UGC NET Paper 1: Held On 16 June 2023 Shift 2 (Previous Year Paper)

The average expenditure from 2018 to 2022:

Explanation:

Key Points

Expenditure_2018 = 83.8 million Rs.

Expenditure_2020 = 113.28/(1 + 20/100) = 94.4 million Rs

Expenditure_2021 = 133.1/(1 + 21/100) = 110 million Rs.

Expenditure_2022 = 121.6/(1 + 27.9773/100) = 95.093 million Rs.

For Expenditure_2019, using the profit formula: 

Expenditure_2019 = 95.76 / (1 + 14/100) = 84 million Rs.

The average expenditure from 2018 to 2022 is then:

Average Expenditure = (Expenditure_2018 + Expenditure_2019 +

Expenditure_2020 + Expenditure_2021 + Expenditure_2022)/5

= (83.8 + 84 + 94.4 + 110 + 95.093)/5 = 93.4586 million Rs (approximately).

So, the average expenditure of the company for five years from 2018 to 2022 is approximately Rs. 93.44 million

The correct answer is 17.67%

Explanation:

 Key PointsCalculation:

According to the question,

• For 2017, Expenditure_2017 = 103.824/(1 + 12/100) = 92.72 million Rs.
• For 2018, Income_2018 = 83.8(1 + 25/100) = 104.75 million Rs.
• For 2019, Profit_2019 = 95.76 - 84 = 11.76 million Rs, so
• Profit%_2019 = (11.76/84)100 = 14%
• For 2020, Expenditure_2020 = 113.28 / (1 + 20/100) = 94.4 million Rs.
• Now, we can add up the incomes and expenditures:
• Total Income till 2020 = 103.824 + 104.75 + 95.76 + 113.28 =
• 417.614 million Rs
• Total Expenditure till 2020 = 92.72 + 83.8 + 84 + 94.4 = 354.92
• million Rs
• Finally, compute the total profit percentage:
• Total Profit% till 2020 = (Total Income - Total Expenditure)/(Total
• Expenditure × 100) = (417.614 - 354.92)/354.92× 100 = 17.66426% =17.67%

So, the approximate percent profit of the company till 2020 is 17.67%.

The correct answer is 1.83

Explanation:

 Key PointsWe already calculated the expenditure in 2017 while solving theprevious question, which was 92.72 million Rs.Expenditure_2020 = 113.28 / (1 + 20/100) = 94.4 million Rs

Now, the percentage increase in expenditure from 2017 to 2020 is:

Increase% = ((Expenditure_2020 - Expenditure_2017) / Expenditure_2017) × 100

=((94.4 - 92.72)/92.72 × 100) = 1.81%

So, the expenditure in 2020 is approximately 1.81% more than the expenditure in 2017.

The correct answer is 95

Explanation:

Key Points

Profit% = (Income - Expenditure)/Expenditure × 100) 

The profit% in 2022 = 33.13% more than in 2021, 

Profit%_2022 = 21% + 33.13% of 21% = 27.9773%.

Profit% for 2022 to find the expenditure: Expenditure_2022 =

121.6 million Rs/(1 + 27.9773/100) = 95.093 million Rs

(approximately).

So, the expenditure in 2022 was approximately 95 million Rs.

The correct answer is 95.

The correct answer is 84.2025

Explanation:

Key Points

Expenditure in 2017: 103.824 / (1 + 12/100) = 92.72 million Rs.

Expenditure in 2016: 92.72 / 1.2 = 77.2667 million Rs (since

it's 20% less than 2017).

Profit% in 2016: 12 - 0.25 × 12 = 9% (25% less than 2017).

Income in 2016: 77.2667 × (1 + 9/100) = 84.2025 million Rs (using the profit% formula).

So, the income of the company in 2016 was 84.2025 million Rs.

The correct answer is  84.2025.

The correct answer is Fish Bowl

Explanation:

Key Points 

In collaborative learning, the strategy from the following options that helps develop listening skills is Fishbowl Strategy:

Fish Bowl:

• The Fish Bowl strategy involves creating an inner circle and an outer circle of participants. The participants in the inner circle engage in a discussion while those in the outer circle observe and listen. While listening skills can be developed through observation in this strategy, active participation is limited to the inner circle.

Additional Information

Jigsaw Strategy:

• The Jigsaw Strategy is a cooperative learning technique where students work in small groups to become experts on specific topics and then share their knowledge with their peers.
• This strategy requires active listening skills as students need to pay attention to the information shared by their group members.
• By listening to and understanding the perspectives of others in their group, students develop their listening skills and learn to effectively process and integrate information from different sources.

Circle of Voices:

• The Circle of Voices strategy is a structured discussion where participants sit in a circle and take turns speaking. Each participant has a set amount of time to express their thoughts or answer a prompt. While this strategy promotes active listening within the circle, it primarily focuses on speaking and sharing ideas rather than developing listening skills.

Case Study:

• A case study involves analyzing real-life scenarios or situations to understand concepts and apply knowledge. While case studies may require listening to information or presentations related to the case, the primary focus is on critical thinking, analysis, and problem-solving rather than specifically developing listening skills.

