UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 12 Oct 2022 Shift 2 (Previous Year Paper)

The total number of students enrolled in college B in all the programs is

300 + 325 + 475 = 1100.

The percentage of students enrolled in B.A. in college B is

⇒ (300 / 1100) x 100

⇒ 27.27%

The total number of students studying B.C.A. in all the five colleges

we add the number of students in each college:

350 + 325 + 300 + 375 + 425 = 1775

The average number of students studying B.C.A. in all the five colleges together is

⇒ 1775 / 5 = 355.

Total number of students in B.C.A.

⇒ 350 + 325 + 300 + 375 + 425 = 1775

Total number of students in B.A.

⇒ 275 + 300 + 325 + 450 + 325 = 1675

Total number of students in B.B.A.

⇒ 425 + 475 + 325 + 425 + 225 = 1875

Now, the respective ratio of total number of students in B.C.A., B.A and B.B.A. can be calculated as:

we need to divide each of the values in the first ratio by 25

1775 : 1675 : 1875 = 71 : 67 : 75

Hence, the respective ratio of total number of students studying in B.C.A., B.A and B.B.A. in all the colleges together is 71: 67 : 75.

The total number of students studying B.C.A. in colleges C and E is

(300 + 425) = 725.

The total number of students studying B.A. in colleges A and B is

(275 + 300) = 575.

The ratio of total number of students studying in B.C.A. in the colleges C and E to those studying B.A. in the colleges A and B is

725 : 575 = 29 : 23.

Total number of students in B.B.A.

⇒ 425 + 475 + 325 + 425 + 225 = 1875

The percentage of students studying in B.B.A. in college C = 325

Percent of the total number of students studying in B.B.A. in all the five colleges together

⇒ (325 / 1875) x 100

⇒ 17%

Key Points

Statement I: The ritualistic view of communication is that it is not used for the promotion of self-interest.

Ritual Communication

• It examines how people create and express meaning through verbal and non-verbal rituals. Ritual communication extends beyond collective religious expression.
• The ritual view of communication is a communications theory proposed by James W. Carey, wherein communication–the construction of a symbolic reality–represents, maintains, adapts, and shares the beliefs of society in time.
• In short, the ritual view conceives communication as a process that enables and enacts societal transformation.
• The ritualistic view of communication is that it is not used for self-interest.

Hence statement I is correct

Statement II: In contrast, the transmission mode of communication considers it as an instrumental act.

Transmission' view of communication  Vs Ritualistic view:

• The 'Transmission' view of communication focuses more on the imparting or sending of the information to the recipient.
• 'Ritual' view on the other hand is more about participation, sharing, and more importantly, encouraging a feeling of community.
• The transmission view of communication is about imparting information to others, it’s a mode of sending and ultimately spreading messages usually as a means of control; it is a view of communication that relates to the earliest of human desires,
• The ritual view of communication on the other hand has a different purpose.
• More than the purpose of extension of messages in space, the purpose is to serve the maintenance of society by helping in generating a community feeling and in the representation of shared beliefs.
• In contrast, the transmission mode of communication considers it as an instrumental act.
• While the transmission model has the sender and receiver as the main participants, in a ritual model, there are many more participants.
• In transmission mode, the receiver gets the message, but in the ritual view, the participants enjoy a shared experience giving it a sense of community experience.

Hence statement II is correct

Therefore we can say that Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Key Points

Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children (KABC)

• ​It is a clinical instrument (psychological diagnostic test) for assessing cognitive development.
• Its construction incorporates several recent developments in both psychological theory and statistical methodology.
• The test was developed by Alan S. Kaufman and Nadeen L. Kaufman in 1983 and revised in 2004.
• The test consists of 16 subtests—10 mental processing subtests and six achievement subtests.
• Not all subtests are administered to each age group, and only three are administered to all age groups. Children ages two years and 6 months are given seven subtests, and the number of subtests increases with the child’s age.
• For any one child, a maximum of 13 subtests are administered.
• Children aged seven to 12 years and 6 months are given 13 subtests**.**
• The subtests are designed to measure a variety of cognitive abilities, including:
• Sequential processing: The ability to follow a series of steps to complete a task.
• Simultaneous processing: The ability to see the relationships between different parts of a whole.
• Learning ability: The ability to learn new information and skills.
• Memory: The ability to remember information over time.
• Achievement: The ability to perform tasks that are related to school learning.
• The KABC is a reliable and valid test of cognitive ability. It has been used extensively in research and clinical settings. The test is also used to make educational placement decisions and identify children needing special services.

​Therefore we can say that the correct answer is (16, 13).

Calculation:

The original number of bacteria = 100

After one hour the number of bacteria = 200

Since every hour bacteria in a sample doubles 

So after two hours, the number of bacteria = 400

But after every two hours, 50 bacteria are removed so the number of bacteria  after two hours = 400 - 50 = 350

In the third hour number of bacteria = 700

In the fourth hour the number of bacteria = 1400

After removal of 50 bacteria = 1400 - 50 = 1350

In the fifth hour the number of bacteria = 2700 

∴ After five hours, there are 2700 bacteria.

Hence, The correct option is 2700 bacteria

Key Points

• A teacher As an effective communicator:
• A good teacher tries to deliver his/her lessons in such a manner so as to facilitate learning and get the meaning clear in the minds of the students by encouraging them to ask doubts and give feedback.
• Thus, the teacher will be an effective communicator only when students understand the meaning of what he/she teaches.
• For effective communication teacher should retort to have:
• Natural flow of information:
• Effective communication is about more than just exchanging information. It's about understanding the emotion and intentions behind the information. As well as being able to clearly convey a message, you need to also listen in a way that gains the full meaning of what's being said and makes the other person feel heard and understood.
• A natural flow of words by teachers makes effortess teaching and effortless learning for learners too.
• Voluntary support to learning:
• A teacher should take initiative in  providing voluntary support as a pupil might not be avbe to express his/her feelings owing to shyness underconfidence or hesitation.
• A system of immediate and regular feedback
• A teacher should retort to good feedback immediately and regularly so that pupils stay connected and feel appreciated.

