UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 13th Oct 2022 Shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

IIT Bombay X is a non-profit MOOC platform developed by IIT Bombay using the open-source platform Open edX. 

Key PointsOpen edX:

• The edX organization was founded as a result of the development of the open-source platform software known as Open edX.
• To separate the platform from the company itself, edX open-sourced it on June 1, 2013, using the name Open edX.
• On GitHub, you can find the source code.
• Open edX Insights offers knowledgeable, learner-centred statistics to aid instructors in comprehending how students interact with the course material.

Additional Information

Joomla

• A free and open-source content management system for publishing web content on websites, Joomla is sometimes spelled as Joomla! and is occasionally abbreviated as J.
• There are many different web-based programmes that are used to create web content, such as message boards, photo galleries, e-Commerce platforms, and user communities.

Sakai

• The educational software platform Sakai was created to facilitate teaching, research, and collaboration.
• It is free, open-source, and community-driven.
• This category of systems is sometimes referred to as a virtual learning environment, a course management system, or a learning management system.

Drupal

• It is possible to adapt and tweak Drupal, a free and open-source content-management platform, to create straightforward websites or intricate web apps.
• Millions of people and organizations use it to create and manage their websites all around the world.

The open-source platform Course Builder' on which NPTEL courses are seen, was created by Google.

Key PointsCourse builder

• In 2012, Google created Course Builder with the Python programming language.
• It ties together the software and technology Google used to build its Power Searching with Google online course.
• Using the platform, course builder, anyone can provide their own courses.
• In order to see and review the complete course at once, Course Builder gives the ability to interact with the course materials, learning activities, and assessments in one unified interface.
• The platform provides basic functionality for presenting course material, including learner activities and assessments and instructions for using other Google products to create a course community.

Important Points

• Course Builder is built on Google app engine.
• It uses the Google app engine for hosting the web application and python for server-side scripting.
• In 2013, Google announced to work with edX as a contributor to the open-source platform, Open edX.

In a learner-centered teaching environment, teachers recognize that all learners are unique and utilize different teaching styles.

Key Points

• A learning environment is more than simply a classroom; it's a place where kids may pursue their academic interests without fear of being judged or bullied.
• The teacher's primary duty is to create a learning atmosphere that inspires kids to learn within the constraints and guidelines of a safe classroom.
• There are four different kinds of learning environments, and each has particular characteristics.
• Learning environments might be knowledge-centered, assessment-centered, community-centered, or student- or learner-centered.
• There is evidence that certain factors can boost performance and promote successful learning, including few distractions, a clear schedule, a happy atmosphere, and a variety of teaching methods.
• When teachers value student participation in teaching and learning and when there is trust and rapport between the teacher and the students as well as among the students, a pleasant learning environment is produced.

Important Points The learner-centric environment is student-friendly and more democratic in nature, therefore, it promotes a more pro-student-centric approach.

The biggest advantage of the telephonic survey method is it reduces the cost of data collection.

Important Points 

Telephonic Survey Method

• Most people have telephones, so the researcher potentially have a wide audience to reach.
• A telephone interview has a personal touch, so it can lead to valuable brand-building benefits if the interviewer conducts calls in a professional and skilled way.
• When conducting a telephone survey, phone agents call survey participants and ask them questions in order to gather data.
• A screen-based script that comprises an introduction to the survey, a questionnaire with several question kinds, and a conclusion is followed by the interviewer.
• Research can be gathered quickly because phone interviews are live and skilled interviewers can complete a lot of surveys in a day of work.

Key PointsThree major advantages of telephonic survey:

• Immediate response
• Personal touch
• Cost-effective

Telephone interviews can be cost-effective as you can have a higher response rate than web surveys, for example.

Research is a systematic inquiry process that includes data gathering, documentation of important information, analysis, and interpretation of that data and information in accordance with appropriate procedures established by particular academic and professional disciplines. A research form can be used to test a new product or development concept.

Important Points

Hence, (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) is correct.

Concept Used:-

The percentage is the number or ratio which can be expression in the fraction of hundred.

For example, if we have to find out the x% of 50. Then, we have to divide x with 100 and multiplied with 50.

\(x% \text{ of }50=\dfrac{x}{100}\times50\)

Explanation:-

Total type C car produced in 2019,

\(\Rightarrow \dfrac{30}{100}\times 4,50,000=135000\)

Total type C car produced in 2020,

\(\Rightarrow \dfrac{25}{100}\times 5,20,000=130000\)

Required difference,

⇒ 135000 - 130000 = 5000

 

So, the difference in the production of number of Type-C cars between 2019 and 2020 is 5000.

Hence, the correct option is 1.

Concept Used:-

The percentage is the number or ratio which can be expression in the fraction of hundred.

For example, if we have to find out the x% of 50. Then, we have to divide x with 100 and multiplied with 50.

\(x% \text{ of }50=\dfrac{x}{100}\times50\)

Explanation:-

Total type E car produced in 2019 and 2020,

\(\Rightarrow \dfrac{20}{100}\times 4,50,000+\dfrac{10}{100}\times 5,20,000=142000\)

Now 85% type E card is sold. So, unsold type E cars,

\(\Rightarrow \dfrac{(100-85)}{100}\times 142000=21300\)

 

So, total 21300 Type-E cars are left unsold by the company.

