UGC NET Paper 1: Held On 15th June 2023 Shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

the correct answer is "Some saints are materialists" which could be inferred to be true based on the given statement.

Important Points

The given statement is "All saints and materialists."

• In logic, when we have a statement of the form "All A are B," it implies that every element of A is also an element of B.
• In other words, it means that there is no element in A that is not in B.

So, in this case, "All saints and materialists"

• implies that every saint is a materialist and every materialist is a saint.
• This indicates that there are no saints who are not materialists and no materialists who are not saints.

Now let's consider the options:

"No saints are materialists."

• This statement contradicts the original statement.
• If no saint is a materialist, it means there are saints who are not materialists, which goes against the given information.

"Some saints are materialists."

• This statement is consistent with the original statement.
• Since all saints are materialists according to the original statement. it allows for the possibility that some saints are indeed materialists.
• So, option 2 could be inferred to be true.

"Some saints are not materialists."

• This statement contradicts the original statement.
• If some saints are not materialists, it means there are saints who are not part of the group of materialists, which goes against the given information.

"Some materialists are not saints."

• This statement contradicts the original statement.
• If some materialists are not saints, it means there are materialists who are not part of the group of saints, which goes against the given information.

Therefore, based on the given statement, we can infer that option 2) "Some saints are materialists" could be true.

Additional Information

The correct answer is option 2) A, B, and C only.

Important Points Mind mapping

Mind mapping is a technique that visually represents ideas, concepts, and connections in a hierarchical and organized manner. It helps in brainstorming, organizing thoughts, and making connections between different concepts. The ICT (Information and Communication Technology) tools associated with mind mapping include:

• Mindmeister: Mindmeister is a popular online mind-mapping tool that allows users to create, share, and collaborate on mind maps.
• X-mind: X-mind is a software tool for creating mind maps. It provides various features and templates to create visually appealing mind maps.
• C-map: C-map (Concept Map) is a software tool used for creating concept maps, which are similar to mind maps but focus more on showing relationships between concepts and ideas.

 Screen casto-matic: Screen casto-matic is a screen recording tool and is not directly associated with mind mapping.

Adobe Photoshop: Adobe Photoshop is an image editing software and is not specifically designed for mind mapping.

Therefore, options A, B, and C (Mindmeister, X-mind, and C-map) are the ICT tools associated with mind mapping.

Additional Information

‘Mind mapping’ refers to a technique to increase understanding:

• It involves putting brainstormed ideas in the form of a visual map or picture that shows the relationships among these ideas.
• One starts with a central idea or topic, then draws branches of the main topic which represent different parts or aspects of the main topic.

the correct answer is A and D only.

Important Points 

Statement A: Some saints are materialists.

Statement B: All saints are materialists.

Statement C: No saints are materialists.

Statement D: Some saints are not materialists.

First, let's consider statements A and B:

• If statement A is true, it implies that there are saints who are materialists.
• If statement B is true, it implies that every single saint is a materialist.

Since statement A allows for the possibility of some saints being materialists (without requiring all saints to be materialists), it is not contradictory to statement B.

Therefore, statements A and B can both be true.

Next, let's consider statements C and D:

• If statement C is true, it means there are no saints who are materialists.
• If statement D is true, it means there are saints who are not materialists.

If statement C is true, it contradicts statement D because statement D implies the existence of saints who are not materialists. Therefore, statements C and D cannot both be true.

• Based on this analysis, we can conclude that
• statements A (Some saints are materialists) and
• B (All saints are materialists) can both be true,
• while statements C (No saints are materialists) and D (Some saints are not materialists) cannot both be true.

Thus, the correct answer is option 2) A ad D only.

 Additional Information

The correct answer is  GSM - Global System for Management.

 Key Points

The expansion for the acronym GSM is Global System for Mobile Communications, not Global System for Management.

GPS - Global Positioning System:

• The expansion for GPS is Global Positioning System.
• GPS is a satellite-based navigation system that provides location and time information anywhere on Earth.
• GPS is commonly used in navigation devices, smartphones, and various applications for activities like driving directions, outdoor exploration, and tracking.

GSM - Global System for Mobile Communications:

• The expansion for GSM is Global System for Mobile Communications.
• GSM is a standard for digital cellular communication that facilitates voice and data services over a cellular network.
• It is the most widely used technology for mobile communication globally. GSM enables services like voice calls, SMS (Short Message Service), MMS (Multimedia Messaging Service), and data services on mobile devices.

SIM - Subscriber Identity Module:

• The expansion for SIM is Subscriber Identity Module.
• A SIM card is a small removable smart card used in mobile devices to identify and authenticate the subscriber on a cellular network.

WiMAX - Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access:

• WiMAX stands for Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access.
• It is a wireless communication standard that provides high-speed broadband access over long distances.
• They provide wireless internet connectivity to homes, businesses, and public areas.

Therefore, option 2) GSM - Global System for Management is incorrectly matched.

The correct answer is the Internal validity rule.

Important Points

When concluding that a given variable has a causal relation with a second variable, the principle of causation involved is the internal validity rule.

• Internal validity refers to the degree to which a study or experiment accurately demonstrates a causal relationship between variables, ruling out other possible causal factors.
• To establish internal validity, researchers need to ensure that the observed relationship between the variables is not due to confounding factors or alternative explanations.
• They must control for other possible causal variables and establish a clear cause-and-effect relationship between the variables of interest.

Causal ambiguity rule:

• This is not a recognized principle in the context of establishing causation.
• Causal ambiguity refers to situations where it is difficult to determine the exact cause of an observed effect.

Temporal precedence rule:

• Temporal precedence is an important aspect of causality, stating that the cause must precede the effect in time.
• However, it does not address ruling out other possible causal variables, which is the focus of the question.

 Covariance rule:

• The covariance rule states that there should be a statistically significant association between the cause and effect variables.
• While this is an important criterion for establishing causality, it does not address ruling out other possible causal variables.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4) Internal validity rule, as it directly addresses the need to rule out other possible causal variables when establishing a causal relationship between variables.

