UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 14th Mar 2023 Shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is:

{N + (N + 1)} x (N + 2)

⇒ (0 + 1) x 2 = 2

⇒ (1 + 2) x 3 = 9

⇒ (2 + 3) x 4 = 20

⇒ (3 + 4) x 5 = 35

⇒ (4 + 5) x 6 = 54

⇒ (5 + 6) x 7 = 77

⇒ (6 + 7) x 8 = 104

∴ The missing number is 104.

Formula used:

Average = Sum of Values/Number of Values

Calculation:

Sum of the 8 numbers = 8 × 30 = 240

Sum of first 2 numbers = 2 × 26 = 52

Sum of next 3 numbers = 3 × 28 = 84

Let the 6^th number be ‘x

⇒ 7^th number = x +3

⇒ 8^th number = x + 5

According to the question,

⇒ 52 + 84 + x + x + 3 + x + 5 = 240

⇒ 3x = 240 - 144

⇒ x = 96/3 = 32

∴ The 8^th number = X + 5 = 32 + 5 = 37.

Calculation:

Let x, y, and z be the number of Rs. 50, Rs. 100, and Rs. 500 notes, respectively.

According to the question,

 x + y + z = 32 and 50x + 100y + 500z = 5350.

First, let's eliminate z from the second equation by substituting z = 32 - x - y

⇒ 50x + 100y + 500(32 - x - y) = 5350

Simplify the equation:

50x + 100y + 16000 - 500x - 500y = 5350

⇒ -450x - 400y = -10650 (Divide by -50)

9x + 8y = 213

Now, we can find a solution by trial method:

x = 13, y = 12 → 9(13) + 8(12) = 213 (This solution works)

So, x = 13 and y = 12. Now, we can find z:

z = 32 - x - y = 32 - 13 - 12 = 7

∴ The correct answer is x=13 (Rs. 50 notes), y=12 (Rs. 100 notes), and z=7 (Rs. 500 notes).

The correct answer is Appeal to Ignorance.

Key PointsAppeal to Ignorance

• An appeal to ignorance is a fallacy that occurs when an argument is based on the absence of evidence or lack of proof, rather than on positive evidence or proof.
• In this argument, the conclusion that there is life on Planet X is based on the absence of an indubitable proof regarding the impossibility of life on Planet X.
• The argument assumes that just because there is no proof that life is impossible on Planet X, there must be life on Planet X.
• However, absence of evidence or proof of impossibility does not necessarily mean that the opposite is true. It is possible that there is life on Planet X, but it is also possible that there is no life on Planet X.
• **The argument does not provide any positive evidence or proof for the existence of life on Planet X. Therefore, the argument commits the fallacy of appeal to ignorance.**​

Additional Information

1.Red Herring:

• This fallacy occurs when an argument introduces an irrelevant topic or issue to divert attention from the main topic at hand.
• In this argument, there is no indication that an irrelevant topic has been introduced to distract from the main topic of whether there is life on Planet X.
• Therefore, this fallacy is not applicable in this argument.

2.Straw man:

• This fallacy occurs when an argument misrepresents an opponent's argument in order to make it easier to attack.
• In this argument, there is no indication that an opponent's argument has been misrepresented. Therefore, this fallacy is not applicable in this argument.

3.Appeal to Inappropriate Authority:

• This fallacy occurs when an argument relies on an authority that is not relevant or trustworthy in the given context.
• In this argument, there is no indication that an inappropriate authority has been cited to support the conclusion.
• Therefore, this fallacy is not applicable in this argument

The correct answer is A &B. 

Key Points

If the statement "No lions are herbivorous animals" is given as true, then the following statements can be inferred:

A. All lions are herbivorous animals - This statement is false because the given statement implies that there are no lions that are herbivorous animals.

B. Some lions are herbivorous animals - This statement is false because the given statement implies that there are no lions that are herbivorous animals.

C. Some lions are not herbivorous animals - This statement is true because the given statement does not preclude the possibility of lions being non-herbivorous animals. In other words, some lions could be carnivorous or omnivorous animals.

Therefore, the false statements are A and B, "All lions are herbivorous animals" and "Some lions are herbivorous animals". The correct statement is C, "Some lions are not herbivorous animals"

The correct answer is Samanyatodrsta .

Key Points

In classical Indian school of Logic (Nyaya), there are five types of inference (anumana), which are Sadhyasama, Vyapti, Smriti, Shesha, and Avayava.

Samanyatodrsta is a type of inference in classical Indian school of Logic (Nyaya) where the universal relationship between the major term (Sadhya) and the middle term (Hetu) is inferred based on their co-existence.

• In other words, it is based on the observation that the middle term is always present in things that possess the attribute denoted by the major term.
• For example, if we know that fire is hot (major term), and we observe that smoke is rising from a nearby chimney (middle term), we can infer that the smoke possesses the attribute of being hot, since smoke always co-exists with fire, which is hot.

Additional Information1.Sadhyasama:

• This is a type of inference in which the presence of the predicate (Sadhya) in the major term (Sadhya) is inferred from its co-existence with the middle term (Hetu). In other words, it is based on the observation that the middle term is always present in things that possess the attribute denoted by the predicate.
• For example, if we know that all roses are flowers (major term) and we observe that a particular object is a rose (middle term), we can infer that the object possesses the attribute of being a flower (Sadhya).

2.Purvavat:

• This is a type of inference in which the presence of the predicate (Sadhya) in the major term (Sadhya) is inferred from its previous association with the middle term (Hetu). In other words, it is based on the observation that the middle term was previously present in things that possess the attribute denoted by the predicate.
• For example, if we know that all roses are flowers (major term) and we have previously observed that a particular object is a rose (middle term), we can infer that the object possesses the attribute of being a flower (Sadhya), even if we don't observe the object directly at the time of inference

Formula used:

Simple interest(SI) = P×R×T/100

Where,

P = Principal

R = Rate

T = Time

Calculation:

S.I. for 10 years  = (50000 × 5 × 10)/100 = Rs. 25000

Principal after 10 years becomes = Rs. (50000 + 25000) =Rs. 75000

Amount on that principal after t years = Rs. 1000000

S.I. on it = Rs.(100000 - 75000) = 25000

Time = (25000 × 100)/(75000 × 5) = 20/3 = \(\rm 6 \frac{2}{3} \ years\)

Thus, total time = 10 + \(\rm 6 \frac{2}{3}\) = \(\rm 16 \frac{2}{3} \ years\)

∴ The required time is \(\rm 16 \frac{2}{3} \ years\).