Additional Information

• Acquisition of elitist background do not guarantee effective communicator as a teacher as having good communication skill to deliver its information in a subtle way is more important.
• Moreover having convoluted presentations can confuse pupils.

​Therefore ,the correct answer is  (B), (C), (D) only.

In the first case:

Calculation:

The initial length is 2 feet now

Since there is a 5% growth 

After first-year length will be = (105/100) × 2 = 2.1 cm

After the Second year length will be = 2.1 × (105/100) = 2.205 cm

After the Second year length will be = 2.205 × (105/100)

= 2.31525 cm

∴ It will increase by .31525 cm in three years.

In the Second case:

Calculation:

CP = 40

SP = 56

Profit = 40%

SP = 140 % × 40 = 56

∴ Both Statement I and Statement II are true

The correct answer is 2016.

Key Points

 Disaster management plan in India:

The National Disaster Management Plan (NDMP) was released in 2016, it is the first ever national plan prepared in the country for disaster management. With National Disaster Management Plan (2016), India has aligned its National plan with the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction 2015-2030.

Vison:

Make India disaster resilient, achieve substantial disaster risk reduction, and significantly decrease the losses of life, livelihoods, and assets – economic, physical, social, cultural, and environmental  by maximizing the ability to cope with disasters at all levels of administration as well as among communities.

Objectives:

• The Disaster Management Act, 2005 provides for the integration of measures for the prevention of disasters and mitigation into the development plans and projects In accordance with the guidelines of the National Disaster Management  Authority (NDMA).
• The NDMA had prepared the National Disaster Management Plan (NDMP) in 2016 and then further revised it in 2019.
• NDMA has also issued 33 guidelines for management of various disasters on various cross-cutting issues
• Invest in disaster risk reduction for resilience through structural, non-structural and financial measures, as well as comprehensive capacity development.
• Increase resilience and prevent the emergence of new disaster risks and reduce the existing risks

The correct answer is Provide equal educational opportunities to both boys and girls, through co-educational institutions

Important Points

• Gopal Ganesh Agarkar
• He started his own periodical, Sudharak, in which he campaigned against the injustices of untouchability and the caste system. Agarkar abhorred blind adherence to and glorification of tradition and the past. He supported widow remarriage.
• Mahadev Govind Ranade:
• Popularly referred to as Justice Ranade, was an Indian scholar, social reformer, judge and author
• Ranade was a social activist whose activities were deeply influenced by western culture and the colonial state.
• His efforts to "Humanize and Equalize"
• Indian society found its primary focus in women. He campaigned against the 'purdah system' (keeping women behind the veil).
• He was a founder of the Social Conference movement, which he supported till his death,directing his social reform efforts against child marriage, the tonsure of widows, the heavy cost of weddings and other social functions, and the caste restrictions on travelling abroad, and he strenuously advocated widow remarriage and female education.
• Gopal Krishna Gokhale
• He was a senior leader of the Indian National Congress and the founder of the Servants of India Society
• It is during his tenure at Imperial Legislative Council Gokhale proposed the “Right to education”.
• He said the percentage of children attending schools had to be quadrupled.
• Two thirds of the expenditure should be borne by the government and rest by the local bodies.
• Education should be made compulsory for boys between 6 and 10 years. Girls should be exempted on the grounds of practical considerations

​So we can say that Mahadev Govind Ranade, Gopal Ganesh Agarkar, Gopal Krishna Gokhale were known to insist on the idea of Providing equal educational opportunities to both boys and girls, through co-educational institutions

Key Points

• Producer Gas
• Producer gas is fuel gas that is manufactured by blowing a coke or coal with air and steam simultaneously.
• It is a mixture of Gases that contain carbon monoxide Gas, carbon dioxide Gas, nitrogen Gas, and Hydrogen Gas.
• From these Gases, carbon monoxide Gas and Hydrogen Gas are combustible Gases.
• While carbon dioxide and nitrogen Gases are non-combustible Gases.
• Percentage Composition of Producer Gas
• The percentage composition of Producer Gas is discussed below:
• Carbon dioxide = around 3%
• Hydrogen Gas = 10 % to 15 %
• Carbon monoxide = 22 % to 30 %
• Nitrogen Gas N₂ = 50 % to 55 %
• Non-combustible Gases form the major portion of the Producer Gas

​Therefore the correct answer is (D) > (C) > (B) > (A)

Key Points

Some of the common errors include:

• Selection bias occurs when individuals or groups in a study differ systematically from the population of interest leading to a systematic error in an association or outcome.
• Asking leading questions that result in biased or false answers, as respondents are prone to simply mimic the words of the interviewer.
• Using varying phrasing or tone of voice when conducting interviews
• Intentional errors, such as cheating and fraudulent data entry.
• Failure to record answers accurately due to error of omission.
• Influencing the response of the respondents due to response error occurs due to different factors, including a questionnaire that requires improvements, misinterpretation of questions by interviewers or respondents, and errors in respondents' statements.
• Failure to establish an appropriate interview environment which can lead to falling in self-confidence of the interview by which he/she might not express him/herself as per the potential

Therefore we can say that the correct answer is (A), (B). (E) only.

Key Points

• The Dewey Sequence is comprised of six-steps for problem solving:

1. Define The Problem:

• Dewey noted the ability to identify our problem is our biggest setback.
• However, in following the Dead Fish Theory, once we are able to accept the problem at hand and its source, we can move forward to deciphering the reasoning behind the problem and begin resolving it.

2. Analyze the Problem:

• Once we have identified the problem, we have to analyze the problem using the 5-why technique.
• In utilizing the ideas behind a cause-and-effect process, we are able to explore our problem on a deeper level. Keeping with the mentality that nothing is impossible, we are able to acknowledge if there is a problem, there is a solution.

