UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 12th Mar 2023 Shift 2 (Previous Year Paper)

Calculation:

The total distribution of mobile phones in Assam and Punjab together is:

4.2 lakhs (Assam) + 3.5 lakhs (Punjab) = 7.7 lakhs

First, let's find the difference:

Difference = 7.7 lakhs (Assam and Punjab) - 6.5 lakhs (M.P.)

= 1.2 lakhs

Percentage = (Difference/Total distribution in Assam and Punjab) × 100

Percentage = (1.2 lakhs/7.7 lakhs) ×100 = 15.58% (rounded to two decimal places)

So, the total distribution of mobile phones in M.P. is 15.58% less than that of in Assam and Punjab together.

Calculation:

As per the given table, the total distribution for each state sums to 100%. 

For Bihar, we already know that High income is 12% and Middle income is

32%, so we can find the Low income distribution as 100% - 12% - 32% =

56%.

Similarly, for Kerala, we know High income is 15% and Low income is 60%,

so the Middle income distribution can be found as 100% - 15% - 60% = 25%.

Low income people in Bihar = 56% of 3.4 lakhs = 1.904 lakhs

Middle income people in Kerala = 25% of 4.7 lakhs = 1.175 lakhs

Now we can find the ratio as follows:

1.904 : 1.175 

To get this ratio in whole numbers, we multiply both sides by 1000:

1904 : 1175

So, the answer is 1904 : 1175.

High income people:

U.P.: 8% of 2.5 lakhs = 0.08 × 2.5 × 100000 = 20000 phones

M.P.: 15% of 6.5 lakhs = 0.15 × 6.5 × 100000 = 97500 phones\

Kerala: 15% of 4.7 lakhs = 0.15 × 4.7 × 100000 = 70500 phones

Total phones for High income people = 20000 + 97500 + 70500 = 188000

phones

Middle income people:

Haryana: 25% of 5.2 lakhs = 0.25 × 5.2 × 100000 = 130000 phones

Punjab: 22% of 3.5 lakhs (calculated in previous response) = 0.22 × 3.5 ×

100000 = 77000 phones

Kerala: 25% of 4.7 lakhs = 0.25 × 4.7 × 100000 = 117500 phones

Total phones for Middle income people = 130000 + 77000 + 117500 = 324500 phones

Difference between the two totals = 324500 - 188000 = 136500 phones

So, the difference between the number of mobile phones distributed among

High income people of U.P., M.P., and Kerala together and Middle income

people of Haryana, Punjab, and Kerala together is 136500.

Calculation:

The total number of mobile phones distributed in Haryana is

5.2 × 1,00,000 = 520,000

As calculated earlier, the distribution (%) of mobile phones

among high-income people in Haryana is 30% and among

middle-income people is 25%. 

Hence, the number of phones distributed among high-income

people is 30% of 520,000 = 156,000 phones, and the number

of phones distributed among middle-income people is 25% of

520,000 = 130,000 phones.

So, the distribution of mobile phones among high

income people in Haryana state is 156,000 - 130,000 =

26,000 more than that among middle-income people.

The low-income distribution percentage for the states would

be: M.P: 50%

Bihar: 100% - 12% - 32% = 56%

U.P: 100% - 8% - 13% = 79%

Haryana: 100% - 25% (since high-income group's

percentage is missing, we can only assume the percentage for the low-income group is 100% - middle income % = 100%

• 25% = 75%. But we are told to exclude Haryana in our

calculations, so it doesn't impact the final answer.)

Punjab: 100% - 21% - 22% = 57%

Assam: 78%

Kerala: 60%

Now, we can calculate the total number of mobile phones

distributed to the low-income groups in each state:

M.P: 6.5 lakhs × 50% = 3.25 lakhs

Bihar: 3.4 lakhs × 56% = 1.904 lakhs

U.P: 2.5 lakhs × 79% = 1.975 lakhs

Punjab: We don't have the total number of phones for this

state. Let's denote it as P. The number of phones for the low

income group would be P × 57%.

Assam: 4.2 lakhs × 78% = 3.276 lakhs

Kerala: 4.7 lakhs × 60% = 2.82 lakhs

The total number of phones for all the states = 30 lakhs.

Given the number of phones for all states except Punjab, we

can find the number of phones for Punjab: 30 - (6.5 + 3.4 +

2.5 + 5.2 + 4.2 + 4.7) = 3.5 lakhs. This means the number of

phones for the low-income group in Punjab is 3.5 lakhs ×

57% = 1.995 lakhs.

So, the total number of phones distributed to the low-income

groups in all states except Haryana is: 3.25 + 1.904 + 1.975

• 1.995 + 3.276 + 2.82 = 15.22 lakhs

Therefore, the total distribution of Mobile Phones in Low

income people of all the states together excluding

Haryana as a percentage of the total distribution in all

the states together = (15.22 / 30) × 100% = 50.73%= 50.7% approx.

Key Points 

Thus, the correct match is A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

The correct answer is A,B, and C

 Key PointsAn ideal evaluation in the teaching-learning process should possess the following characteristics:

• Comprehensiveness: It refers to the extent to which the evaluation covers all the relevant aspects of the learning process.
• An ideal evaluation should be comprehensive and cover all the different areas of learning, including cognitive, affective, and psychomotor domains.
• Validity: It refers to the extent to which the evaluation measures what it is intended to measure.
• An ideal evaluation should be valid, meaning it should measure the intended learning outcomes and accurately assess students' knowledge, skills, and abilities.
• Reliability: It refers to the extent to which the evaluation is consistent and reproducible.
• An ideal evaluation should be reliable, meaning it should produce consistent results over time and across different evaluators.
• This ensures that the evaluation results are dependable and can be used to make informed decisions about the learning process.
• Subjectivity: An ideal evaluation should be free from subjectivity, i.e., it should be objective and impartial.
• This ensures that the evaluation is fair and unbiased.

Comprehensiveness, validity, and reliability are the characteristics of an Ideal Evaluation in teaching-learning process.

Therefore, options A, B, and C are the most appropriate answers.

SWAYAM stands for Study Webs of Active Learning for Young Aspiring Minds.