The correct answer is B and C only.

Key Points

• As per the traditional square of opposition, subalternate propositions are a pair of propositions where one proposition is the subaltern of the other.

The subaltern proposition is the proposition that is logically weaker and more specific than the superaltern proposition. In other words, if the superaltern proposition is true, then the subaltern proposition must also be true, but the reverse is not necessarily true.

• In this case, the superaltern proposition is B: "No plants are oxygen producers", which is a universal negative proposition. The subaltern proposition is C: "Some plants are not oxygen producers", which is a particular negative proposition.

If the superaltern proposition B is true, then the subaltern proposition C must also be true, because if no plants are oxygen producers, then it follows logically that some plants are not oxygen producers.

• On the other hand, propositions A and D are not subalternate to proposition B. Proposition A is a universal affirmative proposition, which asserts that all plants are oxygen-producers.

Proposition D is a particular affirmative proposition, which asserts that some plants are oxygen-producers. These propositions do not logically follow from proposition B, and proposition B does not logically follow from them.

Therefore, the correct answer is B and C, because proposition B is the superaltern proposition and proposition C is the subaltern proposition

According to the given codes, 

Form the above figure, it is clear that the code for 'mad' is 'ma' and code for 'Social' is 'si'.

Hence, the correct answer is 'ma' and 'si'.

The correct answer is Both Statement I and Statement II are true. 

Key PointsStatement I: Personal communication is more effective than mass communication.

• The statement "Personal communication is more effective than mass communication" is a claim that is often debated in the field of communication studies.
• However, it is important to note that the effectiveness of a particular mode of communication depends on several factors, such as the context, the message, and the audience.
• One argument is that personal communication allows for greater customization of the message.
• When communicating with someone in person or through a personalized message, it is possible to tailor the message to the recipient's specific needs, interests, and background.
• This level of customization can increase the recipient's engagement with the message, making it more likely that they will remember and act on it.

Hence ,Statement I is true.Statement II: Mass media may be a major stimulant of personal communication, affecting personal attitudes and behaviour through a two-step flow.**

• The statement "Mass media may be a major stimulant of personal communication, affecting personal attitudes and behavior through a two-step flow" is a widely accepted concept in the field of communication studies, known as the Two-Step Flow Theory.
• The Two-Step Flow Theory proposes that mass media has a limited direct influence on individuals, and that the influence of mass media is mediated through personal communication channels.
• According to this theory, individuals are more likely to be influenced by the opinions and attitudes of people they know personally, rather than by messages they receive directly from mass media.
• This personal communication can come from opinion leaders or influencers who are knowledgeable or enthusiastic about a particular topic.

Thus, the theory suggests that mass media can act as a stimulant for personal communication, as individuals are more likely to engage in discussions with others about the messages they have received through mass media.

Hence ,Statement II is true.

The correct answer is A, C and D only .

Key Points

Statement A: "Some animals are not carnivorous organisms" means that there are animals that do not eat meat. This is equivalent to statement D: "Some animals are non-carnivorous organisms" which also means that there are animals that do not eat meat.

Statement C: "Some non-carnivorous organisms are not non-animals" means that there are non-carnivorous organisms that are also animals. This is not exactly the same as statement A and D, but it is logically equivalent because if some animals are not carnivorous, then some non-carnivorous organisms must be animals.

Statement B: "Some animals are not non-carnivorous organisms" is the logical opposite of statement D, but it does not mean the same thing as statement A. It means that there are animals that are not non-meat eaters, which is equivalent to saying that there are animals that are meat eaters. This is not logically equivalent to statement A, which simply means that there are animals that do not eat meat.

Therefore, the correct answer is A, C, and D only.

The correct answer is A.

Key Points

Snapshot:

• A snapshot of an MS-Excel worksheet is essentially a picture or image of the current state of the worksheet, which can be captured and saved as a separate file.
• This image can be useful for a variety of purposes, such as capturing a record of data at a particular point in time, creating a visual representation of data to share with others, or embedding a visual element in a presentation or report.

Important Points

By using the given formula in Excel sheet.

The syntax of the IF function is as follows: IF(logical_test, [value_if_true], [value_if_false]) 

The formula = IF (B10 + C10 >100, IF (D10 > 100, "A", "B"), "C")

Hence the correct answer is A.

The correct answer is Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Key PointsStatement I: Trojan Horse is a malware program designed to restrict the access to the victim's data until victim pays for it.

• ​The given explanation is not an accurate description of a Trojan Horse.
• A Trojan Horse is a type of malware that is disguised as a legitimate program or file, which tricks the user into downloading and installing it.
• Once installed, the Trojan can perform various malicious activities, such as stealing sensitive information, taking control of the victim's computer, or giving unauthorized access to an attacker.
• One common type of Trojan is a "ransomware" Trojan, which encrypts the victim's files and demands payment in exchange for the decryption key.
• This is similar to the description given in Statement I, but the key difference is that a Trojan does not typically "restrict access" to data in the sense of locking the user out of their own files.
• Rather, it may prevent the user from accessing certain system resources or cause other disruptions to their computer.

Hence, Statement I is False.Statement II: Google's G-Suite and GitHub are examples of SaaS Cloud Computing.**

• Google's G-Suite is an example of Software as a Service (SaaS) cloud computing.
• It offers a suite of web-based applications including Gmail, Google Drive, Google Docs, Google Sheets, Google Slides, Google Calendar, and more, which can be accessed through a web browser or mobile app.
• Users do not need to install any software on their local devices as the applications are hosted and run on Google's servers.
• GitHub can be considered both SaaS and PaaS.
• As a web-based platform, GitHub can be seen as a SaaS offering that provides a set of tools for version control and collaboration on software development projects.
• Additionally, GitHub provides a cloud-based platform and tools for developers to build, test, and deploy their applications, which makes it a PaaS offering.
• Therefore, GitHub is a hybrid of SaaS and PaaS that offers both a software application for users and a platform for developers to build and deploy their applications.

Hence, Statement II is True.

The correct answer is A, B and C.

Key Points

All of the given statements are correct:

A. http is the name of the protocol and stands for Hyper Text Transfer Protocol. It is the protocol used for transferring data over the World Wide Web.