Hence, the correct option is 4.

Concept Used:-

The percentage is the number or ratio which can be expression in the fraction of hundred.

For example, if we have to find out the x% of 50. Then, we have to divide x with 100 and multiplied with 50.

\(x% \text{ of }50=\dfrac{x}{100}\times50\)

Explanation:-

Type-A cars manufactured in 2019,

\(\Rightarrow \dfrac{15}{100}\times 4,50,000=67500\)

This production is same as of 2020. Suppose, that x% of 5,20,000 is 67500. Then,

\(\Rightarrow \dfrac{x}{100}\times 520000=67500\ \Rightarrow x=\dfrac{675}{52}\ \Rightarrow x=12.98%\approx13%\)

So, the required approximate percentage share in the total production of 2020 is 13%.

Hence, the correct option is 2.

Concept Used:-

The percentage is the number or ratio which can be expression in the fraction of hundred.

For example, if we have to find out the x% of 50. Then, we have to divide x with 100 and multiplied with 50.

\(x% \text{ of }50=\dfrac{x}{100}\times50\)

Explanation:-

Suppose, the ratio of number of Type-C cars produced in 2019 to the number of Type-D cars produced in 2020 is x. Thus,

\(\Rightarrow x=\dfrac{\frac{30}{100}\times 4,50,000}{\frac{25}{100}\times5,20,000}\ \Rightarrow x=\frac{135000}{130000}\ \Rightarrow x=\dfrac{27}{26}\)

 

So, the ratio of number of Type-C cars produced in 2019 to the number of Type-D cars produced in 2020 is 27 : 26.

Hence, the correct option is 3.

Concept Used:-

The percentage is the number or ratio which can be expression in the fraction of hundred.

For example, if we have to find out the x% of 50. Then, we have to divide x with 100 and multiplied with 50.

\(x% \text{ of }50=\dfrac{x}{100}\times50\)

Explanation:-

Type-B cars manufactured in 2019 is 25% of total production. So, the type B car manufactured in 2020 is also 25% by the given condition.

Thus, total Type-B cars produced in 2020,

\(\Rightarrow \dfrac{25}{100}\times 5,20,000=130,000\)

 

So, total Type-B cars produced in 2020 is 130000.

Hence, the correct option is 3.

Along with physical development, children also go through intellectual, verbal, emotional, and social growth. Despite the fact that these factors are frequently thought of independently, they actually all have an impact on one another. As the brain grows physically, for instance, so do intellectual capacities. 

Important PointsAmong the different features, some of them are discussed below:

Hence, (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III) is correct.

Kohlberg's theory focuses on the decision-making process that takes place while determining whether a behaviour is right or incorrect. Thus, rather than what one decides or does, the theoretical focus is on how one chooses to respond to a moral issue.

Key PointsKohlberg's six stages were grouped into three levels: pre-conventional, conventional, and post-conventional.

Level 1 (Pre-Conventional)

1. Obedience and punishment orientation
2. Self-interest orientation ( What's in it for me?)

Level 2 (Conventional)

1. Interpersonal accord and conformity ( The good boy/good girl attitude)
2. Authority and social-order maintaining orientation ( Law and order morality)

Level 3 (Post-Conventional)

1. Social contract orientation
2. Universal ethical principles ( Principled conscience)

Hence, Koulberg's theory of moral development comprises of following stages like option (A), (C), (D), (E) only.

Additional InformationObedience and punishment orientation:

• Individuals focus on the direct consequences that their actions will have for themselves.
• For example, an action is perceived as morally wrong if the person who commits it gets punished.
• The worse the punishment for the act is, the more 'bad' the act is perceived to be.
• This stage may be viewed as a kind of authoritarianism.

Self-interest orientation ( What's in it for me?):

• This stage espouses the what's in it for me position, right behaviour being defined by what is in one's own best interest.
• In stage two concern for others is not based on loyalty or intrinsic respect.

Authority and social-order maintaining orientation ( Law and order morality): It is important to obey laws, dictums and social conventions because of their importance in maintaining a functioning society.

Social contract orientation: In this stage individuals are viewed as holding different opinions and values, and it is paramount that they be respected and honored impartially.

In communication, meanings refer to a person's Internal responses to a message.

Key PointsMeaning of Communication:

• Transmitting information is often how communication is characterized.
• Human existence and organizational survival both depend on effective communication.
• It is a process of generating and disseminating thoughts, facts, opinions, and sentiments from one place, individual, or group to another.
• The Management function of Directing depends on effective communication.

Communication is all about getting information from one party to another. The responses to the message fulfill the meaning of communication.

Activities related to the conduct of experiments in social research are:

(A) Control the experimental environment

(B) Pilot test, revise and test

(E) Specify the treatment levels

Key Points

Experiment in social research:

• Social scientists conduct research using a structured methodology.
• There are two types of social research methodologies
• quantitative and
• qualitative.
• Control over the experimental environment is one of the characteristics
• In controlled experiments, researchers use random assignment (i.e. participants are randomly assigned to be in the experimental group or the control group) in order to minimize potential confounding variables in the study.
• To evaluate the feasibility, time, cost, risk, and performance of a research project, Pilot Testing is adopted.
• In experiments, a treatment is something that researchers administer to experimental units.
• For example, a corn field is divided into four, each part is 'treated' with a different fertiliser to see which produces the most corn; a teacher practices different teaching methods on different groups in her class to see which yields the best results; a doctor treats a patient with a skin condition with different creams to see which is most effective.

