UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 14th Mar 2023 Shift 2 (Previous Year Paper)

Formula used:

Simple interest(SI) = \(\dfrac{P × R × T}{100}\)

R = (S.I × 100)/T × P

Where,

P = Principal

R = Rate

T = Time

Calculation:

According to question,

P + S.I. for 5 years = 5200  ....(i)

P + SI for 7 years = 5680  ....(ii)

On subtracting equation (i) from (ii),

SI for 2 years = 480

SI for 1 year = ₹ 240

 From equation (i),

⇒ P + 5 × 240 = ₹5200

⇒ P = 5200 – 1200 = ₹ 4000

Now, 

R = ​(S.I × 100)/T × P

R = (240 × 100)/(1 × 4000) = 6%

∴ The rate of interest per annum is 6%.

Calculation:

Let the current ages of sisters A and B be 7x and 6x respectively, 

After 12 years, their ages will be (7x + 12) and (6x + 12)

respectively. 

According to the question,

(7x + 12)/(6x + 12) = 9/8

⇒ 8(7x + 12) = 9(6x + 12)

⇒ 56x + 96 = 54x + 108

⇒ 2x = 12

⇒ x = 6

A's current age is 7x = 42

B's current age is 6x = 36.

The difference between their ages is 42 - 36 = 6 years.

The given codes can be written as;

From the above figure, the codes for 'dark' and 'heavily' are 'ka' and 'ha'.

Hence, the correct answer is 'ka' & 'ha'.

Logic: Take the difference and then sum of last two difference will be added in the next term.

Hence, the missing term is "163".

Given:

Sale price : cost price = 5 :3

Formula used:

Profit = Sale price - Cost price

Calculations:

Let sale price be 5x, cost price = 3x

Profit = 5x - 3x = 2x

Ratio of profit to cost price = 2x : 3x

= 2 : 3

∴ The answer is 2 : 3.

The informal fallacy committed in the given statement is an appeal to authority.

Key Points

• Appeal to Inappropriate authority is an informal fallacy where an irrelevant or unqualified authority is cited to support a claim.
• The argument relies on the assumption that just because a famous person (Mr. Shantanu) recommends a particular toothpaste, it must be effective for boosting immunity.
• This is a fallacious argument because being famous does not necessarily make a person an expert in toothpaste or immune-boosting, and the argument fails to provide any scientific evidence or reasoning to support the claim.

Additional Information

• Appeal to Ignorance: Using lack of evidence as evidence for a claim.
• Red Herring: Introducing an irrelevant topic to divert attention from the original issue.
• Strawman: Misrepresenting someone's argument to make it easier to attack.

Key PointsIn the traditional square of opposition, there are four types of categorical propositions:

1. Universal affirmative (All S are P)
2. Universal negative (No S are P)
3. Particular affirmative (Some S are P)
4. Particular negative (Some S are not P)

The contrary pairs are those statements that have opposite truth values but have the same subject and predicate terms.

• In this case, statement A "All plants are oxygen producers" is the universal affirmative proposition and statement D "No plants are oxygen producers" is the universal negative proposition.
• These two statements are contrary to each other because if one of them is true, then the other must be false.

Key Points

• Statements A, B, and C are logically equivalent because they all express the same relationship between lions and herbivorous animals.
• They all indicate that there is no overlap between the sets of lions and herbivorous animals, i.e., there is no lion that is also a herbivorous animal, and there is no herbivorous animal that is also a lion.
• Statement D, "All non-herbivorous animals are non-lions." on the other hand, expresses a different relationship between non-herbivorous animals and non-lions.
• It indicates that the set of non-herbivorous animals includes all animals that are not herbivorous, and this set also includes all animals that are not lions.

So, while statement D is logically valid, it is not equivalent to statements A, B, or C.

In Anvayavyatireki inference as per Classical Indian School of Logic, the middle term is both positively and negatively related to the major term.