 Key PointsSWAYAM is an initiative of the Government of India to provide online courses and learning resources to students and teachers across India.

The primary objective of SWAYAM is to provide high-quality education to all, especially to those who are unable to access it due to various reasons such as lack of resources or physical access to educational institutions.

Now, let's review the given statements about SWAYAM:

• Swayam is designed to achieve three cardinal principles
• The three cardinal principles of SWAYAM are access, equity, and quality.
• Swayam is hosting all the courses, taught in classrooms from IX till Post-graduation: 
• SWAYAM hosts a wide range of courses, including school-level subjects from grade 9 to post-graduation level courses.
• Swayam assesses students continuously and grants degrees:
• SWAYAM provides courses and learning resources, but it does not assess students or grant degrees.
• It only provides certificates of completion upon finishing a course.
• It can be accessed by anyone, anytime at any place.
• SWAYAM is an online platform, and it can be accessed by anyone with an internet connection from anywhere and at any time.

Therefore, the most appropriate answer is A, B, and D.

Learning-centred approach of education is an approach to education that prioritizes the learner's needs, interests, and experiences to create a more engaging and effective learning experience.

 Key Points

• Self-controlled learning is related to the learning-centred approach of education.
• In self-controlled learning, learners take responsibility for their own learning and have control over the learning process.
• This approach emphasizes the learner's autonomy and self-direction, encouraging them to take an active role in their learning.
• Self-controlled learning is consistent with the learning-centred approach of education, which emphasizes the importance of learner engagement and involvement in the learning process.
• By giving learners control over their learning, they become more engaged and invested in their own education, leading to better learning outcomes.

Thus, ​Self-controlled learning is related to the learning-centred approach of education.

 Additional Information

• Authoritarian: A leadership style that emphasizes strict control and conformity to rules and regulations.
• Imposed: A decision or action that is made without consideration of others' c
• Autocratic: A leadership style that emphasizes absolute authority and control over decision-making.

Variable is a measurable attribute or characteristic that can take on different values.

Key Points

• In much of social research, the variables used are non-manipulable, meaning that the researcher cannot directly manipulate them as they would with other types of variables.
• Non-manipulable variables are often used in social research because they involve complex human behaviors or attitudes that cannot be easily changed.
• Examples of non-manipulable variables include age, gender, ethnicity, or socioeconomic status.
• Despite the inability to manipulate these variables directly, they can still be measured and analyzed to identify patterns and relationships with other variables of interest.
• The use of non-manipulable variables requires careful planning and design of research studies to ensure the validity and reliability of the data collected.

 Additional Information

• Manipulable variables: Variables that can be directly manipulated or controlled by the researcher.
• Experimental variables: The independent variable in an experiment that is manipulated to observe its effect on the dependent variable.
• Deviational variables: Variables that can influence the outcome of an experiment but are not directly manipulated by the researcher.

Project method is a teaching strategy that involves students in real-life problem-solving activities to encourage practical application of skills and knowledge.

 Key PointsSequence of steps in the project method:

1. Providing a situation: The teacher provides a situation or problem for students to solve, which forms the basis of the project.
2. Purpose of the project: The teacher explains the purpose of the project and its learning objectives to the students.
3. Planning of the project: Students plan the project and break it down into manageable tasks, with the guidance of the teacher.
4. Execution of the project: Students work on the project, which may involve research, experimentation, or other activities, depending on the nature of the project.
5. Evaluation of the project: The teacher evaluates the project based on pre-determined criteria and provides feedback to the students.
6. Recording of the project: Students keep records of their progress and document their findings, using various tools such as journals, reports, or presentations.

In summary, the project method involves providing a problem or situation, setting learning objectives, planning, execution, evaluation, and recording of the project.

Hence the correct sequence is B, A, D, C, F, E.

This approach allows students to engage in real-life problem-solving activities and encourages practical application of skills and knowledge.

Survey in research is a research method that involves collecting data from a sample of individuals using a standardized questionnaire or interview.

 Key Points

• A mixed mode survey is a research design that offers respondents different options to answer a questionnaire, such as completing a paper-based survey or an online survey.
• This approach can increase response rates and reduce non-response bias by providing multiple avenues for participants to respond.
• However, mixed mode surveys can also introduce new sources of bias, such as differences in response rates or quality of data collected across different modes.
• Researchers need to carefully plan and implement mixed mode surveys to ensure the validity and reliability of the data collected.

Additional Information

• Selective survey: A survey that targets a specific population or group of individuals based on certain characteristics or criteria.
• Optional survey: A type of survey where participants have the choice to participate or not.
• Multiple survey: A survey that involves collecting data from the same participants at different points in time.

Key Points

Media Analysis:

• Looking deep into the channels of communication refers to Media analysis.
• It involves examining the different types of media channels through which communication takes place, including print, broadcast, and digital media, and analysing the messages conveyed through these channels.
• Media analysis is the process of examining and evaluating different forms of media such as newspapers, TV programs, social media, etc. to gain a deeper understanding of their content and effectiveness.
• It involves identifying patterns, trends, and biases in the media, as well as analyzing how different audiences respond to various forms of media.
• Media analysis is important because it helps organizations and individuals to understand how their messages are being received by their target audiences, and to make more informed decisions about their communication strategies.

Additional Information

• Content analysis refers to analyzing the content of a message to identify patterns and themes.
• Audience analysis refers to examining the characteristics and needs of the intended audience to tailor the message accordingly.
• Control analysis is not a commonly used term in communication and management, but it may refer to analyzing the extent of control or power one has over a particular communication process.

Qualitative data analysis: The process of examining and interpreting non-numerical data to understand underlying meanings, patterns, and themes.

Key Points

Statement I: The qualitative data analysis is governed by the codified prescriptions of quantitative data analysis

Qualitative data analysis differs significantly from quantitative data analysis, and its methodologies and techniques cannot be governed by the same codified prescriptions as quantitative research. 

Thus, This statement is false. 

Statement II: Qualitative data analysis has many approaches, of which the grounded theory is important. 

Grounded theory is a widely used approach to qualitative data analysis that involves developing a theory from the data itself, rather than testing a preconceived hypothesis.