Hence (A), (B), (E) only is correct.

 Confusion Points

Empathy with the participants and praising the good qualities of the participant are not significant characteristics of experiments in social science research.

The experimental approach uses variable modification to find cause-and-effect connections. Controlled methods and participants being divided into controlled and experimental groups at random are the main characteristics. An experiment is a study in which a theory is put to the test in a scientific manner.

Key PointsCriticism of experimental method in social sciences:

The criticisms of the experimental method are,

• Artificiality,
• Lack of random sampling,
• Triviality

Important Points

• These three appear to render experimentation methodologically impotent as a technique of social scientific investigation.
• Artificiality in laboratory experimentation is a defect or flaw only within the context of verification and may be a distinct virtue in the context of discovery.

Additional Information

• Impossible to conduct in social situation: Social science research is always possible to conduct in social situation.
• Unavailability good experiments in social sciences: it is not true at all
• Social research problems cannot be studied experimentally: we can conduct experiments in social science research

Psychological tests are classified into several types, including intelligence tests, aptitude tests, vocational tests, aptitude tests, and personality tests.

Key Points

Statement (I): If the length of a psychological test is increased it improves both reliability and validity.

• Test reliability and validity are two technical properties of a test that indicate the quality and usefulness of the test.
• A skilled assessor administers psychological tests.
• Responses are assessed in accordance with precisely laid out rules.
• The idea behind scores is that they represent individual or group differences in the construct that the exam is meant to measure.
• The several forms of psychological testing include personality tests, aptitude tests, aptitude tests for careers, and aptitude tests.
• Psychometrics, often known as psychological testing, is the systematic use of tests to rank psychophysical traits, skills, and issues and to forecast psychological performance.
• If the length of a psychological test is increased it improves both reliability and validity.

Hence Statement I is correct. 

Statement (II): Score of a test can be interpreted without referring to its norm.

• A test score is a numeric piece of information that describes how well a test-taker performed.
• Test results come in two varieties: raw scores and scaled scores.
• A raw score is a result that has not been modified in any way, such as the straightforward number of questions that were properly answered.
• The raw score is subjected to some transformation(s), such as in relative grading, and the end result is a scaled value.

Hence Statement II is incorrect. 

Therefore, We can draw a conclusion from the above discussion that Statement I is correct but Statement II is Incorrect.

The process of transferring and distributing information to broad population segments via mass media is known as mass communication.

Key PointsCharacteristics of mass communication:

• Wide and Vast Area
• Heterogeneous Audience
• Distance between Source and Destination
• No Question of Discrimination
• Professional Communication
• Absence of Feedback
• Intermediary Channels
• Use of Specialists
• Self-defined Audience
• Rapid Means of Communication

Hence, it is clear from the above-given characteristic of mass communication that (B), (C), and (D) are only correct regarding mass communication.

Additional Information

• Mass communication is always prepared by professionals i.e various mass communication channels to attain their purposes.
• Mass media audiences are not only numerous but also diverse in terms of age, sex, religion, race, and other factors.

So, (A), and (E) are not correct regarding Mass communication.

An informational exchange between two or more persons is referred to as interpersonal communication.

Key Points

• It is also a field of study that aims to comprehend how people employ verbal and nonverbal cues to achieve various relationship and personal objectives.
• In essence, it is the process by which individuals exchange concepts, knowledge, emotions, and intentions using messages and signs.
• Any conversations between people that take place face-to-face, online, or over the phone are considered interpersonal communication.

Hence, Both **Statement

(I) and Statement (II)** are incorrect

Information processing broadly refers to the mental activity emerging from processes the human mind engages in while processing information encountered in an individual’s environment.

Key PointsThe sequence of events in processing information, which includes (1) input, (2) processing, (3) storage, and (4) output. These processes work together and repeat over and over. 

• Input—entering data into the computer.
• Data entry
• Processing—performing operations on the data.
• Storage—saving data, programs, or output for future use.
• Output—presenting the results.

The input stage can be further broken down into acquisition, data entry, and validation.

The output stage can also be further divided into interactive queries and routine reports.

A fifth stage is often attributed to this cycle, which is the archiving or deletion of unwanted data.

Thus, the correct sequence of information processing in communication is Input,  Data entry, Processing, Storage, and Output.

Different communication medium uses different user vehicle to transmit information. Some of them are discussed below.

Key Points

Hence (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) are correct

Concept Used:-

The percentage is a way of comparing the quantities. Suppose, 20 number is x% of y. Then, the relation between x and y can be given as,

\(\dfrac{x}{100}\times y=20\)

Explanation:-

Suppose that the per cent of the other 75 questions which he needs to answer correctly to score 60% overall is x. Thus, by the given condition,

⇒ 85% of 75 + x% of 75 = 60% of 150

\(\begin{aligned} & \Rightarrow \frac{80}{100} \times 75+ \frac{x}{100} \times75=\frac{60}{100} \times 150\ & \Rightarrow 80\times 75+75x=60\times 150\ & \Rightarrow 75x= 9000-6000\ & \Rightarrow x=\dfrac{3000}{75}\ & \Rightarrow x=40 % \end{aligned}\)

So, the percent of the other 75 questions he needs to answer correctly to score 60% overall is 40%.

