UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 11th Nov 2020 Shift 2 (Previous Year Paper)

Important Points

• Broadsheet is the largest newspaper format, broadcasting is the distribution of audio or video content via electronic communication media, social media is an interactive web-based on internet availability while multi-media is a form of communication, in which computer information can be represented through audio, video in addition to traditional media like graphics, drawing, etc. In a nutshell, all these mediums are different means of communication, to know the world and the people around. From this discussion, we can conclude that option (1) is correct.

According to given conditions,

(A) E is the grandson of A – False (It can be possible but it is not definite as gender of E is not known)

(B) F is the daughter of C - False

(C) B is the father of F - True

(D) There are one son and one daughter in the group – False

(E) C is the uncle of E – True

From the options, we can see that only option 2 can be the correct answer as both C and E are true.

Hence, ‘(A), (C) and (E) only’ is the correct answer.

Given:

Average age = 40 years

Formula used:

Average = Sum of all the terms/Total number of terms

Calculation:

A ∶ B = 3 ∶ 4

And, B ∶ C = 4 ∶ 5 

Then, A ∶ B ∶ C = 3 ∶ 4 ∶ 5

Let the age of A, B and C be 3x, 4x and 5x

Sum of ages of all the persons = 3x + 4x + 5x = 12x

Average = 12x/3 = 4x

⇒ 4x = 40 

⇒ x = 10 

∴ The age of B is 40

Given:

Distance to cover = 100 m

Formula used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Concept used:

To convert m/s to km/h then multiply with 18/5

Calculation:

A beats B by 10 meters or 2 seconds means B covers 10 meters distance in 2 seconds 

Speed of B = 10/2 = 5 m/s 

Total time is taken by B to complete 100 m race = 100/5 = 20 seconds

A takes 2 seconds less to complete the race

Time is taken by A to complete the race = 20 – 2 = 18 sec

Speed of A = 100/18 m/s = (100/18) × (18/5) = 20 km/h

∴ The speed of A is 20 km/h

The least possible Venn diagram is:

(A) All pencils are pens → False (It can be possible but it is not definite)

(B) Some sharpeners are pencils → False (It is definite and given no pencils are sharpeners)

(C) some pens are not sharpener → True (Part of the pens that are pencils are definitely not sharperner)

(D) Some pencils are not pens → False (It is definite)

So, only conclusion (C) follows.

Given:

Time taken by all the pipes to fill the tank = 4 hours

Time taken by pipe 1 to fill the tank = 8 hours

Time taken by pipe 2 to fill the tank = 12 hours

Formula used:

Time is taken = Total work/Efficiency

Calculation:

In 1 hour part of the tank filled by all the pipes = 1/4

In 1 hour part of the tank filled by pipe 1 = 1/8

In 1 hour part of the tank filled by pipe 2 = 1/12

In 1 hour part of the tank filled by pipe 3 = 1/4 – (1/8 + 1/12) = 1/24

∴ Total time is taken by pipe 3 to fill the tank is 24 hours

Shortcut Trick

Efficiency of the third pipe = 6 – (3 + 2) = 1

Time is taken by pipe 3 = 24/1 = 24 hours

∴ Total time is taken by pipe 3 to fill the tank is 24 hours

Charvaka has not accepted Anumana (Inference) as a valid source of knowledge.

Key Points

• Charvaka was a philosophical school of thought, developed in India c. 600 BCE, stressing materialism as the means by which one understands and lives in the world.
• Materialism holds that perceivable matter is all that exists; concepts such as the soul and any other supernatural entities or planes of existence are simply inventions of imaginative people who find the truth of existence too drab and those who profit from the gullibility of such people.
• The meaning of the name is contested with some claiming it references the act of chewing since Charvaka emphasized the importance of enjoying life through eating and drinking while others maintain it is the name of the founder or that Charvaka was a disciple of the founder, a reformer named Brhaspati. The belief system is also known as Lokayata (“philosophy of the people”) and Brhaspatya after Brhaspati.

Important Points

The Charvaka vision rejected all supernatural claims, all religious authority and scripture, the acceptance of inference and testimony in establishing truth, and any religious ritual or tradition.

The essential tenets of the philosophy were:

• Direct perception is the only means of establishing and accepting any truth
• What cannot be perceived and understood by the senses does not exist
• All that exists are the observable elements of air, earth, fire, and water
• The ultimate good in life is pleasure; the only evil is pain
• Pursuing pleasure and avoiding pain is the sole purpose of human existence
• Religion is an invention of the strong and clever who prey on the weak

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• As per Advaita Vedanta philosophy, there are six Pramanas which we employ consciously or unconsciously to gain the knowledge of various things we come across. They are Pratyaksha, Anumana, Upamana, Arthapathi, Anupalabdhi, and Sabda.
• Visistadvaita does not dispute the validity of other Pramanas, it just says there are three independent Pramanas, namely Pratyaksha, Anumana, and Sabda, and other Pramanas are reducible to these three
• Samkhya is an enumeration philosophy whose epistemology accepts three of six pramanas ('proofs') as the only reliable means of gaining knowledge. These include pratyakṣa ('perception'), anumana ('inference') and śabda (āptavacana, meaning, 'word/testimony of reliable sources')

Substance theory

1. The substance theory of Aristotle underlies his entire philosophy.
2. Substance theory is the belief that substances are the ultimate things in the universe.
3. The universe at rock bottom is not made up of elementary particles but substances.
4. This is completely different from our modern view of the world.
5. Substance theory or substance-attribute theory is a theory developed by Aristotle.
6. It is an ontological theory which states that substances are dependent on each other and cannot exist without another entity.
7. Aristotle used the word substance with regard to its category (subject/predicate).
8. He also stated that a substance is always the subject of the predicate, the subject is self-conceived and self-existent.