B. .in is a top-level domain name and represents a website hosted in India. It is the country code top-level domain (ccTLD) for India.

C. .mygov. is a second-level domain name in the name of the website. It is the subdomain used by the MyGov platform, which is a citizen engagement platform launched by the Government of India to promote the active participation of citizens in the country's governance and development. The complete URL http://www.mygov.in/index.html points to the home page of the MyGov website, which is hosted in India and accessed through the HTTP protocol

Additional Information

• HTTP stands for HyperText Transfer Protocol.
• It is a protocol used to access the data on the World Wide Web (www).
• The HTTP protocol can be used to transfer the data in the form of plain text, hypertext, audio, video, and so on.

The correct answer is 1024 Zettabytes

Key Points

1 yottabyte is equal to 1024 zettabytes.

• In the International System of Units (SI), the prefix "yotta" denotes.
• A multiplication by the factor of 10^24.
• Therefore, 1 yottabyte can be expressed as 1,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000 bytes
• Or 1024 zettabytes.

To put it in perspective, a yottabyte of data is an incredibly large amount, and it is estimated that the entire internet currently contains less than one yottabyte of data.

The correct answer is C, A, D, B.

Key Points

The correct sequence in chronological order of the four major enabling technological developments that have paved the way for e-commerce is:

C. Development of the Internet by ARPA. 

A. Invention and mass production of PC.

D. Creation and release of WWW.

B. Release of Netscape's Navigator browser which introduced SSL encryption.

Important Points

• The first enabling technological development was the development of the Internet by ARPA in the late 1960s. This created the precursor to the modern Internet, known as ARPANET.
• The second development was the invention and mass production of personal computers in the 1980s. This made computers widely available to the public and allowed for the development of e-commerce software and applications**.**
• The third development was the creation and release of the World Wide Web in 1991 by Tim Berners-Lee. This allowed for the creation of websites and hyperlinks, which paved the way for the development of e-commerce platforms.
• The fourth and final development was the release of Netscape's Navigator browser in 1994, which introduced SSL encryption for secure online transactions. This made e-commerce safer and more secure for consumers, which helped to promote its widespread adoption.

Therefore, the correct sequence is C, A, D, B.

The correct answer is Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Key Points

Statement I: Some microorganisms, especially protozoan, are able to survive conventional disinfection process.

• Some microorganisms, especially protozoa, are able to survive conventional disinfection processes.
• This is because protozoa can form cysts or spores that protect them from the effects of disinfectants.
• Protozoan cysts are hardy structures that can resist environmental stresses, such as changes in temperature, pH, and moisture levels.
• They can also withstand exposure to disinfectants, such as chlorine, which is commonly used to disinfect water supplies.
• Protozoan cysts are particularly resistant to disinfection because they have a thick, protective outer layer that can shield them from chemical and physical attacks.

Hence, the Statement I is True

Statement II: Some carcinogens, such as chloroform, are created during chlorination process.

• Some carcinogens, such as chloroform, are created during the chlorination process.
• Chlorination is a common disinfection process used to treat drinking water supplies.
• During this process, chlorine is added to water to kill bacteria and other pathogens that may be present.
• However, when chlorine reacts with organic matter, such as natural organic matter, algae, or bacteria, it can form disinfection byproducts (DBPs), including trihalomethanes (THMs) such as chloroform.
• Chloroform is a known carcinogen, meaning that it has the potential to cause cancer.
• It is also associated with other adverse health effects, such as liver and kidney damage.
• Chloroform and other THMs can enter the body through ingestion, inhalation, and dermal exposure, and can accumulate in the body over time.

Hence, the Statement II is True

The correct answer is Marrakesh, Morocco.

Key Points

The framework agreement of International Solar Alliance (ISA) was opened for signature on November 15, 2016, at the Conference of Parties (COP22) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) held in Marrakesh, Morocco.

Important Points

International Solar Alliance (ISA)

• It was launched at COP21 (2015), the UN climate meeting in Paris.
• This is a treaty-based intergovernmental organization.
• The Headquarters is in India with its Interim Secretariat being set up in Gurugram.
• It has 122 sun-belt countries as its prospective member countries and currently boasts a membership of 86 countries globally.
• It is the largest grouping of states, after the United Nations.
• The sunshine countries lie either completely or partly between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.
• Vision: Let us together make the sun brighter.
• Mission: Every home no matter how far away, will have a light at home.
• The Assembly is the apex decision-making body of the ISA. It meets annually at the Ministerial level at the seat of the ISA.
• ISA is set to launch the World Solar Bank in UNFCCC COP26 scheduled in 2021.

Purpose

• To achieve the common goal of increasing the use and quality of solar energy in meeting the energy needs of prospective ISA member countries in a safe, convenient, affordable, equitable and sustainable manner.
• ISA will establish networks and develop synergies with them and supplement their efforts in a sustainable and focused manner.
• ISA will help the global community, including governments, bilateral and multilateral organizations, corporates, industry, and other stakeholders.

Recent Initiatives of ISA:

• In October 2020, the Assembly approved institutionalizing ISA’s engagement with the private and public corporate sector through the Coalition for Sustainable Climate Action (CSCA).
• In the wake of the global pandemic, ISA responded by setting up ISA CARES (like PM-CARES in India), an initiative dedicated to the deployment of solar energy in the healthcare sector. The initiative aims to solarize one primary health sector in each district of the target member countries.
• The ISA has recently signed a tripartite agreement with the World Bank and the Government of India and is now actively involved in preparing a vision and implementation plan for the “One Sun, One World, One Grid” Initiative to harness the power of interconnected grids for enabling energy transition to a low-carbon world.

The correct answer is Millennium Development Goals (MDGs).

Key Points

MDGs:

• Reducing Child Mortality was one of the goals of the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs).
• The MDGs were a set of eight global development goals established by the United Nations in 2000, with a target to achieve them by 2015.
• One of the goals, MDG 4, aimed to reduce child mortality by two-thirds between 1990 and 2015.
• The goal of reducing child mortality was considered critical because millions of children were dying every year from preventable causes such as pneumonia, diarrhea, and malaria.
• The MDG 4 called for an increased focus on improving maternal and child health, increasing access to healthcare services, and promoting interventions such as vaccination, proper nutrition, and hygiene.

Mistake Points As per the official answer key of UGC NET Both SDGs and MDGs are the correct answer. Later, it was approved by the commission that only Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) is the correct answer only.