The correct answer is Kigali Amendment.

Important Points

The latest amendment to the Montreal Protocol is known as the Kigali Amendment.

• It was adopted in 2016 during a meeting held in Kigali, Rwanda.
• The Kigali Amendment aims to address the phase-out of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), which are potent greenhouse gases used primarily in cooling and refrigeration systems.
• The amendment sets out a timeline and targets for reducing the production and consumption of HFCs globally.
• It includes a gradual phasedown schedule for developed and developing countries, with the goal of achieving significant reductions in HFC emissions by the year 2050.

other options do not exist as an amendment

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1) Kigali Amendment.

The correct answer is option  B, D, and E only.

Key Points 

Here are the distinguishable features of the Buddhist concept of communication

 Process-oriented:

• The Buddhist concept of communication is process-oriented, focusing on the quality and effectiveness of communication rather than just the transmission of information.
• It emphasizes mindful and compassionate communication, fostering understanding, and promoting harmony.

 Creation of meaning:

• The Buddhist concept of communication goes beyond transmitting information.
• It emphasizes the creation of shared meaning and understanding through deep listening, contemplation, and thoughtful responses.

 Behavior-centered:

• Buddhism places importance on ethical conduct and skillful communication.
• It encourages individuals to communicate with mindfulness, kindness, and compassion, making behavior a central aspect of communication.
• Unidirectional: This is not a characteristic of the Buddhist concept of communication. Buddhism emphasizes active listening, dialogue, and the exchange of ideas, rather than one-way communication.
• Competitiveness: Competitiveness is not a distinguishable feature of the Buddhist concept of communication. Buddhism promotes non-competition, cooperation, empathy, and non-aggression.

Based on the above analysis, option 4) B, D, and E only includes the features that accurately represent the Buddhist concept of communication: being process-oriented, involving the creation of meaning, and being behavior-centered.

The correct answer is option 4) Appeal to the Majority.

Important Points 

The informal fallacy committed in the given statement is an "Appeal to Majority."

• This fallacy occurs when someone assumes that a proposition must be true or valid simply because a majority of people believe or say it is true.

In the statement, the person claims that the XYZ political party is going to sweep the polls in the upcoming elections because "everybody is saying so."

• This implies that the popularity or consensus among people automatically makes it true or guarantees the party's success.

However, the truth or validity of a claim should not solely rely on the number of people who hold a certain belief or opinion.

• It is possible for a majority to be mistaken or misled.
• Therefore, using "everybody is saying so" as the basis for the prediction without providing substantive evidence or logical reasoning commits the fallacy of Appeal to the Majority.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4) Appeal to  Majority.

Additional Information 

Appeal to Emotion:

Appeal to Emotion is an informal fallacy where someone manipulates emotions, rather than using logical reasoning, to persuade or support a claim.

 Begging the Question:

Begging the Question is an informal fallacy in which the conclusion of an argument is assumed or presupposed in one of the premises.

 Slippery Slope:

A slippery Slope is an informal fallacy that assumes a minor action will inevitably lead to major and often exaggerated consequences, without sufficient evidence to support this

The correct answer is Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Important Points

Statement I: Content analysis is an approach to the analysis of documents and texts that seeks to analyze them in qualitative terms.

• This statement is false
• Content analysis is a flexible method used for analyzing text data in both qualitative and quantitative ways.
• Content analysis is often used to quantify patterns in text, making it a quantitative research technique.
• It involves systematically categorizing text into various themes or categories and counting the frequency of different categories.
• This can provide insights into trends, patterns, and relationships within the data, and it enables researchers to quantify and analyze the presence, meanings, and relationships of words, themes, or concepts within the data.

Statement II: Content analysis is a very transparent research method.

• This statement is true.
• While content analysis is a valuable research method, it does  necessarily imply transparency on its own.
• The transparency of a research method depends on how it is conducted, the clarity of its procedures, and the reporting of findings.
• Content analysis, like any research method, can vary in terms of transparency depending on how it is applied and reported.

The correct answer based on the given statements is Statement I is true but Statement II is false

 Important PointsStatement I: The words - communication, community, and communion are etymologically related.

• This statement is true**. Etymology** refers to the study of the origin and historical development of words.
• In this case, the words "communication," "community," and "communion" do share a common etymological root.
• They all derive from the Latin word "communis," which means "common" or "shared."
• The connection between these words highlights the idea of sharing, interaction, and connection among individuals or groups.

Statement II: As human society developed, more and more simple systems of communication emerged.

• The statement is false because, as human society developed, communication systems didn't necessarily become more simple; rather, they evolved to be more complex and nuanced.
• With the advent of written language, communication took on new dimensions of complexity, enabling the transmission of detailed and intricate information across time and space.
• As societies became more complex, so did their systems of communication, reflecting the increasing need to convey more nuanced and specialized information.

As per the given information,

A girl walks 12 kms south from her house.

2. Then turns left and walks 26 kms.

3. Again, turns left and walks 37 kms.

4. Again, she turns right and walks 6 kms to reach her office.

Here, we can see that the Office is in the North-East direction from the house.

Hence, the correct answer is "North-East".

The correct answer is  Stratosphere.

Important Points

• The ozone layer, which acts as a protective shield against harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun, is situated in the stratosphere.
• Stratosphere
• It is the second layer of the atmosphere found above the troposphere.
• It extends up to 50 km in height.
• This layer is very dry as it contains little water vapor.
• This layer provides some advantages for flight because it is above stormy weather and has steady, strong, horizontal winds.
• The ozone layer is found in this layer.
• The ozone layer absorbs UV rays and safeguards the earth from harmful radiation.
• Stratopause separates Stratosphere and Mesosphere.