Other approaches to qualitative data analysis include content analysis, narrative analysis, and discourse analysis, among others.

Thus, this statement is true.

Therefor, Statement I is False but Statement II is true.

A panel study is a type of longitudinal research where the same group of individuals is surveyed repeatedly over time.

 Key Points

• One issue that arises in panel studies is attrition, which refers to the loss of participants from the study over time.
• Attrition can occur for various reasons, such as death, illness, relocation, or refusal to participate in the study.
• Attrition can lead to biased results and affect the validity and generalizability of the study.
• To address attrition, researchers can use various techniques, such as offering incentives, improving communication with participants, or using statistical methods to adjust for missing data.
• Careful planning and design of panel studies can help minimize the impact of attrition on the study's results.

Additional Information

• Inanimate objects: Non-living entities or materials used in research.
• Single survey: A type of research design that involves collecting data from a sample of individuals only once.
• Inanimate objects in research: The use of non-living entities or materials as a proxy for living organisms or phenomena in research.

The correct answer is the center of power.

Key Points

• According to Chanakya, the ancient Indian philosopher, and economist, communication flows from the center of power to the masses.
• This means that communication is a top-down process where the rulers or leaders convey their messages to the people.
• The center of power could be the government or any other authority figure that holds power in society.
• This approach is also known as a hierarchical communication structure.

Key Points

Humanistic Approach to Communication:

• The humanistic approach to communication emphasizes the role of individual agency, self-awareness, and self-expression in the communication process.
• It posits that communication is not just about the transmission of information or the shaping of behaviour through reward and punishment, but also about the expression of personal needs and desires, the development of self-esteem, and the creation of meaningful relationships with others.

Important Points

A. Behaviour is innate:

• The humanistic approach to communication posits that behaviour is innate, meaning that individuals have an inherent capacity for growth and development.
• Human beings are not simply the sum of their experiences or the products of their environment.
• Instead, they have an internal drive to realize their full potential, which is known as self-actualization.

C. Behavioural changes originate from the inner self:

• The humanistic approach to communication posits that behavioural changes originate from the inner self, rather than being imposed from external sources.
• According to this approach, individuals have an inherent capacity for growth and development, and change comes from within as individuals strive to realize their full potential and become the best version of themselves.

D. The reward-punishment technique for behavioural change is short-lived:

• The humanistic approach to communication posits that the reward-punishment technique for behavioural change is short-lived.
• This is because behaviour change that comes from external rewards or punishments is not sustainable in the long-term.
• Instead, true and lasting change comes from within, as individuals strive to realize their full potential and become the best version of themselves.

Hence, the correct answer is A, C, D Only. 

Additional Information

B. Behaviour is concocted:

• This statement is not consistent with the humanistic approach to communication.
• Instead, the approach emphasizes that individuals have an innate capacity for growth and development, meaning that behaviour is not concocted or artificially constructed.
• Rather, it is a natural expression of an individual's inherent capacity for growth and development.

E. Communicative techniques focus only on paralinguistic messages, for behavioural change:

• This statement is not consistent with the humanistic approach to communication.
• While the approach does acknowledge the importance of nonverbal communication, it emphasizes that behavioural change comes from within, and not solely from communicative techniques that focus on paralinguistic messages.

Online research is a research method that involves collecting data using online platforms or tools.

 Key PointsOnline research can have some disadvantages, including:

• Samples can be small and skewed: Online research can attract specific types of individuals, leading to a biased sample that may not be representative of the larger population.
• There can be an excessive turnover of communication: Online research can be hindered by a high rate of attrition, where participants drop out before completing the study.
• Technological issues may lead to inconsistencies: Technical issues such as slow internet connection, device malfunction, or software bugs can lead to inconsistent or incomplete data.

Thus, B, C, D Only is the correct answer.

Additional InformationOnline research has several advantages, including:

• Convenience: Participants can take part in online research from anywhere, at any time, and on any device with internet access.
• Cost-effectiveness: Online research can be less expensive than traditional research methods, such as in-person interviews or focus groups.
• Larger sample sizes: Online research can reach a larger and more diverse sample size, allowing for more representative results.

Key Points

• In ancient Indian texts such as the Vedas, Upanishads, and the Bhagavad Gita, the goal of communication is often described as achieving self-realization or enlightenment.
• Self-realization refers to the attainment of true knowledge of oneself, which in turn leads to a deep understanding of the universe and the interconnectedness of all things.
• In the context of communication, self-realization means that the purpose of communication is not just to convey information or achieve specific goals, but to promote spiritual growth and realization.
• This is achieved through practices such as mindful listening, empathetic speaking, and the cultivation of compassion and wisdom in communication.
• In ancient Indian philosophy, it is believed that the ultimate goal of human life is self-realization or enlightenment, and that communication is an essential tool for achieving this goal.
• By practicing conscious and enlightened communication, individuals can cultivate a deeper understanding of themselves and the world around them, leading to greater happiness, inner peace, and fulfillment.
• Thus, according to ancient Indian texts, the ultimate goal of both internal and external communication is not to achieve social status, political power, or accumulation of wealth, but to promote self-realization and spiritual growth.

Important Points 

Statement I: In terms of communication, the dominant interests of a larger culture will form the image of minority audiences.

• This statement highlights the impact of dominant culture on the way minority groups are portrayed in media and other forms of communication.
• The larger culture, which is often more powerful and influential, tends to shape the narrative around the minority groups based on their interests and perceptions.
• This can lead to stereotyping, bias, and misrepresentation of the minority groups in communication channels.
• For example, in India, the dominant culture of the Hindi-speaking North tends to portray the culture and traditions of the South Indian states in a stereotypical and reductive manner, based on their own limited knowledge and understanding of these regions.

Hence, this statement is correct.

Statement II: The medium of television is often considered as a new religion.

• This statement refers to the power and influence of television as a medium of communication in modern society.
• The widespread availability and popularity of television has given it immense power to shape people's beliefs, values, and attitudes, similar to how religion has been a dominant force in shaping cultures and societies in the past.
• Television has the ability to create a shared sense of identity, provide a common frame of reference, and influence people's perceptions and behaviours.
• For example, the popularity of reality TV shows like Bigg Boss in India has created a cult-like following, with people closely identifying with their favourite contestants and forming strong emotional bonds with them, much like the way people connect with religious figures.