Additional Information

• The Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) were a set of eight global development goals established by the United Nations in 2000, with a target to achieve them by 2015.
• The MDGs were aimed at reducing poverty, hunger, and disease, and promoting universal education, gender equality, maternal and child health, environmental sustainability, and global partnerships for development.
• In 2015, the United Nations adopted the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), which build upon the progress made under the MDGs and expand the agenda to include new areas such as climate change, inequality, and sustainable consumption and production.
• The SDGs are a set of 17 goals with 169 targets aimed at achieving a more sustainable and equitable world by 2030.

Confusion Points The Question is Drop by NTA. 

• Dioxins can be emitted during the combustion of several materials containing chlorine, such as coal, biomass, and plastics, not just Only one among the given options.

Key Points

• Dioxins are formed as byproducts during the combustion of materials containing chlorine when they are burned at high temperatures.
• Coal and biomass, on the other hand, are known to contain chlorine in varying amounts, and emissions from the combustion of these materials can contribute to dioxin pollution.
• Plastics, particularly those made from polyvinyl chloride (PVC), are also a major source of dioxin emissions when they are burned.
• Dioxins are not intentionally produced, but rather are formed as a result of incomplete combustion or when chlorine is present in the combustion process.
• They can be released into the air and then settle on soil and water, where they can remain for years and accumulate in the food chain.
• It is important to note that dioxin emissions from combustion can be reduced through the use of proper technologies, such as pollution control devices and improved combustion processes

The correct answer is Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Key PointsStatement I: Flat-plate solar collector has an optical concentrator.

• A flat-plate solar collector is a device used to capture solar energy and convert it into thermal energy.
• It consists of a flat, rectangular plate made of a material that can absorb sunlight and transfer heat to a fluid flowing through it.
• The fluid, typically water or a mixture of water and antifreeze, absorbs the heat from the plate and is then used to heat a space or provide hot water for domestic or industrial use.
• However, a flat-plate solar collector does not have an optical concentrator.
• An optical concentrator is a device used to concentrate sunlight onto a small area, typically by using lenses or mirrors.
• This concentrated sunlight can then be used to generate electricity or heat.
• While some solar energy systems may use optical concentrators in conjunction with flat-plate solar collectors, a flat-plate solar collector by itself does not have an optical concentrator

Hence, Statement I is false.

Statement II: In concentrating type solar collector the area receiving the solar radiation is several times greater than the absorber area.

• A concentrating type solar collector is a device used to concentrate solar radiation onto a small absorber area.
• The collector works by using a concentrator, which is typically a reflective surface, to focus sunlight onto the absorber.
• The absorber, which is usually a pipe or plate made of a material that can absorb solar radiation, then heats up and transfers the heat to a fluid flowing through it.
• The concentrator in a concentrating type solar collector is designed to have a much larger area than the absorber.
• This is because the amount of solar radiation falling on the collector is much greater than the amount that can be absorbed by the absorber alone.
• By using a larger concentrator, the collector is able to capture more solar radiation and focus it onto a smaller absorber area, increasing the efficiency of the collector.
• In some types of concentrating type solar collectors, such as parabolic troughs or dish collectors, the concentrator may be curved to focus the sunlight onto the absorber.
• In other types, such as linear Fresnel collectors, a series of flat mirrors or reflectors may be used to direct sunlight onto the absorber.

Overall, the concentrator in a concentrating type solar collector is a key component in capturing and converting solar energy into usable thermal energy

Hence, Statement II is true.

The correct answer is ​General Education . 

Key Points

• The First Five Year Plan of India was launched in 1951 with the objective of improving the socio-economic conditions of the country.
• One of the key areas of focus in the plan was general education, with an emphasis on increasing access to education and improving the quality of education at the primary and secondary levels.
• To achieve this objective, the plan aimed to increase the number of schools and teachers in the country, as well as provide support for vocational education and adult education programs.
• The plan also emphasized the need to improve the infrastructure and facilities in schools and to provide better training and support for teachers.

Additional Information

• The Second Five Year Plan (1956-61) focused on the expansion of higher education and the establishment of new technical and professional institutions.
• The Third Five Year Plan (1961-66) emphasized the need to improve medical education and healthcare facilities in the country.
• While the Fourth Five Year Plan (1969-74) focused on improving teacher education and training programs.

The correct answer is Medical science and surgery

Key Points

• Taxila was also known for imparting knowledge of medical science and surgery in ancient times.
• According to historical records, Taxila had a hospital that was equipped with various surgical instruments, and students were trained in the art of surgery. The surgeon Charaka, who is known for his contributions to Ayurveda, is believed to have studied at Taxila.

Therefore, the correct answer is  Medical science and surgery.

Additional Information

• Taxila was an ancient center of learning located in present-day Pakistan.
• It was known for its high standard of education and attracted students and scholars from all over the world.
• Taxila offered a wide range of subjects, including medicine and surgery, international relations, philosophy, law, politics, warfare, and administration.
• Taxila had a hospital that was equipped with various surgical instruments, and students were trained in the art of surgery.
• Historical records suggest that the hospital was well-equipped and that patients from different parts of the world came to seek treatment there.
• The surgeon Charaka, who is known for his contributions to Ayurveda, is believed to have studied at Taxila.
• In addition to imparting knowledge of medicine and surgery, Taxila was also known for its expertise in other fields.
• The university at Taxila had a faculty of philosophy, which was famous for its debates and discussions on various philosophical issues.
• The university also had a faculty of law, which trained students in the legal systems of different countries.
• The faculty of international relations offered courses on diplomacy and foreign affairs, while the faculty of warfare provided training in the art of war.
• Overall, Taxila was a renowned center of learning that made significant contributions to various fields of knowledge in ancient times.

The correct answer is Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Key PointsStatement I: A private university is established through a state or Central Act by a society registered under the Societies Registration Act.

• The statement "A private university is established through a state or Central Act by a society registered under the Societies Registration Act" is an accurate representation of the process by which private universities are typically established in India.
• A private university in India must be established through an Act of Parliament or State Legislature, which provides the legal framework for the university's operation and governance.
• Additionally, the Act may specify certain requirements for the establishment of the university.
• Such as the minimum qualifications and experience of the faculty, the availability of infrastructure and facilities, and the financial resources needed to sustain the university.
• The Act may require that the university be established by a society registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860.