Therefore, the ozone layer is primarily situated in the stratosphere, making option 2) the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Mesosphere
• It is the coldest of the atmospheric layers.
• The mesosphere starts at 50 km above the surface of the Earth and goes up to 85 km.
• The temperature drops with altitude in this layer.
• By 80 km it reaches -100 degrees Celsius.
• Meteors burn up in this layer.
• Mesopause separates the Mesosphere and Thermosphere.
• The mesopause is the boundary between the mesosphere and the thermosphere, the two outermost layers of Earth's atmosphere. It is located at an altitude of about 80 to 90 kilometers (50 to 56 miles) above the Earth's surface.
• Thermosphere
• This layer is found above Mesopause from 80 to 400 km.
• Radio waves that are transmitted from the earth are reflected by this layer.
• The temperature increases with height.
• Satellites occur in this layer.
• Exosphere
• It is the outermost layer of the atmosphere.
• The zone where molecules and atoms escape into space is mentioned as the exosphere.
• It extends from the top of the thermosphere up to 10,000 km.

The fallacy committed in the statement "All things are visible because they are knowable" according to the Classical Indian School of Logic (Nyaya) is Anupasamhāri.

Key Points

• The statement "All things are visible because they are knowable" commits the fallacy of Anupasamhāri according to Nyaya, the Classical Indian School of Logic.
• Anupasamhāri refers to a logical fallacy where one incorrectly assumes that what is true for a certain part is also true for the whole or vice versa. In this case, the statement assumes that just because something can be known, it must also be visible. However, this is not necessarily true.
• For example, we can know about concepts like gravity or love, but these things are not physically visible. Similarly, some things are invisible, like certain gases, yet they are knowable through their effects or properties.
• Therefore, the statement is fallacious because it erroneously generalizes the relationship between visibility and knowability.

Additional Information Sādhārana:

• Sādhārana refers to the fallacy of reckoning something as universal that is only particular.
• It assumes that a characteristic or property is present in all instances when it is limited to a specific subset.
• However, this fallacy does not apply to the given statement.

Asādhārana

• Asādhārana, meaning "rare" or "unusual," is a fallacy that occurs when the middle term is too narrow and is not found in all cases of the probandum. In other words, the middle term is a property that is not always present in the probandum.
• For example, the statement "Sound is eternal, because it is audible" commits the fallacy of Asādhārana. The middle term, "audible," is too narrow because there are some sounds that are not audible, such as the sound of a tree falling in the forest when no one is around to hear it.

Viruddha:

• Viruddha refers to the fallacy of contradiction.
• It occurs when two statements or claims cannot both be true at the same time.
• However, this fallacy does not apply to the given statement.

The correct answer is 1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Key Points

Statement I: (11001000)2 = (C8)16 = (200)10

• (11001000)₂: This is the number in binary (base-2) system.

Each digit represents a power of 2. 1 * 2^7 + 0 * 2^6 + 0 * 2^5 + 1 * 2^4 + 0 * 2^3 + 0 * 2^2 + 1 * 2^1 + 0 * 2^0 = 200.

(C8)₁₆: This is the number in hexadecimal (base-16) system. Digits 0-9 and letters A-F are used to represent values 0-15. C = 12 * 16^1 + 8 * 16^0 = 200.

(200)₁₀: This is the number in the standard decimal (base-10) system.

All three representations refer to the same quantity - 200.

Statement II: (123)10 = (01111011)2 = (7B)16

• (123)10: This is a decimal number.
• (01111011)2: This is the binary representation of 123. Each digit represents a power of 2 as in statement

I. From right to left, the digits are 2^0, 2^1, 2^2, 2^3, 2^4, 2^5, and 2^6. So, the decimal value of this number is 2^6 + 2^5 + 2^4 + 2^3 + 2^1 + 2^0 = 64 + 32 + 16 + 8 + 2 + 1 = 123.

• (7B)16: This is the correct hexadecimal representation of 123. In hexadecimal, each digit represents a power of 16. From right to left, the digits are 16^1 and 16^0. So, the decimal value of this number is 16^1 + 16^0 = 16 + 0 = 16. However, this is not equivalent to 123. There seems to be an error in the given format for this hexadecimal number.
• Corrected Statement II: (123)10 = (01111011)2 = **(7B)**16

With the corrected hexadecimal format for 123, Statement II also becomes true.

Therefore, Statement I and Statement II are true, making option 1) the correct answer.

The correct answer based on the given options is A, B, C, D, and E.

Important Points 

Humanistic approaches to learning emphasize the individual's unique needs, motivations, and personal growth. They focus on creating a supportive and engaging learning environment that fosters curiosity, self-motivation, and the learner's active involvement. Based on the options provided:

It emphasizes self-motivation for better learning.

• This option aligns with the humanistic approach as it recognizes the importance of self-motivation in the learning process.
• Humanistic approaches believe that learners are more engaged and motivated when they have a sense of autonomy and control over their learning.

 Its emphasis is on learning at a higher level.

• While this option does not explicitly align with the humanistic approach, it is not necessarily in conflict with it.
• Humanistic approaches can encompass learning at various levels, including higher-level thinking and understanding.
• Therefore, this option can be considered part of the humanistic approach.

 It fosters curiosity.

• Fostering curiosity is a key aspect of humanistic approaches to learning.
• Humanistic educators believe that learners should be encouraged to explore and follow their curiosity, as it leads to deeper understanding and engagement with the subject matter.

 It increases the learner's reactivity.

• This option is less specific and not directly related to humanistic approaches to learning.
• Reactivity can have various interpretations and may not align with the central principles of humanistic learning.
• Therefore, this option may not be considered a defining characteristic of the humanistic approach.

 It believes that learning becomes effective when it is need-based.

• This option aligns with the humanistic approach.
• Humanistic approaches recognize that learners have unique needs and interests.
• By tailoring learning experiences to these individual needs, humanistic approaches believe that learning becomes more effective and meaningful.

Based on the explanations above, the most appropriate answer is option 3) A, B, C, D, and E.

The correct answer based on the given statements is Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

 Important Points

Statement I: The curriculum at Taxila was varied and included technical sciences.

• This statement is correct.
• Taxila was an ancient center of learning in ancient India and was known for its comprehensive and diverse curriculum.
• The curriculum at Taxila included a wide range of subjects, including technical sciences, mathematics, philosophy, medicine, literature, and more.

Statement II: The curriculum of Nalanda excluded technical sciences.