The correct answer is Arts

Explanation:

Key Points In the earlier days of higher education in India, the focus was mostly on disciplines of  Arts.

• During the early phase of higher education in India, the emphasis was primarily on subjects related to arts and humanities.
• This focus can be traced back to ancient times when universities such as Nalanda and Takshashila were centers of learning, where subjects like philosophy, literature, linguistics, mathematics, and astronomy were taught.
• Even during the colonial period, when the British established universities in India, the curriculum primarily consisted of arts and humanities subjects.
• The subjects included languages, history, philosophy, literature, social sciences, and various branches of knowledge that fell under the broad category of arts.
• While other disciplines, such as agriculture, medicine, and law were also present, the predominant focus in the early stages of higher education was on arts.
• It was only in subsequent years, with the expansion of education and the influence of modernization, that the range of disciplines offered in Indian universities diversified to include a broader spectrum of subjects.

The correct answer is Lord Curzon

Explanation:

Key PointsLord Curzon: 

• Lord Curzon, during his tenure as the Viceroy of India from 1899 to 1905, implemented significant reforms and policies, including those related to agriculture.
• One of his notable initiatives was the establishment of the Central Agricultural Institute at Pusa.
• The purpose of creating the Central Agricultural Institute at Pusa was to promote agricultural research, innovation, and development in India.
• The institute was established in the village of Pusa, which is located in present-day Bihar, India.
• It aimed to address the various challenges faced by the Indian agricultural sector and improve agricultural practices.
• The Pusa Institute became a center for agricultural education and research. It focused on studying and developing improved techniques for crop cultivation, pest and disease management, soil conservation, and other agricultural aspects.
• The institute conducted experiments, introduced new crop varieties, and disseminated knowledge and information to farmers.
• Under Lord Curzon's policy, the Central Agricultural Institute at Pusa played a crucial role in advancing agricultural practices and enhancing productivity in India.
• It served as a hub for scientific research and training, attracting scholars, scientists, and experts from various agricultural disciplines.
• The initiatives introduced by Lord Curzon and the establishment of the Pusa Institute contributed significantly to the modernization and development of Indian agriculture.
• The institute's work laid the foundation for future advancements in agricultural research and technology in the country, influencing the agricultural sector's growth and productivity over time.

Key PointsStatement I : Aristotelian logic is verbalistic.

• Statement I is true.
• Statement I states that Aristotelian logic is "verbalistic," which implies that it heavily relies on the form of verbal expressions and language to construct logical arguments and draw inferences. This is generally true as Aristotelian logic is based on syllogisms and formal deductive reasoning using language.

Statement II : For the classical Indian school of logic (nyaya) verbal form is not the essence of inference and is required only to convince others.

• Statement II is true because the Nyaya school of logic, which is one of the oldest and most influential schools of Indian philosophy, emphasizes the importance of understanding the meaning of an argument, not just its verbal form.
• The Nyaya school argues that the verbal form of an argument is only necessary to convince others of its validity, but that the real essence of an argument lies in its meaning.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1) Statement I is true and Statement II is true.

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "35".

Key Points The factors that affect the learning of learners are:

• Family structure:
• The family structure can influence learning in a number of ways. For example, children from single-parent families may have fewer resources available to them, which can make it more difficult for them to succeed in school.
• Socio-economic status: 
• Socio-economic status can also affect learning. Children from lower-income families may have fewer opportunities to learn outside of school, which can make it more difficult for them to succeed.
• Cultural background:
• ​ Cultural background can also affect learning. Children from different cultures may have different ways of learning, which can make it difficult for them to adjust to the school environment.
• Type of school: 
• ​The type of school can also affect learning. Children who attend schools with fewer resources may have fewer opportunities to learn, which can make it more difficult for them to succeed.
• In addition to these factors, there are a number of other factors that can affect learning, such as the individual learner's personality, motivation, and prior knowledge.

Therefore, all of the factors listed in the question can affect learning. The correct answer is 3) A, B, C and D.

Key Points Statement I: There is an argument that the emergence of television audiences has brought in more personalised and interactive communication and media culture.

• This statement is true. The rise of television has led to a more personalized and interactive media culture.
• Viewers can now choose what they watch when they watch it, and how they watch it.
• This has led to a more fragmented media landscape, with viewers consuming content from a variety of sources.

Statement II: Within an integrated communication system, messages do not acquire the elements of communicability and socialisation.

• This statement is false. An integrated communication system is one in which different media channels are linked together.
• This allows messages to be shared across different platforms, which can increase their communicability and socialization.
• For example, a news story that is broadcast on television can also be shared on social media.
• This allows the story to reach a wider audience and to be discussed and debated by a larger group of people.

Therefore, Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.

Key PointsCondensation symbols: 

• Condensation symbols in political communication are evocative.
• They are words or phrases that stir up vivid impressions involving the listener's most basic values.
• They are often used to simplify complex issues or to create a sense of urgency.

