Earth Summit, also known as the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), was held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992.
• The summit was attended by over 170 countries and resulted in the signing of several international agreements**, including the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).**

UNFCCC:

• The UNFCCC is an international treaty that was adopted in 1992 and entered into force in 1994.
• The treaty's goal is to "stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous anthropogenic interference with the climate system."
• The UNFCCC is not a legally binding treaty, but it has been ratified by 197 countries.
• The treaty's main body is the Conference of the Parties (COP), which meets every year to review the implementation of the treaty and to negotiate further action on climate change.

The Paris Agreement:

• The Paris Agreement is a legally binding agreement that was adopted in 2015.
• The agreement's goal is to limit global warming to well below 2 degrees Celsius, preferably to 1.5 degrees Celsius, above pre-industrial levels.

Montreal Protocol:

• The Montreal Protocol is an international treaty that was adopted in 1987.
• The treaty's goal is to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production and use of ozone-depleting substances.

Convention on Biodiversity:

• The Convention on Biological Diversity is an international treaty that was adopted in 1992.
• The treaty's goal is to conserve biological diversity, to ensure the sustainable use of its components, and to share fairly and equitably the benefits arising from genetic resources.

Therefore, the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) was the outcome of the Earth Summit.

Key PointsAffirmative conclusion from negative premises: 

• The fallacy committed in this argument is known as an "Affirmative conclusion from negative premises."
• It occurs when an affirmative statement (the conclusion) is made based on negative statements (the premises), without proper justification or logical connection between the two.

Therefore, the argument is logically flawed due to this formal fallacy.

Explanation:

• In the given argument, the conclusion states that all professional wrestlers are good actors. However, this conclusion cannot be logically derived from the premises provided.
• The first premise states that "Some good actors are not powerful athletes."
• This implies that there exists a group of good actors who are not part of the category of powerful athletes.
• It does not make any claim about the relationship between good actors and professional wrestlers.
• The second premise states that "All professional wrestlers are powerful athletes." This establishes a relationship between professional wrestlers and powerful athletes but does not make any direct connection to good actors.
• The fallacy occurs when the conclusion combines the two premises to assert that all professional wrestlers are good actors. This conclusion goes beyond what the premises actually support and makes an unwarranted assumption.

Key PointsIntension: 

• Intensivity refers to the degree of specificity of a term. A term with high intensity has a narrow meaning, while a term with low intensity has a broad meaning.

In the given question, the terms are arranged in order of increasing intensity as follows:

• D. Animal: This is the most general term, as it refers to any living organism that is not a plant.
• B. Mammal: This term is more specific than an animal, as it refers to a warm-blooded vertebrate that nurses its young with milk.
• C. Feline: This term is even more specific than mammal, as it refers to a member of the cat family.
• A. Tiger: This is the most specific term, as it refers to a particular species of cat that is native to Asia.

Therefore, the correct order of increasing intension is D, B, C, A.

The correct answer is "Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect"

Key Points 

• Let's evaluate the two statements based on the information provided in the passage:
• Statement I: The focus of the passage is on making Delhi roads safer.
• The passage discusses the transport department's plan to start a road safety campaign in Delhi.  This clearly indicates that the focus of the passage is indeed on making Delhi roads safer.
• Statement II: Funds worth crores meant for ensuring road safety have been properly utilized.
• The passage mentions that funds worth Crores meant for ensuring road safety were not being utilized. The senior official involved in the campaign points out that these funds were not being put to use. Therefore, it suggests that the funds were not properly utilized until the road safety campaign was planned.

Hence, the correct option is "option 3"

The correct answer is "Speed limit will be re - assessed."

Key Points 

• "Revisit speed limits" in the context of the passage means that the authorities will reassess or reevaluate the existing speed limits on various road sections.
• The purpose of this reassessment is to determine whether the current speed limits are appropriate and safe based on the prevailing conditions, traffic patterns, and accident data.

Hence, the correct option is "option 2"

The correct answer is "Pedestrian - heavy areas"

Key Points 

• The Government study found that areas more prone to accidents were those with heavy pedestrian activity, such as areas surrounding schools, metro stations, and commercial sites.
• These locations, where there is a high concentration of pedestrians, are more susceptible to road accidents due to the interaction between vehicles and people on foot.
• The study likely highlighted the need for targeted safety measures in these specific areas to reduce the risk of accidents and enhance overall road safety.

Hence, the correct option is "option 4"

The correct answer is "Increased"

Key Points 

• The passage states that the number of deaths due to road accidents in Delhi increased from 1,196 fatalities in 2020 to 1,239 fatalities in 2021.
• This indicates a rise(increase) in the number of road accident-related deaths during that period.

Hence, the correct option is "option 3"

The correct answer is "where a lot of accidents happen."

Key Points 

• Passage: "Black spots" are dangerous road locations with a history of frequent accidents, posing hazards to pedestrians, motorists, and cyclists.
• Example: As the hiker ventured deeper into the dense forest, he noticed a mysterious black spot on the map, indicating a potentially hazardous area that required caution.

Hence, the correct option is "option 3"