Hence, the correct option is (2).

Concept Used:-

The formula to calculate Simple Interest (SI), on principal amount P with rate of interest (R) and time period T(in years) is,

\(SI=\dfrac{PRT}{100}\)

Explanation:-

Suppose, that principal is P, Rate of interest is R% and time is T.

Now given that,

Time T = R

Simple interest SI = P/9.

From the formula of simple interest,

\(\begin{aligned} & S I=(P \times T \times R) / 100 \ & \Rightarrow P / 9=(P \times R \times R) / 100 \ & \Rightarrow P / 9=\left(P \times R^2\right) / 100 \ & \Rightarrow 1 / 9=\left(R^2\right) / 100 \ & \Rightarrow R^2=100 / 9 \ & \Rightarrow R=10 / 3\ & \Rightarrow R=3.33% \end{aligned}\)

So, the rate percent per annum is 3.33%. 

Hence, the correct option is 3.

Concept Used:-

The percentage is the number or ratio which can be expression in the fraction of hundred.

For example, if we have to find out the x% of 50. Then, we have to divide x with 100 and multiplied with 50.

\(x% \text{ of }50=\dfrac{x}{100}\times50\)

Explanation:-

In statement 1, it is given that,

One-fourth of sixty percent of a number is equal to two-fifth of twenty percent of another number. Suppose that the numbers are x and y.

Then according to the given condition,

\(\Rightarrow \frac{x}{4} \times \frac{60}{100}=\frac{2 y}{5} \times \frac{20}{100}\ \Rightarrow \frac{60 \mathrm{x}}{400}=\frac{40 \mathrm{y}}{500} \ \Rightarrow \frac{\mathrm{x}}{\mathrm{y}}=\frac{8}{15} \)

Hence, the statement 1 is correct.

Now statement 2,

Total hours in one week,

⇒ 24 × 7 = 168 hours

There are total 9 hours between 11 : 00 am to 8 : 00 pm.

So, total hours he studies in one week,

⇒ (9 × 5) + [9 × (1/3)] = 48 hours

So, the fractional part of the entire week that the student is studying is,

⇒ 48 / 168 = 4 / 14 

Therefore, the second statement is also incorrect.

So, Statement

(I) is true but Statement

(II) is false

Hence, the correct option is 3.

Let the speed of current be nm/min and speed of man in still water be 4m/min.

So speed of man with the current be n + 48 m/min and speed of man against the current be (45 - x) m/min

we know speed = \(\rm\frac{Distance}{time}\)

⇒ time = \(\rm \frac{Distance}{speed}\)

for 200m against current taken time =\(\frac{200}{48-x}\) min

for 200m with current taken time = \(\frac{200}{48+x}\) min

Given Difference b/w time is 10 min

\(⇒ 200 \left[\frac{1}{48-x}-\frac{1}{48+x}\right]=10\)

\(⇒ 20 \left[\frac{48+x-48+x}{(48)^2-x^2}\right]=1\)

⇒ 20 (2x) = 482 - x2

⇒ x2 + 40x - 2304 = 0

⇒ x2 + 72x - 32x - 2304 = 0

⇒ x(x + 72) - 32(x - 72) = 0

⇒ (x - 32)(x + 72) = 0

⇒ x = 72 (Not possible), x = 32

Hence, speed of current is 32 m/min

Concept Used:-

The percentage is the number or ratio which can be expression in the fraction of hundred.

For example, if we have to find out the x% of 50. Then, we have to divide x with 100 and multiplied with 50.

\(x% \text{ of }50=\dfrac{x}{100}\times50\)

Explanation:-

In statement 1, it is given that,

A man sells his goods at 10% profit. When he sells his goods at 15% profit, he gets Rs. 160 more.

Suppose, that the cost price is y. Then the sells price,

⇒ SP = (10 / 100) × y

When he sells his goods at 15% profit, he gets Rs. 160 more. Thus,

⇒ (15 / 100) × y =  (10 / 100) × y + 160

⇒ 15y - 10y = 16000

⇒ y = Rs. 3200

Hence, the statement 1 is false.

Now statement 2,

A man spends 80% of his earnings. Suppose, he earns Rs. 100. Then, expenses will be Rs. 80 and saving will be Rs. 20. New earning,

⇒ 100 + [(25 / 100) × 100] = 125

New expenses,

⇒ 80 + [(20 / 100) × 80] = 96

So his new saving,

⇒ 125 - 96 = 29

The percentage increase of this saving comparing with old savings,

\(\Rightarrow \dfrac{29-20}{20}\times100=45%\)

Therefore, the second statement is also true.

So, Statement

(I) is false but Statement

(II) is true.

Hence, the correct option is 4.

When two or more premises and a conclusion are used in a deductive argument, the conclusion must likewise be true if the premises are true. In philosophy, an argument is considered valid if the premises fully support the conclusion's truth.

Key PointsAssertion (A): A valid deductive argument with all true premises will lead to a true conclusion.

• A deductive argument is said to be valid if and only if it takes a form that makes it impossible for the premises to be true and the conclusion nevertheless to be false.
• A successful deductive argument is one in which the conclusion logically follows from the premises.

Hence, the assertion is correct.