Some examples of condensation symbols in political communication include:

• Motherland: This is a condensation symbol that evokes feelings of patriotism and national pride.
• Freedom: This is a condensation symbol that evokes feelings of liberty and independence.
• Security: This is a condensation symbol that evokes feelings of safety and protection.
• Change: This is a condensation symbol that evokes feelings of hope and optimism.
• Hope: This is a condensation symbol that evokes feelings of optimism and possibility.
• Condensation symbols are often used in political communication because they can be very effective at persuading people.
• They can tap into people's emotions and make them more likely to support a particular candidate or policy.
• However, condensation symbols can also be misleading and manipulative.
• They can be used to oversimplify complex issues or to create a false sense of urgency.

The other options are not correct.

• Dormant means inactive or not active.
• Weak assumptions are assumptions that are not well-supported or that are likely to be false.
• Escapist means tending to avoid unpleasant realities or responsibilities.

The logic followed here is:

Logic → Code of the words = (Number of letters in the word) - 1

Let's check as per the logic,

MANGO → (5) - 1 = 4

BANANA → (6) - 1 = 5

PEAR → (4) - 1 = 3

Similarly,

MUSKMELON → (9) - 1 = 8

Hence, the correct answer is "8".

Key Points Statement I: Recycling drastically reduces pressure on landfills and incinerators.

• This statement is true. Recycling reduces the amount of waste that goes to landfills and incinerators. This helps to reduce pollution and conserve natural resources.

Statement II: Recycling increases demands for raw resources.

• This statement is false. Recycling actually reduces the demand for raw resources.
• This is because recycled materials can be used to make new products, which reduces the need to extract new raw materials from the earth.

Therefore, Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.

Here are some additional details about recycling:

• Recycling is the process of converting waste materials into new materials and objects. It is an alternative to conventional waste disposal that can save material and help lower greenhouse gas emissions.
• Recycling can benefit your community and the environment. It can help to reduce pollution, conserve natural resources, and save energy.
• There are many different materials that can be recycled, including paper, plastic, metal, glass, and electronics.
• Recycling is easy to do. You can recycle at home, at work, or at many public locations.

Key Points

 The correct answer is 2) B and C only.

• If Statement B is true (No adults are far-sighted), then there are no adults with the characteristic of being far-sighted.
• This means that Statement C, which claims "All adults are far-sighted," cannot be true because it asserts that every adult possesses the characteristic of being far-sighted.
• Since Statement B denies the existence of any far-sighted adults, Statement C must be false.
• If Statement C is true (All adults are far-sighted), then it means every single adult has the characteristic of being far-sighted.
• In this case, Statement B, which claims "No adults are far-sighted," would be false, as it contradicts the idea that all adults are far-sighted

Key Points 

Ratio:

• In statistics, variables are classified into different levels of measurement.
• The ratio level of measurement is the highest level and possesses a true zero point.
• A true zero point means that the value of zero on this scale represents the absence or complete absence of the attribute being measured.
• Variables at the ratio level have meaningful and interpretable ratios between values.
• In addition to having a true zero point, ratio variables allow for all mathematical operations, including addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division.
• Examples of variables that fall into the ratio level of measurement include measurements of weight, height, time, distance, and income.
• A weight of zero, for example, represents the absence of weight, and a height of zero indicates the absence of height.
• On the other hand, variables at the nominal, ordinal, and interval levels of measurement do not have a true zero point.
• These levels have varying degrees of ordering and magnitude, but they lack the attribute of a true zero.

Therefore, the most appropriate answer is option 4) Ratio.

Key Points Advantages of open-ended questions in survey research include:

A. Respondents answer in their own words:

• Open-ended questions allow respondents to provide answers in their own words and express their thoughts and opinions freely.
• This can provide rich and detailed information that may not be captured by closed-ended questions with predefined response options.

C. They allow derivation of unusual answers:

• Open-ended questions enable respondents to provide unique or unconventional answers that may not be anticipated in closed-ended questions.
• This can lead to the discovery of new insights or perspectives that might not have been considered otherwise.

B. They can be done quickly by the interviewers.

• Option B is not correct because it states that open-ended questions can be done quickly by the interviewers.
• However, open-ended questions often require more time and effort for both respondents and interviewers, as they involve gathering and analyzing qualitative data.

Therefore, the most appropriate answer is option 3) A and C only.

Key Points pH:

• The pH scale is a logarithmic scale that measures the acidity or basicity of a solution.
• The scale ranges from 0 to 14, with 7 being neutral. A pH below 7 is acidic, while a pH above 7 is basic.
• The concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution is inversely proportional to its pH.
• This means that a solution with a pH of 0 has a very high concentration of hydrogen ions, while a solution with a pH of 14 has a very low concentration of hydrogen ions.

A. is a measure of acidity on water. 

• This is true, as pH is a measure of the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution.
• A lower pH means that there are more hydrogen ions present, which makes the solution more acidic.

B. is a measure of basicity in water. 

• This is also true, as pH is a logarithmic scale, so a pH of 8 is 10 times less acidic than a pH of 7, and 100 times less acidic than a pH of 6.