Hence, this statement is also correct.

Therefore, Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Key Points

Email Address Spoofing:

• Email address spoofing is a technique used by spammers and hackers to send emails that appear to be from a legitimate source but are actually from a fake email address.
• This is achieved by forging the email header or sender information to make it appear as though the email is coming from a trusted source.
• Email address spoofing is commonly used in phishing attacks, where the attacker sends an email that appears to be from a legitimate organization such as a bank or a social media platform, asking the recipient to provide sensitive information such as passwords or credit card details.

Important Points

• A. E-mail address spoofing is copying an email to other staff. - This statement is incorrect. Email address spoofing has nothing to do with copying an email to other staff. It is a technique used to falsify the sender's email address in an email message.
• B. E-mail address spoofing is used for hacking - This statement is true. Email address spoofing is a common tactic used by hackers to deceive the recipient into believing that the email message is from a legitimate source.
• C. E-mail address spoofing is the forgery of an email header or sender information - This statement is true. Email address spoofing involves forging the email header information, such as the sender's email address, in order to trick the recipient into believing that the email is from a trusted source.
• D. E-mail address spoofing is sending a joke email to other staff. - This statement is incorrect. Sending a joke email is not related to email address spoofing.

Hence, the correct answer is B and C only.

Water borne diseases are illnesses caused by ingesting contaminated water.

 Key PointsWater borne bacterial diseases include Cholera, Typhoid, and Dysentery, which are caused by bacteria found in contaminated water sources.

• Cholera is caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae and leads to severe diarrhoea and dehydration.
• Typhoid is caused by Salmonella typhi and leads to fever, weakness and abdominal pain.
• Dysentery is caused by Shigella bacteria and causes bloody diarrhoea and abdominal cramps.

It is important to ensure that water sources are properly treated and protected from contamination to prevent the spread of water borne bacterial diseases.

Additional InformationHepatitis and Schistosomiasis are not caused by bacteria found in water, but by viruses and parasites respectively.

The correct answer is Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Key PointsAssertion A: Beneath the surface horizons, the subsoil, usually have a lower organic content and higher concentration of mineral particles.

• Assertion A states that the subsoil, which is located beneath the surface horizons, usually has a lower organic content and higher concentration of mineral particles.
• This is a correct statement because the subsoil is formed by the weathering and breakdown of rocks over time, and the organic matter from plants and animals tends to be concentrated in the upper layers of the soil.

Reason R: Subsoil is generally made up of weathered rock fragments.

• Reason R is a correct statement because subsoil is formed by the weathering and breakdown of rocks over time.
• The parent material, which is the underlying bedrock, undergoes physical and chemical weathering due to various environmental factors such as wind, water, temperature changes, and biological activity.
• As a result of this weathering, the rocks break down into smaller particles and minerals, which make up the subsoil.
• Therefore, it is true that subsoil is generally made up of weathered rock fragments.

Therefore, both Assertion A and Reason R are correct statements, and Reason R provides a correct explanation of Assertion A.

Secondary aerosols are particles formed in the atmosphere from precursor gases through chemical reactions.

 Key Points

• Sulphate particles are considered as secondary aerosols because they are formed from the oxidation of sulphur dioxide gas (SO2) released by natural and human activities, and the subsequent formation of sulphuric acid.
• The sulphuric acid can condense on pre-existing particles to form new particles, or can combine with other gases to form new particles directly.

Therefore, sulphate particles are formed indirectly from the primary emission of SO2, making them a secondary aerosol.

 Additional Information Black carbon contributes to climate warming, mineral particles affect atmospheric chemistry, and sea salt has a role in cloud formation and precipitation.

The correct answer is B, C and E Only.

Key PointsHazardous waste is defined as any waste that is potentially harmful or dangerous to human health or the environment. The question asks us to identify the characteristics of hazardous waste, based on the given options.

Option A states that hazardous waste is fatal to humans or animals only at high doses.

• This is incorrect because hazardous waste can be fatal or harmful even at low doses.

Option B states that hazardous waste is toxic, carcinogenic or mutagenic to humans.

• This is a correct characteristic of hazardous waste, as it can cause serious health problems such as cancer or genetic mutations.

Option C states that hazardous waste is ignitable even at temperatures less than 60°C.

• This is also a correct characteristic of hazardous waste, as it can catch fire easily and pose a risk of explosions or fires.

Option D states that hazardous waste is non-reactive.

• This is incorrect, as hazardous waste can be reactive and can cause explosions or fires.

Option E states that hazardous waste is corrosive.

• While this is a possible characteristic of hazardous waste, it is not always true for all types of hazardous waste.

Therefore, the correct answer is  B, C and E Only

The correct answer is A and C Only.

Key Points

• An eutrophic lake is a type of lake that is rich in nutrients, particularly nitrogen and phosphorus.
• This is because eutrophic lakes receive a lot of nutrients from surrounding land, such as runoff from fertilized fields or sewage treatment plants.
• The high nutrient levels in eutrophic lakes promote the growth of algae and other aquatic plants, which can lead to high algal blooms.

Statement A: An Eutrophic lake is rich in nutrients.

• Eutrophic lakes are bodies of water that have a high concentration of nutrients, particularly nitrogen and phosphorus.
• These nutrients can come from various sources such as agricultural runoff, sewage discharge, and atmospheric deposition.
• When these nutrients enter the lake, they promote the growth of algae and other aquatic plants.
• This process is called eutrophication, which is the main reason why these lakes are called eutrophic lakes.
• As the algae and other aquatic plants grow, they consume the nutrients in the water, and when they die, they sink to the bottom of the lake.
• The decomposition of the dead plant material consumes oxygen from the water, which can lead to low levels of dissolved oxygen in the deeper parts of the lake.
• These low oxygen levels can create problems for fish and other aquatic life.

Statement C: An Eutrophic lake has high algal blooms.