Reason (R): In a valid deductive argument, the conclusion follows from the premises with absolute necessity.

• A deductive argument fails to be valid if its conclusion does not logically flow from its premises.
• In deductive reasoning there is a first premise, then a second premise, and finally an inference (a conclusion based on reasoning and evidence).
• A common form of deductive reasoning is syllogism, in which two statements — a major premise and a minor premise — together reach a logical conclusion.

Hence, the reason is correct. 

Therefore, we can conclude from the above discussion that both assertion and reason are correct (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

The square of opposition in term logic is a diagram that shows the connections between the four fundamental categorical propositions.

The correct answer is (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I),(D) - (II) is correct.

 Key PointsClassical square of opposition:

• The square of opposition is a chart that was introduced within classical (categorical) logic to represent the logical relationships holding between certain propositions in virtue of their form

• The four corners of this chart represent the four basic forms of propositions recognized in classical logic:.

• 'A' being given as true - 'I' is true

• 'E' being given as true - 'I' is false

• 'I' being given as true - 'O' is undetermined

• 'O' being given as true - 'I' is undetermined

Important Points

In the given question, the Fallacy of the Illicit process of the minor term is used.

Key Points

Fallacy of Illicit process of the minor term

• A categorical syllogism that uses an illicit minor is faulty because the minor word is not distributed in the minor premise but is distributed in the conclusion.
• The following argument form corresponds to this fallacy:
• A are all B.
• A are all C.
• Therefore, all C are B.

All snakes (A) are reptiles (B)

Some snakes (A) are poisonous creatures

Therefore all poisonous creatures (C) are reptiles (B)

 

Important Points

Fallacy of Illicit process of major term

• A categorical syllogism that commits this formal mistake is faulty because its main term is not distributed in the major premise but is distributed in the conclusion.
• The following argument form corresponds to this fallacy: 
• All A are B
• No C are A
• Therefore, no C are B

Fallacy of Illicit process of middle term

• A formal fallacy known as the "fallacy of the undistributed middle term" occurs when a term that appears in both premises is not distributed.
• That is, each intermediate-term only refers to some of the people mentioned in the premise claims.)

Fallacy of four term

• The formal error known as the fallacy of four terms happens when a syllogism contains four terms rather than the required three, invalidating it.

A fallacy is formally referred to as hetvabhasa in Indian logic, which meaning "hetu" or "reason that looks to be a valid explanation but is not." 

Key PointsStatement I: An inference which is based on the middle term being only positively related to the major term is called Kevalanvayi.

• It is referred to as Kevalanvayi inference when the vyapti between the middle and major phrase is obtained from the uniform agreement in presence alone.
• The inference occurs when the middle term is always positively related to the major term.
• The two terms agree only in the presence and there are no negative instances of its arguments in the absence.
• Here vyapti between the middle and major term is derived from a uniform agreement in the presence alone
• The hetu has affirmative concomitant with sadhya only
• Example:- All Physical creatures are mortal; Vikas is a creature; Hence Vikas is mortal.

Hence Statement I is true.

Statement II: In Kevalanvayi anumana, the knowledge of vyapti between the middle and major terms is arrived at through the method of argument in absence.

• There are **three terms—Sadhya, Paksa, and Hetu—**in every anumna.
• The major, minor, and middle terms, respectively, are represented by these three terms. Linga is another name for hetu.
• The five stages of a syllogism developed by this institution are the proposition (pratijna, literally "promise"), the ground (hetu), the illustration (udaharana), the application (upanaya), and the conclusion (nigamana).

Hence Statement II is false. 

Therefore, We can draw a conclusion from the above discussion that Statement I is correct but Statement II is Incorrect.

A vibration known as sound travels through a transmission medium like a gas, liquid, or solid as an acoustic wave. Sound is the reception of these waves and the brain's perception of them in terms of human physiology and psychology.

Assertion (A): Sound is non eternal, because it is caused.

• In Satpratipaksa, the hetu is contradicted by another hetu.
• If both have equal force, then nothing follows. 'Sound is eternal, because it is audible', and 'Sound is non-eternal, because it is produced'.
• Here 'audible' is counterbalanced by 'produced' and both are of equal force.

Hence Assertion is correct.

Reason (R): The middle term does not prove the eternality of sound but it's non-eternality

• The word "caused" in the middle does not demonstrate the non-eternality of sound, but rather the non-eternality of anything that is caused.
• The difference between the savyabhicara and the viruddha is that the latter proves the contrary statement or disproves the conclusion, while the former just fails to prove the conclusion.

Hence, the reason is correct.

Therefore, we can conclude from the above discussion that both assertion and reason are correct and the reason provided above is correct in this instance.

Software is termed as open source software if its source code is available to share, study, and modify.

Key PointsOpen source software:

• Open source software (OSS) is software that is distributed with its source code, making it available for use, modification, and distribution with its original rights.
• Most computer users never view the source code, which is the portion of the software that computer programmers modify to determine how a programme or application operates.
• A programme can be altered by programmers who have access to the source code by adding to it, altering it, or fixing any problematic sections.
• OSS frequently comes with a licence that gives programmers the freedom to alter the software to suit their needs and decide how it is distributed.
• Some the examples of open-source software are, ​​GNU/Linux, Mozilla Firefox, VLC media player, SugarCRM, GIMP, VNC, Apache web server, LibreOffice, jQuery, etc.