Key Points

• An Anvayavyatireki inference is a type of inference where the positive presence or absence of the middle term in a subject is taken as a sign of the positive presence or absence of the major term.
• Conversely, the negative presence or absence of the middle term in a subject is taken as a sign of the negative presence or absence of the major term.
• In other words, the middle term is related both positively and negatively to the major term in this type of inference.

Additional Information

• Kevalvyatireki inference: The middle term is negatively related to the major term.
• Kevalānvayi inference: The middle term is positively related to the major term.
• Satpratipakșa inference: The negative presence of the minor term in the subject is taken as a sign of the positive absence of the major term.

Key PointsIf the statement "No lions are herbivorous animals" is given as true, then the following statement can be immediately inferred to be true:

Some lions are not herbivorous animals.

• This inference can be made because the given statement denies the possibility of any lions being herbivorous animals.
• Therefore, at least some lions must be either carnivorous or omnivorous animals.
• This implies that the set of lions is partially overlapping with the set of non-herbivorous animals.
• Hence, the inference that "Some lions are not herbivorous animals" can be made.

Explanation: 

• The logic used here is the logic of Aristotelian syllogism, which is a type of deductive reasoning that involves drawing a conclusion based on two premises.
• The given statement "No lions are herbivorous animals" is a universal negative proposition, which means it denies the existence of any lions that are herbivorous.
• This proposition is of the form "All A are not B", where A represents the subject term (lions) and B represents the predicate term (herbivorous animals).
• From this proposition, we can infer the truth of the particular negative proposition "Some lions are not herbivorous animals".
• This proposition is of the form "Some A are not B", which means that there is at least one member of the subject term (lions) that does not belong to the predicate term (herbivorous animals).
• This inference is made by applying the rule of conversion by limitation, which states that a universal negative proposition can be converted to a particular negative proposition by dropping the universal quantifier and changing the predicate term to its complement.
• In this case, the complement of "herbivorous animals" is "non-herbivorous animals", which includes both carnivorous and omnivorous animals.

Key PointsStatement I: Chatbot is an example of Digital Intelligence.

• Digital Intelligence is a type of intelligence that is derived from digital data and algorithms, and enables machines to perform tasks that would otherwise require human intervention.
• Chatbots can be considered an example of digital intelligence, which is a type of intelligence that is derived from digital data and algorithms.

Statement I is true.

Statement II: Amazon's 'Alexa' and Apple's 'Siri' are examples of Artificial Intelligence.

• Artificial Intelligence is a branch of computer science that focuses on the development of machines that can perform tasks that typically require human intelligence, such as learning, problem-solving, and decision-making.
• Amazon's 'Alexa' and Apple's 'Siri' are examples of virtual assistants that use artificial intelligence (AI) technologies, such as natural language processing and machine learning, to understand and respond to user commands.

Statement II is also true.

Explanation:

• The formula = SUMIF(B2:B11, "<50", D2:D11) in cell D12 will add up the total marks for all the students whose (test marks-1) are less than 50.
• In the given worksheet, the (test marks -1) for the students with roll numbers 203, 204, 208, and 210 are less than 50, and their corresponding total marks are 70, 62, 57, and 65, respectively.

Therefore, the formula will evaluate to:

=SUMIF(B2:B11, "<50", D2:D11) = SUMIF(B2:B11, "<50", 70, 62, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 57, 0, 65) = 254

Dynamic RAM (DRAM) is a type of volatile memory that stores data using a capacitor, while Static RAM (SRAM) is a type of volatile memory that stores data using a flip-flop circuit.

Key PointsDynamic RAMs (DRAM) have advantages over Static RAMs (SRAM) in terms of cost, power consumption, and storage capacity.

• DRAM is less expensive to manufacture than SRAM, as it requires fewer components.
• DRAM also consumes less power than SRAM, as it only needs power to refresh the memory cells periodically.
• Additionally, DRAM has a higher storage capacity than SRAM, as it can store more bits of data per chip.
• However, SRAM is faster than DRAM when it comes to data access, as it does not require periodic refreshing like DRAM does.

The type of wired transmission medium that has a core of refined glass in computer networking is called optical fiber.