3. Determine Criteria For Optimal Solution:

• In this step, Dewey suggests looking at the costs of the implementation, both short-term and long-term as well as its ability to be implemented or enforced.

4. Propose Solutions:

• By brainstorming creative ideas, we are able to better approach our problem in hypothetical terms.
• When creating alternative solutions, without deep evaluation, we are better capable of looking at the problem in a solution-based mentality. Dewey suggests not spending too much time on options which are not feasible.
• Instead, trying the same options again from the start using the original version is the best approach. If no solution can be reached, stop and try another option

5. . Evaluate & Choose the Best Solution:

• Once we have analyzed all possible solutions available, one solution would be chosen under scrutiny of three basic questions:
• 1. Are there any disadvantages of this solution?
• 2. Do the disadvantages outweigh the advantages?
• 3. Does the solution conform to the criteria formulated for what is considered successful?

6. Implementing the Solution & Testing for Success:

• Testing the solution thoroughly for side-effects is the main goal in the last step of the process. Starting with the lowest-risk solution and its compatibility with your criteria

Therefore we can say that (D), (A), (E), (B), (C) only.

Confusion Points

The answer of this question has been dropped in the official answer key of NTA UGC NET. Hence, Based on the analysis ,the answer should be (D), (A), (E), (B), (C) only.

Key Points

File formats suitable for distributing video files across the internet Are:

.WMV:

• A file with the WMV file extension is a Windows Media Video file, compressed with one or more of Microsoft's video compression formats.
• The WMV or “Windows Media Video” was developed by Microsoft as a compressed video container for the Windows Media framework.
• Having three different types of video codec, this container can be used for online video streaming as well as sharing video content via HD DVD and Blu-ray Discs.
• WMV files are widely compatible, create relatively small video files, and preserve quality better than many other highly compressed video formats.
• Digital video can be compressed into a variety of formats, including WMV.

MPEG-4 Part 14 or MP4

• It is a digital multimedia container format most commonly used to store video and audio, but it can also be used to store other data such as subtitles and still images.
• Like most modern container formats, it allows streaming over the Internet.​
• MP4 is a popular video format used to share, download, and stream video content.
• It can package multiple media types including video, audio, images, and 3D imagery, together with complex metadata.

Additional Information

• Waveform Audio File Format
• It is an audio file format standard, developed by IBM and Microsoft, for storing an audio bitstream on PCs.
• It is the main format used on Microsoft Windows systems for uncompressed audio.
• MIDI
• It is a technical standard that describes a communications protocol, digital interface, and electrical connectors that connect a wide variety of electronic musical instruments, computers, and related audio devices for playing, editing, and recording music.
• MP3, in full MPEG-1 Audio Layer 3,
• It is a data compression format for encoding digital audio, most commonly music. MP3 files offered substantial fidelity to compact disc (CD) sources at vastly reduced file sizes

Therefore the correct answer is (A) and (E) only.

Key Points

 Assertion (A): Geothermal energy is not a renewable source of energy.

• Geothermal energy
• It is heat that is generated within the Earth. (Geo means “earth,” and thermal means “heat” in Greek.)
• It is a renewable resource that can be harvested for human use. About 2,900 kilometers (1,800 miles) below the Earth's crust, or surface, is the hottest part of our planet: the core

Hence we can say that Assertion A is false.

Reason (R): The processes for extracting and using geothermal power are more akin to those for centralized fossil-fuels than the dispersed renewable supplies of the natural environment.

• Several attributes make geothermal a beneficial source of energy, including:
• It's clean, offering energy that can be extracted without burning fossil fuels such as coal, gas, or oil.
• Using geothermal for electricity produces only about one-sixth of the carbon dioxide of a natural gas power plant, and little—if any—nitrous oxide or sulfur dioxide. Binary-cycle geothermal plants, which operate in a closed cycle, release essentially zero emissions.
• Geothermal power is “homegrown,” offering a domestic source of reliable, renewable energy.
• Geothermal energy is available 24 hours a day, 365 days a year, regardless of weather

Hence we can say that Reason R is true.

Therefore we can say that (A) is false but (R) is true.

The correct answer is UGC.

Key Points

• Scheme for Trans-disciplinary Research for India’s Developing Economy’ (STRIDE):
• The University Grants Commission (UGC) had approved this scheme in 2019.
• Broadly, STRIDE will provide support to research projects that are socially relevant, locally need-based, nationally important and globally significant.
• STRIDE shall support research capacity building as well as basic, applied and transformational action research that can contribute to national priorities with focus on inclusive human development.
• Its Scheme for Trans-disciplinary Research for India’s Developing Economy (STRIDE) is a quality mandate proposed by UGC to promote quality research by faculty and students.
• It aims at promoting the creation of new knowledge, inculcate innovative and cognitive thinking, and improving the quality of doctoral research.
• STRIDE shall support the creation, development and integration of new ideas, concepts and practices for public good and strengthening civil society.

Key Points

• Aptitude test
• They are a form of cognition based assessment designed to evaluate the ability of a person to succeed at a particular task.
• They involve an assessment of skill and ability without prior knowledge and can be undertaken across a number of formats including problem-solving, numerical, verbal and logical reasoning, and pattern recognition among others.
• Few General Aptitude tests:
• Test of Cognitive Skills (TCS):
• A cognitive ability test can measure reasoning skills, math skills, and verbal skills.
• For example TCS NQT is an assessment based on cognitive ability that gives a valid and credible score for entry-level job seekers,
• The Otis-Lennon School Ability Test (OLSAT)
• It is a multiple-choice K-12 assessment that measures reasoning skills with several different types of verbal, non-verbal, figural, and quantitative reasoning questions.
• It is designed to assess a child’s performance across a wide variety of reasoning skillsets.
• The Boehm Test of Basic Concepts-Revised  (BTBC-R-)
• It is designed to assess children’s mastery of the basic concepts that are both fundamental to understanding verbal instruction and essential for early school achievement.
• Responses generate a percentile rank score.       percentile rank of       indicates that when compared to 100 other children       chronological age,       surpassed        of them.