Hence, Statement I is true.

Statement II: The chancellor of a private university is appointed by the Chief Minister of the State or Prime Minister of the country, as the case may be.

• The statement "The chancellor of a private university is appointed by the Chief Minister of the State or Prime Minister of the country is not entirely accurate.
• In the case of private universities in India, the appointment of the chancellor is typically made by the university's board of governors or executive council.
• Which is responsible for the overall management and administration of the university.
• The chancellor may also play an advisory role in the university's governance, providing guidance and support to the board of governors or executive council as needed.
• It is worth noting that in some cases, the Chief Minister of the State or Prime Minister of the country may be invited to serve as the chancellor of a private university as an honorary position.

Overall, the appointment of the chancellor of a private university in India is typically made by the university's board of governors or executive council, rather than by the Chief Minister of the State or Prime Minister of the country

Hence, Statement II is False.

Given:

Number(F) = 40,000 = 40%

Calculation:

⇒ 1% = \(\dfrac{40000}{40}\) = 1000

Sales of B = 8% = 8000 buses sold

New sales of B = 8000 + 8000(0.125) = 9000

∴  The number of units sold by B is 9000.

Given:

Busses sold by D = 3375 = 3%

Calculation:

⇒ For busses sold by companies, 1% = \(\dfrac{3375}{3}\) = 1125

Total busses sold by C = 7 × 1125 = 7875

Total busses sold by A = 41 × 1125 = 46125

⇒ Models R sold = \(\dfrac{12\times46125}{100}\) = 5535

⇒ Required Percentage = \(\dfrac{7875}{5535} \times 100\) = 142.28%

∴  The approximate percentage of buses sold by C with respect to that of models R sold by A is 142.28%.

Given:

Busses sold by B = 8%

Busses sold by A = 41%

Models R sold by A = 12%

Calculation:

⇒ Models R sold = 0.12 × 0.41 = 0.0492 = 4.92%

⇒ Required ratio = 8 : 4.92 = 200 : 123

∴  The ratio of the number of buses sold by B to the number of models R sold by A in the year 2020-21 is 200 : 123.

Given:

Busses sold by D = 3%

Busses sold by A = 41%

Models P sold by A = 18%

Calculation:

⇒ Models P sold = 0.18 × 0.41 = 0.0738 = 7.38%

⇒ Required percentage  = \(\dfrac{3}{7.38} \times 100\) = 40.65%

∴ The approximate percentage of the number of buses sold by D to that of models P sold by A in 2020-21 is 40.65%.

Given:

Number(F) = 40,000 = 40%

Calculation:

⇒ 1% = \(\dfrac{40000}{40}\) = 1000

Now, let's find the % sold after the growth of 12.5% in each company.

Sales of B = 8 + 8(0.125) = 9%

Sales of C = 7 + 7(0.125) = 7.875%

Sales of D = 3 + 3(0.125) = 3.375%

Sales of E = 1 + 1(0.125) = 1.125%

⇒ Average busses sold = \(\dfrac{9 + 7.875 + 3.375 + 1.125}{4}\) × 1000 = 5343.75

∴ The average number of buses sold by D, C, B and E in FY 2020-21 is 5343.75.

The correct answer is 40 DTH channels.

Key Points

• SWAYAM Prabha is an initiative of the Ministry of Human Resources Development to provide 40 High Quality Educational Channels through DTH (Direct to Home) across the length and breadth of the country on 24X7 basis.
• It has curriculum-based course content covering diverse disciplines. This is primarily aimed at making quality learning resources accessible to remote areas where internet availability is still a challenge.
• The DTH channels are using the GSAT-15 satellite for programme telecasts.

Important Points

The SWAYAM PRABHA has new content everyday for at least (4) hours which would be repeated 5 more times in a day, allowing the students to choose the time of their convenience. The channels are uplinked from BISAG, Gandhinagar. The contents are provided by NPTEL, IITs, UGC, CEC, IGNOU, NCERT and NIOS. The INFLIBNET Centre maintains the web portal.

The DTH Channels covers the following:

Higher Education:

• Curriculum-based course contents at post-graduate and under-graduate level covering diverse disciplines such as arts, science, commerce, performing arts, social sciences and humanities, engineering, technology, law, medicine, agriculture, etc
• . All courses would be certification-ready in their detailed offering through SWAYAM, the platform being developed for offering MOOCs courses.

School education (9-12 levels):

• Modules for teacher's training as well as teaching and learning aids for children of India to help them understand the subjects better and also help them in preparing for competitive examinations for admissions to professional degree programmes.

Curriculum-based courses that can meet the needs of life-long learners of Indian citizens in India and abroad.

Assist students (class 11^th & 12^th) prepare for competitive exams.

The correct answer is A, C and D only .

Key Points

• During adolescence, individuals experience significant cognitive and intellectual development.
• They begin to develop abstract thinking skills, which allow them to think beyond concrete, observable facts and consider more complex and abstract ideas.

The correct options for the intellectual development characteristics of adolescents are:

A. Imagination

C. Thinking and reasoning

D. Span of attention

During adolescence, individuals undergo significant intellectual development that influences their ability to imagine, think, reason and pay attention.

A. Imagination:

• Adolescents develop greater creativity and imagination during this stage.
• They can think beyond the obvious and come up with original and innovative ideas.
• They can also think about abstract concepts and ideas, and imagine multiple possibilities and outcomes.

C. Thinking and reasoning:

• Adolescents develop more advanced thinking and reasoning skills during this stage, as they can analyze, evaluate, and synthesize complex information.
• They can use abstract reasoning to solve problems and make decisions, and can think critically about a wide range of issues.

D. Span of attention:

• Adolescents often struggle with attention and concentration during this stage, as their ability to focus for long periods of time may be limited.
• However, they can still develop their ability to pay attention and concentrate with practice and effort.

The correct answer is Flexible learning culture

Key Points

• In a flipped classroom, students are provided with instructional materials, such as videos or readings, to review before class.
• During class time, the teacher focuses on facilitating student-centered activities and discussions that allow students to apply and extend their understanding of the materials.
• This approach encourages students to take an active role in their own learning, and allows for greater flexibility in terms of when and where learning occurs.
• By providing students with pre-recorded lectures or readings, a flipped classroom allows them to review the material at their own pace, as many times as they need.
• This flexibility can help to accommodate different learning styles and schedules, and can also help to ensure that students have a solid foundation of understanding before moving on to more complex topics.
• In contrast, a fixed learning culture is one in which the teacher is the primary source of knowledge, and the focus is on transmitting information to students through lectures or other traditional teaching methods. This approach does not allow for as much flexibility or student-centered learning as a flipped classroom.