The Open Source Initiative (OSI) was created to promote and protect open-source software and communities.

The Internet, sometimes known as "the Net," is a global system of computer networks. It is a network of networks that allows users at any one computer to obtain information from any other computer with permission.

Key PointsMAN

• A computer network called a metropolitan area network connects users to computer resources in a geographical area the size of a metropolitan area.

WAN 

• A communications system known as a wide area network covers a huge geographic area.
• Leased telecom lines are frequently used to set up wide-area networks.

LAN

• A local area network is referred to as LAN.
• A network is a collection of two or more connected computers, while a LAN is a network that is restricted to a specific region, typically a single building.
• Small corporate networks and home WiFi networks are typical instances of LANs.

Therefore, the correct sequence is (B), (A), (C)

Important Points

Statement (I): A DVD-ROM is an optical storage media and it can be written many times.

• Large software applications are frequently stored on read-only digital versatile discs (DVD-ROMs), sometimes known as read-only digital versatile discs.
• The disc cannot be recorded a second time.
• It has a bigger storage capacity than a compact disk-read-only memory (CD-ROM).

Hence Statement I is incorrect

Statement (II): Software is loaded into secondary storage from RAM and is then executed by CPU.

• Software is a collection of instructions, data, or computer programs that are used to run machines and carry out particular activities.
• Secondary memory is not accessed directly by the Central Processing Unit(CPU).
• Instead, data accessed from a secondary memory is first loaded into Random Access Memory(RAM) and is then sent to the Processing Unit.

Hence Statement II is also incorrect.

Therefore, We can draw a conclusion from the above discussion that Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

file formats are appropriate for distributing video files across the internet are .FLA and .AVI.

Important Points 

• A type of file format for storing digital video data on a computer system is a video file format.
• A video can be found in a variety of formats, including MP4, MPEG, WebM, Ogg, AVI, QuickTime, and others. But just three different video formats—MP4, Ogg, and WebM—are supported by HTML.

 

Key Points

.FLA file format:

• fla stands for Macromedia .flash .fla Project File Format, and it is a file extension primarily used by Adobe Animate.
• It is an interactive multimedia software used to design vector graphics, animations for television and the web, games, etc.

.AVI file format:

• Audio Video Interleave, known by its acronym AVI, is a multimedia container format introduced by Microsoft in November 1992 as part of its Video for Windows technology.
• AVI files can contain both audio and video data in a file container that allows synchronous audio-with-video playback.

Additional Information

• .MP3 - It is a widely used digital audio container
• .WMA: short for Windows Media Audio, which is an audio file container
• .AIF: Audio Interchange File Format (AIFF) is an audio file format standard used for storing sound data

Biomaterial, such as that found in plants and animals, is what is referred to as organic material, or biomass. Plants, wood, and garbage are the most typical biomass resources used as energy sources. We refer to these as biomass feedstocks. A non-renewable energy source is also possible for biomass energy.

Key Points

Assertion (A): Energy produced from biomass is considered 'carbon neutral'.

• The energy created or generated by living or formerly living creatures is known as biomass energy.
• Carbon dioxide (CO2), a greenhouse gas, is released during the burning of either fossil fuels or vegetation.
• Biomass can be a carbon-neutral energy source because the plants that are used as the source of it absorb nearly as much CO2 through photosynthesis as is emitted when it is burned.

Hence Statement A is correct.

Reason (R): Biomass does not add CO2 to the atmosphere.

• Biomass and biofuels made from biomass are alternative energy sources to fossil fuels - coal, petroleum, and natural gas.
• Burning either fossil fuels or biomass releases carbon dioxide (CO2), a greenhouse gas.
• Direct combustion (burning) to generate heat is one of the procedures used to turn biomass into energy.
• Using thermochemistry, fuels can be converted into solid, gaseous, and liquid forms. liquid fuels are produced chemically.

Hence the reason is incorrect.

Therefore, we can conclude from the above discussion that both assertions are correct but the reason is incorrect in this instance.

As envisaged in National Education Policy (2020), all Higher Educational Institutions will aim to have a student strength of ≥ 3000 by 2040. 

Key Points

• As envisaged in the National Education Policy (2020), all Higher Educational Institutions will aim to have a student strength of ≥ 3000 by 2040.
• This is part of the NEP's vision to make India a global education hub and to increase access to higher education for all students.
• The NEP also calls for all HEIs to become multidisciplinary institutions, offering a wider range of programs and courses to meet the needs of the 21^st century workforce.
• In order to achieve the goal of having a student strength of ≥ 3000 by 2040, HEIs will need to expand their infrastructure and capacity.
• They will also need to develop new programs and courses that are relevant to the needs of the industry and society.

Additional Information 

 National Education Policy 2020

• The National Education Policy 2020 (NEP 2020) has placed a strong focus on using the mother tongue or the local language as the medium of instruction up until Class 5, while also encouraging its continuation until Class 8 and beyond.
• According to the formula, it is advised that every kid learn three languages in their school.
• The policy calls for changes in education at every level, from elementary school to higher education.
• NEP aspires to enhance the emphasis on improving teacher preparation, changing the current exam system, early childhood care, and reorganising the educational regulatory environment.
• There are now 4 education policies in place in India. In 1968, the first policy was created, and in 1986, the second.