Additional Information

• Thurstone Word Fluency Test:
• This test became the first-word fluency psychometrically measured test available to patients with brain damage. The test is a used to measure an individual's symbolic verbal fluency.
• Metropolitan Achievement Test :
• It is an achievement test not an aptitude test.
• An achievement test is a test of developed skill or knowledge.
• It is a standardized test for students in kindergarten through twelfth grade.
• The test was developed by Harcourt Educational Measurement and evaluates skills such as critical thinking and foundation skills.

Therefore we can say he correct answer is (A), (B), (D) only.

Key Points

• 1 MB = 1000 KB (in decimal)
• 10 Mega Bytes=10³×10=10⁴KB
• 1 TB = 1012 KB (in decimal)
• 10 Tera bytes=10¹²×10=10¹³KB
• 1 EB = 1018 KB (in decimal)
• 10 Exa bytes=10¹⁸×10=10¹⁹KB
• 1 YB = 1024 KB (in decimal)
• 10 Yotta bytes=10²⁴×10=10²⁵KB

​Therefore, the correct answer is (D), (C), (B), (A).

Key Points

 Assertion (A): In a valid categorial syllogism, if a term is distributed in the conclusion, then it must be distributed in the premises.

Assertion A:

• A categorical proposition is termed "valid" if the premises are sufficient support to prove the conclusion true"
• In a valid categorical syllogism, the middle term must be distributed in at least one premise.
• For example:
• Major Premise: “All philosophers are thinkers.”
• Minor Premise: “Some philosophers are teachers.”
• Conclusion: “Some thinkers are teachers.”
• Here, the major term is thinkers, the middleterm is phillosphers, and the minor term is teachers.

Hence Assertion A is correct.

Reason (R): The conclusion of a valid argument cannot assert any more than is contained in the premises.

Reason (R):

• A syllogism is valid (or logical) when its conclusion follows from its premises.
• A syllogism is true when it makes accurate claims – that is, when the information it contains is consistent with the facts. To be sound, a syllogism must be both valid and true
• The conclusion of a valid argument cannot assert any more than is contained in the premises.
• An argument is valid if and only if it is necessary that if all of the premises are true, then the conclusion is true. If all the premises are true, then the conclusion must be true.

Hence reason R is correct

Therefore we can say that Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

The correct answer is Basic Input Output System

Important Points

• BIOS
• It stands for basic input/output system
• It is the program a computer's microprocessor uses to start the computer system after it is powered on.
• It also manages data flow between the computer's operating system (OS) and attached devices, such as the hard disk, video adapter, keyboard, mouse and printer.

Additional Information

• UEFI stands for “Unified Extensible Firmware Interface”. It’s the successor to the traditional BIOS.
• The BIOS performs all the test needed at startup time.
• These tests are collectively known as Power On Self Test (POST) .
• The computer contains hardware like keyboard, monitor, disk drives, etc. there functioning requires interfacing with the operating system.
• The BIOS provides drivers for basic hardware like keyboard and monitor, mouse, etc.

Classroom Assessment is a systematic approach to formative evaluation, used by instructors to determine how much and how well students are learning.

Key Points

• For classroom testing, the length of the test will vary depending upon
• Purpose of test:
• A class test is being taken to test the knowledge, skills, and aptitude acquired by the students. It is also used to check the vocabulary and logical thinking of students.
• It can be short  like taking a dictation or lengthy like taking a 3 hrs long paper.
• Kinds of items used
• The test shall be short if it is of onjective type and can be long if it is of a Subjective type or where writing in details are required.
• Age and ability of the pupils tested
• Instructional objective tested
• Instructional strategies involve What kinds of activities in and out of class will reinforce learning objectives and prepare students for assessments.
• If assessments are misaligned with learning objectives or instructional strategies, it can undermine both student motivation and learning. Consider these two scenarios:
• Your objective is for students to learn to apply analytical skills, but your assessment measures only factual recall.
• Consequently, students hone their analytical skills and are frustrated that the exam does not measure what they learned

Therefore we can say that correct answer is (A), (B), (D), (E) only.

(A) To calculate the length of the train,

we need to use the formula distance = speed x time.

However, the formula provided calculates the time taken for the train to cross a stationary man, not its length.

Hence, option A is not correct

(B) The formula provided does not calculate the speed of the bus. To calculate speed, we need to use the formula speed = distance / time.

Hence, option B is not correct

(C) If 25 X + 25 Y = 110, the average of X and Y is 2.2.

25X = 110 - 25Y

⇒ X = (110 - 25Y) / 25

You can substitute this expression into the average of X and Y:

⇒(X + Y) / 2 = (Y + (110 - 25Y) / 25) / 2

⇒(X + Y) / 2 = (35Y + 110) / 50

Put  (X + Y) / 2 = 2.2

⇒  (35Y + 110) / 50 = 2.2

⇒ 35Y + 110 = 110

⇒  35Y = 0

⇒ Y = 0

So X = (110 - 25 x 0) / 25 = 110 / 25 = 4.4

The average of X and Y is (4.4 + 0) / 2 = 2.2,

which confirms (C) is correct.

The correct answer is Analysis of variance

Important Points

• Analysis of variance (ANOVA)
• ANOVA is a parametric test that can be used to compare the means of two or more groups. It is a powerful tool that can be used to determine if there is a statistically significant difference between the means of the groups.

It is a tool to compare the means of several populations based on random, independent samples from each population.