In summary, a flipped classroom environment promotes a flexible learning culture that encourages active student engagement and allows for greater flexibility in terms of when and where learning occurs.

The correct answer is 

Key PointsStatement I: Canvas is a Learning Management System (LMS) that supports online teaching and learning.

• Canvas is a cloud-based Learning Management System (LMS) that provides educators with the tools to manage and deliver online courses.
• It is a comprehensive platform that allows instructors to create and manage course content, assign and grade assignments, facilitate discussions, and communicate with students.

Canvas is designed to provide a user-friendly and intuitive interface for both instructors and students, and it offers a wide range of features and integrations to support online teaching and learning. Some of these features include:

• Course creation and management tools
• Assignment and grading tools
• Communication and collaboration tools (such as discussion boards, messaging, and video conferencing)
• Assessment and evaluation tools (such as quizzes and surveys)
• Integration with external tools and resources (such as multimedia content, learning analytics, and external LTI tools)
• Mobile access through a dedicated app

In summary, Canvas is a powerful LMS that provides educators with the necessary tools to create, manage, and deliver online courses effectively. It is widely used by educational institutions and organizations around the world to support online teaching and learning.

Hence ,the Statement I is correct.

Statement II: Canvas is a paid LMS.

• Canvas is a paid LMS, but it also offers a free plan for individual users.
• Canvas offers a range of pricing plans for institutions, based on the number of users and the specific features required.
• The pricing plans typically include a per-user fee, and can also include additional fees for features such as video conferencing, analytics, and integration with external tools and resources. The exact pricing for Canvas varies depending on the institution's specific needs and requirements.
• However, Canvas also offers a free plan for individual users, which includes basic course creation and management tools, communication and collaboration tools, and mobile access through a dedicated app.
• The free plan is designed for individual instructors or small groups, and is not intended for larger institutions or organizations.

Hence ,the Statement II is false.

The correct answer is Cluster sampling.

Key Points

Cluster sampling:

• Cluster sampling is a type of probability sampling in which the population is divided into clusters, or groups of individuals who share a common characteristic, such as living in the same geographic area or belonging to the same organization.
• A random sample of clusters is then selected, and data is collected from all individuals within each selected cluster.

This method is often used when it is difficult or impractical to obtain a complete list of individuals in the population, but it is relatively easy to identify clusters.

• For example, if a researcher wants to study the prevalence of a particular disease in a large city, they may divide the city into smaller geographic areas (clusters) and randomly select a sample of these clusters for study.

Additional Information

Location sampling:

• ​ This type of sampling involves selecting individuals based on their physical location or geographical area.
• For example, a researcher may select individuals from different regions or neighborhoods to study the prevalence of a particular disease.

Stratified sampling:

• This sampling technique involves dividing the population into subgroups or strata based on specific characteristics, such as age, gender, or income level.
• The researcher then selects a random sample from each stratum to ensure that the sample is representative of the entire population.

Collective sampling:

• This type of sampling involves selecting a group of people who share a common characteristic or experience, such as members of a particular organization or attendees at a specific event.
• The researcher then collects data from the entire group rather than selecting a random sample.
• This type of sampling is often used in qualitative research to gain insights into the experiences and perspectives of a specific group.

The correct answer is Cooperative learning.

Key Points

• Cooperative learning is a teaching method where students work together in small groups to achieve a common goal.
• In the jigsaw strategy, each member of a group is given a specific piece of information to study and then they are required to share their knowledge with the rest of the group.
• This encourages cooperation, communication, and teamwork among the students. Ultimately, the goal is for each member to have a comprehensive understanding of the topic at hand by piecing together the information shared by their group members.

Additional Information1.Problem solving:

• Problem solving refers to the process of finding solutions to complex or challenging issues.
• It involves analyzing the problem, identifying possible solutions, evaluating their feasibility, and selecting the best course of action. While cooperative learning strategies such as jigsaw can certainly involve problem solving, problem solving is not the primary focus of the jigsaw strategy.

2.Team teaching:

• Team teaching is a teaching method where two or more teachers work together to plan and deliver instruction to a group of students.
• In team teaching, teachers share the responsibility of planning, teaching, and assessing students' learning.
• While team teaching can involve cooperative learning and problem solving, it is not the same as the jigsaw strategy.

3.Lecture-cum-Demonstration:

• Lecture-cum-demonstration is a teaching method where the instructor explains a concept or procedure and then demonstrates how it is done.
• This method is often used in fields such as science, engineering, and technology to help students understand complex concepts.
• However, lecture-cum-demonstration is not a form of cooperative learning or problem solving, as it typically involves a one-way flow of information from the instructor to the students.

The correct answer is  Action research.

Key Points

Action research:

Action research is a type of applied research that is conducted by practitioners to improve their own practice or solve problems in a specific context.

• It involves a cyclical process of planning, action, reflection, and evaluation, with the aim of producing practical knowledge and promoting change.
• In the scenario described in the question, the research is focused on improving a school in which students are participants and research supervisors are teachers. This implies that the research is being conducted by practitioners (i.e., teachers) who are seeking to improve their own practice (i.e., teaching) in a specific context (i.e., the school).

Therefore, this type of research is best described as action research

Additional Information

Basic research:

• This type of research is driven by a desire to expand knowledge and understanding of a particular phenomenon or problem, without any specific or immediate application in mind.
• It often involves theoretical or experimental investigations and may not have any practical implications.

Traditional research:

• This term is quite broad and can refer to any type of research that follows established, conventional methods and practices.
• It may include basic research, applied research, quantitative research, qualitative research, etc.

Supervisory research:

• ​ This is not a commonly used term in research methodology.
• However, it may refer to research projects that are initiated and overseen by a supervisor or mentor, often as part of a student's coursework or training

The correct answer is Interval variables.

Key Points

In correlational research, the description is of the relationship between interval variables.