Key Points

• Optical fiber is a type of wired transmission medium used in computer networking to transmit information using light signals.
• The core of an optical fiber is made of highly refined glass or plastic that is designed to carry light over long distances with minimal signal loss.
• Due to its high bandwidth and low attenuation, optical fiber is widely used in high-speed internet connections, telecommunications, and other applications where fast and reliable data transfer is essential.

Additional Information

• Shielded twisted pair: A type of cable used for networking that consists of pairs of insulated wires wrapped in a conductive shield.
• Unshielded twisted pair: A type of cable used for networking that consists of pairs of insulated wires twisted together without a conductive shield.
• Coaxial cable: A type of cable used for networking that consists of a center conductor surrounded by a dielectric insulator, a conductive shield, and an outer jacket.

Key Points

• Binary addition is similar to decimal addition, except that the digits can only be 0 or 1.
• To add two binary numbers together, you start from the rightmost digit and add the two digits together.
• If the sum of two digits is 0 or 1, the result is the same as the sum.
• If the sum of two digits is 2, then the result is 0 and you carry-over a 1 to the next column.
• If the sum of two digits is 3, then the result is 1 and you carry-over a 1 to the next column.
• You repeat this process until you reach the leftmost digit.

0c1b1001d1a10c1b1001d1a1[Math Processing Error]0c1b1001d1a10c1b1001d1a10b01c11a10d1

    = \\(\begin{array}{llll} 0 & 1 & 0 & 1 \\ 0 & 1 & 1 & 0 \\ \hline 1 & 0 & 1 & 1 \end{array}\\)

Then (a, b, c, d) = 0, 1, 0, 1.

Wind energy is a renewable source of energy that converts the kinetic energy from wind into electrical power.

Key PointsStatement I: Wind energy has high energy density.

• Wind energy density refers to the amount of energy that can be produced per unit of volume or mass of wind. I
• Wind energy has a lower energy density compared to other sources of renewable energy, such as solar or hydroelectric power.
• Wind energy has a lower energy density as wind turbines capture only a small fraction of the wind's kinetic energy, while solar or hydroelectric power can generate more energy per unit area.
• This means that wind turbines require more space and larger installations to generate the same amount of energy as other renewable sources.

Statement I is incorrect.

Statement II: Wind energy is an intermittent source of energy.

• Wind energy is an intermittent source of energy, which means that its availability and production levels can vary based on the strength and consistency of the wind.
• This intermittency can make it challenging to rely on wind energy as a consistent and predictable source of power.

Statement II is correct.

The energy density of wind energy is not high, and wind energy is an intermittent source of energy. Therefore, Statement I is false, and Statement II is true.

The ozone layer is in the Earth's stratosphere, a region of the atmosphere that starts around 10 to 15 kilometers (6 to 9 miles) above the Earth's surface and extends up to about 50 kilometers (31 miles).

 Key Points

• The ozone layer plays a crucial role in protecting life on Earth by absorbing harmful ultraviolet radiation from the sun.
• The ozone layer is mainly composed of ozone (O3) molecules, which are formed when oxygen molecules (O2) in the atmosphere are exposed to ultraviolet radiation.
• The ozone layer is thickest near the equator and thinnest near the poles, and its thickness varies throughout the year due to seasonal changes and other factors.
• In recent decades, human activities have led to the depletion of the ozone layer, particularly in the polar regions, due to the release of substances such as chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and other ozone-depleting substances into the atmosphere.
• This has led to concerns about increased exposure to harmful UV radiation and its potential impacts on human health and the environment.

Additional InformationThe main function of each layer of the atmosphere is:

• Troposphere: Where weather occurs and where we live.
• Stratosphere: Contains the ozone layer that protects Earth from harmful UV radiation.
• Mesosphere: Where meteoroids burn up upon entering Earth's atmosphere.
• Thermosphere: Contains the ionosphere and is where auroras occur.
• Exosphere: Where Earth's atmosphere blends into space.

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

Key PointsStatement I: Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) were set to be achieved by 2030.

• Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) were a set of eight international development goals that were adopted by United Nations (UN) member countries in 2000.
• The goals were to be achieved by 2015 and included eradicating extreme poverty, promoting gender equality, and reducing child mortality rates.

Hence statement I is incorrect.

Statement II: Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were set to be achieved by 2015.

• Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are a set of 17 global goals that were adopted by UN member countries in 2015.
• The goals include ending poverty, ensuring access to education, promoting sustainable economic growth, and combating climate change.
• The SDGs are to be achieved by 2030.

Hence statement II is incorrect.

The International Solar Alliance (ISA) is an intergovernmental organization that was established in 2015 by India and France.

 Key Points

• The primary objective of the ISA is to promote the use of solar energy and to increase cooperation among countries in the development and deployment of solar energy technologies.
• The official languages of the ISA are English and French.
• This reflects the fact that the ISA was established through a partnership between India, where English is widely spoken, and France, where French is an official language.
• The use of both English and French helps to ensure that all member countries can participate fully in the activities of the ISA, regardless of their language background.
• Since Hindi is an official language of India, it is also an official language of the ISA.

Thus, official languages for International Solar Alliance are Hindi, English, and French.

Hence correct match is A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II.

Conventional learning, also known as traditional learning, is an approach to education that is based on passive learning.

 Key Points

• In conventional learning, the teacher is the primary source of knowledge, and the child listens to the teacher and follows their directions.
• The teacher is seen as the authority figure who imparts knowledge to the students, who are expected to absorb and memorize the information provided.
• Conventional learning is characterized by a rigid curriculum and a standardized teaching approach, where students are expected to learn the same material at the same pace.
• The emphasis is on rote memorization and the acquisition of knowledge, rather than critical thinking, creativity, or problem-solving skills.
• While conventional learning has been the dominant approach to education for many years, it has been criticized for its lack of engagement and its limited effectiveness in preparing students for the challenges of the modern world.

Additional InformationAlternative approaches to education, such as experiential learning, project-based learning, and student-centered learning, focus on active learning and aim to develop students' critical thinking, creativity, and problem-solving skills.

Statement I: It is said that in the early Vedic period, women had equal rights to get any type of education.

• In the early Vedic period, women had access to education and there were mentions of female sages and scholars in Vedic literature.
• Women were considered equal partners in the pursuit of knowledge, and they participated in Vedic discussions and debates.

Hence Statement I is true.

Statement II: In the last phase of Vedic period, as there were no separate gurukuls for girls of the age 12 years and above, they could not receive higher education.

• In the later Vedic period, women's access to education became restricted due to social norms and customs.
• While there were no separate gurukuls for girls, some girls did receive education at home or through private tutors.
• However, such education was limited to basic literacy skills and household chores, and higher education was reserved for boys.
• In summary, while women did have access to education in the early Vedic period, their access to education became restricted in the later Vedic period.

Thus, both statements are correct.

Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Key PointsStatement I: The Indian universities to reach global standards need sustained support for programmes in research and development.

• Sustained support for programs in research and development (R&D) is essential for Indian universities to reach global standards as it improves the quality of education and encourages innovation.
• R&D activities also contribute to the development of new knowledge and prepare students for the latest advancements in their respective fields.
• It suggests that sustained support for research and development programs is necessary to bring Indian universities to global standards, which is a widely accepted view.

Hence statement I is correct.

Statement II: The 'knowledge economy', as envisaged by the Knowledge Commission, does not need government involvement in higher education.

• The Knowledge Commission did emphasize the importance of private sector involvement in higher education to meet the demands of the knowledge economy.
• However, the commission also stressed the need for government intervention and funding to ensure equitable access to quality education, particularly for underprivileged sections of society.

Hence statement II is incorrect.

The Education Commission (1964-66) was a landmark commission in India that aimed to evaluate the education system and make recommendations for its improvement.

 Key Points

• One of the key recommendations made by the The Education Commission (1964-66)  was that no student should be allowed to specialize in teaching a subject unless they had studied it in their undergraduate degree (BA/B.Sc).
• This recommendation was based on the idea that a good teacher should have a deep understanding of the subject they are teaching and that this understanding can only be gained through in-depth study of the subject in their undergraduate years.