D. represents the concentration of hydrogen ion. 

• This is also true, as the pH scale is a measure of the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution.

Hence, the correct answer is 2) A, B and D only.

The correct answer is 5km.

Explanation:

As per the given information,

1) A student walks 1 km in the east direction.

2. Then turns to the south and walks 5 km.

3) Thereafter, he turns to east and walks 2 km.

4. Again, turns to north and walks for 9 km.

Using Pythagoras theorem, (AB)² = (3)² + (4)² = 9 + 16

→ (AB)2 = 25 → AB = √25 = 5

Hence, the correct answer is "5".

Key Points 

• The statement "All philosophers are non-conservatives" means that there are no philosophers who are also conservatives. This is equivalent to the statement "No philosophers are conservatives."
• The other statements are not equivalent to the original statement. Statement 1, "Some philosophers are not conservatives," is true, but it does not mean that all philosophers are non-conservatives.
• Statement 3, "Some philosophers are conservatives," is false, because the original statement says that there are no philosophers who are also conservatives.
• Statement 4, "All non-conservatives are philosophers," is also false, because there are people who are not conservatives who are not philosophers.

So the answer is 2) No philosophers are conservatives.

Key PointsAssertion A: In concentrating type solar collector temperature can be raised up to 500°C. 

• Assertion A is correct because concentrating-type solar collectors use mirrors to concentrate sunlight onto a small area, where it gets absorbed and converted into heat. This can raise the temperature of the absorber up to 500°C.

Reason R: In concentrating type solar collector, the magnitudes of the collector area and absorber area are numerically the same.

• Reason R is not correct. The magnitude of the collector area and the absorber area are not numerically the same in a concentrating-type solar collector.
• The collector area is typically much larger than the absorber area, as the mirrors or lenses need to collect sunlight from a wide area and focus it onto a small absorber.

Therefore, A is correct but R is not correct.

The correct answer is Metacommunication.

Explanation:

Key Points

Metacommunication:

• Metacommunication is communication about communication.
• It is the process of talking about how we are communicating, or about the meaning of our communication.
• Metacommunication can be used to clarify what we mean, to check for understanding, or to negotiate the rules of communication.
• For example, if we are having a conversation and we are not sure if the other person understands what we mean, we might say something like, "I'm not sure if you understand what I mean. Can you rephrase what I just said?" This is an example of metacommunication.
• Metacommunication is an important part of effective communication.
• It allows us to make sure that we are understanding each other, and that we are communicating in a way that is clear and effective.

The correct answer is 45 years

Explanation:

Key Points

Calculation:

5 years ago the average age of the four-person is 45 year, at present average age of four people = (45 + 5) = 50 yr

Total present age of the four people = (50 × 4) = 200 yr

Total present age of the five people = (49 × 5) = 245 yr

So, age of E = (245 - 200) = 45 yr

∴ The correct answer is 45 years

The correct answer is A, B and C only

Explanation:

Key Points 

Scientific research is data-driven, replicable, verifiable, and objective.

• Data-driven:
• ​ Scientific research is based on data. This means that scientists collect data through experiments, observations, and surveys. The data is then analyzed to test hypotheses and to make conclusions.
• Replicable:
• Scientific research is replicable. This means that other scientists should be able to repeat the experiments and observations and get the same results. This is important because it ensures that the results of scientific research are reliable.
• Verifiable:
• Scientific research is verifiable. This means that the results of scientific research can be checked and confirmed by other scientists. This is important because it ensures that the results of scientific research are accurate.
• Objective: 
• Scientific research is objective. This means that it is not influenced by personal opinions or beliefs. Scientists try to remain objective in their research by using impartial methods and by avoiding bias.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1) A, B, C only.

Key Points Statement I: The www is the largest computer network in the world, with millions of computers connected to each other.

• Statement I is correct because the World Wide Web (WWW) is a global network of interconnected computer networks that use the Internet protocol suite (TCP/IP) to link billions of devices worldwide.

Statement II: Web pages are stored on web servers, which are always connected to the Internet so that people can view their pages 24 hours a day.

• Statement II is  incorrect: "Web pages are stored on web servers, which are always connected to the Internet so that people can view their pages 24 hours a day." This statement is false. While web pages are indeed stored on web servers, it is not necessary for web servers to be connected to the Internet 24/7 for people to view their pages. Web servers can be set up to be accessible online during specific hours or periods of the day, depending on the server's configuration and the website owner's preferences.
• Additionally, some websites may use content delivery networks (CDNs) to cache and distribute their content to improve performance and availability, but even in such cases, the web servers themselves may not be online all the time.

Additional Information

• The WWW is the largest computer network in the world, and it is made up of millions of web servers that are connected to each other.
• When you visit a web page, your computer sends a request to the web server that hosts the page. The web server then sends the page back to your computer, and you can view it.
• The WWW is a vast and complex network, but it is essential for communication and information sharing in the modern world.
• It is used for everything from browsing news articles to shopping online to watching videos.

Therefore, the correct answer is Statement I is true and Statement II is false.