• High levels of nutrients in eutrophic lakes can lead to the growth of excessive amounts of algae and other aquatic plants.
• This growth can cause algal blooms, which are dense, visible accumulations of algae or other aquatic microorganisms. Algal blooms can have negative effects on water quality, aquatic ecosystems, and even human health.
• When algae blooms die and decompose, they use up the oxygen in the water, which can cause fish and other aquatic organisms to suffocate.
• Some algae can also produce toxins that can harm humans and animals that come into contact with them or ingest them.

In summary, eutrophic lakes are characterized by high nutrient concentrations, which promote the growth of algae and other aquatic plants. This growth can lead to algal blooms, which can have negative impacts on water quality, aquatic ecosystems, and human health.

Key Points

• The National Education Policy 2020 in India has highlighted the importance of internationalization in the context of higher education.
• This includes promoting the mobility of students and faculty across borders, promoting the exchange of knowledge and ideas, and increasing collaborations between Indian and foreign institutions.
• The policy aims to promote India as a global study destination by establishing world-class universities in India and by encouraging foreign universities to set up campuses in the country.
• The NEP 2020 also proposes to allow top-ranked Indian universities to open campuses abroad to enhance their global footprint.
• Overall, the focus on internationalization in the National Education Policy 2020 is aimed at promoting excellence, innovation, and collaboration in higher education, and making Indian institutions more globally competitive.

Thus, it is concluded that In the context of higher education, National Education Policy 2020 has emphasized the need for Internationalization.

The correct answer is A, B and D Only.

Key PointsA. Consensus-oriented:

• Good governance requires consultation and the participation of all stakeholders to ensure that their views are taken into account.
• It involves building consensus in society around policies and strategies that promote the well-being of all citizens.

B. Accountable:

• Good governance requires transparency, openness, and the rule of law.
• It involves holding public officials and institutions accountable for their actions and decisions.

C. Opaque:

• Opaque governance means that the decision-making process is not transparent and lacks accountability, which can lead to corruption, abuse of power, and other forms of misconduct.
• So it is not a nature of good governance.

D. Inclusive:

• Good governance requires the participation of all citizens, regardless of their social or economic status, in decision-making processes that affect their lives.

E. Autocratic:

• Autocratic governance is the opposite of good governance, as it involves a concentration of power in the hands of a few individuals or groups, with little or no regard for the views and interests of others.
• So it is not a nature of good governance.

Hence, The correct answer is A, B and D Only.

The correct answer is option 4) Statement I is False but Statement II is true.

Key Points

• Refer to the lines: "Foreign households are no longer demanding so many goods now that the lockdowns that kept them in their houses and the fiscal stimuli that gave them the money to spend have both ended."
• "In such an uncertain environment, foreign investors prefer to invest in safe assets such as US government bonds rather than emerging markets like India."
• These lines indicate the decline in demand for goods abroad and the preference of foreign investors for safe assets, supporting the correct answers for both statements.
• Statement I: In the post-pandemic period, demand for goods has picked up both in India and abroad.
• This statement is false. According to the passage, the post-pandemic normalization has led to a renewed demand for imported inputs in India, indicating an increase in domestic demand. However, abroad, the situation is different. The passage states that foreign households are no longer demanding as many goods now that the lockdowns have ended and the fiscal stimuli have ceased. Therefore, the demand for goods abroad has declined, contradicting the statement.
• Statement II: Covid-19 pandemic is still not over in China.
• This statement is true. The passage mentions that China continues to struggle with Covid-19. Although it does not provide specific details, the passage acknowledges that China is facing a slowdown due to the ongoing pandemic. Therefore, the statement is supported by the information provided in the passage.
• Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 2%.

Key Points

• Refer to the lines: Foreign demand will slow further as advanced countries slip into what now seem like inevitable recessions. In that case, India's Current Account Deficit (CAD) could widen even further, possibly to four percent of GDP in 2022-23-double the level that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) traditionally regards as "safe". How should India respond?
• According to the above lines, 4% will be double the level of what is is presently.
• Thus, we can conclude that the level of current account deficit is considered 'safe' by RBI in terms of percentage of GDP is 2%.

The correct answer is A, B, C and D Only.

Key Points

The passage mentions the following factors contributing to the unprecedented uncertainty in the world:

• A. War in Europe: The passage states 'After two years of the pandemic, we are witnessing a land war in Europe.
• B. High levels of inflation in developed countries: The passage states that there is the "highest inflation in the developed world in the last four decades."
• C. Energy crisis in Europe: The passage mentions an "energy crisis in Europe," indicating a shortage or disruption in the energy supply in that region.
• D. Fast pace of interest hikes in the US: The passage discusses the "fastest pace of interest rate hikes in the history of the US Federal Reserve."

There is no mention of 'normalisation after the end of pandemic' in the passage.

• Refer to the lines from the passage: "After two years of the pandemic, we are witnessing a land war in Europe, the highest inflation in the developed world in the last four decades, the fastest pace of interest rate hikes in the history of the US Federal Reserve, an energy crisis in Europe, and slowdown in China that continues to struggle with Covid-19."

These lines highlight the factors contributing to the unprecedented uncertainty in the world, supporting the correct answer, option 1 A, B, C and D Only.

The correct answer is option 4) Statement I is False but Statement II is true.

Key Points 

• Refer to the line from the passage: "India's Current Account Deficit (CAD) could widen even further, possibly to four percent of GDP in 2022-23-double the level that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) traditionally regards as 'safe'."
• Statement I: In an uncertain environment, foreign investors like to invest in emerging markets like India.
• This statement is false. According to the passage, in an uncertain environment, foreign investors prefer to invest in safe assets such as US government bonds rather than emerging markets like India. The passage states, "In such an uncertain environment, foreign investors prefer to invest in safe assets such as US government bonds rather than emerging markets like India."
• Statement II: According to the author, the current account deficit is likely to increase even further in 2022-23.
• This statement is true. The passage mentions the possibility of India's Current Account Deficit (CAD) widening even further, possibly to four percent of GDP in 2022-23. The passage states, "India's Current Account Deficit (CAD) could widen even further, possibly to four percent of GDP in 2022-23-double the level that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) traditionally regards as 'safe'."

Thus, we can conclude that the correct answer is option 4) Statement I is False but Statement II is true.

The correct answer is 3) A and D Only.