• This statement is correct.
• Nalanda was another renowned ancient center of learning in India.
• Its curriculum was not limited to excluding technical sciences. Nalanda University offered a broad and extensive curriculum that encompassed various fields of study, including
• mathematics, astronomy, logic, philosophy, medicine, and more.
• The curriculum at Nalanda was known for its inclusivity and depth of knowledge.

Additional InformationNalanda:

• Nalanda was a renowned Buddhist university located in present-day Bihar, India.
• It flourished during the Gupta Empire from the 5^th to the 12^th century CE.
• Nalanda was a significant hub of learning and attracted scholars and students from all over the world, including India, China, Tibet, Korea, and Central Asia.

Taxila:

• Taxila was an ancient center of learning located in present-day Pakistan, near the city of Islamabad.
• It was a renowned educational and cultural hub during the ancient period, dating back to at least the 5^th century BCE.
• Taxila was an important center for the study of various disciplines, including philosophy, mathematics, medicine, astronomy, linguistics, and military science.

The correct answer based on the given statements is  A, B, and C only.

 Important Points

To determine the logical equivalence between the statements, we need to analyze the relationship between the terms used in each statement.

A. All saints are materialists.

B. No saints are non-materialists.

C. All non-materialists are non-saints.

D. No materialists are saints.

• By examining the statements, we can see that statements A and B are logically equivalent. Both statements convey the same information, stating that saints and non-materialists are mutually exclusive groups.
• Similarly, statements B and C are also logically equivalent. Both statements express the relationship between non-materialists and non-saints, indicating that they are in the same group.

However, statement D does not represent the same relationship as statements A, B, and C. Statement D indicates that there is no overlap between materialists and saints, which is different from the mutual exclusivity conveyed in the other statements.

Therefore, statements A, B, and C are logically equivalent, making option 4) the most appropriate answer.

Calculation:

According to the question,

(Nx + 18) = (N + 1) × (x + 2)

⇒ Nx + 18 = Nx + 2N + x + 2

⇒ 2N + x = 16

⇒ (N + x)+ N = 16   … (i)

Again, (Nx + 18 + 8) = (N + 2) × (x + 2)

⇒ Nx + 26 = Nx + 2N + 2x + 4

⇒ 2N + 2x = 22

⇒ N + x = 11, put the value in equation (i) we get,

11 + N = 16

⇒ N = 5 now put the value in equation (i), we get x = 6

∴ The correct answer is 5, 6

The most appropriate answer based on the given statements is option 1) A and B only.

Important PointsLaser printers are a type of printer that uses a laser beam and a combination of toner and a photosensitive drum to create printed output. They are known for their high-quality and fast printing capabilities. It uses a rotating drum to transfer the image to the paper.

• Laser printers use a rotating drum, typically known as a photoreceptor drum, to transfer the image or text onto the paper.
• The drum is coated with a photosensitive material that is charged and then selectively discharged by a laser to create the image.

 It uses powdered toner.

• Laser printers utilize powdered toner, which is a fine plastic powder that contains the pigments used for printing.
• The toner is attracted to the charged areas on the drum and then transferred onto the paper to create the printed image.

It uses nozzles to spray droplets onto the paper.

• This statement is not accurate for laser printers.
• Nozzles spraying droplets onto paper is a characteristic of inkjet printers, not laser printers. Laser printers do not spray droplets; they use a dry toner powder.

 It uses a print head mechanism that moves from side to side.

• This statement is not true for laser printers.
• The print head mechanism that moves side to side is commonly seen in inkjet printers.
• In laser printers, the drum and toner combination performs the printing process without the need for a print head moving side to side.

Based on the explanations above, the most appropriate answer is option 1) A and B only.

The correct answer based on the given statements is option 1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Important PointsStatement I: Chlorine is one of the most commonly used and inexpensive chemical disinfectants for water.

• Chlorine is indeed one of the most commonly used chemical disinfectants for water treatment.
• It is widely used to disinfect and purify drinking water, swimming pools, and wastewater.
• Chlorine effectively kills or inactivates many types of harmful microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, and protozoa.
• Furthermore, it is relatively inexpensive and readily available, making it a popular choice for water disinfection.

Statement II: Optimum Fluoride levels in drinking water help prevent cavities in children.

• Fluoride, when present at optimum levels in drinking water, has been proven to help prevent cavities in children.
• Fluoride strengthens tooth enamel and makes it more resistant to decay. It can also reverse early-stage tooth decay.
• The addition of fluoride to public water supplies, known as water fluoridation, has been widely adopted as a public health measure to improve dental health and prevent dental cavities, particularly in children.

Therefore, based on the given statements, both Statement I and Statement II are correct, making Option 1) the most appropriate answer

The most appropriate answer based on the given options is  A and D only.

Important Points  Scaffolding refers to the support or assistance provided to learners to help them accomplish a task or solve a problem. It involves providing guidance and structure to facilitate learning and promote independent thinking. 

Asking leading questions to guide the student's thinking.

• This option represents an example of scaffolding.
• Asking leading questions helps guide students' thinking and prompts them to explore the problem further.
• It provides support while encouraging learners to think critically and develop their own understanding.

 Providing hints and clues to solve a problem.

• This option represents an example of scaffolding.
• Providing hints and clues helps learners gradually build their understanding and problem-solving skills.
• It offers support while allowing them to actively engage in the problem-solving process and develop their own solutions.

. Allowing the students to figure out the problem on their own.

• This option does not represent an example of scaffolding.
• Allowing students to figure out the problem on their own without any guidance or support is more aligned with a constructivist approach, where learners actively construct their knowledge.

 Providing the students with all the answers and solutions to a problem.

• This option does not represent an example of scaffolding.
• Providing students with all the answers and solutions does not offer support or promote independent thinking.

Based on the explanations above, the most appropriate answer is option 2) A and D only.

The correct answer is Nitrogenous Biochemical Oxygen Demand.

 Important PointsNBOD stands for Nitrogenous Biochemical Oxygen Demand.