• Interval variables are numerical variables where the distance between the values is known and equal, and there is a meaningful zero point.
• Examples include temperature, time, and weight. Correlation is a statistical technique that measures the degree to which two variables are related to each other.
• Correlation coefficients can range from -1 to +1, where -1 represents a perfect negative correlation, +1 represents a perfect positive correlation, and 0 represents no correlation between the variables.
• In correlational research, the aim is to describe the relationship between two interval variables, and the strength and direction of this relationship is represented by the correlation coefficient.

Additional Information

Correlational research:

• Correlational research is a type of research design that involves the measurement of two or more variables to determine whether there is a relationship between them.
• It is used to determine the extent of a relationship between variables, but it does not imply causality.
• For example, a researcher may measure the relationship between the amount of time a student spends studying and their grades.
• A positive correlation between these variables would suggest that as the amount of time spent studying increases, so do the grades.
• However, it is important to note that this correlation does not imply that studying causes higher grades, as there may be other factors involved such as intelligence or motivation.

The correct answer is B, C and D only .

Key Points

Autoethnography is a research method that combines autobiography and ethnography. It involves the researcher reflecting on and analyzing their personal experiences to better understand a particular culture or phenomenon. In autoethnography, there are several types of tales or narratives that researchers can use to convey their experiences.

The three types of autoethnography are:

B. Confessional tales:

• This type of autoethnography involves the researcher sharing personal experiences and reflections that are typically considered taboo or private.
• Confessional tales are often emotional and reveal vulnerabilities and struggles.

C. Impressionist tales:

• This type of autoethnography focuses on the researcher's sensory experiences and how they make meaning of their environment. Impressionist tales often use vivid language and imagery to convey a sense of place or time.

D. Critical tales:

• This type of autoethnography is focused on social critique and challenges dominant cultural narratives.
• Critical tales often explore issues of power, privilege, and inequality.

The correct answer is Negative appeals.

Key Points

Negative appeals:

• Negative appeals can sometimes be used in fallacious arguments, particularly when they rely on fear or emotion rather than sound reasoning or evidence.
• The most common fallacy associated with negative appeals is known as the "appeal to fear" or "argumentum ad metum".
• An appeal to fear fallacy involves using threats or emotional manipulation to persuade the audience to accept a claim, without providing any logical or factual evidence to support it.
• This fallacy plays on people's fears and emotions, rather than appealing to their reason or critical thinking skills.

For example, a political candidate might use an appeal to fear fallacy by suggesting that their opponent is dangerous or untrustworthy, without providing any concrete evidence to support this claim. This type of argument relies on fear and emotion, rather than facts or logic, to persuade the audience.

Additional Information

• Informative appeals: Informative appeals are persuasive messages that provide information and facts to educate the audience about a particular issue, product, or service. For example, an informative appeal might be used in a marketing campaign to educate customers about the features and benefits of a new product, or in a public health campaign to educate the public about the risks and benefits of a particular behavior or intervention.
• Positive appeals: Positive appeals are persuasive messages that emphasize the benefits or positive aspects of a particular issue, product, or service. For example, a positive appeal might be used in a marketing campaign to emphasize the benefits and positive experiences that customers can expect from using a particular product or service.
• Benefit appeals: Benefit appeals are persuasive messages that focus on the specific benefits or advantages of a particular product or service.

The correct answer is Friends.

Key Points

1. Salespersons are not considered as trustworthy as their intention is to sell a product or service, and they may exaggerate or misrepresent information to make a sale.
2. Paid reviewers may also not be trustworthy as they may be biased towards the product or service they are reviewing, especially if they are being paid to give a positive review.
3. Friends are often considered more trustworthy as they have a personal relationship with the person they are communicating with and are more likely to provide honest and unbiased feedback.
4. Strangers are not necessarily untrustworthy, but as they have no prior relationship or connection with the person they are communicating with, their opinions or feedback may not hold as much weight.

The correct answer is B, D and E only .

Key Points

Non-conventional learning refers to any form of learning that does not follow traditional or conventional methods of education, such as formal classroom-based instruction. Instead, non-conventional learning emphasizes more learner-centered, experiential, and self-directed approaches to education.

Examples of non-conventional learning include:

1. Online learning
2. Project-based learning
3. Experiential learning
4. Self-directed learning

Important Points

The characteristics of non-conventional learning are:

B. Learner oriented D. No fixed curriculum E. Cost-effective

B. Learner oriented:

• Non-conventional learning is often learner-oriented, meaning that it places a greater emphasis on the needs, interests, and goals of the learner rather than the preferences of the teacher or institution.
• Non-conventional learning recognizes that learners have different learning styles, motivations, and preferences and that these should be taken into account when designing learning experiences.
• As a result, non-conventional learning often involves greater learner autonomy, self-direction, and self-assessment.

D. No fixed curriculum:

• Non-conventional learning is often characterized by a lack of fixed or rigid curricula.
• Unlike traditional education, which typically follows a pre-determined sequence of topics and activities, non-conventional learning allows learners to explore their interests and develop their skills and knowledge in a more flexible and personalized manner.
• This may involve a focus on project-based or experiential learning, which allows learners to engage in real-world problem-solving and gain practical skills and experience.

E. Cost-effective:

• Non-conventional learning is often cost-effective, particularly when compared to traditional forms of education.
• This is because non-conventional learning often involves the use of open educational resources (OERs) or other free or low-cost learning materials.
• Additionally, non-conventional learning may be delivered online or through other digital media, which can help to reduce costs associated with travel, accommodation, and classroom infrastructure.

The correct answer is National Higher Education Regulatory Council.

Key PointsNational Higher Education Regulatory Council

• The National Higher Education Regulatory Council (NHERC) is a government body or agency responsible for overseeing and regulating higher education institutions within a country.
• The council's primary function is to ensure that universities and other higher education institutions comply with the government's policies and regulations on education, including standards of quality, accreditation, and assessment.
• NHERC may also be responsible for developing policies and guidelines for higher education institutions.
• Promoting innovation and excellence in education, monitoring compliance with regulations, and taking enforcement actions when necessary.
• In some cases, NHERC may also have the authority to grant accreditation or recognition to institutions that meet certain criteria.
• The specific responsibilities of NHERC can vary from country to country depending on the legal and regulatory framework of that country.
• In general, the council plays a crucial role in maintaining the quality and integrity of higher education and ensuring that students receive a high-quality education that prepares them for success in their careers.