• It provides a statistical test to determine if population means are equal or not (i.e. came from the same distribution).
• It splits an observed aggregate variability found inside a data set into two parts: systematic factors and random factors. The systematic factors statistically influence the given data set, while the random factors do not.
• The one-way ANOVA is used to determine whether there are any statistically significant differences between the means of three or more independent (unrelated) groups.
• A two-way ANOVA is an extension of the one-way ANOVA. With a one-way, you have one independent variable affecting a dependent variable.
• When a researcher needs to quantitatively compare the means across three or more groups, the most appropriate statistical technique is Analysis of Variance (ANOVA). ANOVA is used to determine whether there are statistically significant differences between the means of multiple groups.

Additional Information

• Chi-square test
• It is a statistical test used to compare observed results with expected results. The purpose of this test is to determine if a difference between observed data and expected data is due to chance or if it is due to a relationship between the variables you are studying.
• Correlation analysis
• In research, It is a statistical method used to measure the strength of the linear relationship between two variables and compute their association. Simply put - correlation analysis calculates the level of change in one variable due to the change in the other.
• Regression analysis
• It is a statistical technique for analysing and comprehending the connection between two or more variables of interest.
• The main uses of regression analysis are forecasting, time series modelling and finding the cause-and-effect relationship between variables.

The correct answer is Both Statements (I) and Statement (II) are false,

Key Points

Statement (I): If there are few extreme scores in the distribution, the mode will be the most appropriate measure of central tendency is false because-

• Median is the preferred measure of central tendency when there are a few extreme scores in the distribution of the data.
• Because the median is the least affected by the extreme observation.
• Mode is the preferred measure when data are measured on a nominal scale. The geometric mean is the preferred measure of central tendency when data are measured on a logarithmic scale.
• In skewed distributions, the median is the best measure because it is unaffected by extreme outliers or non-symmetric distributions of scores. The mean and mode can vary in skewed distributions.

Statement (II): Mean deviation is the most sophisticated measure of the dispersion of distribution is also false because-

• Standard deviation (SD) is the most commonly used measure of dispersion. It is a measure of the spread of data about the mean. Standard deviation is considered to be the best measure of dispersion and is, therefore, the most widely used measure of dispersion.
• SD is the square root of the sum of squared deviation from the mean divided by the number of observations. This formula is a definitional one and for calculations, an easier formula is used.
• Standard Deviation is considered the best measure of dispersion as Helps to make comparisons between the distribution of two or more different datasets. Based on all values. Capable of further algebraic treatment.

That is why the correct answer is Both Statements (I) and statements (II) are false.

The correct answer is (A), (B), (C) only. 

Important Points

• Soil degradation describes what happens when the quality of soil declines and diminishes its capacity to support animals and plants. Soil can lose certain physical, chemical, or biological qualities that underpin the web of life within it.
• Soil erosion is a part of soil degradation. It's when the topsoil and nutrients are lost either naturally, such as via wind erosion, or due to human actions, such as poor land management.

Key Points

Environmental problems associated with soils:

• Soil degradation is the physical, chemical, and biological decline in soil quality.
• It can be the loss of organic matter through nutrient leaching, decline in soil fertility, and structural condition, erosion, adverse changes in salinity, acidity, or alkalinity, and the effects of toxic chemicals by adding Metal contamination, pollutants, or excessive flooding.
• Leaching, in geology, loss of soluble substances and colloids from the top layer of soil by percolating precipitation.
• Heavy metals are common pollutants in the soil environment, namely arsenic (As), cadmium (Cd), chromium (Cr), mercury (Hg), lead (Pb), copper (Cu), zinc (Zn), nickel (Ni).
• This type of contamination is biologically toxic, widely distributed, and persists long-term in the soil environment.
• Soil salinity affects plants directly through the reduced osmotic potential of the soil solution and the toxicity of specific ions such as boron, chloride, and sodium.
• Soil alkalinity affects the physical and chemical properties of the soil.

The correct answer is the Fallacy of undistributed Middle Term.

Important Points

• In philosophy, a formal fallacy, deductive fallacy, logical fallacy, or non sequitur is a pattern of reasoning rendered invalid by a flaw in its logical structure that can neatly be expressed in a standard logic system, for example, propositional logic. It is defined as a deductive argument that is invalid.

Key Points

• The fallacy of the undistributed middle (Latin: non-distributio medii) is a formal fallacy that is committed when the middle term in a categorical syllogism is not distributed in either the minor premise or the major premise. It is thus a syllogistic fallacy.
• In classical syllogisms, all statements consist of two terms and are in the form of "A" (all), "E" (none), "I" (some), or "O" (some not).
• The first term is distributed in A statements; the second is distributed in O statements; both are distributed in "E" statements, and none are distributed in I statements.
• The fallacy of the undistributed middle occurs when the term that links the two premises is never distributed.
• In this example, distribution is marked in boldface:

All criminals are human beings.

All saints are human beings.

Therefore, all saints are criminals.

• Human being is the common term between the two premises (the middle term) but is never distributed, so this syllogism is invalid. Human beings would be distributed by introducing a premise that states either All human beings) are criminals or Some human beings are criminals.
• Also, a related rule of logic is that anything distributed in the conclusion must be distributed in at least one premise.

All criminals are human beings.

Some Saint is criminal.

Therefore, all saints are human beings.

• The middle term criminals is distributed, but saints are distributed in the conclusion and not in any premise, so this syllogism is invalid.

The correct answer is Comprehension. 

Key Points

• Comprehension is defined as the ability to grasp the meaning of the material.
• This may be shown by translating material from one form to another (words to numbers), interpreting material (explaining or summarizing), and by estimating future trends (predicting consequences or effects).
• These learning outcomes go one step beyond the simple remembering of material and represent the lowest level of understanding.
• Examples of learning objectives at this level are understanding facts and principles, interpreting verbal material, interpreting charts and graphs, translating verbal material to mathematical formulae, estimating the future consequences implied in data, justify methods and procedures.
• These learning outcomes go one step beyond simple remembering of material and represent the lowest level of understanding.
• Illustrative General Instructional Objectives Understands facts and principles. Interprets verbal material. Interprets charts and graphs. Translates verbal material to mathematical formulas. Estimates consequences implied in data. Justifies methods and procedures.