Hence, Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).

The correct solution is "Sesavat Anumana"

Key Points

Anumana in Indian philosophies is the second Pramana or the five means of knowledge. Inference occupies a central place in the Hindu school of logic.

The classification of inference:

• Purvavat Inference: when we infer an unprecedented effect from a perceived cause we have purvavat inference. Where the effect is inferred from the cause. e.g. we see the dark clouds in the sky in the morning and infer future rain from the dark clouds.
• Sesavat Inference: When we perceive unperceived cause from a perceived effect we have "sesavat inference". E.g. when we infer previous rain from the swift muddy current of the river.
• Samanyatodta inference: When an inference is based not on causation but on the uniformity of co-existence, it is called samanyatodta, e.g. when we infer cloven hoofs of an animal by its horns.

Therefore the answer to the above question is "sesavat anumana" because we infer previous rain from the muddy water of the pond. Hence the correct option is A.

Philosophy is the study of general and fundamental questions, such as those about reason, existence, knowledge, values, mind, and language. Such questions are often posed as problems to be studied or resolved. The term was probably coined by Pythagoras (c. 570 – c. 495 BCE). Philosophical methods include questioning, critical discussion, rational argument, and systematic presentation.

Key Points

Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

Key Points

Pramana according to Buddhism Philosophy

• Pramana means "valid cognition." In Buddhism practice, it refers to the tradition, principally associated with Dignāga and Dharmakīrti, of logic and epistemology.
• Buddhism accepts only two pramana as valid means to knowledge: Pratyaksha and Anumaṇa.
• Rinpoche adds that Buddhism also considers scriptures as the third valid pramana, such as from Buddha and other "valid minds" and "valid persons".
• This third source of valid knowledge is a form of perception and inference in Buddhist thought.
• Means of cognition and knowledge, other than perception and inference, are considered invalid in Buddhism.

Important Points

Conclusion:

• Pramana is a Sanskrit term usually translated into English as “valid cognition.”
• The main Buddhist pramana tradition dates from the beginning of the sixth century when the master Dignaga articulated a comprehensive system in his Pramanasamuchchaya, or Compendium on Valid Cognition. This system was expanded upon and refined in the seventh century by another master named Dharmakirti, who composed seven treatises on valid cognition, the most important of which is the Pramanavarttika*,* or the Commentary on Valid Cognition.
• In Buddhism, the means of cognition of knowledge are through perception (pratyaksha) and inference (anumana).

Hence, Pratyaksha has been accepted in Buddhism.

The correct answer is Read-Only Memory (ROM)

Key Points

• ROM stands for Read-Only Memory.
• ROM is a storage device that is used with computers and other electronic devices.
• Data stored in ROM may only be read.
• ROM is used for firmware updates, which means It contains the basic instructions for what needs to happen when a computer is powered on.
• Firmware is also known as BIOS, or basic input/output system.
• ROM is non-volatile storage, which means the information is maintained even if the component loses power.
• ROM is located on a BIOS chip which is plugged into the motherboard.
• ROM plays a critical part in booting up or starting up, your computer.

Important Points

Cloud Computing:

• Cloud computing is an emerging trend in the field of information technology, where computer-based services are delivered over the Internet or the cloud, and it is accessible to the user from anywhere using any device.
• The services comprise software, hardware (servers), databases, storage, etc.
• These resources are provided by companies called cloud service providers and usually charge on a pay per use basis, like the way we pay for electricity usage.
• Cloud computing is an infrastructure and software model that enables ubiquitous access to shared pools of storage, networks, servers, and applications.
• It allows for data processing to be done on a privately-owned cloud or a third-party server. This creates maximum speed and reliability. But the greatest benefit is its ease of installation, low maintenance, and scalability. This way it grows with your needs.
• We already use cloud services while storing our pictures and files as backups on the Internet or host a website on the Internet.
• Through cloud computing, a user can run a bigger application or process a large amount of data without having the required storage or processing power on their personal computer as long as they are connected to the Internet.
• Besides other numerous features, cloud computing offers cost-effective, on-demand resources. A user can avail of need-based resources from the cloud at a very reasonable cost. 
• Examples Of Cloud Storage: Dropbox, Gmail, Facebook
• Examples Of Marketing Cloud Platforms: Maropost For Marketing, Hubspot, Adobe Marketing Cloud
• Examples Of Cloud Computing In Education: SlideRocket, Ratatype, Amazon Web Services
• Examples Of Cloud Computing In Healthcare: ClearDATA, Dell's Secure Healthcare Cloud, IBM Cloud

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

Firewall:

1. A firewall is a system designed to prevent unauthorized access to or from a private network.
2. You can implement a firewall in either hardware or software form, or a combination of both.
3. Firewalls prevent unauthorized Internet users from accessing private networks connected to the internet, especially intranets.
4. All messages entering or leaving the intranet (the local network to which you are connected) must pass through the firewall, which examines each message and blocks those that do not meet the specified security criteria.
5. In protecting private information, a firewall is considered the first line of defense; it cannot, however, be considered the only such line.
6. Firewalls are generally designed to protect network traffic and connections, and therefore do not attempt to authenticate individual users when determining who can access a particular computer or network.

Thus we can conclude by saying a firewall is a software tool that protects servers, networks, and individual computers.

Th word blog is derived from the word We blog.