• It is a term used in environmental science and wastewater treatment to measure the oxygen requirement for the biological oxidation of nitrogenous organic compounds in water.
• Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a measure of the amount of dissolved oxygen consumed by microorganisms during the breakdown of organic matter in water.
• NBOD specifically refers to the portion of BOD that is attributed to the oxidation of nitrogen-containing organic compounds, such as ammonia, urea, and organic nitrogen compounds.
• The presence of nitrogenous compounds in water bodies can lead to increased oxygen demand during the decomposition process by microorganisms.
• Monitoring NBOD helps assess the potential impact of nitrogen pollution on water quality and the oxygen levels available for aquatic life.

Therefore, the full form of NBOD is Nitrogenous Biochemical Oxygen Demand, making it the correct answer.

The pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is "5160".

The correct answer is - Hindu College, Kolkata.

Key Points

• Hindu College, Kolkata
• Raja Ram Mohan Roy was instrumental in the establishment of Hindu College (now Presidency University) in Kolkata in 1817.
• The college was one of the first institutions in India to impart Western education and was founded in collaboration with David Hare and Radhakanta Deb.
• It played a crucial role in the Bengal Renaissance and modern education in India.

Additional Information

• Agra College, Agra
• Agra College was established in 1823 by Pandit Gangadhar Shastri, a noted Sanskrit scholar and astrologer, and not by Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
• Banaras Sanskrit College, Banaras
• The Banaras Sanskrit College (now Sampurnanand Sanskrit University) was established in 1791 by Jonathan Duncan, a British administrator, and not by Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
• Serampore College, Serampore
• Serampore College was established in 1818 by the missionaries William Carey, Joshua Marshman, and William Ward, known as the Serampore Trio.
• Raja Ram Mohan Roy was not involved in its establishment.

The correct answer based on the given options is option 4) A, And B.

Important PointsClosed-ended questions in survey research refer to questions that provide pre-determined response options for respondents to choose from. While closed-ended questions have their advantages, they also have certain disadvantages.

 It is difficult to make forced-choice answers exhaustive.

• When using closed-ended questions, it can be challenging to include all possible response options, especially when the topic or range of answers is extensive.
• This can lead to limitations in capturing the full range of respondents' opinions or experiences.

 There is a loss of spontaneity in respondents' answers.

• Closed-ended questions restrict respondents to predetermined response options, limiting their ability to provide nuanced or detailed answers.
• This can result in a loss of spontaneity and may not capture the full richness of respondents' perspectives.

Additional Information

 They are time-consuming for interviewers to administer.

• Closed-ended questions, particularly when administered in an interview format, can be time-consuming for interviewers.
• The interviewer needs to read out the response options and record the respondent's choice, which can be more time-consuming compared to open-ended questions that allow respondents to freely express their thoughts.

Based on the explanations above, the correct answer is A, B.

Concept used:

On article-based questions, if cost article(CA) < selling article(SA) then there is loss,

Loss % = (SA - CA)/SA × 100

Calculation:

According to the concept, here CA = 25 < SA = 30 so there is loss

Loss% = (30 - 25)/30 × 100 = 100/6 = \(16\frac{2}{3}\)%​​​

∴ The correct answer is \(16\frac{2}{3}\)% loss​​​​

The correct answer is  Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Key Points 

Statement I states that the study of the mass communication process is characterized by a macroscopic view of messages.

• This means that the study of mass communication focuses on examining messages at a broader, overall level, considering factors such as the sender, receiver, channel, and the impact of media on society. This statement is true.

Statement II states that Semiology seeks a microscopic view of deconstructing messages.

• Semiology, also known as semiotics, is the study of signs and symbols and their interpretation.
• It aims to analyze and understand the underlying meanings and structures within messages.
• By deconstructing messages into their constituent elements, Semiology provides a detailed, microscopic view of the communication process. This statement is also true.

Both statements describe different approaches to studying messages in the context of communication. Statement I emphasizes the macroscopic view, looking at the overall communication process, while Statement II highlights the microscopic view, focusing on deconstructing messages through Semiology.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

The correct answer is Visual paradigms.

Key Points 

In the context of films, paradigms refer to the fundamental concepts, frameworks, or approaches that guide the creation, interpretation, and analysis of films.

• In films, a close-up is a camera shot that focuses closely on a specific subject, typically an actor's face or a particular object.
• It allows the audience to see details and expressions with greater clarity.
• Close-ups are an essential visual technique in filmmaking to convey emotions, emphasize specific elements, or create an intimate connection between the viewer and the subject.

The term "visual paradigms" refers to the use of visual techniques and elements in film to convey meaning, evoke emotions, or create a particular aesthetic.

Close-ups are a part of these visual paradigms, as they are specific camera shots used to convey visual information and enhance visual storytelling in films.

Therefore, the correct answer is Visual paradigms.

The correct answer is the Box plot.

Key Points 

A box plot, also known as a box-and-whisker plot, is a graphical representation of statistical data that displays the median, quartiles, and outliers of a dataset.

• It provides a visual representation of the central tendency and spread of the data.
• The median value represents the middle value of a dataset when it is arranged in ascending or descending order.
• In a box plot, the median is depicted by a horizontal line within a box that represents the interquartile range (IQR).
• The IQR encompasses the middle 50% of the data, with the median dividing the dataset into two equal halves.

On the other hand, the other options are not specifically designed to represent the median value in the data:

Therefore, the most suitable diagram for depicting the median value in the data is option 2) Box plot.

Additional Information

Bar chart: A bar chart is used to compare categories or groups by displaying rectangular bars of varying lengths. It is not specifically designed to represent the median value.

Pie chart: A pie chart is used to represent the proportion or percentage of different categories in a whole. It does not directly represent the median value of the data.

Scatter plot: A scatter plot is used to display the relationship between two variables. It uses points or markers to represent individual data points, but it does not directly represent the median value.

Therefore, the most suitable diagram for depicting the median value in the data is option 2) Box plot.

The logic followed here is:

Logic → (-1) has been done to get the corresponding letter.