Key Points Here is a table of the most common internet services and their corresponding protocols:

HTTP is used to transfer hypertext documents over the internet. It is the protocol that is used to power the World Wide Web.

SMTP is used to send email messages over the internet. It is the protocol that is used by email clients like Outlook and Gmail to send and receive email messages.

FTP is used to transfer files over the internet. It is a more basic protocol than HTTP, and it is often used to transfer large files or files that are not meant to be viewed in a web browser.

POP3 and IMAP are both protocols that are used to receive email messages over the internet.

• POP3 is a simpler protocol, and it is often used with email clients that are stored locally on a computer.
• IMAP is a more complex protocol, but it allows users to access their email messages from multiple devices.

Therefore, the only pair that is correctly matched is E - mail - SMTP.

The correct answer is "Only A, C and D"

Key Points 

• A. India objects to the EU carbon tax as it may impact its economic development by targeting carbon-intensive goods exported to the EU, including aluminium, steel, cement, fertilizers, and electricity.
• C. Rich nations have not fulfilled their promise to raise $100 billion for climate funding to assist developing countries in transitioning to low-carbon pathways, indicating a lack of adequate financial support.
• D. The passage highlights that rich countries of the global north bear historical responsibility for global warming, yet they impose emission standards on emerging economies, violating the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities.

Hence, the correct option is "option 3"$

The correct answer is "A, B and C only"

Key Points 

• Let's considera ll the options one by one:
• A. Rich countries of the global north have achieved a high standard of living through centuries of polluting industries.
• B. Rich countries now wish to hamper the development of the emerging economies.
• C. Rich countries violate the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities of international climate action.
• D, "Rich countries are not imposing European emission standards on emerging economies," is not correct.
• The passage actually states the opposite: the EU's imposition of a carbon border tax is seen as imposing European emission standards on emerging economies.

Hence, the correct option is "option 4"

The correct answer is "A, B and C only"

Key Points 

• A. Withdraw free carbon allowances for its most polluting industries:
• The passage mentions that the European bloc has ambitious climate targets, and one of those targets is to withdraw free carbon allowances for its most polluting industries. By doing so, the EU aims to put stricter regulations on industries that emit significant greenhouse gases, encouraging them to reduce their carbon emissions and adopt cleaner practices.
• B. Reduce emissions:
• The passage indicates that the European bloc aims to reduce greenhouse gases by 55% in the next decade to combat global warming. It plans to achieve this by implementing measures like the carbon border adjustment mechanism (carbon border tax) to discourage carbon-intensive imports and potentially decrease associated emissions.
• C. Prevent carbon leakage:
• Carbon leakage refers to high-carbon industries relocating to countries with weaker emissions regulations to evade carbon pricing or climate policies.
• The EU targets imports of carbon-intensive goods to avoid disadvantaging its industries against countries with looser emission standards, effectively countering the transfer of carbon-intensive production and aiding in the fight against global warming.

Hence, the correct option is "option 4"

The correct answer is "Statement I is true but Statement II is false. "

Key Points 

• The statements are as follows:
• Statement I: Correct
• The passage mentions that the European bloc is targeting imports of carbon-intensive goods from emerging economies and imposing European emission standards on them.
• Statement II: Incorrect
• The passage states that rich nations have done little to mobilize the targeted $100 billion for climate funding to help developing nations transition to low-carbon pathways. This means that they have not been adequately supporting developing nations in their efforts to move towards low-carbon pathways.

Hence, the correct option is "option 3"$

The correct answer is "From 2026"

Key Points 

• After reading the passage, you will find that
• The passage states that the European Union's carbon border adjustment mechanism is proposed to come into effect from 2026.(1^st sentence of the passage)

Hence, the correct option is "option 4"

The correct answer is B, D and E only

Explanation:

Key Points Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs):

• CFCs (Chlorofluorocarbons) are important greenhouse gases, and the most appropriate answer is B, D, and E only. Let's go through each statement:
• B. Vaporize just below room temperature: 
• Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are known for their low boiling points, which means they vaporize easily at temperatures just below room temperature. This property made them convenient for various industrial applications.
• D. CFCs are very stable:
• ​This statement is also true. CFCs are highly stable compounds, meaning they are resistant to chemical reactions and breakdown. This stability contributes to their persistence in the atmosphere, which can have detrimental effects.
• E. CFCs destroy ozone:
• This statement is true as well. CFCs are known for their destructive impact on the ozone layer.
• When released into the atmosphere, CFCs can undergo photodissociation in the stratosphere, leading to the release of chlorine atoms.
• These chlorine atoms then participate in chemical reactions that deplete ozone molecules, resulting in the thinning of the ozone layer.

Therefore, the most appropriate answer is B, D, and E only, as these statements accurately reflect the characteristics and impacts of CFCs.

The correct answer is Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Explanation:

Key Points 

Statement I: According to Vygotsky, learning occurs through social interaction and collaboration.

• This statement is correct.
• Lev Vygotsky, a renowned psychologist, emphasized the role of social interaction and collaboration in learning and cognitive development.
• He proposed that individuals learn and acquire knowledge through interactions with more knowledgeable others, such as parents, teachers, and peers.