1. The origins of blogging go further back than the Internet to the days of personal diaries, chronicles and other written forms of personal musings.
2. Today, a blog is considered to be a Web page that serves as a publicly accessible personal journal for an individual or company.
3. The word blog itself is a play on the words We blog, as most blogs will be displayed in a journal or log entry format, where most are updated daily or more frequently than most Web sites would be.
4. Blogs often reflect the personality of the author or the company employees they represent.
5. To this end the most accurate and fitting evolution of today’s blog comes from online diaries where the diarist would keep an online journal of themselves.

There are different components in the computer system. They all have their own working mechanisms.

Some component takes input, some process the data and some give output.

All these components combine and make our work easier, comfortable, and convenient.

Some memory is like that the central processing unit (CPU) can very quickly access data stored there. The cache is hidden or stored somewhere, It has recently taken on another common meaning, “short-term computer memory where information is stored for easy retrieval. |

Hence, we may conclude that the right answer be (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV).

International convention

• An international convention or treaty is an agreement between different countries that is legally binding to the contracting States.
• Existing international conventions cover different areas, including trade, science, crime, disarmament, transport, and human rights.
• A convention becomes legally binding to a particular State when that State ratifies it.
• Signing does not make a convention binding, but it indicates support for the principles of the convention and the country’s intention to ratify it.

Key Points

The International Agreements/Convention/Protocols are legally binding on the member countries (parties) are:

Convention on Biological Diversity

• It is a legally binding agreement and an outcome of the Rio Earth Summit of 1992.
• It has three main goals-
• Conservation of biodiversity
• Sustainable use of components of biodiversity
• It has three major aims, one of which focuses on sharing the benefit of genetic resources in a fair and equitable way.

The Montreal Protocol:

• The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer (the Montreal Protocol) is an international agreement made in 1987.
• The Montreal Protocol is signed by 197 countries – the first treaty in the history of the United Nations to achieve universal ratification – and is considered by many the most successful environmental global action.
• It sits under the Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer (the Vienna Convention).
• It was designed to stop the production and import of ozone-depleting substances and reduce their concentration in the atmosphere to help protect the earth's ozone layer.
• It targets 96 ozone-depleting chemicals in thousands of applications across more than 240 industrial sectors.
• It has also produced other significant environmental benefits. Most notably, it has benefitted the global climate by reducing the amount of greenhouse gas going into the atmosphere.
• The Montreal Protocol is widely considered as the most successful environment protection agreement. It sets out a mandatory timetable for the phase-out of ozone-depleting substances.
• The only UN treaty related to environmental issues that have been ratified by all 197 UN member states is Montreal Protocol​.

Therefore, option 2 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

1. Paris Agreement

• The Paris Agreement is a legally binding international treaty on climate change.
• It was adopted by 196 Parties at COP 21 in Paris, on 12 December 2015 and entered into force on 4 November 2016. Its goal is to limit global warming to well below 2, preferably to 1.5 degrees Celsius, compared to pre-industrial levels.
• The Paris Agreement sets out a global framework to avoid dangerous climate change by limiting global warming to well below 2°C and pursuing efforts to limit it to 1.5°C. It also aims to strengthen countries' ability to deal with the impacts of climate change and support them in their efforts.

2. Kyoto Protocol

• Kyoto Protocol, in full Kyoto Protocol to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change, international treaty, named for the Japanese city in which it was adopted in December 1997, that aimed to reduce the emission of gases that contribute to global warming.

• Kyoto Protocol only binds developed countries and places a heavier burden on them under the principle of “common but differentiated responsibility and respective capabilities”, because it recognizes that they are largely responsible for the current high levels of GHG emissions in the atmosphere.

Assertion (A): Carbon dioxide emissions from bioenergy production have traditionally been excluded from most emission inventories and climate impact studies.

Explanation:

1. The emission of carbon dioxide varies from different fuels in relation to the energy they produce when burned. To analyze the emissions across these different fuels, the amount of CO2 emitted per unit of energy output is compared.
2. CO2 emissions resulting from bioenergy production have traditionally been excluded from most emission inventories and environmental impact studies because bioenergy is carbon -- and climate -- neutral as long as CO2 emissions from biofuel combustion are sequestered (isolated and hidden away) by growing biomass.
3. Its climate impact has not therefore been considered.

Therefore, Assertion (A) is the correct answer.

Reason (R): Carbon dioxide emissions associated with the production of bioenergy are significantly less compared to those from the combustion of fossil fuels.

Explanation:

1. Fossil fuel consumption is a major cause of climate change.
2. Biofuels can reduce the consumption of fossil fuels and thus reduce carbon dioxide emissions because biofuels are carbon neutral.
3. More specifically, the carbon dioxide that is emitted when biofuel is burned merely returns to the atmospheric carbon dioxide that was taken into plants from the atmosphere by photosynthesis.
4. Therefore, biofuels seem to be a very effective means for reducing these emissions.

Therefore, Reason (R) is the correct answer.

• CO2 emissions resulting from bioenergy production have traditionally been excluded from most emission inventories and environmental impact studies because bioenergy is carbon- and climate- neutral as long as CO2 emissions from biofuel combustion are sequestered by growing biomass. Its climate impact has not therefore been considered.

Therefore, Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).

Levels of teaching:

• Learner’s psychology is the main proponent of teaching
• The ultimate goal of teaching is the all-round personality development of the learner
• To follow the stages of development of a learner a teacher tries to achieve the desired educational objective
• To keep all the things stated above, a teacher teaches students at three levels, memory level, understanding level, and reflective level.
• According to Morris L. Bigge, "Teaching-learning situations may be classified on a continuum which ranges from thoughtful to thoughtless operations."