Let's check as per the logic,

KANPUR: JZMOTQ

Similarly, 

MUMBAI: ?

Hence, the correct answer is "LTLAZH".

Calculation:

The number of children attending school from village V1 = 0.15 × 3600 = 540

Total number of children from V1 = 0.16 × 5800 = 928

Required percentage = \(\dfrac{540}{928} \) × 100 = 58.19% ≈ 58%

∴ The number of children attending school from village V1 is approximately 58 % of the total number of children from that village.

Given:

Total Number of children = 5800

Number of children attending school = 3600

Concept used:

Average = Sum of observation / Number of observations

Calculation:

V2: Number of children = 24% of 5800 = (0.24) × 5800 = 1392

Number of children attending school = 28% of 3600 = (0.28) × 3600 = 1008

Number of children who do not attend school from V2 = 1392 - 1008 = 384

V3: Number of children = 11% of 5800 = (0.11) × 5800 = 638

Number of children attending school = 14% of 3600 = (0.14) × 3600 = 504

Number of children who do not attend school from V3 = 638 - 504 = 134

V5: Number of children = 31% of 5800 = (0.31) × 5800 = 1798

Number of children attending school = 22% of 3600 = (0.22) × 3600 = 792

Number of children who do not attend school from V5 = 1798 - 792 = 1006

Total number of children who do not attend school = 384 + 134 + 1006 = 1524

Average number of children who do not attend school = 1524 ÷ 3 = 508

∴ The average number of children who do not attend school from villages V2, V3, and V5 together is 508.

Calculation:

Total number of children from village V4 = 0.18 ×  5800 = 1044

The number of children attending school from village V4 = 0.21 ×  3600 = 756

Required Ratio = 1044 : 756 = 29 : 21

∴ The ratio of the total number of children from village V4 to the number of children attending school from the same village is 29 : 21

Calculation:

The total number of children from the village V4 and V5 = 5800 × (0.18 + 0.31) = 2842 

Total number of children who do not attend school from V4 & V5 = 2842 - 3600 × (0.21 + 0.22) = 1294

Difference = 2842 - 1294 = 1548

Required Percentage = \(\dfrac{1548}{1294} \) × 100 = 119.63%

∴ The total number of children from the village V4 and V5 together is approximately 120% more than the total number of children who do not attend school from the same two villages.

Given:

Total Number of children = 5800

Number of children attending school = 3600

Calculation:

V2: Number of children = 24% of 5800 = (0.24) × 5800 = 1392

Number of children attending school = 28% of 3600 = (0.28) × 3600 = 1008

Number of children who do not attend school from V2 = 1392 - 1008 = 384

V3: Number of children = 11% of 5800 = (0.11) × 5800 = 638

Number of children attending school = 14% of 3600 = (0.14) × 3600 = 504

Number of children who do not attend school from V3 = 638 - 504 = 134

Total number of children who do not attend school = 384 + 134 = 518

∴ The total number of children who do not attend school from the village V2 and V3 together is 518.

the correct answer is Aryabhatt

Important Points

• The Channel-08- Swayam Prabha DTH will broadcast high-quality, visually, and graphically enriched content of physical and earth sciences to the undergraduate and postgraduate students of India.
• The physical sciences include mathematics, statistics, physics, and chemistry while the earth sciences shall focus on geography and geology.

Key Points

SWAYAM PRABHA:

• The SWAYAM PRABHA is a group of 40 DTH channels devoted to telecasting high-quality educational programs on a 24X7 basis using the GSAT-15 satellite.
• Every day, there will be new content for at least (4) hours which would be repeated 5 more times a day, allowing the students to choose the time of their convenience.
• The channels are uplinked from BISAG-N, Gandhinagar.
• The contents are provided by NPTEL, IITs, UGC, CEC, IGNOU, NCERT, and NIOS.
• The INFLIBNET Centre maintains the web portal.​

Additional Information

• Channel 03: PRABODH covers Social Science -1, Social & Behavioral Sciences
• Channel 04: SAARASWAT covers Social Science - 2, Education, Psychology, Home Science and related subjects
• Channel 05: PRABANDHAN covers Social Science - 3, Management, Library Science, Information Science and related subjects
• Channel 06: VIDHIK covers Social Science - 4, Law, Legal Studies, Human Rights and related subjects

The correct option from the given list identifies how audiences of digital media are affected by Fragmentation.

Key Points 

Digital media refers to any type of media content that is stored and transmitted in digital format. It encompasses various forms of communication and entertainment that utilize digital technologies, such as computers, smartphones, tablets, and the Internet. Digital media can include text, images, audio, video, and interactive elements.

Limited geographical area:

• With digital media, the audience is not limited to a specific geographical area.
• The internet allows people from all over the world to access digital content, so the geographical area is not a significant limitation for the audience.

Fragmentation:

• This option is correct. Digital media has led to fragmentation in audience behavior and preferences.
• With the vast array of digital platforms, channels, and content available, audiences have more choices and options than ever before.
• This has resulted in a fragmented audience where people consume media in diverse ways, follow different sources, and engage with specific niches or communities.
• This fragmentation poses challenges for content creators and marketers who need to tailor their messages to reach and engage with specific segments of the audience.

Passive messages:

• This option is not directly related to the impact on the audience of digital media. However, it is worth noting that digital media can offer both passive and interactive experiences.

Identity crisis:

• This option is not directly related to the impact on the audience of digital media.
• However, it is worth mentioning that digital media can influence the formation and expression of personal identity, as individuals can curate their online personas and engage with communities that align with their interests and values.

In conclusion, the correct is Fragmentation as digital media has led to a fragmented audience with diverse preferences and consumption patterns.

The correct answer is 'Disruptive'.

Key Points

• Let's refer to the given line from the passage:
• "But climate change will be disruptive in many ways to a civilization whose planetary home is already under stress from the demands of billions of human beings."
• In conclusion, the passage suggests that climate change will have significant and disruptive, although not apocalyptic, impacts on human society
• Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

The correct answer is 'Disparately​.'