Statement II: According to Vygotsky, scaffolding involves providing the student with all of the answers and solutions to a problem.

• This statement is incorrect.
• Vygotsky's concept of scaffolding refers to providing temporary support to learners by offering guidance, assistance, and resources to help them accomplish tasks or solve problems.
• The scaffolding process involves adjusting the level of support based on the learner's abilities, gradually transferring responsibility to the learner as they become more competent.

Therefore, option 3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect is the most appropriate answer.

Key Points According to the UGC Regulation 2018 on plagiarism, a similarity of 14% would correspond to Level 1 of plagiarism.

• The UGC Regulation 2018 on plagiarism defines four levels of plagiarism:
• Level 0: Similarities up to 10% - Minor similarities, no penalty.
• Level 1: Similarities above 10% to 40% - Shall be asked to withdraw the manuscript.
• Level 2: Similarities above 40% to 60% - Shall be asked to withdraw the manuscript and denied a right to one annual increment.
• Level 3: Similarities above 60% - Registration for that programme shall be cancelled.

Therefore, a similarity of 14% would correspond to Level 1 of plagiarism, which means that the student would be asked to withdraw the manuscript.

Key Points

Here is the matching of List I with List II:

The correct answer is 2) A-IV, B - III, C - II, D - I.

Here is a brief explanation of each online tool and its function:

• Edpuzzle:
• Edpuzzle is an online tool that allows teachers to create interactive videos. Teachers can add questions, quizzes, and other activities to their videos to make them more engaging for students.
• Mindmeister:
• ​MindMeister is an online mind-mapping tool. Mind maps are a visual way to organize information. MindMeister allows users to create mind maps, share them with others, and collaborate on them.
• Google Docs:
• ​ Google Docs is a word-processing tool. Google Docs allows users to create, edit, and collaborate on documents online.
• Mentimeter:
• ​Mentimeter is an online polling and feedback tool. Mentimeter allows users to create polls, quizzes, and other interactive activities to get feedback from their audience.

Key Points 

• The famous royal physician Jivaka, who cured King Bimbisara, studied at the ancient place of higher learning called Takshashila.
• Takshashila was a renowned center of education and learning located in present-day Pakistan, near the city of Taxila.
• Takshashila was known for its excellence in various fields, including medicine, mathematics, astronomy, philosophy, and other disciplines.
• It attracted scholars and students from different parts of the world, and Jivaka was among the notable individuals who received education and training at this ancient institution.
• Jivaka's knowledge and skills as a physician were highly regarded, and his successful treatment of King Bimbisara contributed to his reputation as a renowned royal physician.
• Takshashila played a significant role in shaping the intellectual and educational landscape of ancient India and produced many eminent scholars and practitioners in various fields.

Key Points 

Statement I: The Buddhists argue that reality should be understood as a linguistic construct.

• Statement I is true.
• Buddhists, particularly those influenced by the philosophy of Nagarjuna, argue that reality is ultimately empty of inherent existence and should be understood as a linguistic or conceptual construct.
• According to their perspective, language and concepts play a crucial role in shaping our understanding of reality.

Statement II: In today's context, we can say that reality is a media construct.

• Statement II is true.
• Statement II states that in today's context, reality can be considered a media construct. This implies that modern media, such as television, internet, social media, and other forms of communication, play a significant role in shaping and influencing how we perceive reality.

Therefore, option 1) is the correct answer.

The correct answer is B, C, D only

Explanation:

Key Points

 Major criticisms of mass media:

• The major criticisms of mass media as a cultural industry are that its products are standardized, devoid of aesthetic merit, and do uniform mass production.
• These criticisms are often based on the Frankfurt School's theory of the culture industry, which argues that the mass media is a tool of capitalist domination that serves to manipulate and control the masses.
• The criticisms of mass media as a cultural industry are not universally accepted.
• Some people argue that the mass media can be a force for good, providing people with information and entertainment that can enrich their lives.
• However, the criticisms of mass media are important to consider, as they raise questions about the role of the mass media in society and the impact of its products on our culture.

The following are the reasons why the criticisms of mass media as a cultural industry are valid:

• Standardization: 
• ​Mass media products are often standardized in order to appeal to the widest possible audience.
• This can lead to a loss of creativity and originality, as well as a sense of sameness in the products that are produced.
• Absence of aesthetic merit: 
• ​Mass media products are often criticized for being devoid of aesthetic merit.
• This means that they are not considered to be works of art or to have any lasting value.
• Uniform mass production: 
• Mass media products are often produced in a uniform way, using the same formulas and techniques.
• This can lead to a sense of monotony and predictability in the products that are produced.
• These criticisms are important to consider, as they raise questions about the role of the mass media in society and the impact of its products on our culture.
• The mass media can be a powerful force for good or evil, and it is important to be aware of its potential impact.

Hence, the correct answer is 2) B, C, D only.

The correct answer is 4) A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I.