Teaching is a process in which one individual teaches or instructs another individual. Teaching is considered as the act of imparting instructions to the learners in the classroom situation. It is watching systematically. Dewey:- considers it as a manipulation of the situation, where the learner will acquire skills and insight with his own initiation.

Statement I: Indirect instruction is an approach to teaching and learning in which the process is an inquiry, the content involves concept and the context is a problem.

Explanation:

• Indirect instruction is a student-centered approach to learning where students observe, investigate and draw inferences from data.
• In this instructional model, professors take on the role of a facilitator or supporter as opposed to offering direct instruction.
• Small group instruction also characterizes this form of learning.
• Students draw upon their experiences and pose questions to better understand the course material.
• Indirect instruction refers to incorporating inquiry, problem-solving, and decision making in the learning process.
• This approach involves higher-order thinking when solving problems.
• By drawing upon their own experiences, students are able to form meaningful connections to course content.
• Indirect instruction is an approach to teaching and learning in which concepts, patterns, and abstractions are taught in the context of strategies that emphasize concept learning, inquiry, and problem-solving.
• In indirect instruction, the learner acquires information by transforming stimulus material into a response that requires the learner to rearrange and elaborate on the stimulus material.

Thus, the statement I is correct.

Statement II: In NRT test data tell us about a student's level of proficiency in the mastery of some skills or set of skills.

Explanation:

• Tests can be categorized into two major groups: norm-referenced tests and criterion-referenced tests.
• Norm-referenced refers to standardized tests that are designed to compare and rank test takers in relation to one another. Norm-referenced tests report whether test takers performed better or worse than a hypothetical average student, which is determined by comparing scores against the performance results of a statistically selected group of test-takers, typically of the same age or grade level, who have already taken the exam. Calculating norm-referenced scores is called the “norming process,” and the comparison group is known as the “norming group.”
• Criterion-referenced tests and assessments are designed to measure student performance against a fixed set of predetermined criteria or learning standards—i.e., concise, written descriptions of what students are expected to know and be able to do at a specific stage of their education. The purpose of a criterion-referenced test is to measure an individual’s level of skill or mastery over a specific body of knowledge being represented by the test.
• Thus, statement II is incorrect.

Therefore, option 3 is the correct answer.

Although every researcher wants to be able to generalize the research findings to the wider population, such a study will require much more time, money and effort. For this reason, we select a sample i.e. a smaller representation of the larger whole (population), so that we can generalize our findings from the sample to the population.

Sampling: The concept of sampling involves selecting a portion (sample) from a bigger group (the sampling population). There are three methods of sampling in research:

1. Random/Probability Sampling
2. Non-random/Non-probability Sampling
3. ‘Mixed’ Sampling

Key Points

Types of Non-Random/Non-Probability Sampling Designs: These designs do not operate on the principle of randomization rather these are used when the number of elements in the population is either unknown or cannot be individually identified.

1. Accidental Sampling: It is also based upon convenience in accessing the sampling population. People who are unwilling to provide data are simply ignored and the researcher moves to the next person until he/she meets somebody who is willing to be a participant.  You stop collecting data when you reach the required number of respondents you decided to have in your sample.
2. Judgment/Purposive Sampling: The primary consideration in purposive sampling is the researcher’s judgment as to who can provide the best information to achieve the objectives of your study. The researcher will only go to those people who in his opinion is likely to have the required information and will be willing to share it.
3. Snowball Sampling: It is also called a network or chain referral sampling. To start with, the researcher identifies a small number of respondents having a set of characteristics of interest to the researcher. After collecting the required data from those respondents, the same respondents are asked to identify others having the same characteristics set. E.g., collecting data from drug addicts, rape victims, etc.
4. Quota Sampling: The researcher is guided by some visible characteristic, such as gender or race, of the study population that is of interest to him. The sample is selected from a location that is convenient and easily accessible to the researcher and whenever a person with this visible relevant characteristic is seen that person is asked to participate in the study.
5. Dimensional Sampling: It is an extension of quota sampling where the researcher takes into account several characteristics such as gender, residence, education, etc. and ensures that there is at least one individual in the study representing each of the chosen characteristics.

Therefore, option 2 is the correct answer.

Random/Probability Sampling: In this type, each element in the population has an equal and independent chance of selection in the sample.

1. Simple Random Sampling: It is the most popular of the probability sampling methods. The idea of randomization implies that sample selection is independent of human judgment.
2. Systematic sampling is a statistical method that researchers use to zero down on the desired population they want to research. Researchers calculate the sampling interval by dividing the entire population size by the desired sample size.
3. Cluster Sampling: It is based on the ability of the researcher to divide the sampling population into groups, called clusters and then to select elements within each cluster, using the simple random sampling technique. It is appropriate when the population is large.

According to the American sociologist Earl Robert Babbie, “research is a systematic inquiry to describe, explain, predict, and control the observed phenomenon. It involves inductive and deductive methods.”

Key Points

Statement I: Qualitative research is an umbrella term to refer to various research strategies that share certain characteristics. The data collected have been

termed ‘soft’ i.e. rich in description.

Explanation:

• Qualitative research is a research strategy that usually emphasizes words rather than quantification in the collection and analysis of data. (Bryman 2008a: 366)
• Qualitative research is an umbrella term for an array of attitudes towards and strategies for conducting an inquiry that is aimed at discovering how human beings understand, experience, interpret, and produce the social world. (Sandelowski 2004: 893)
• Qualitative research focuses on the study of complex human and social problems in totality, unlike the scientific method of concentrating on the study of fragmented variables or situations or events.
• Qualitative research places the main emphasis on the researcher who narrates and interprets phenomena in terms of meanings derived from people's experiences, events, etc. Hence, the human and subjective approach is highlighted.
• The studies are conducted in a natural setting i.e., to observe the events without making any manipulations or controls on variables studied. It involves a variety of data gathering techniques and approaches of qualitative nature viz., case study, interviews, dialogues, observations, personal experience, life story, visual data like photography, etc. These data are gathered from varieties of Qualitative Research sources. Therefore, the research data collected in qualitative research has been termed soft i.e. rich in description of people, places, conversation, etc.