Additional Information

• Knowledge- Knowledge is defined as the remembering of previously learned material. This may involve the recall of a wide range of material, from specific facts to complete theories, but all that is required is bringing to mind the appropriate information. Knowledge represents the lowest level of learning outcomes in the cognitive domain.
• Application- Application refers to the ability to use learned material in new and concrete situations. This may include the application of such things as rules, methods, concepts, principles, laws, and theories. Learning outcomes in this area require a higher level of understanding than those of comprehension.

The correct answer is Reverse labeling.

Important Points

Communication

• Communication is defined as a process by which we assign and convey meaning in an attempt to create shared understanding. It is a process that allows organisms to exchange information by several methods. Communication is the articulation of sending a message, whether it is verbal or nonverbal, so long as a being transmits a thought-provoking idea, gesture, action, etc.

Key Points

Reverse labeling:

• Labeling is a communication skill that allows us to attach a tentative identification of the dynamics, emotions, or circumstances implied by our counterpart’s words, actions, or demeanor. Such labeling shows that we are attempting to gain an understanding of the position they are in, whom they have to influence, and the challenges they face.
• The receiver is the individual or individuals to whom the message is directed. The extent to which this person comprehends the message will depend on several factors, which include the following: how much the individual or individuals know about the topic, their receptivity to the message, and the relationship and trust that exists between sender and receiver.
• After the appropriate channel or channels are selected, the message enters the decoding stage of the communication process. Decoding is conducted by the receiver.
• Once the message is received and examined, the stimulus is sent to the brain for interpretation, to assign some type of meaning to it. It is this processing stage that constitutes decoding, When the receiver assigns a meaning to a language symbol in communication, it is called Reverse labeling.
• The receiver begins to interpret the symbols sent by the sender, translating the message to their own set of experiences to make the symbols mean.

The logic follows here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "SL".

The correct answer is (A) is false but (R) is true. 

Important Points

• Samanyatodrsta: ​This inference is based on the relationship of coexistence rather than knowledge of a causal relationship. The presence of one can be assumed from the presence of the other based on the relationship of coexistence.

Key Points

Assertion (A): In Samanyatodrsta inference the universal relation between the major and middle term depends on causal uniformity is false, because-

• In samanyatodrsta inference, however, the vyapti or universal relation between the middle and the major terms does not depend on a causal uniformity.
• The middle is related to the major neither as a cause nor as an effect. We infer the one from the other not because we know them to be causally connected, but because they are uniformly related in our experience.
• In Samanyatodrsta inference, the universal relation between major and middle terms does not depend on a causal uniformity.
• Here we infer one from the other, not because they are causally connected, but because they are uniformly related to each other in our experience.

Reason (R): The middle term of the inference is related to the major term neither as a cause nor as an effect is correct, because-

• It infers that the unperceived cause is inferred from a perceived effect as in the case of inferring past rain by seeing the swift muddy currents in the river now.
• Hence, The middle term is related to the major term neither as a cause nor as an effect is correct concerning Sāmānyatodṛsṭā inference.

That is why the correct answer is (A) is false but (R) is true.

The correct answer is Fallacy of Equivocation

Important Points

• The fallacy of equivocation occurs when a key term or phrase in an argument is used ambiguously, with one meaning in one portion of the argument and then another meaning in another portion of the argument.

Key Points

• Another kind of equivocation comes from the misuse of relative terms, which have different meanings in different contexts.
• The word “tall” is a relative term in the sense that a tall man and a tall building are tall relative to different tallness measures. A tall man is a man who is tall for a man, whereas a tall building is a building that is tall for a building. Forms of argument which are valid for non-relative terms may be invalid for relative terms.
• Thus, “An elephant is an animal, therefore a grey ele­phant is a grey animal”, is valid, but “An elephant is an an­imal, therefore a small elephant is a small animal”, is invalid.
• This is because as we use the word “grey” of animals it picks out pretty much the same range of tones (indeed color terms are typically like this); size terms however pick out different ranges of size for different animals since the normal size of an animal depends on what kind of animal it is.
• It is not always easy to tell when a term has a relative use (for example we use the term ‘red” for a range of natural hair colors which lies completely outside of the usual range of “red”); we have to think about whether we are using the word in the same way across different cases.
• No one would be taken in by the argument about small elephants as everyone knows that an elephant is not a small animal, but there are relative terms that can be used equivo­cally without obvious error.

The correct answer is "​Personal issues".

Key Points

• Let's consider the following statements from the passage.
• ​ For this reason, the majority of fictions that address themselves to general social issues tend nevertheless to end up telling the story of a particular individual, hence returning social issues to purely personal and psychological ones.
• From the highlighted part of the above statement it is clear that most novelists, while addressing social issues, prefer fictionalisation of "Personal issues".

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

 Assertion (A): Education enables upward social economic mobility and is a key for escaping poverty. Over the past decade major progress was made towards increased access to education and enrolment at all levels particularly for girls.

• Goal 4 of SDG:
• The Sustainable developement agenda contains 17 goals including a new global education goal (SDG 4).
• SDG 4 is to ensure inclusive and equitable quality education and promote lifelong learning opportunities for all' and has seven targets and three means of implementation.
• Sustainable development hinges on every child receiving a quality education. When children are offered the tools to develop to their full potential, they become productive adults ready to give back to their communities and break the cycle of poverty. Education enables upward socioeconomic mobility.
• Significant progress was achieved during the last decade in increasing access to education and school enrolment rates at all levels, particularly for girls.

Hence Assertion  is correct.

Reason (R): The global pandemic has far reaching consequences that may jeopardize hard won gains made in improving school education.