Key Points

Let's examine the relevant lines from the passage to understand why.

• The passage states, "At home the post-pandemic normalisation has spurred a renewed demand for imported inputs." This quote indicates that there is a rise in India's imports, supporting option A.
• Furthermore, the passage mentions, **"Foreign demand will slow further as advanced countries slip into what now seem like inevitable recessions." This suggests that there is a fall in India's exports, aligning with option D.

Therefore, based on these quotes, we can conclude that the current account deficit in India is increasing because of the rise in India's imports (option A) and the fall in India's exports (option D).

Logic: Add previous two term and subtract 2 form that sum.

Let's add first two term and subtract 2 form that sum;

1 + 4 = 5 - 2 = 3

Similarly,

3 + 5 = 8 - 2 = 6

5 + 6 = 11 - 2 = 9 

6 + 9 = 15 - 2 = 13

13 + 20 = 33 - 2 = 31

20 + 31 = 51 - 2 = 49 

So, according to the logic, 49 is the missing term.

Hence, the correct answer is "49".

Logic: Positional values of the given alphabets are written diagonally. And positional value of the middle alphabet is written as it is.

The code for "BLACK" is written as follows,

Similarly, the code for the "WHITE" will be written as;

So, the required code for "WHITE" is "5209823".

The correct answer is Appeal to Inappropriate authority.

Key Points

An appeal to inappropriate authority is a type of logical fallacy in which an argument relies on the authority of someone who is not an expert or does not have relevant expertise in the field being discussed.

In the given argument, the person's uncle is being cited as an authority figure to support the claim that the person has potential to be selected in the basketball team.

• However, the uncle's expertise in philosophy does not necessarily make him an expert in basketball.
• Therefore, the argument is relying on an inappropriate authority and cannot be considered as a valid or reliable basis for the conclusion that the person has potential for basketball.

Additional Information

Hasty Generalization:

• This fallacy occurs when a conclusion is drawn based on insufficient or biased evidence.
• For example, if a person sees a few students from a particular school misbehaving, and concludes that all students from that school are misbehaving.

Ad Hominem:

• This fallacy occurs when an argument is attacked by attacking the person presenting the argument, rather than addressing the substance of the argument itself.
• For example, if a person argues that climate change is a real issue and the opponent responds by attacking the person's credentials or character, rather than addressing the scientific evidence behind the argument.

Begging the Question:

• This fallacy occurs when the conclusion of an argument is assumed in the premise itself.
• For example, if a person argues that cheating is wrong because it is unethical, without providing any additional evidence to support why cheating is unethical.
• In this case, the premise itself assumes that cheating is unethical, which is the same as the conclusion

The correct answer is No murderers are plants.

Key Points

The contrapositive of a statement is formed by negating both the subject and predicate of the original statement and then reversing their order. The contrapositive of a statement is logically equivalent to the original statement.

The statement "No plants are murderers" is "No murderers are plants."

• This is logically equivalent to the original statement because if it were true that there were some plants that were murderers, then it would also be true that there were some murderers that were plants.
• Likewise, if it were true that there were some murderers that were not plants, then it would also be true that there were some plants that were not murderers.

"No plants are non-murderers" -

• This statement is not logically equivalent to the original statement "No plants are murderers."
• It is a negative statement that claims that there are no plants that are also non-murderers, but it does not necessarily imply anything about the relationship between plants and murderers.

"No murderers are plants" -

• This statement is the contrapositive of the original statement "No plants are murderers."
• It is logically equivalent to the original statement and claims that there are no murderers that are also plants.

"All non-murderers are non-plants" -

• This statement is not logically equivalent to the original statement "No plants are murderers."
• It is a positive statement that claims that all non-murderers are also non-plants, but it does not necessarily imply anything about the relationship between plants and murderers.

"Some non-murderers are not non-plants" -

• This statement is a double negative that is difficult to understand and does not convey a clear meaning.
• It is not logically equivalent to the original statement "No plants are murderers.

The correct answer is Anumana.

Key PointsAccording to the classical Indian school of logic, knowledge resulting from prior knowledge of invariable concomitance between two objects is called Anumana.

• Anumana is a Sanskrit term that refers to inference or reasoning. In the classical Indian school of logic,
• Anumana is considered one of the three valid means of knowledge (pramana), along with perception (pratyaksha) and verbal testimony (shabda).
• Anumana is based on the principle of invariable concomitance (vyapti), which means that if two objects are invariably concomitant, then the presence or absence of one can be inferred from the presence or absence of the other.

For example, if we know that fire is invariably concomitant with smoke, we can infer that where there is smoke, there must be fire.

• This is an example of Anumana, where the knowledge of the presence of smoke leads to the knowledge of the presence of fire based on the prior knowledge of invariable concomitance.

Additional Information

Arthapatti -

• Arthapatti is a means of knowledge that is used to explain something that cannot be explained by direct perception, inference, or testimony.
• It is a form of presumption or postulation that is based on the idea that there must be some reason or cause for something that is otherwise inexplicable.
• For example, if we see a man carrying an umbrella on a sunny day, we can presume that he is doing so because he expects it to rain.

Upamana -

• Upamana is a means of knowledge that is based on analogical reasoning or comparison.
• It involves using knowledge of one object to gain knowledge of another object that is similar to it.
• For example, if we know that a lion is powerful, we can infer that a tiger, which is similar to a lion, must also be powerful.

Anuplabdhi -

• Anuplabdhi is the means of knowledge that arises from the non-existence or absence of something.
• It is based on the principle that the absence of something can be inferred from the presence of its opposite or contradictory.
• For example, if we see that a particular tree is not present in a forest, we can infer that it does not exist in the forest.

In contrast to the above, Anumana is a means of knowledge that is based on the principle of invariable concomitance, which involves inferring the presence or absence of one thing based on the presence or absence of another thing that is invariably concomitant with it.

The correct answer is Wiki.

Key Points

• A wiki is a website or platform that allows multiple users to create, edit, and link web pages easily.
• It is a type of collaborative software that enables a group of people to enter, modify and contribute one or more pages of related text, which can be accessed and edited by authorized users from anywhere in the world.
• Wikis are often used as knowledge management tools and for collaborative documentation.
• One of the most famous examples of a wiki is Wikipedia, the online encyclopaedia, which is created and maintained by a large community of volunteer editors from around the world.