Thus, the statement I is correct.

Statement II: Quantitative research is mainly hypothetico deductive and employs mostly statistical techniques for data analysis.

Explanation:

• Quantitative research is defined as a systematic investigation of phenomena by gathering quantifiable data and performing statistical, mathematical, or computational techniques.
• Quantitative research collects information from existing and potential customers using sampling methods and sending out online surveys, online polls, questionnaires, etc., the results of which can be depicted in the form of numerical.
• After careful understanding of these numbers to predict the future of a product or service and make changes accordingly.
• Quantitative research is mainly hypothetico deductive and employs mostly statistical techniques for data analysis.
• A hypothetico-deductive method is an approach to research that begins with a theory about how things work and derives testable hypotheses from it. It is a form of deductive reasoning in that it begins with general principles, assumptions, and ideas, and works from them to more particular statements about what the world actually looks like and how it works. The hypotheses are then tested by gathering and analyzing data and the theory is then either supported or refuted by the results.

Thus, statement II is correct.

Therefore, option 1 is the correct answer.

Interactive method:

• It increases the level of engagement of the learners
• Interactive presentations learners to reconnect and focus when they have lost the attention
• It encourages team-building and innovation.
• Help in better retention.
• The use of tools, interactive elements, personal skills, etc. is very important.

Multimedia:

• Multimedia is a technology that facilitates all kinds of media experiences like text, audio, video, animation, photo, etc.
• This is a system of integration of more type of medias
• Multimedia allows storing data and facilitates using the date for further reference
• It is very advantageous for teaching-learning processes, and spread knowledge all over the world at a lower cost
• Multimedia can be recorded for playback on computers, laptops, smartphones, and other electronic devices, either on-demand or in real-time (streaming).

Information and Communication Technology (ICT) and Virtual classroom:

• It is an integration of Information Technology and telecommunication system using computers and necessary devices.

• It can use wireless and wired media.

• It covers any product that will store, retrieve, manipulate, transmit, or receive information electronically in a digital form

• ICT has its use in education, banking, health, e-commerce services, social networking, online research, etc.

• It has a broader and comprehensive use of devices.

• ICT enables learning through the use of computers, overhead projectors, videos, documentaries, whiteboards, etc.

• It is an infrastructure to enable modern computing.

• Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in teaching comprises Online learning, Learning through Mobile Application, and Web-based learning

• ICT promotes scope for variety, flexibility, and attractiveness.

• It is a modern teaching technique

• It has the potential to optimize learning outcomes.

• Education can unfold the intellectual qualities of man.

• Education can be categorized into three, formal education, informal education, and non-formal education.

• Formal and informal education can both are important for the enhancement of learning

• Use of new media and social networking services learning become easy and affordable

• It enhances the opportunity to expand the learning environment

• It makes education more convenient

• It is a learner-oriented and self-motivated learning system.

• Learners can design their own learning process

• Interactive and multimedia systems provide for a new culture of teaching and learning.

• Using new media services, open and distance learning and online learning getting facilitate day-bu day

• Unfold multiple opportunities of skill development, enhance knowledge, learning efficiency, exposure to media, out knowledge, etc.

Therefore, Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.

**Explanation to the above two

Statements:

**

• An asphyxiant is a substance that can cause unconsciousness or death by suffocation (asphyxiation).
• Asphyxia can be classified from a forensic point of view into four main categories: suffocation, strangulation, mechanical asphyxia, and drowning.
• Carbon monoxide (CO) is a colourless, odourless, and tasteless flammable gas that is slightly less dense than air. It is toxic to animals that use haemoglobin as an oxygen carrier (both invertebrate and vertebrate) when encountered in concentrations above about 35 ppm, although it is also produced in normal animal metabolism in low quantities, and is thought to have some normal biological functions.
• Haemoglobin is a protein in your red blood cells that carries oxygen to your body's organs and tissues and transports carbon dioxide from your organs and tissues back to your lungs. If a haemoglobin test reveals that your haemoglobin level is lower than normal, it means you have a low red blood cell count (anaemia).

Therefore,  Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

• CO is a chemical asphyxiant which means that it reduces the blood's ability to carry oxygen. Asphyxiation, or suffocation, occurs when the blood does not deliver enough oxygen to the body. CO gas is absorbed through the lungs into the bloodstream.
• Carbon monoxide has a 210 times greater affinity for haemoglobin than oxygen. A small environmental concentration will thus cause toxic levels of carboxyhemoglobin.
• Carbon monoxide is colourless, odourless, and tasteless, but highly toxic. It combines with haemoglobin to produce carboxyhemoglobin, by binding to the site in haemoglobin that normally carries oxygen, leaving it ineffective for delivering oxygen to bodily tissues. Concentrations as low as 667 ppm may cause up to 50% of the body's haemoglobin to convert to carboxyhemoglobin.
• A level of 50% carboxyhemoglobin may result in seizure, coma, and fatality. In the United States, OSHA limits long-term workplace exposure levels above 50 ppm.
• The most common symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning may resemble other types of poisonings and infections, including symptoms such as headache, nausea, vomiting, dizziness, fatigue, and a feeling of weakness.
• Affected families often believe they are victims of food poisoning. Infants may be irritable and feed poorly. Neurological signs include confusion, disorientation, visual disturbance, syncope (fainting), and seizure.