• Quoting the UNICEF report
• In 2020, as the COVID-19 pandemic spread across the globe, a majority of countries announced the temporary closure of schools, impacting more than 91 per cent of students worldwide.
• By April 2020, close to 1.6 billion children and youth were out of school. And nearly 369 million children who rely on school meals needed to look to other sources for daily nutrition.
• Never before have so many children been out of school at the same time, disrupting learning and upending lives, especially the most vulnerable and marginalised.
• The global pandemic has far-reaching consequences that may jeopardize hard won gains made in improving global education.

Hence Reason  is correct

But Reason is not support the assertion.

Therefore we can say that Both (A) and (R) are correct

Key Points 

Statement I: The Nyâya system does not accept Arthāpatti as an independent source of valid knowledge.

• Arthapatti (Sanskrit: “the incidence of a case”) in Indian philosophy, the fifth of the five means of knowledge (pramana), ie. 
• Pratyaksha - perception.
• Anumana - inference.
• Sabda - testimony.
• Upamana - comparison.
• Anupalabdhi - non-perception
• by which one obtains accurate knowledge of the world. Arthapatti is knowledge arrived at through presumption or postulation.
• Arthāpatti or postulation is regarded as an independent source of valid knowledge accepted by the Mīmāṃsā school not by the Nyaya system.

Hence statement I is correct.

Statement II: The Nyaya system reduces Arthāpatti to an inference of any type.

• The Nyaya school does not accept Arthāpatti as an independent source of valid knowledge but rather reduces it to any inference.
• Anvayi inference is a type of inference that proceeds from the known to the unknown. In the case of Arthāpatti, the known is the absence of something, and the unknown is the existence of something that would explain the absence of the first thing.
• For example, if you see smoke, you can infer there is fire. The Nyaya system argues that Arthāpatti is a type of envy inference because it is based on the relation of conjunction. The conjunction in Arthāpatti is the relation between the absence of something and the inference of its existence. For example, in the case of the footprints, the conjunction is the relation between the absence of a person and the inference of a person's existence.

Hence statement II is also correct.

Therefore we can say that Statement I and II bot are true.

Key Points

Therefore the correct code  is (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III).

Additional Information

Chicago Style:

• The Chicago Manual of Style (CMOS) covers a variety of topics from manuscript preparation and publication to grammar, usage, and documentation
• All entries in the bibliography will include the author (or editor, compiler, translator), title, and publication information.

The correct answer is No fixed curriculum.

Key Points

• Non-conventional learning:
• The non-conventional learning program is a program that involves teaching-learning activities that are offered apart from on-campus.
• This education system was started by P.H Coombs and Ahmed who had worked on non-formal education for poor children.
• The widespread approach narrows the gap of educational and gender inequality and provides fair opportunities to all people.
• • Non-conventional learning spans across all age groups which helps in meeting a variety of learning needs.
• Here Education is learner-oriented.
• There is no fixed curriculum.
• It is cost-effective.
• Non-traditional ways of learning including online learning and remote learning
• Advanced developments that dictated how learning evolved and transformed through the ages.

Additional Information

Conventional Teaching:

• Conventional learning is all about classroom teaching where the quality of learning depends on the ability of the teacher to keep the learners engaged.
• Here, teachers use learning materials like books, notebooks, charts, and other objects to drive home the finer points of a subject.

Key Points

Joint Forest Management 

• It often abbreviated as JFM is the official and popular term in India for partnerships in forest movement involving both the state forest departments and local communities.
• Joint Forest Management (JFM) is a partnership in forest management among state forest departments and local communities in India. The policies and guidelines of the JFM were enunciated in the Indian National Forest Policy of 1988
• In return for their services to the forest, the communities get benefit of various forest products (minor forest products), and thus the forest can be conserved in a sustainable manner.
• Presently, there are 84632 JFM committees with 17.33 million hectare forest area under them.
• Some 85.28 lakh families are involved in them all over the country.
• Women also participate in this
• The policies and objectives of Joint Forest Movement are detailed in the Indian comprehensive National Forest Policy of 1988
• Although schemes vary from state to state and are known by different names in different Indian languages, usually a village committee known as the Forest Protection Committee (FPC) and the Forest Department enter into a JFM agreement.

Thus we conclude that the correct answer is (B), (C) and (D) only

The correct answer is (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV).

Important Points

• Intelligence testing refers to the theory and practice of measuring people's performance on various diagnostic instruments (intelligence tests) as a tool for predicting future behavior and life prospects or as a tool for identifying interventions.
• The most widely used intelligence tests include the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale and the Wechsler scales.

Key Points

• The Abbreviated Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale-Revised estimates IQ. The abbreviated index uses four subtests (arithmetic, block design, picture completion, and information) and provides robust estimates of verbal and performance IQ that are highly correlated with the full WAIS assessments.
• The test was released in 1981, the test can be used with examinees in the 16 and up year age range.
• The WISC-R is a commonly used measure of general intelligence for children ages 6 to 16 years.
• The Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children-Revised (WISC-R, Wechsler, 1974) is, as its name suggests, a revised and updated version of the WISC, which was first published in 1949.
• The WPPSI-R scale (Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence - Revised) is a psychometric test chosen as the evaluation tool in a study on preschool-age cognitive development.
• Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence—Revised (WPPSI-R) The WPPSI-R is an intelligence test for children aged 3 years, 0 months through 7 years, 6 months. The original version of the WPPSI was developed in 1967 for ages 4 to 6 Vi years, and the WPPSI-R was revised in 1989.
• The Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children (K-ABC) is a standardized test that assesses intelligence and achievement in children aged two years, six months to and  12 years, 6 months.
• The edition published in 1983 by Kaufman and Kaufman was revised in 2002 to expand its age range (to cover children ages three to eighteen) and enhance its usefulness.

The correct answer is (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II).