Key Points

• Let us explore 1^st sentence in the second paragraph:
• "The physical impacts of climate change won't be evenly distributed around the globe.​"
• ​This sentence suggests that the physical effects of climate change will not be distributed evenly across the globe.
• The meaning of the word "disparately" is in very different ways.
• Thus, climate change will impact the world disparately.
• Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

The correct answer is 'C and E only.'

Key Points

• Let us explore 2^nd sentence in the second paragraph:
• "Low-lying coastal regions', for example, will suffer more from sea-level rise; continental interiors will see more drought; and high latitudes will warm disproportionately.​"
• ​This sentence suggests that low-lying coastal regions, for example, will be disproportionately affected by sea-level rise.
• So, the statement (A) and (D) is correct.
• Let's have a look at the 6^th sentence of the second paragraph:
• *"*Wealthy countries can build protective seawalls to ward off the rising oceans....​"
• This sentence suggests that agricultural production will be affected.
• So, the statement (B) is correct.
• Let's have a look at the 5^th sentence of the second paragraph:
• "That's because wealthier countries are better able to adapt to and counter deleterious effects."
• ​This sentence suggests that wealthier(developed) countries are better able to adapt to and mitigate negative consequences.
• So, statements (C) and (E) are incorrect.
• Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

The correct answer is 'Both Statement I and Statement II are correct​.'

Key Points

• Let's have a look at the 5^th sentence of the second paragraph:
• "That's because wealthier countries are better able to adapt to and counter deleterious effects."
• ​This sentence suggests that wealthier(developed) countries are better able to adapt to and mitigate negative consequences.
• Therefore, the developed world can cope better with climate change. So, the statement I is correct.
• Let's have a look at the last sentence of the last paragraph:
• "This conclusion should be especially troubling because anthropogenic climate change is almost 'entirely the result of fossil fuel consumption, deforestation, and other activities carried out by or for the benefit of the developed world.​"
• This sentence suggests that this finding should be especially alarming given that anthropogenic climate change is nearly solely the product of fossil fuel usage, deforestation, and other actions undertaken by or for the benefit of the developed world.
• So, the statement II is correct.
• Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

The correct answer is 'It will increase the gap.'

Key Points

• Let us explore 7^th sentence in the first paragraph:
• "We're forced to the unfortunate conclusion that climate change will exacerbate the gap between rich and poor nations, as those with the fewest resources will be the most vulnerable.​"
• ​This sentence suggests that we are forced to conclude that climate change will exacerbate the gap between rich and poor nations, as those with the fewest resources will be the most vulnerable.
• Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

The correct answer is option 2) A, B, and C only.

Key Points 

 RAM can be read from and written to:

• This statement is true.
• RAM is a type of memory that allows for both reading and writing of data.
• It is used by the computer's processor to temporarily store data and program instructions that are actively being used.

RAM is volatile memory:

• This statement is true.
• RAM is considered volatile memory, meaning that its contents are lost when the computer is powered off or restarted.
• This is in contrast to non-volatile memory, such as hard disk drives or solid-state drives, where data is retained even when the power is turned off.

 RAM is temporary storage:

• This statement is true.
• RAM is used as temporary storage for data and program instructions that are actively being accessed by the processor.
• It provides fast and temporary access to data, allowing for quick retrieval and processing.

Modern PCs typically have from 2TB up to 32TB of RAM:

• This statement is not accurate.
• While the amount of RAM in modern PCs can vary, it is highly unlikely for consumer-grade PCs to have terabytes (TB) of RAM.
• Typically, modern PCs have RAM capacities ranging from a few gigabytes (GB) to several hundred GB, depending on the intended use and specifications of the system.

Based on the above explanations, the correct answer is option 2) A, B, and C only.

The correct option from the given list that represents an innovative approach to evaluation systems is Peer Evaluation.

Key Points 

Peer Evaluation:

• This option is correct.
• Peer evaluation involves students assessing and providing feedback on the performance of their peers.
• It encourages students to actively participate in the evaluation process and promotes self-assessment, reflection, and collaboration.
• Peer evaluation is considered an innovative approach as it emphasizes student involvement, self-regulation, and the development of critical thinking and communication skills.

​In conclusion, the correct is Peer Evaluation, as it represents an innovative approach to evaluation systems that encourages student involvement, self-assessment, and collaboration.

Additional Information

Norm-referenced testing:

• Norm-referenced testing is a traditional approach to evaluation that compares an individual's performance to that of a norm group.
• It assesses how well an individual performs in relation to others. While norm-referenced testing has been widely used, it is not considered an innovative approach to evaluation systems.

Standardized testing:

• Standardized testing involves administering the same test to all individuals to assess their performance against a predetermined set of standards.
• While standardized testing is widely used in many educational systems, it is not considered an innovative approach to evaluation systems.

Traditional grading:

• Traditional grading refers to the conventional system of assigning numerical or letter grades to students based on their performance on tests, assignments, and other assessments.
• While it is a common practice, it is not necessarily an innovative approach to evaluation systems.

The correct answer based on the given options is A, C, D, and E only.

Important Points

Soot particles, also known as black carbon, are a type of particulate matter that is produced from the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels, biomass, and other organic materials. 

 Soot particles are also called black carbon.

• Soot particles are often referred to as black carbon due to their dark color and carbonaceous composition.

Soot particles are toxic.

• Soot particles can contain various toxic components, such as polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs) and other harmful chemicals.
• Exposure to soot particles, especially through inhalation, can have adverse health effects.

 Soot particles contribute to global warming.

• Soot particles, particularly black carbon, have a warming effect on the climate.
• When deposited on snow and ice surfaces, they reduce their reflectivity and accelerate melting.
• Additionally, when suspended in the atmosphere, soot particles can absorb solar radiation and contribute to the greenhouse effect.

 Soot particles can penetrate into deeper parts of the lungs.

• Due to their small size, fine soot particles can penetrate deep into the respiratory system when inhaled.
• This can lead to respiratory issues and potentially cause or worsen lung diseases.

 Soot particles are mostly of coarse size range.