Additional Information

• Email is a system for exchanging messages between individuals or groups, but it does not allow for real-time collaboration on a single page of text.
• A podcast is a digital audio file that can be downloaded or streamed online, but it does not involve collaboration or modification of text.
• RSS feed (Really Simple Syndication) is a format used for distributing web content, but it also does not involve collaboration or modification of text on a single page.

Important Points 

Statement I: EEPROM stands for Electronically Extendable Programmable Read Only Memory.

• EEPROM stands for Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory, which is a type of non-volatile memory that can be programmed, erased, and reprogrammed electronically.
• It is often used in microcontrollers and other embedded systems, as well as in some consumer electronics devices.

Hence, this statement is false. 

Statement II: RAM is much faster to write or to read from than other types of memory; but its main drawback is its non-volatility.

• RAM stands for Random Access Memory, which is a type of volatile memory that can be both read from and written to quickly.
• Its main drawback is that it is volatile, meaning that it loses its contents when power is removed.
• Non-volatile memory, on the other hand, retains its contents even when power is removed.
• Examples of non-volatile memory include ROM, flash memory, and EEPROM.

Hence, this statement is also false.

Calculation:

Let's denote the numerator of the original fraction as x and

the denominator as y. 

According to the question,

(x + 7)/(y + 7) = 2/3

⇒ 3(x + 7) = 2(y + 7)

⇒ 3x + 21 = 2y + 14

⇒ 3x - 2y = -7, Without any further constraints, there are

infinitely many fractions x/y that satisfy this equation. 

Let's solve the problem with the four options provided.

The equation derived from the problem statement is:

(x + 7) / (y + 7) = 2/3

Let's plug each of the options into the equation and see which one fits.

Option 1) 4/5:

If x/y = 4/5, then (4 + 7) / (5 + 7) = 11/12, which does not

equal 2/3.

Option 2) 3/5:

If x/y = 3/5, then (3 + 7) / (5 + 7) = 10/12 = 5/6, which does

not equal 2/3.

Option 3) 3/8:

If x/y = 3/8, then (3 + 7) / (8 + 7) = 10/15 = 2/3, which does

equal 2/3.

Option 4) 5/3:

If x/y = 5/3, then (5 + 7) / (3 + 7) = 12/10 = 6/5, which does

not equal 2/3.

Therefore, the original fraction that satisfies the given

condition is 3/8.

The correct answer is A and C Only.

Key Points

The given statements are:

A. All human beings are mortal.

B. Some human beings are mortal.

C. Some human beings are not mortal.

D. No human beings are mortal.

Statements A and C are contradictory statements.

• If statement A is true, it means that every human being that exists or will exist in the future must die at some point, and therefore, cannot be immortal.

Statement C: "Some human beings are not mortal."

• This statement contradicts statement A by suggesting that there exist human beings who are exempt from mortality, implying that they do not die.
• This contradicts the fundamental understanding that death is an inevitable part of the human life cycle.
• So, if one of these statements is true, the other must be false, and vice versa.

Statements B and C are not contradictory statements

• If statement B is true, it means that at least some human beings must die, which is not in contradiction with statement C, which says that at least some human beings do not die.
• If statement D is true, it means that no human being can die, and therefore, all human beings must be immortal.
• Therefore, if one of these statements is true, it does not mean that the other must be false, and vice versa.

John Von Neumann developed the idea of stored program computer. 

Key Points

• In about 1945, John Von Neumann developed the idea of a stored program computer.
• Von Neumann was a Hungarian-American mathematician and physicist who made fundamental contributions to a number of fields, including game theory, quantum mechanics, and computer science.
• He was instrumental in the development of the modern computer and the concept of a stored program computer is often referred to as the Von Neumann architecture.
• The Von Neumann architecture is based on the idea of storing both data and instructions in the same memory.
• This is in contrast to earlier computers, which required programs to be manually wired into the computer.
• The stored program concept allows for greater flexibility in programming and made it possible for computers to be programmed to perform a wide range of tasks.
• Von Neumann's work on the stored program computer laid the foundation for the development of modern computers and is considered to be a major milestone in the history of computing.

The correct answer is A, D, E Only.

Key Points

The Kothari Commission was a landmark education policy commission in India that submitted its report in 1966. Some of the important recommendations of the Kothari Commission are:

A. Establishment of clusters of advanced centres in major universities to promote excellence in teaching and research.

B. Abolition of the system of affiliate colleges to strengthen the standards of higher education.

C. Introduction of a continuous evaluation system to assess the progress of students throughout the year.

D. Establishment of six major universities in different regions of the country to cater to the diverse educational needs of different regions.

E. Improving the quality and content of lecturing to make it more engaging and effective in promoting learning.

Overall, the Kothari Commission made several important recommendations to improve the Indian education system, with a focus on enhancing the quality of education, establishing specialized centres of excellence, and reforming the university system to better serve the needs of students.

A, D, E only, is correct as it includes the three important recommendations made by the Kothari Commission.

Additional Information

The Kothari Commission, officially known as the Education Commission (1964-66), was a landmark inquiry into the state of education in India.

• The Commission recommended the establishment of clusters of advanced centers in major universities to promote research, and the creation of national laboratories to facilitate scientific research.
• The Commission recommended the abolition of the system of affiliate colleges, which were affiliated with universities but operated independently, and replacing it with a system of autonomous colleges.
• The Commission recommended the establishment of six major universities that would act as centers of excellence in different fields of study.
• The Commission emphasized the need to improve the quality and content of teaching, and recommended the recruitment of well-qualified and motivated teachers.
• The Commission recommended the introduction of a common school system that would provide free and compulsory education to all children up to the age of 14.
• The Commission recommended the establishment of a system of continuous evaluation to assess students' progress throughout their academic careers.
• The Commission recommended the development of vocational education to provide practical skills and training to students.
• The Commission recommended the creation of a national policy on education that would provide a framework for the development of education at all level.

During the Vedic period, the higher level of education had a specialized curriculum.