Here are some other key recommendations of the Education Commission (1964-66) in India:

• Expansion of higher education and establishment of more universities and colleges to increase access to education.
• Introduction of vocational education and training to prepare students for the workforce.
• Emphasis on scientific research and development to promote innovation and technological advancement.
• Promotion of adult education and distance education to provide education to learners who cannot attend traditional institutions.
• Improvement of teacher education and training to ensure high-quality teaching and learning.

Additional Information

• The Yashpal Committee: A committee formed in 2009 to recommend reforms in higher education in India, with a focus on curriculum development, pedagogy, and governance.
• The Knowledge Commission: A commission formed in 2005 to suggest policy measures for improving the knowledge sector in India, including education, research, and innovation.
• The N.R. Sarkar Committee: A committee formed in 1991 to review the functioning of the University Grants Commission (UGC) in India and recommend measures for improving the quality of higher education.

Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) took the strategy of adopting multi-media instructions through Gyan Vani and Gyan Darshan in its formative years.

 Key Points

• Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) is a central university based in New Delhi, India, that provides distance education to over 4 million students through various undergraduate, postgraduate, diploma, and certificate programs.
• Gyan Vani is a community radio station started by IGNOU in 2001 that broadcasts educational content through FM radio, while Gyan Darshan is a 24-hour educational TV channel launched by IGNOU in 2003.
• Both of these initiatives aimed to provide access to education to people who were unable to attend traditional universities and colleges due to various reasons.

Additional Information

• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Open University: A public university in Hyderabad, Telangana, that provides distance education to learners in various fields.
• Karnataka State Open University: A distance education university based in Mysore, Karnataka, that offers undergraduate, postgraduate, and diploma programs.
• Yashwant Rao Chavan Open University: A distance education university based in Nashik, Maharashtra, that offers courses in arts, commerce, science, and professional streams.

The correct answer is '25- 30 percent'. 

Key Points

• Let's refer to the following line  - 
• ''Yet, power generation currently is responsible for 25-30 percent of global GHG emissions.''
• ​Based on the above given point, we can conclude that according to current estimates, power generation accounts for 25-30 percent of the total GHG emissions on earth.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

The correct answer is 'Statement I is false but Statement II is true.' 

Key Points

• Let's refer to the following lines from the passage - 
• ''For more than nine decades scientists have tried to replicate the process that produces energy for the sun and stars - fusion.''
• ''The inherently unstable nature of renewables means that countries find it very difficult to jettison fossil-fuel energy sources.''
• ''Conventionally-produced nuclear energy-that uses fission technology-is relatively cleaner. ''
• ​Based on the given points, we can infer that the correct Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4. 

Additional Information

• Fission and Fusion are both nuclear reactions that produce energy, however, the processes are different.
• Fission refers to the 'splitting of an atom into two or more smaller ones' while fusion refers to the 'fusing of two or more smaller atoms into a larger one'.

The correct answer is 'more than 90 years'. 

Key Points

• Let's refer to the opening line of the passage - 
• ''For more than nine decades scientists have tried to replicate the process that produces energy for the sun and stars-fusion.''
• A decade refers to a 'period of ten years'.
• Based on the above given point, we can conclude that scientists have been trying to produce energy through fusion for more than 90 years.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

The correct answer is '(A) is correct but (R) is not correct'. 

Key Points

• Let's refer to the following lines from the passage - 
• ''Several countries are shifting to renewable energies to meet their international climate-related commitments.''
• ''The inherently unstable nature of renewables means that countries find it very difficult to jettison fossil-fuel energy sources''.
• Based on the above given points, we can conclude that the Assertion (A) statement is correct but the reason (R) stated (renewable resources of energy are stable) is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

The correct answer is '150'. 

Key Points

• Let's refer to the passage - 
• ''Their reactor produced about 1.5 times more energy than what was used in the process. ''
• ​Based on the above given line , we can infer that for every 100 units of energy consumed in the process of fusion, the National Ignition Facility in California was able to produce 150 units of energy.

​Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

A learner-centered approach places the learner at the center of the learning process, emphasizing active engagement and personalized learning.

Key Points

• Activity-based scaffolding is an approach to teaching that involves breaking down complex tasks into smaller, more manageable parts and providing support as needed to help students develop the skills they need to complete those tasks independently.
• Activity-based scaffolding is particularly effective for helping students develop complex skills and knowledge.

Thus, it is based on  is based on the learner-centered approach of Education.

Additional Information

• Lecturing-demonstration is a teaching method in which the teacher presents information to the students, often using visual aids or hands-on demonstrations.
• Joyful method is not a commonly used term in education, but it may refer to teaching methods that emphasize fun and engagement in the learning process.
• Inductive method is a teaching method that involves presenting specific examples and then drawing general conclusions based on those examples.

Quantitative research is a systematic empirical investigation of a phenomenon using statistical, mathematical, or computational methods to collect, analyze, and interpret numerical data.

Key Points

• In quantitative research, the function of measurement is to provide a basis for more precise estimation of the degree of relationship among or between concepts.
• It is done by assigning numerical values to the attributes or variables of interest, and using statistical techniques to analyze and interpret the data.
• This enables researchers to make more accurate and reliable inferences about the population from the sample data.

Additional Information

• Surveying involves collecting data through standardized questionnaires.
• Reviewing involves analyzing existing data and literature.
• Sampling involves selecting a representative subset of a population to gather data in quantitative research.

Postal questionnaire refers to a survey method where questionnaires are sent to respondents by mail for them to complete and return by mail.

 Key Points

• One major limitation of the postal questionnaire survey is that it tends to have a higher rate of non-response compared to other survey methods, as respondents may be less motivated to complete and return the survey due to the lack of personal interaction and immediate feedback.
• This can lead to a biased sample that may not accurately represent the population of interest, potentially affecting the validity and generalizability of the survey findings.

Additional InformationOther questionnaire methods include face-to-face interviews, telephone surveys, and online surveys, which may differ in terms of cost, speed, and level of interaction with the respondents.

Photo-elicitation is a qualitative research technique that involves using photographs or other visual media as a way to elicit and explore people's experiences, meanings, and attitudes.

Key Points

• In visual ethnography, photo-elicitation is often used to supplement other data collection methods, such as participant observation and interviews.
• It can help researchers to gain a deeper understanding of the cultural and social contexts of people's lives, as well as to explore issues that may be difficult to discuss in words alone.
• By combining images and words, photo-elicitation can provide a rich and nuanced understanding of complex social phenomena.

Additional Information

• Experimental research involves manipulating independent variables to observe the effects on dependent variables.
• Applied research seeks to solve practical problems by using existing knowledge to develop solutions.
• Content analysis is a research method used to analyze and interpret the content of texts or media.

The correct options are A, B, and C.

Explanation:

• Quantitative interviewing and participant observation are two different research methods used in research.
• Quantitative interviewing involves a structured approach to data collection using questionnaires or interviews.
• Participant observation, on the other hand, involves the researcher immersing themselves in the context or environment being studied, and observing and recording what is happening.

Advantages of quantitative interviewing over participant observation include:

Grounded theory is a qualitative research methodology that aims to develop theories grounded in empirical data.

 Key PointsStatement I: Coding is an important process in grounded theory in which data are classified into well- defined categories.

• Coding is a crucial process in grounded theory that involves sorting the data into meaningful categories.
• The codes created during the coding process allow the researcher to identify patterns and themes in the data, which are then used to develop theories.

Thus, Statement I is true.

Statement II: The researcher's interpretations decide his or her emergent codes in grounded theory, and different types of coding are identified.

• In grounded theory, the researcher's interpretations and experiences play a crucial role in identifying emergent codes.
• The researcher may use different types of coding, such as open coding, axial coding, or selective coding, depending on the nature of the data and the research question.
• Therefore, the researcher's interpretations and coding decisions influence the development of grounded theory.

Thus, Statement II is also true.