Key Points

• | Computer Terms | Description | | --- | --- | | OMR | - Optical mark recognition (OMR) is an electronic method of gathering human-handled data by identifying certain markings on a document or marking multiple-choice questions. - Usually, the optical mark recognition process is achieved with the aid of a scanner that checks the transmission or reflection of light through the paper; places having markings will reflect less light than the blank paper, resulting in less contrasting reflectivity. | | MCIR | - MICR (magnetic ink character recognition) is a technology invented in the 1950s that is used to verify the legitimacy or originality of checks and other paper documents. - Special ink, which is sensitive to magnetic fields, is used to print certain characters on the original documents. | | RAM | - RAM, which stands for Random Access Memory, is a hardware device generally located on the motherboard of a computer and acts as an internal memory of the CPU. - It allows the CPU to store programs and data temporarily. - It is the read-and-write memory of a computer, which means the information can be written to it as well as read from it. | | FIREWELL | - A Firewall is a network security device that monitors and filters incoming and outgoing network traffic based on an organization's previously established security policies. - At its most basic, a firewall is essentially the barrier that sits between a private internal network and the public Internet and prevents unauthorized access to a computer network. |

The correct answer is Both Statements I and Statement II are true.

Important Points

• Microblogging is a short blog post designed for quick and typically direct audience interactions. These concise blogs are shared using social media platforms like Twitter or Instagram and can include different content formats such as audio, text, images, or video.
• Blogs and microblogs are a type of communication technology more frequently described as Web 2.0 technology or social media.

Key Points

Statement I: 'Twitter' is the most well-known microblogging site is correct, because-

• Twitter is the most famous microblogging site. It allows you to send small posts known as ‘tweets’ up to 140 characters in length.
• Apart from normal users, it is also used by celebrities and politicians. We can share photos, videos, and text on Twitter with our followers, along with trendy hashtags. You can also exchange messages on this microblogging platform.

Statement II: 'Youtube' is the largest video-sharing site it is also correct, because-

• YouTube is without a doubt, the biggest video-sharing website on the internet. It is the third most visited website in the world, with 2.6 billion active users every month, which is over ¼ of the internet's population.
• With local versions available in over 91 countries and 80 different language options to choose from, YouTube is the number one video-sharing platform in the world with more than 95% of the internet population using it.
• YouTube is the largest video-sharing website on the internet, by far. With 1.9 billion logged-in users active on the site every month, nothing even comes close.

That is why Both Statements I and Statement II are true.

The correct answer is "Aesthetic constructs".

Key Points

• Let's consider the following statements from the above passge.
• it is important for us to do so, especially as our focus is representation in media fictions, which are aesthetic as well as social constructs.
• From the highlighted part of the above statement it is clear that representations that appear in the media fictions are aesthetic constructs.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

The correct answer is "Fictional narration"

Key Points

• Let's consider the following statements from the above passage.
• In this perspective, stereotypes are a particular sub-category of a broader category of fictional characters, the type.
• From the highlighted part of the above statement it is clear that stereotypes are characterized by "Fictional narration".

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

The correct answer is "​Because of preference of social rhetoric to the individual.".

Key Points

• Let's consider the following statements from the above passage.
• In any society, it is the novelistic character that is privileged over the type, for the obvious reason that the society's privileges-at any rate, at the level of social rhetoric-the individual over the collective or the mass.
• From the highlighted part of the above statement it is clear that  the novelistic character is privileged over the type because of preference of social rhetoric to the individual.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

The correct answer is "The unchangeable traits of individuals"

Key Points

• Let's consider the following statements from the above passage.
• The type is any character constructed through the use of a few immediately recognisable and defining traits, which do not change or 'develop' through the course of the narrative and which point to general, recurrent features of the human world.
• From the highlighted part of the above statement it is clear that any character in the type will reflect the unchangeable traits of individuals.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

The correct answer is (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I).

Key Points

 Statement I: Dewey equated schools to communities and education to a social process.

• Dewey's Theory of Learning:
• He put a premium on meaningful activity in learning and participation in classroom democracy.
• Unlike earlier models of teaching, which relied on authoritarianism and rote learning, progressive education asserted that students must be invested in what they were learning.
• According to Dewey, education is a process of growth and acquisition of culture, and it appears that social environment educates its immature members.
• Thus, the social environment has an educational character.

Hence statement I is correct.

Statement II: Chomsky expressed that ultimate aim of education is production of individuals which are different from each other in terms of quality.

• Chomsky concept of education:
• Chomsky defines his view of education in an Enlightenment sense, in which the “highest goal in life is to inquire and create.
• The purpose of education from that point of view is just to help people to learn on their own.
• It’s you the learner who is going to achieve in the course of education and it’s really up to you to determine how you’re going to master and use it.”
• Under this model, “People have the idea that, from childhood, young people have to be placed into a framework where they’re going to follow orders.
• He argues that historically the purpose of mass education is to systematically create and control a people who become compliant and submissive members of society, thusly preventing the masses to perceive themselves as free and empowered to dare and question

Hence statement II is false.

Therefore we can say that Statement I is true but Statement II is false

The correct answer is 2005

Key Points

• National Knowledge Commission
• It was an Indian think-tank charged with considering possible policies that might sharpen India's comparative advantage in the knowledge-intensive service sectors.
• It was constituted on 13 June 2005, by the then Prime Minister of India, Manmohan Singh.

Objectives :

The overall task before the National Knowledge Commission is to take steps that will give India the ‘knowledge edge’ in the coming decades, i.e. to ensure that our country becomes a leader in the creation, application and dissemination of knowledge. 

• Creation of new knowledge
• Application of knowledge
• Dissemination of knowledge

​Focus Areas:

• Access to Knowledge
• Knowledge Concepts
• Knowledge Creation
• Knowledge Application
• Knowledge Services

Concepts :

 Education is a potent force for any developing state. It encourages individuals to

• Think independently
• Make better-informed decisions
• Keep abreast of important issues and trends at the local and national level
• Question existing socio-economic arrangements in a manner that leads to innovation, change and development.

As per the given condition:

Ramesh goes to North, then turns right, then turns right again and then goes to the left.

Thus, the following diagram can be drawn:

Clearly, Ramesh is in 'East' direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "East".