Key Points

• The education system during this period was known as the Gurukul system, in which the students lived with their teachers, known as Gurus, in an ashram or hermitage-like setting.
• The students received education in various fields such as Vedas, Upanishads, philosophy, mathematics, astronomy, and other subjects.
• The education was not only restricted to theoretical knowledge but also included practical training in agriculture, crafts, and warfare.
• The education system was primarily meant for the upper castes or the elite class.
• The specialized curriculum helped in the overall development of the students, making them experts in their fields of study.

The correct answer is D .

Key PointsThe National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) is an organization that assesses and accredits institutions of higher education in India.

It follows a set of criteria for quality assessment of institutions, which includes seven key parameters, namely,

(1) Curricular Aspects,

(2) Teaching-Learning and Evaluation,

(3) Research, Consultancy and Extension,

(4) Infrastructure and Learning Resources,

(5) Student Support and Progression,

(6) Governance, Leadership and Management, and

(7) Innovations and Best Practices.

• Out of the options given in the question, only option D, Recruitment of Teaching Professionals, is not one of the criteria for quality assessment followed by NAAC.
• The other options, A, B, C, and E, are all part of the seven key parameters for quality assessment followed by NAAC.
• The Teaching-Learning and Evaluation parameter focuses on the quality of teaching, the learning environment, and the assessment methods used.
• The Consultancy and Extension parameter emphasizes the involvement of the institution with the community through various outreach activities.
• The Infrastructure and Learning Resources parameter focuses on the adequacy and quality of the physical infrastructure, library
• Laboratory facilities, and ICT facilities provided by the institution.
• The Governance, Leadership and Management parameter emphasizes the quality of administration, decision-making processes, and financial management of the institution.

Additional Information

Accreditation:

• NAAC assesses and accredits institutions of higher education based on their performance in various categories such as teaching and learning, research and innovation, infrastructure and learning resources, student support and progression, governance and leadership, and social responsibility.

Assessment:

• The assessment process involves a comprehensive evaluation of the institution's academic programs, faculty, research facilities, student support services, governance, and leadership.
• Institutions are awarded a grade based on their performance, ranging from A++ (highest) to C (lowest).

Quality assessment criteria:

• NAAC has developed a set of quality assessment criteria to evaluate the performance of institutions.
• These include teaching-learning and evaluation, research and innovation, infrastructure and learning resources, student support and progression, governance and leadership, and institutional values and best practices.

Consultancy and extension:

• NAAC also considers the consultancy and extension services provided by institutions, which involve the application of knowledge and skills to solve problems and meet the needs of society.

Accreditation benefits:

• Institutions that are accredited by NAAC benefit from recognition and validation of their academic programs and services, increased visibility, and access to funding opportunities.

Accreditation cycle:

• The accreditation cycle of an institution is typically five years, after which the institution must undergo re-accreditation.

Self-study report:

• Institutions seeking accreditation must submit a self-study report (SSR) that provides a comprehensive overview of their performance in various categories
• . The SSR is evaluated by a peer team of experts appointed by NAAC

Formula used:

Interest = (Principal × Rate × Time)/100

Calculation:

Principal = Total Amount/(1 + Rate × Time)

Principal = 1512/(1 + 0.05 × 4)

Principal = Rs. 1260

Now, we can find out how much this amount will become in

2.5 years at an annual interest rate of 10%:

Total Amount = Principal × (1 + Rate × Time)

Total Amount = 1260 × (1 + 0.10 * 2.5)

Total Amount = Rs. 1575

Therefore, the same amount will become Rs. 1575 in 2.5

years at a 10% simple interest rate per annum.

Calculation:

The total weight of the six family members is 6 × 30 kg = 180

kg.

The average weight of the remaining 5 family members = 30

kg - 5 kg = 25 kg.

This means the total weight of the 5 family members

(excluding the head) = 5 × 25 kg = 125 kg.

Therefore, the weight of the head of the family is the total

weight of all six members minus the total weight of the five

members (excluding the head), which is 180 kg - 125 kg = 55 kg.

So, the weight of the head of the family is 55 kg.

The correct answer is Begging the Question.

Key PointsBegging the question, also known as circular reasoning, is a fallacy where an argument assumes the conclusion it is trying to prove.

• The argument in question assumes that Mr. Suresh cannot be guilty of murder without providing any evidence or logical reasoning to support the claim.
• The statement "there is no way Mr. Suresh could kill someone" is essentially the same as the conclusion, that Mr. Suresh is not guilty of murder.

Therefore, the argument simply restates the conclusion without providing any new information, making it circular and unconvincing.

• In addition, the argument does not address any potential counterarguments or evidence that might suggest that Mr. Suresh could have committed murder, making it a weak and unsupported assertion.
• In summary, the argument commits the fallacy of begging the question by assuming the conclusion without providing any evidence or logical reasoning to support it.

Additional InformationSlippery Slope:

• This fallacy occurs when it is suggested that a particular event will lead to a chain of negative consequences without sufficient evidence to support the claim.
• For example, if a person argues that if we allow people to own guns, it will lead to an increase in gun violence, which will lead to an increase in crime, which will lead to the collapse of society.

Ad Hominem:

• This fallacy occurs when an argument is attacked by attacking the person presenting the argument, rather than addressing the substance of the argument itself.
• For example, if a person argues that climate change is a real issue and the opponent responds by attacking the person's credentials or character, rather than addressing the scientific evidence behind the argument.

Equivocation:

• This fallacy occurs when the same term is used in different ways in an argument, leading to confusion or ambiguity.
• For example, if a person argues that "A feather is light, and therefore it does not weigh much" and then later argues that "An issue is weighty, and therefore it should be taken seriously." In this case, the term "weight" is being used in two different senses, leading to confusion

Important Points

The total memory required to store 800 photographs is:

800 photographs x 8 MB per photograph = 6400 MB

The total memory required to store 80 videos is:

80 videos x 400 MB per video = 32000 MB

Adding the memory required for photographs and videos, we get:

6400 MB + 32000 MB = 38400 MB

Converting MB to GB:

38400 MB / 1024 = 37.5 GB (approx)

Therefore, the answer is option 4) 37.50.