Both statements are true.

Organizational systems refer to the formal and informal structures, processes, policies, and procedures that are put in place by an organization to achieve its goals and objectives.

• It encompasses various aspects such as communication, management, operations, culture, and human resources. These systems are designed to ensure effective and efficient functioning of the organization.

Key Points

• In organizational systems, organizational communication provides social inputs that help shape organizational culture, climate, and behavior.
• Effective communication ensures that employees understand the organization's vision, goals, and strategies and can work collaboratively to achieve them.
• Poor communication, on the other hand, can lead to confusion, conflict, and a lack of engagement among employees.
• Therefore, it is essential for organizations to establish clear and effective communication channels and processes to facilitate the flow of information and promote a positive work environment.

The role of communication in a business agreement is to ensure that all parties involved have a clear understanding of the terms and conditions of the agreement and to establish a framework for effective collaboration and decision-making.

 Key Points

• In an implicit business agreement, parties often rely on communication to understand and fulfill the expectations of the agreement.
• The communication is extensive as it involves sharing information about various aspects of the agreement, including scope, timelines, milestones, and deliverables.
• Effective communication helps in building trust, reducing uncertainty, and enhancing collaboration between the parties involved, leading to the successful completion of the agreement.

Additional InformationOther characteristics of communication in business agreements include clarity of information, mutual understanding, and adherence to agreed-upon terms.

Semantic distortion is a communication barrier that occurs when the receiver of a message misunderstands the meaning of the message due to the sender's use of ambiguous or unclear language.

 Key Points

• Semantic distortion can happen because of the sender's lack of knowledge of the subject, cultural differences, or the use of jargon.
• It can lead to confusion, misinterpretation, and incorrect decision making.
• To avoid semantic distortion, it is important to use clear and concise language, define key terms, and consider the cultural background of the receiver.
• Using technical jargon, euphemisms, or ambiguous language can cause semantic distortion, such as calling a layoff a "restructuring" or using acronyms that are not understood by the audience.

Additional Information

• Other communication barriers include physical barriers such as noise or distance, psychological barriers such as prejudices or biases, and organizational barriers such as hierarchical structures or lack of feedback mechanisms.

The correct answers are A, B, D, and E.

Key Points

Mental health, attention, readiness, and fatigue are all factors that can significantly affect learning outcomes.

• Mental health issues such as anxiety or depression can impact a student's ability to focus and engage with learning material.
• Attention span and focus can also be a key factor, as learners who struggle with attention may have difficulty retaining information.
• Readiness refers to a student's preparedness to learn, which can be influenced by factors such as prior knowledge or motivation.
• Finally, fatigue can impact learning, as tired students may struggle to stay focused and engaged with learning activities.

Additional InformationGender, on the other hand, is not a significant factor that affects learning outcomes.

While there may be some differences in learning preferences or styles between genders, research suggests that these differences are generally small and should not be overemphasized in educational settings.

Key Points

• The Flipped Classroom is an instructional approach that involves flipping the traditional order of learning activities, such that students first engage with the learning material independently (e.g., by watching a video lecture at home), and then come to class ready to apply that knowledge through discussion, activities, and problem-solving exercises.
• This approach allows for more personalized learning experiences, as students can engage with the material at their own pace and revisit difficult concepts as needed.
• It also enables more interactive and collaborative learning in the classroom, as students can work together to solve problems and apply what they have learned.

Additional Information

• Programmed learning: Self-paced learning through a series of structured steps.
• Project-based learning: Learning through hands-on exploration and application of knowledge to real-world problems.
• Lecture-based learning: Passive learning through a teacher or expert delivering information.

Key PointsStatement I: When messages are delivered by popular sources, they have higher attention and recall of the receivers.

• According to the research and empirical evidence that shows messages delivered by popular sources, such as celebrities or well-known public figures, are more likely to grab attention and be remembered by the receivers.
• This is because individuals tend to be more interested in and receptive to messages from people or entities that they are familiar with or perceive as being important or influential.

Thus statement I is true.