Research on topical and significant issues draws interest, which boosts institutional visibility and reputation. Universities that are well-known for their research in particular areas attract faculty, students, funding, media attention, and even philanthropy.

Key Points

Assertion (A): Universities and higher education institutions are the important foundations to the growth of any country.

• Universities' traditional roles are teaching and research.
• Universities offer both the education required for personality development as well as professional training for high-level professions through their teaching activities.
• People are equipped with information of their rights and obligations thanks to education.
• The foundation for any society's growth is an informed populace.
• People can readily contribute to the national economy if they receive an education because they will be more familiar with its guiding principles and regulations.

Hence assertion is correct.

Reason (R): Intellectual property right acts as a shield for invention to be misused by third parties.

• Intangible works of human intellect are included in the category of property known as intellectual property.
• Different nations recognise different kinds of intellectual property to varying degrees.
• The most well-known types include trade secrets, patents, copyrights, and trademarks.

Hence reason is also correct.

Therefore, we can conclude from the above discussion that both assertion and reason are correct but the reason provided above is incorrect in this instance.

The correct answer is 'They are non-stop producers of meanings'.

Key Points

• Let's consider the following statements from the passage.
• '..................................... But in the cultural economy the audience rejects its role as a commodity and becomes a Producer, a Producer of meanings and pleasures, and at this moment stops being 'an audience' and becomes different materialisations of the process that we call "viewing television". While the metaphor of a cultural economy is a productive one, we must not let it blind us to differences between it and the financial. ..........................................'.
• ​From the highlighted sentence we understand that in a cultural economy, the audience become producer of meanings and pleasures.
• Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.
• Therefore, the correct answer is -'They are non-stop producers of meanings'.

The correct answer is 'Circulatory commercial system'.

Key Points

• Let's consider the following statements from the passage.
• '..........................There is a financial economy within which wealth circulates, and a cultural economy within which meanings and pleasures circulate, and the relationship between them is not as deterministic as some theorists have proposed.......................................................'.
• ​From the highlighted statement it is clear that television as a product operates in a circulatory commercial system because it is said that in a financial economy wealth circulates and in a cultural economy meanings and pleasures circulate.
• Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.
• Therefore, the correct answer is -'Circulatory commercial system'.

The correct answer is 'Producer of a new commodity'.

Key Points

• Let's consider the following statements from the passage.
• '....................... In distribution, its role changes and it becomes not a commodity, but a producer, and what it produces is a new commodity, the audience which is then. in its turn, sold as a commodity to advertisers........................................................'.
• ​From the highlighted statement it is clear that in distribution, television becomes a producer and its product is called commodity.
• Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.
• Therefore, the correct answer is -'Producer of a new commodity'.

The correct answer is 'Audience for advertisers'.

Key Points

• Let's consider the following statements from the passage.
• '.....................................The ramifications of this financial economy are fascinating. Here the role shift undergone by the programme in the financial economy-that from commodity to producer-is now undergone by the audience, who are left as a commodity sold to the advertiser......................................................'.
• ​From the highlighted statements it is clear that the role shift occurring here is from commodity to producer to that of audience to advertiser.
• Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.
• Therefore, the correct answer is -'Audience for advertisers'.

The correct answer is 'Audience assume a new role'.

Key Points

• Let's consider the following statements from the passage.
• '....................But in the cultural economy the audience rejects its role as a commodity and becomes a Producer, a Producer of meanings and pleasures, and at this moment stops being 'an audience' and becomes different materialisations of the process that we call "viewing television". While the metaphor of a cultural economy is a productive one, we must not let it blind us to differences between it and the financial.......................................'.
• ​From the highlighted statements it is clear that audience in a cultural economy becomes producer of meanings and pleasure and stop being audience and assumes a new role.
• Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.
• Therefore, the correct statement is -'Audience assume a new role'.

A file is a computer object that houses data, details, preferences, or instructions utilised by software. Application files, data files, and system files are the three different sorts of files found on computers.

Hence (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III) is correct.

Statement I: Classical smog is formed when oxides of nitrogen combine with particulate matter especially in summer season.

• When there is a high concentration of sulphur dioxide and particulate matter created as a result of fuel combustion, classic smog is formed.
• It happens in a chilly, humid climate. Sulphurous smog or London smog are other names for it, and it turns the air a dark, brownish colour.
• Due to its reducing agent properties, classic smog is also known as lowering smog. The presence of carbon (soot) particles and sulphur dioxide contributes to the reducing nature.

So, Statement I is incorrect. 

Statement II: Classical smog reduces atmospheric visibility to a great extent.

• Prior to the light reaching your eyes, the particles disperse it into and out of the line of sight and absorb some of it.
• In order to lower the clarity and colours of what you see, there are more particles in the air, which scatter and absorb light more.
• Smog is air pollution that makes it difficult to see. In the early 1900s, a mixture of smoke and fog was initially referred to as "smog."
• Coal burning was typically the source of the smoke. Industrial locations used to have a lot of smog, and certain cities still have it now.

So, Statement II is correct. 