Therefore Option 1 is the correct answer.

Values:

• Values can be defined as the beliefs of an individual or a group of individuals that govern the thinking capacity.
• It includes all those virtues that form a part of an individuals' living.
• These are generally inherited by a child or gained by the environment in which they exist.
• Values are attached to the mindset of people, acting as a motivational construct.

Different theories have been developed by theorists with respect to values. One of the very famous ones being the Schwartz Theory of Basic Values. This theory makes an attempt to identify the key features of values. Six features were defined in it. These are:

1. “Values are beliefs linked inextricably to affect. When values are activated, they become infused with feeling”. This characteristic clearly indicates that values are beliefs that are tied with emotions and behaviors. Values are affected by the emotions that exist inside a human being
2. Values refer to desirable goals that motivate action.” This feature shows that values are the motivating factor that pushes human beings to strive for action. The main motivational construct in a human being is created by the values instilled.
3. “Values transcend specific actions and situations. This feature distinguishes values from norms and attitudes that usually refer to specific actions, objects, or situations.” This feature shows the basic difference between value, norm, and attitude. Values are a result of specific actions that happen with a person over the years.
4. “Values serve as standards or criteria. Values guide the selection or evaluation of actions, policies, people, and events. People decide what is good or bad, justified or illegitimate, worth doing or avoiding, based on possible consequences for their cherished values.
5. "Values are ordered by importance relative to one another. People’s values form an ordered system of priorities that characterize them as individuals.” This feature can be termed as the key feature among all of them. Values are important but they are relative to one another. The values are always set in a particular order depending on the priority of the person.

Hence, it can be observed that (A), (B) and (D) are the features of values. The correct answer is option 2.

• UGC [Institutions Deemed to be Universities] Regulations, 2016, grant of first degree though non-formal / distance education in the faculties of Arts, Humanities.
• UGC Notified about Specification of Degrees (published in the UGC (Mandatory Assessment and accreditation of Higher Educational Institutions).
• Ministry of Human Resource Development (HRD), Govt. of India, has already initiated the process for developing New Education Policy (NEP) in our country to bring out reforms in the Indian education system.
• University Grants Commission (UGC) participates more actively in developing National Education Policy, its execution, and the promotion of higher education in our country.
• The UGC has already initiated several steps to bring equity, efficiency, and academic excellence in National Higher Education System.
• The important ones include innovation and improvement in course, curricula, the introduction of paradigm shift in learning and teaching pedagogy, examination and education system.

Key Points 

There is UGC, which allows the system of the choice-based credit system (CBCS) so that students depending upon their interests and aims can choose interdisciplinary, intra-disciplinary, and skill-based courses.

• This can only be possible when a choice-based credit system (CBCS), an internationally acknowledged system, is adopted.
• The choice-based credit system not only offers opportunities and avenues to learn core subjects but also exploring additional avenues of learning beyond the core subjects for the holistic development of an individual.
• The CBCS undoubtedly facilitate us a benchmark our courses with the best international academic practices.

Important Points 

Advantages of the choice based credit system:

• The shift in focus from the teacher-centric to student-centric education.
• A student may undertake as many credits as they can cope with (without repeating all courses in a given semester if they fail in one/more courses).
• CBCS allows students to choose inter-disciplinary, intra-disciplinary courses, skill oriented papers (even from other disciplines according to their learning needs, interests, and aptitude), and more flexibility for students).
• CBCS makes education broad-based and at par with global standards.
• One can take credits by combining unique combinations.
• For example, Physics with Economics, Microbiology with Chemistry or Environment Science, etc.
• CBCS offers flexibility for students to study at different times and at different institutions to complete one course (ease mobility of students).
• Credits earned at one institution can be transferred.

Additional Information 

Disadvantages:

• Difficult to estimate the exact marks and Workload of teachers that may fluctuate.
• Demand good infrastructure for the dissemination of education.
• The CBCS provides an opportunity for the students to choose courses from the prescribed courses comprising core, elective/minor, or skill-based courses.
• The courses can be evaluated following the grading system, which is considered to be better than the conventional marks system.
• Therefore, it is necessary to introduce a uniform grading system in the entire higher education in India.
• This will benefit the students to move across institutions within India, to begin with, and across countries.

Hence, we may say that the advantages of Choice Based Credit System (CBCS) introduced by the UGC for higher education institutions can be considered as follows: 

(A) Focuses on student-centric education.​

(B) Allows students to choose inter-disciplinary and intra-disciplinary courses.

(C) Makes education at par with global standards.

(E) Offers flexibility for students to undertake studies at different times and at different institutions.

But option (D): Makes it easy to estimate the performance levels of students in terms of marks said to judge a child based on the marks that are not the purpose of UGC or any other educational institution.

The correct answer is common objectives.

Key Points

• From the passage, ' Management by objectives is basically a process where by the seniors and the junior managers of an enterprise jointly identify its common goals, define each individual’s major areas of responsibility in terms of the results expected' MBO (Management by Objective) is managed by identifying common goals /objectives.
• Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is the participatory process.

Key Points

• From the passage, ' The effective functioning of this system is an agreement between a manager and an employee about the employee’s groups performance goals during a stated time period.' It means each person has to put their efforts to achieve the goal. Hence, it requires the effective participation of both the managers and employees.
• Therefore, the requisite for 'management by objectives' is centred on participation.
• Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is sharing of responsibility with an eye on results​.