Explanation:

Key Points 

• A. Numerical ID of 32-bit or 128-bit device on the internet is an IP address.
• B. Unique ID for a network interface card (NIC) is a MAC address.
• C. An arrangement whereby a user remotely accesses software, hardware, or other resources via a browser is cloud computing.
• D. The process of running multiple machines on one physical server is virtualization.

So the matching would be:

Key Points

 SUMIFS formula:

• The SUMIFS formula is used to calculate the total amount of cells that meet multiple criteria.
• In this case, we want to calculate the total amount of cells that are for adult customers who have not paid the discounted price.

The formula can be understood as follows:

• SUMIFS - A function that calculates the total amount of cells that meet multiple criteria.
• D2:D101 - The range in which we want to calculate the total amount.
• B2:B101 - The range that includes the customer category.
• "=Adult" - The condition that we want to apply to the customer category.
• C2:C101 - The range that includes the payment category.
• "=1" - The condition that we want to apply to the payment category.

As a result, the formula SUMIFS(D2:D101, B2:B101, "=Adult", C2:C101, "=1") will calculate the total amount paid by adult customers who have not paid the discounted price.

The correct answer is 4) =SUMIFS(D2:D101, B2:B101, "=Adult", C2:C101, "=1").

Key Points 

The correct answer is  D only.

If the statement "Some trucks are polluting vehicles" is given as true, the following statement could be immediately inferred to be false:

D. No trucks are polluting vehicles

Explanation:

If it is true that "Some trucks are polluting vehicles," then there must be at least one truck that is a polluting vehicle. This directly contradicts statement D, which asserts that "No trucks are polluting vehicles." Since we know that at least some trucks are polluting vehicles, it means that none of the trucks being polluting vehicles (as claimed in statement D) is false.

Statements A, B, and C are not necessarily false based on the given true statement. Let's analyze them:

A. All trucks are polluting vehicles: This statement could still be true if all the trucks in question are polluting vehicles, as the presence of "some" does not rule out the possibility of "all."

B. Some trucks are non-polluting vehicles: This statement can be true simultaneously with the given true statement, as there can be some trucks that are polluting vehicles and some that are non-polluting vehicles.

C. Some trucks are not polluting vehicles: This statement can also be true in conjunction with the given true statement, as it is possible to have both polluting and non-polluting trucks coexisting.

Thus, the correct answer is D. No trucks are polluting vehicles, which could be immediately inferred to be false.

The correct answer is A,B,C,D and E

Explanation:

Key PointsVolatile Organic Compounds (VOCs): 

• Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are organic chemicals that have high vapor pressure at room temperature.
• They can easily evaporate into the air and contribute to air pollution and the formation of ground-level ozone.
• The  sources of VOCs, are:
• A. Vehicles:
• ​ Vehicles, such as cars, trucks, and motorcycles, are a significant source of VOC emissions. These emissions come from the combustion of fossil fuels in vehicle engines and the evaporation of fuel and exhaust components.
• B. Plants:
• Plants release natural VOCs as part of their metabolic processes. These VOC emissions can be released through various mechanisms, such as leaves, flowers, and fruits. Plants emit VOCs for various purposes, including communication with other plants, attracting pollinators, and defense mechanisms.
• C. Termites:
• Termites produce VOCs as part of their natural activities. These emissions occur during digestion, decomposition of wood and other organic materials, and nest building. The VOCs released by termites can contribute to the overall VOC levels in the environment.
• D. Power Plants:
• ​ Power plants, especially those using fossil fuels like coal or natural gas, can emit VOCs during the combustion process. These emissions can occur from incomplete combustion, fuel handling, and storage.
• E. Bogs:
• Bogs, which are wetland areas characterized by acidic and waterlogged conditions, can emit VOCs. The decomposition of organic matter in bogs produces gases, including VOCs, as byproducts.
• All the options listed in the answer (A, B, C, D, and E) are valid sources of Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs).
• These sources contribute to the presence of VOCs in the atmosphere, which can have environmental and health implications.

Calculation:

 X can complete \(\frac{1}{3}\) unit of a job in 5 days, then, 1 unit of the job can do in 5 × 3 = 15 days

Y can complete \(\frac{2}{5}\) unit of the job in 10 days, then, 1 unit of the job can do in 10 × 5/2 = 25 days

Now, X & Y together can complete the job in \(\frac{15\times 25}{15 + 25}\) = 375/40 = \(9\frac{3}{8}\) days

∴ The correct answer is \(9\frac{3}{8}\) days

The correct answer is C, D and E only

Explanation:

Key PointsPortfolio assessment: 

• Portfolio assessment is a type of assessment that involves collecting a variety of student work over time.
• This work can include essays, projects, presentations, and reflections.
• The portfolio is then used to assess the student's progress and to identify their strengths and weaknesses.
• Portfolio assessment is often used in conjunction with other assessment methods, such as tests and quizzes.
• This allows teachers to get a more comprehensive picture of the student's learning.