Additional Information

1. Composition: National Higher Education Regulatory Councils are usually composed of experts in education, including academic professionals, policymakers, and representatives of the government and private sector.
2. Functions: National Higher Education Regulatory Councils are responsible for ensuring that higher education institutions adhere to national policies and standards related to curriculum, faculty, facilities, student support services, and governance. They also play a crucial role in accrediting and monitoring the quality of higher education institutions.
3. Powers: National Higher Education Regulatory Councils have the power to set regulations, standards, and policies for higher education institutions to ensure that they are providing quality education. They can also enforce compliance with these regulations and impose penalties on institutions that fail to comply.
4. Independence: National Higher Education Regulatory Councils are typically autonomous bodies, meaning that they operate independently of the government or higher education institutions they regulate. This allows them to make decisions based on their own expertise and without undue influence from outside parties.
5. International Cooperation: National Higher Education Regulatory Councils often cooperate with international organizations, such as the United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization (UNESCO), to develop and implement policies and practices that promote quality education worldwide

The correct answer is C, D, E only  

Key Points

The semantic barriers in communication are related to the meaning of words and the interpretation of messages. Based on this definition, the options that can be considered as semantic barriers in communication are:

C. Faulty translation: When a message is translated from one language to another, there is a possibility of errors or inaccuracies in the translation. This can lead to misunderstandings and misinterpretations of the message.

D. Use of technical language: Technical language refers to words or phrases that are specific to a particular field or profession. When technical language is used in communication with someone who is not familiar with it, it can create confusion and misunderstanding.

E. Unqualified assumptions: Unqualified assumptions refer to assumptions that are made without sufficient evidence or support. When assumptions are made without proper justification, it can lead to misunderstandings and misinterpretations of the message.

The options A and B, functional specialization and organizational policy, do not necessarily fall under semantic barriers, but they can create communication barriers in other ways.

• Functional specialization refers to the division of labor in an organization, and it can lead to a lack of communication between different departments or individuals.
• Organizational policy refers to rules and regulations that are put in place by an organization, and these policies can restrict communication in certain ways.

Therefore, the correct answer is C, D, and E, as they are related to semantic barriers in communication.

The correct answer is The principle of congruity.

Key Points

• The principle of congruity suggests that communicators should use their positive or good image to create a favorable attitude towards a product or brand. In this context, when communicators use their positive or good image to reduce negative feelings towards a product brand, they are trying to create a congruent relationship between the communicator's positive image and the product/brand.
• This helps to reduce the dissonance that exists between the product/brand and the negative feelings that consumers may have towards it.

Additional Information

1**.The principle of conformity**:

This refers to the tendency of people to inform to the behavior and opinions of a group or society. It does not relate to the scenario described in the question.

2.The principle of connivance:

This refers to the act of secretly cooperating or conspiring with others for an unlawful or harmful purpose. It does not apply to the given scenario.

3.The principle of conviction:

This refers to having a strong belief or opinion about something. While it may play a role in marketing and communication, it is not directly related to the use of a positive image to reduce negative feelings towards a product brand.

The correct answer is Both Statement I and Statement II are true. 

Key PointsStatement I: Different research designs have different advantages. For example, the one-shot design is known for quick results and efficiency.

• Different research designs do have different advantages and the one-shot design is known for its quick results and efficiency.
• This design involves measuring the dependent variable only once after a single exposure to the independent variable. It is typically used in exploratory studies or when a researcher wants to test a hypothesis quickly and inexpensively.

Hence, Statement I is true

Statement II: A longitudinal design is to study the same respondents over different periods of time and tracks changes over the period of study.

• A longitudinal research design is a type of research in which the same sample of respondents is studied over an extended period. In other words, it involves studying a group of individuals over time and observing the changes in their behavior, attitudes, or opinions.
• The primary advantage of the longitudinal design is that it allows researchers to track changes over time, which can help to identify trends or patterns in behavior.
• This type of design is often used in studies related to human development, health, and social change.
• For example, a longitudinal study may be conducted to examine the effects of a particular intervention or treatment on a group of patients over a period of several years.
• The study would involve collecting data at multiple points in time to assess changes in the patients' health or well-being. By following the same patients over time, researchers can gain valuable insights into the long-term effects of the intervention .

Hence, Statement II is true

The correct answer is 'B, C and D only'. 

Key Points

• Let's refer to the given line - 
• ''The data compiled from radar sweeps of the planet at least twice every 21 days, will be used to enhance ocean-circulation models, bolster weather and climate forecasts and aid in managing scarce freshwater supplies in drought-stricken regions. ''
• Therefore, based on the above given line it is clear that Option 2 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is '20 years'. 

Key Points

• Let's refer to the following line - 
• ''Nearly 20 years in development by the US space agency with contributions from its counterparts in Canada and Britain, SWOT was one of 15 missions listed by the National Research Council as projects NASA should undertake in the coming decade.''
• Upon reading the given line carefully, it is clear US space agency took 20 years to develop the SWOT satellite.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

The correct answer is 'Statement I is false but Statement II is true'. 

Key Points

• Let's refer to the following lines  - 
• ''The Surface Water and Ocean Topography satellite, or SWOT, incorporates advanced microwave radar technology to collect high definition measurements of ocean, lakes, reservoirs and rivers over 90% of the globe. ''
• Thus, it is clear that Statement I is false as the passage clearly specifies that the satellite monitors only 90 % of the earth and does not cover all the surface waters.  
• ''The data compiled from radar sweeps of the planet at least twice every 21 days, will be used to enhance ocean-circulation models, bolster weather and climate forecasts and aid in managing scarce freshwater supplies in drought-stricken regions.''
• ​Based on the above given line, it is clear that Statement II is true as the satellite helps to improve our understanding of climate change.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

The correct answer is 'A and D only'. 

Key Points

• Let's refer to the following line - 
• ''Components of the SUV sized satellite were built primarily by NASA's Jet Propulsion Laboratory near Los Angeles and the French space agency CNES''.
• Based on the above lines, it is clear that SWOT satellite has primarily been built by France and US.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

The correct answer is  'Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A'. 

Key Points

• Let's refer to the following line  - 
• ''One major thrust of the mission is to explore how oceans absorb atmospheric heat and carbon dioxide in a process that naturally regulates global temperatures and has helped to minimize climate change.''
• ​Upon carefully reading the above line, it is clear that oceans play a significant role in minimizing climate change by absorbing carbon dioxide.

Therefore, it is clear that Option 1 is the correct answer.