Statement II: A highly credible source may not score much in the areas of expertise, trustworthiness and likability

• High credibility sources can score well in areas of expertise, trustworthiness, and likability.
• In fact, credibility is often associated with being knowledgeable, trustworthy, and likable, which are all important factors in building credibility as a source of information.

Thus statement II is false.

Swayamprabha is a free educational initiative by the Government of India that provides high-quality educational content to learners across the country through a network of DTH channels.

Key Points

• Swayamprabha DTH channel number 03 deals with Social Science - 1 (Social and Behavioural Sciences), and it is called PRABODH.
• This channel provides educational content related to social science subjects such as history, geography, political science, economics, and sociology.

Additional Information

• VAGEESH - Channel 01 offers programs related to Indian languages and literature.
• KAUTILYA - Channel 07 offers programs related to economics.
• SANSKRITI - Channel 02 offers programs related to Indian culture, history, and philosophy.

The correct answers are A, B, C, and E.

Key Points

• LMS is a software application for the administration, documentation, tracking, reporting, and delivery of educational courses, training programs, or learning and development programs.
• Schoology, Edmodo, Canvas, and LearnDash are all examples of Learning Management Systems (LMS).
• They are used for administration, documentation, tracking, reporting, and delivery of educational courses or training programs.

Additional InformationBookcreator, on the other hand, is not an LMS, but rather a digital tool that allows students to create and publish their own digital books, which can be used as part of a larger learning experience.

Key Points

• Marketing communication is the process of conveying messages about a company's product or service to its target audience.
• The objectives of marketing communication are typically focused on creating brand awareness, establishing a positive brand attitude, and increasing the likelihood of purchase intention among consumers.
• Belittling competitive brands is not considered a professional marketing communication practice and is not an objective of marketing communication.

Additional InformationTV commercials, social media ads, billboards, email marketing, and influencer marketing are examples of marketing communication.

Given:

Number of candidates interviewed by SBI on Friday and Saturday = 30 + 40 = 70

Number of candidates interviewed by BOI on Friday and Saturday = 20 + 52 = 72

Calculation:

⇒ Required Ratio = 70 : 72 = 35 : 36

∴ The ratio of the number of candidates interviewed by SBI on Friday and Saturday together to that of candidates interviewed by BOI on the same two days is 35 : 36.

Given:

IDBI(Wednesday) = 46

Calculation:

Candidates interviewed by SBI on Wednesday = 246 - 50 - 56 - 46 - 30 - 40 = 24

Total candidates interviewed on Wednesday = 46 + 44 + 46 + 24 + 36 = 196

⇒ Required Percentage = \(\dfrac{46}{196} \times 100\) = 23.47%

∴ The number of candidates interviewed by IDBI on Wednesday is 23.47% of the total number of candidates interviewed by all the Banks on the same day.

Calculation:

Candidates interviewed by BOI on Tuesday = 218 - 36 - 44 - 28 - 20 - 52 = 38

⇒ Total candidates interviewed on Tuesday = 42 + 38 + 28 + 56 + 50 = 214 

∴ The number of candidates interviewed by all the Banks on Tuesday is 214.

Given:

SBI(Thursday) = 46

Calculation:

Candidates interviewed by SBI on Wednesday = 246 - 50 - 56 - 46 - 30 - 40 = 24

⇒ Required Percentage increase = \(\dfrac{46-24}{24} \times 100\) = 92%

∴ By 92% the number of candidates interviewed by SBI on Thursday increased with respect to that interviewed on previous day.

Concept used: 

Average = Sum of observation / Number of observation

Calculation:

Candidates interviewed by BOI on Tuesday = 218 - 36 - 44 - 28 - 20 - 52 = 38

Total candidates interviewed by BOB till Friday = 36 + 50 + 36 + 36 + 44 = 202

Total candidates interviewed by BOI till Friday = 36 + 38 + 44 + 28 + 20 = 166

Sum = 202 + 166 = 368

⇒ Average = 368 ÷ 2 = 184

∴ The average of the total number of candidates interviewed by BOB and BOI from Monday to Friday is 184.