Key Points

• From the passage, ' Management by objectives is basically a process where by the seniors and the junior managers of an enterprise jointly identify its common goals, define each individual’s major areas of responsibility in terms of the results expected' It means they (employees and managers) take up responsibilities keeping in mind the result to be achieved.
• Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

The correct answer is By identifying and executing performance targets in a collaborative mode.

Key Points

• From the passage, ' The effective functioning of this system is an agreement between a manager and an employee about the employee’s groups performance goals during a stated time period. The important thing is that goals are jointly established and agreed upon in advance. At the end of the time period, performance is reviewed in relation to accepted goals.' This clearly denotes that for an organization to function effectively, an agreement (collaboration/ working together) of the manager and employees is essential to meet the goal.
• Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is integrate external and internal controls by managers.

Key Points

• From the passage, 'The concept rests on a philosophy of management that emphasizes an integration between external control by managers and self-control by employees. It can apply to any manager or individual no matter what level or function. and to any organisation. regardless of size.' which denotes the philosophy behind the 'management by objectives' which is the integration of external control by managers and internal controls by employees or managers.
• Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Locus of control and self-efficacy

• Locus of control is the degree to which people believe that they, as opposed to external forces (beyond their influence), have control over the outcome of events in their lives.
• The concept was developed by Julian B. Rotter in 1954 and has since become an aspect of personality psychology
• People with high self-efficacy for a task will most likely have an internal locus of control for success in that task.

Planning and instructing:

• A teacher must be able to plan and manage instruction based upon knowledge of the subject matter, students, the community, curriculum goals.
• A  well-prepared teacher has a tentative schedule and a set of alternative ideas that provide an opportunity to adapt to real practice knowledge.

Personalizing and contextualizing:

• The support provided to the learner includes tasks that are personalized and contextualized and tasks that are set by the teacher.
• Personalization means that the system learns certain likes, dislikes, and preferences of individual users, and uses this.
• Contextualization means that the system considers the current situation and circumstances together with the general.

Managing and Monitoring:

• Monitoring and managing teaching-learning of teachers to make effective teaching.

Key Points

• Personality is the dynamic organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that determine his characteristics behavior and thought.
• The characteristics or a blend of characteristics that make a person unique.

​Hence, we may say that the Locus of control and self-efficacy theory of personality talked about teachers' competency and attitude. 

• Other features like Managing and Monitoring, Planning and instructing, Personalising and contextualizing, are basic characteristics to become a teacher but competencies and theory of personality is Locus of control and self-efficacy theory of personality.

According to the American sociologist Earl Robert Babbie, “research is a systematic inquiry to describe, explain, predict, and control the observed phenomenon. It involves inductive and deductive methods.”

Research is a systematic inquiry towards understanding a complex social phenomenon or a process. Based on the research problem, the selection of research methods by the researcher may vary. There are two types of research on the basis of a process i.e Quantitative research and Qualitative research.

​Ethnographic Research:

• The goal of ethnographic research is to describe and interpret a cultural or social group.
• Ethnographers spend extensive time in the setting being studied and use observations, interviews, and other analyses to understand the nature of the culture.
• Ethnography is an in-depth description and interpretation of cultural patterns and meanings within a culture or social group.  The main emphasis is on groups.
• Ethnographers study specific cultural themes.

Phenomenological Research:

• ​The goal of phenomenological research is to fully understand the essence of some phenomenon.
• This is usually accomplished with long, intensive individual interviews.
• The purpose is to describe and interpret the experiences of participants in order to understand the essence of the experience as perceived by the participants.
• The basis is that there are multiple ways of interpreting the same experience and that the meaning of the experience to each participant is what constitutes reality.
• Focuses on the consciousness of human experiences.

Thus, the most appropriate answer is Ethnography and phenomenology.

Statistical significance refers to the claim that a result from data generated by testing or experimentation is not likely to occur randomly or by chance but is instead likely to be attributable to a specific cause. In most sciences, including economics, statistical significance is relevant if a claim can be made at a level of 95%.

Important Points

1. A null hypothesis is a type of hypothesis used in statistics that proposes that there is no difference between certain characteristics of a population (or data-generating process).
2. The alternative hypothesis proposes that there is a difference. The alternative hypothesis is a direct contradiction of the null hypothesis.

Key Points

• A crucial step in null hypothesis testing is finding the likelihood of the sample result if the null hypothesis were true. This probability is called the p-value.
• A low p-value means that the sample result would be unlikely if the null hypothesis were true and leads to the rejection of the null hypothesis.
• A high p-value means that the sample result would be likely if the null hypothesis were true and leads to the retention of the null hypothesis.
• But how low must the p-value be before the sample result is considered unlikely enough to reject the null hypothesis?
• In null hypothesis testing, this criterion is called α (alpha) and is almost always set to 0.05.
• If there is less than a 5% chance of a result as extreme as the sample result if the null hypothesis were true, then the null hypothesis is rejected. When this happens, the result is said to be statistically significant.
• Typically, if there is a 5% or less chance (5 times in 100 or less) that the difference in the means (or whatever statistic you are using) is as different as observed given the null hypothesis is true, you would reject the null hypothesis and accept the alternative hypothesis.

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Alternately, if the chance was greater than 5% (5 times in 100 or more), you would accept the null hypothesis and reject the alternative hypothesis.

Communication: 

• The term communication is derived from a Latin verb ‘communicare’ which means ‘to share’
• Communication is the passing of information or sharing ideas from one person to another
• Communication constitutes of three things, encoding-transfer-decoding
• Sender encodes the message, the channel transfer it to the receiver and the receiver decode the message.
• Communication is two types based on the communication channel.
• Verbal communication
• Non-verbal communication

​Verbal communication:

• Here the message is transmitted through words
• The word can be in oral or written form
• It makes the communication short and simple
• Generally, Verbal Communication takes place in real-time.
• The offline method of teaching is a good example of verbal communication
• There are two types of verbal communication
• Oral communication
• Written communication

Therefore, storytelling is considered to be an effective form of verbal communication.