• This statement is not accurate.
• Soot particles can vary in size, including both fine and coarse particles.
• While some soot particles may be coarse, they can also exist in fine size ranges.

Based on the explanations above, the correct answer is option 3) A, C, D, and E only.

The correct answer is C, D, E only only.

Key Points 

The Commission was appointed to review the progress of public instruction in India and to consider the extension of that instruction "without prejudice to the promotion of higher education." Its report, submitted in 1883, provided the foundation for the expansion of public systems of education in India.

According to the commission's report:

C. There is also a need for local governments to extend the facilities of general education.

This observation highlights the importance of local governments in enhancing the availability and quality of education. It suggests that the responsibility for education should not solely rest on central or higher levels of government but also on local authorities to ensure that educational facilities are accessible and sufficient at the grassroots level.

D. It is important to fund each college depending upon staff strength, maintenance expenses, and locality requirements.

This observation emphasizes the need for equitable and adequate funding for colleges based on various factors such as the number of staff, maintenance costs, and specific requirements of the locality. It suggests that funding should be allocated in a manner that takes into account the unique needs and circumstances of each college to support its effective functioning.

E. Special grants should be made available to improve the infrastructure of colleges.

This observation underscores the necessity of providing additional financial assistance in the form of special grants specifically aimed at enhancing the infrastructure of colleges. It suggests that investments should be made to upgrade facilities and resources in colleges to create a conducive learning environment and improve the overall quality of education.

Additional Information  Education Commission (Pre-Independence) 1882-83,

• The Education Commission (Pre-Independence) 1882-83, also known as the Hunter Commission, was established to assess and improve the education system in colonial India. Here are the

key points:

• Objectives: The commission aimed to evaluate the state of education in India and provide recommendations for its improvement.
• Assessment: The commission examined existing educational institutions, policies, curricula, teaching methods, and infrastructure.
• Reforms: The commission proposed various reforms, including changes to the curriculum, examination systems, teacher training, and governance of educational institutions.

The correct answer is Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Key Points 

Assertion A states that it is expected that a meaningful partnership will be formed between the states and the Union Government in managing education.

• This statement is true as education is a subject that falls under the concurrent list as per the constitutional amendment of 1976.

Reason R states that education is a concurrent subject as per the constitutional amendment of 1976.

• This statement is also true.
• The 42^nd Amendment to the Indian Constitution in 1976 added education to the concurrent list, which means both the state and Union governments have the authority to legislate and manage education.

Reason R provides the correct explanation for assertion A. The constitutional amendment of 1976 made education a concurrent subject, which implies that a meaningful partnership is expected between the states and the Union Government in managing education.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

The correct answer based on the given statements is Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Important Points 

Statement I: A review of literature helps the researcher with the interpretation of his/her findings.

• This statement is true.
• Conducting a review of literature is an essential step in research, particularly in academic and scholarly contexts.
• A literature review involves examining existing studies, research papers, books, and other relevant sources to gain a comprehensive understanding of the research topic.
• By reviewing the existing literature, researchers can identify gaps in knowledge, understand previous findings and interpretations, and use this knowledge to inform their own research and interpret their own findings effectively.

Statement II: A review of the literature is not of any help in learning different theoretical and methodological approaches to your research area.

• This statement is false. The review of literature is indeed helpful in learning different theoretical and methodological approaches to a research area.
• By examining the existing literature, researchers can identify and understand the various theoretical frameworks, concepts, and methodologies that have been used in previous studies related to their research area.
• This knowledge can help researchers to select appropriate theoretical and methodological approaches for their own research and build upon or refine existing approaches.

Therefore, based on the explanations above, the correct answer is Statement I is true but Statement II is false

The correct answer based on the given MS-Excel formula is It adds data from all D18 cells in Sheet1, Sheet2, Sheet3, and Sheet4.

 Important Points

The formula "=SUM(Sheet1:Sheet4!D18)"

• indicates a summation operation using the SUM function in Excel.
• The range specified is from Sheet1 to Sheet4, and it references cell D18 in each of those sheets.
• When using a colon (:) between sheet references in Excel, it signifies a range of sheets.
• In this case, Sheet1:Sheet4 represents a range that includes Sheet1, Sheet2, Sheet3, and Sheet4.
• The cell reference "D18" indicates that the formula will add the values in cell D18 from each of the sheets included in the range.

Therefore, the formula will add the data from all D18 cells in Sheet1, Sheet2, Sheet3, and Sheet4, resulting in the answer

the correct answer is  A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I.

Key Points 

Based on the information provided, the correct match between List I (Authority/Viceroy) and List II (Commission Chairman) is as follows:

Lord Ripon - III. W. W. Hunter:

• Lord Ripon was the Viceroy of India from 1880 to 1884.
• He is known for his liberal policies and his support for education. In 1882, he appointed W. W. Hunter to chair a commission to inquire into the state of education in India.
• The Hunter Commission's report led to a number of important reforms, including the expansion of primary education and the introduction of free and compulsory education for girls.

Lord Curzon - IV. T. Raleigh:

• Lord Curzon was the Viceroy of India from 1899 to 1905.
• He is known for his administrative reforms and his promotion of Indian culture.
• In 1902, he appointed T. Raleigh to chair a commission to inquire into the administration of justice in India.
• The Raleigh Commission's report led to a number of reforms, including the establishment of a High Court in each province and the separation of the executive and judiciary.

William Bentinck - Thomas Babington Macaulay

• William Bentinck was the Governor-General of India from 1828 to 1835.
• He is known for his social and educational reforms. In 1835, he appointed Thomas Babington Macaulay to chair a committee to formulate a plan for the introduction of English education in India.
• The Macaulay Committee's report recommended that English be the medium of instruction in higher education and that government funds be used to promote English education.
• This recommendation led to the establishment of a number of English-medium schools in India.

Government of India - Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan

• Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan was a philosopher and educator who served as the President of India from 1962 to 1967.
• He is known for his contributions to Indian education.
• In 1953, the Government of India appointed him to chair the University Grants Commission, which is a statutory body under the Government of India responsible for the development, coordination, and promotion of higher education in India.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I.