Therefore, We can draw a conclusion from the above discussion that Statement I is false but Statement II is true

In the ancient Indian education system. learners were given training in following occupations in the fields of:

(A) Architecture

(B) Animal Husbandary

(C) Agriculture

(E) Dairy farming

Key PointsAncient India Education System

• There were institutional and informal schooling systems in place in ancient India.
• At home, in temples, pathshalas, tols, chatuspadis, and gurukuls, native education was given. People helped young children imbibe devout ways of living in their homes, villages, and temples.
• The 'Gurukul' educational system is the pinnacle of Indian educational philosophy.
• A gurukul is essentially a school where students live with their gurus while receiving instruction in moral principles, life skills, and academics from them. In India, this method of education has been used since childhood.

The three language forumla was proposed by Kothari Commission.

Key Points Kothari Commission

• The Government of India established the National Education Commission, also known as the Kothari Commission, as an ad hoc commission with the mandate to review all facets of the Indian educational system, create a general framework for education, and suggest rules and policies for the advancement of education in the country.
• The Kothari Commission concentrated on girls' education, education for underprivileged groups, education for tribal people, and education for children with physical and mental disabilities in order to advance social justice.
• The four pillars of learning—learning to know, learning to do, learning to live together, and learning to be—should be the focus of curriculum reform if education is to accomplish its objectives.
• The Kothari Commission recommended that the concept of national reconstruction be linked with education.
• The Kothari Commission has made a significant contribution to education, strengthening and improving the effectiveness of the Indian educational system.

Noise pollution, often known as sound pollution, is the spread of sound or noise that has varying effects on human or animal behavior, most of which are somewhat negative. Machines, transportation, and propagation systems are the main global sources of outdoor noise.

Key Points

• Millions of people suffer from the negative effects of noise pollution.
• There are clear connections between noise and health, according to studies.
• Noise-related issues include illnesses linked to stress, high blood pressure, speech obscuration, hearing loss, disturbed sleep, and lost productivity.
• The National Park Service (NPS) in the United States claims that noise pollution has a significant negative impact on the ecosystem and wildlife.
• According to experts, noise pollution can affect mating and rearing processes and potentially expedite the extinction of some species.

The correct sequence of average noise levels in increasing order of their magnitude from different sources are (E), (B), (A), (C), (D)

Source of arsenic pollution in the groundwater is Industrial effluents.

Mistake Points As per the official answer key option 1 (Industrial effluents) and option 2 (Deep underground formations) both are correct. But we have marked option 1 as the correct answer as the question is MCQ type Qs.

Key PointsArsenic Pollution:

• As a hazardous substance that poses a risk to human health, arsenic has long been recognized.
• Significant natural contamination of surface waters and soil can arise when arsenic-rich geothermal fluids come into contact with surface waters.
• When humans are implicated in causing or exacerbating arsenic pollution, the cause can almost always be traced to mining or mining-related activities.
• Human activities (like mining, smelting, combustion of fossil fuels, agricultural pesticide production and use, and timber treatment with preservatives) also contribute to the environmental increase of arsenic.

 Important Points

Industrial processes:

• In industrial processes, arsenic is mostly used to produce antifungal wood preservatives (which may lead to soil contamination).
• It is also utilized in the pharmaceutical and glass industries, in the manufacture of alloys, sheep dips, leather preservatives, arsenic-containing pigments, antifouling paints, poison baits, and agrochemicals (to a diminishing extent).

Hence, the correct answer is Industrial effluents.

Global Warming Potential The heat absorbed by any greenhouse gas in the atmosphere, multiplied by the heat absorbed by the equivalent mass of carbon dioxide, is what is referred to as global warming potential.

 Key Points

• According to the gas and the time period, it varies for various gases.
• From GWP, carbon dioxide equivalent is derived. The idea of global warming potential is used to balance the interactions between different greenhouse gases in the ecosystem, such as carbon dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide.
• Methane has a stronger potential for causing global warming than carbon dioxide because it stores more heat per molecule.
• Sulfur hexafluoride, a greenhouse gas, has the largest potential to contribute to global warming since it can absorb solar heat.

Additional Information

• Global warming is the gradual warming of the Earth's surface that has been seen since the pre-industrial era (between 1850 and 1900), and is attributed to human activity, particularly the burning of fossil fuels, which raises the levels of heat-trapping greenhouse gases in the atmosphere
• .The correct order of Global Warming Potential (GWP) of the following atmospheric chemical species C < B < D < A.

In the context of vocational education, the organisation 'NSDC' is National Skill Development Corporation.

Key PointsNational Skill Development Corporation

• It was founded on July 31, 2008, under Section 25 of the Companies Act of 1956.
• The National Skill Development Corporation is a public limited corporation that does not operate for profit.
• The Ministry of Finance established NSDC as a model for public-private partnerships.
• The NSDC serves as a catalyst for skill development through sponsoring businesses, corporations, and organisations that offer skill training.
• Additionally, it creates suitable frameworks to promote, coordinate, and strengthen private sector initiatives.
• The main objective of NSDC is to contribute significantly to the overall target of skilling up of people in India, mainly by fostering private sector initiatives in skill development programmes and to provide funding.

Additional Information

NSDC is a unique model created with a well thought through underlying philosophy based on the following pillars:

1. Create: Proactively catalyse creation of large, quality vocational training institutions.
2. Fund: Reduce risk by providing patient capital. Including grants and equity.
3. Enable: the creation and sustainability of support systems required for skill development. This includes the Industry led Sector Skill Councils.