The key features of portfolio assessment include:

• Engaging students in assessing their own progress: 
• Portfolio assessment gives students the opportunity to reflect on their learning and to set their own goals. This helps students to become more self-directed learners.
• Providing opportunities for reflection:
• ​ Portfolio assessment also gives students the opportunity to reflect on their feelings about learning. This can help students to understand their own learning process and to identify areas where they need to improve.
• Linking assessment and teaching to learning: 
• Portfolio assessment should be used to inform teaching and learning. This means that the teacher should use the portfolio to identify areas where the student needs more support and to plan accordingly.

Therefore, the features listed in options C, D, and E are all essential components of portfolio assessment.

• Option A is incorrect because portfolio assessment should not prohibit collaboration between teachers and students.
• Option B is incorrect because portfolio assessment should not only address the student's achievements.

The correct answer is Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Explanation:

Key Points Statement I: The idea of abolition of regulatory bodies of education like UGC, AICIE and NCTE is based on the assumption that such multiple bodies are redundant.

• This statement is true. Statement I suggests that the idea of abolishing regulatory bodies in education, such as the University Grants Commission (UGC), the All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE), and the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE), is based on the assumption that having multiple regulatory bodies is redundant.
• This viewpoint may arise from the desire to streamline the regulatory process and reduce bureaucracy in the education sector.

Statement II: The Bar Council of India has opposed the idea of the abolition of regulatory bodies as it would affect its role as the apex regulatory body of legal professionals in India.

• This statement is true. The Bar Council of India is the apex regulatory body of legal professionals in India.
• It has opposed the idea of abolition of regulatory bodies because it believes that this would weaken its role and make it more difficult to regulate the legal profession.

Therefore, Statement I is true, and Statement II is true.

Key Points

• The Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61) emphasized the development of technical education in India.
• The following were some of the initiatives taken during this plan:
• Establishment of IIT at Madras: The Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Madras was established in 1959 as part of the Second Five Year Plan.
• Schemes for improvement of existing technical institutions: The plan also included schemes for the improvement of existing technical institutions, such as the Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs), the National Institutes of Technology (NITs), and the Regional Engineering Colleges (RECs).
• Stipend-based training programme for outstanding students: The plan also included a stipend-based training programme for outstanding students at select technical institutions in the country.
• Plan to establish a central institute for printing technology: The plan also included a plan to establish a central institute for printing technology.
• The Second Five-Year Plan was a major step forward in the development of technical education in India.
• The initiatives taken during this plan helped to lay the foundation for the future growth of technical education in the country.

The correct answer is 4) B, C, D, E only.

The correct asnwer is Appeal of Ignorance

Explanation:

Key Points

Appeal to Ignorance: 

• This fallacy is committed when someone argues that something is true because it has not been proven false.
• In the above statement, the person is arguing that Mars was created by aliens because no one has shown that it was not created by aliens.
• However, the absence of evidence is not evidence of absence. Just because something has not been proven false does not mean that it is true.

Additional Information

• Red Herring: This fallacy is committed when someone introduces an irrelevant topic into an argument in order to distract from the main issue.
• Hasty Generalisation: This fallacy is committed when someone makes a general conclusion based on a small sample size.
• Begging the Question: This fallacy is committed when someone assumes the truth of their conclusion in the premises of their argument.

The fallacy involved in the above statement is Appeal to Ignorance

The correct answer is B, D, A, C

Explanation:

Key Points 

Here is the paragraph about internet security with the words in the correct order:

Hacking is illegal access to a computer system.

Viruses are programs that self-replicate and are designed to disrupt computer systems.

Phishing is where a user is sent legitimate looking emails; as soon as the email is opened and the recipient clicks on the embedded link, they are sent to a fake website.

Spyware is software that monitors key presses on a user's keyboard, and relays the information back to the person who sent the software.

Here is an explanation of each term:

• Hacking: Hacking is the unauthorized access to a computer system or network. Hackers can use this access to steal data, install malware, or disrupt operations.
• Viruses: Viruses are malicious software programs that can replicate themselves and spread from one computer to another. Viruses can cause a variety of problems, including data loss, system crashes, and even hardware damage.
• Phishing: Phishing is a type of social engineering attack where attackers send emails that appear to be from legitimate sources in order to trick victims into revealing personal information, such as passwords or credit card numbers.
• Spyware: Spyware is a type of malware that is designed to track a user's online activity. Spyware can be used to collect personal information, such as browsing history, passwords, and credit card numbers.

Key Points Statement I: Online surveys are very useful because internet users always constitute an unbiased sample of the population.

• This statement is incorrect because internet users do not always constitute an unbiased sample of the population.
• For example, internet users are more likely to be younger, more educated, and have higher incomes than the general population.
• This means that the results of an online survey may not be representative of the entire population.

Statement II: A convenience sample is one that is simply available to the researcher by virtue of its accessibility.

• This statement is correct. A convenience sample is a type of non-probability sample in which the researcher selects participants who are easy to reach or convenient to access.
• This type of sample is often used because it is easy and inexpensive to collect data from.
• However, convenience samples are often biased because they do not represent the entire population.

Therefore, Statement I is incorrect, and Statement II is correct.