Wind Generation

• The wind is a by-product of solar energy. Approximately 2% of the sun's energy reaching the earth is converted into wind energy.
• The wind-mill contains three blades about a horizontal axis installed on a tower
• A turbine connected to a generator is fixed about the horizontal axis
• Like the weather in general, the wind can be unpredictable. It varies from place to place, and from moment to moment.
• Because it is invisible, it is not easily measured without special instruments.
• Wind velocity is affected by the trees, buildings, hills and valleys around us.
• Wind is a diffuse energy source that cannot be contained or stored for use elsewhere or at another time.

Mathematical Expression Governing Wind Power

The wind power is generated due to the movement of wind.

The energy associated with such movement is the kinetic energy and is given by the following expression:

Energy= KE=1/2  x m x v²

where, 

• m = Air mass in Kg = Volume (m³) x Density (Kg/m³) = Q x ρ
• Q = Discharge
• v = Velocity of air mass in m/s

Hence, the expression for power can be derived as follows:

Power= dE/dT

= 1/2 x d/dT { m x v2} ......(Since, Energy= 1/2  x m x v2)

= 1/2 x d/dT { ρ x Q x v2}

= 1/2 x ρ x dQ/dT x v2

Here dQ/Dt = = Rate of discharge (m³/s) = A (m²)

• v (m/s)

Where, A = Area of cross section of blade movement.

Power = 1/2 x ρ x A x v³

We know that for given length of blades, A is constant and so is the air mass density ρ.

Hence we can say that wind power is directly proportional to (wind velocity)³. 

Therefore, Wind energy is very sensitive to the wind velocity because wind power is directly proportional to the cube of the wind velocity.

Wastewater treatment

• Wastewater treatment is a process used to remove contaminants from wastewater or sewage and convert it into effluent that can be returned to the water cycle with acceptable impact on the environment, or reused for various purposes.
• Processes like screening, sedimentation, and skimming are used to remove the solids. No chemicals are involved in this process.
• One of the main techniques of physical wastewater treatment includes sedimentation, which is a process of suspending the insoluble/heavy particles from the wastewater.
• Water treatment is any process that improves the quality of water to make it appropriate for a specific end-use. The end use may be drinking, industrial water supply, irrigation, river flow maintenance, water recreation, or many other uses, including being safely returned to the environment.
• The primary treatment works on sedimentation, where solids separate from the water through several different tanks. In contrast, the secondary treatment uses aeration, biofiltration, and the interaction of waste throughout its process.

Key Points

• Primary or Physical Treatment: It is the process of removal of small and large, floating and suspended solids from sewage through two processes of filtration and sedimentation. The first floating and suspended matter are removed through sequential filtration with progressively smaller pore filters.
• These include:

(1) Collection; (2) Screening and Straining; (3) Chemical Addition; (4) Coagulation and Flocculation; (5) Sedimentation and Clarification; (6) Filtration; (7) Disinfection; (8) Storage; (9) and finally Distribution.

Let's examine these steps in more detail                                                    

Therefore Option 2 is the correct answer.

University Grants Commission

• UGC stands for University Grants Commission is a statutory organization in India.
• UGC was set up by the Union of Government In 1956.
• UGC has power and holds the authority to approve the universities in India.
• Before providing university authority, the UGC team checked university educational standards.
• The main function of the UGC is to allocate funding to its funded institutions and to offer impartial and respected expert advice to the Government on the strategic development and resource requirements of higher education.

Important Points 

The guidelines issued by the UGC are mandatory for all Higher Education Institutions both government and private of National Importance.

• The UGC has the unique distinction of being the only grant-giving agency in the country which has been vested with two responsibilities:
• First, providing funds
• Second, of coordination, determination, and maintenance of standards in institutions of higher education.

Key Points 

The UGC`s mandate includes:

• Promoting and coordinating university education.
• Determining and maintaining standards of teaching, examination, and research in universities.
• Framing regulations on minimum standards of education.
• Monitoring developments in the field of collegiate and university education
• Disbursing grants to the universities and colleges.
• Serving as a vital link between the Union and state governments and institutions of higher learning.
• Advising the Central and State governments on the measures necessary for the improvement of university education.

Hence, we may conclude that the mandate of the University Grants Commission (UGC) that can be considered are as follows: -

• Promotion and coordination of University education.
• Determining and monitoring standards of teaching, examination, and research in Universities.
• Framing regulations on minimum standards of education.
• Disbursing and regulating grants to the universities and colleges.

Option (C) Organising continuous professional development programs for college and university teachers is the responsibility of that respective colleges and universities.

Formula used:

Percentage = (Obtained value/Maximum value) × 100

Calculation:

Number of females in the mechanical department = (23/100) × 900 = 23 × 9 = 207

Number of females in Electronics Department = (44/100) × 450 = 198

Required ratio = 207/198 = 23 ∶ 22

Required ratio = 23 ∶ 22

∴ The required ratio is 23 ∶ 22

Calculation:

Total number of students in all the departments = 840 + 220 + 900 + 360 + 450 + 540 = 3310

∴ Total number of students in all the departments is 3310

Formula used:

Percentage = (Obtained value/Maximum value) × 100

Calculation:

Total number of male students in the Computer Department = (55/100) × 840 = 462

Total number of male students in the Mining Department = (60/100) × 540 = 324

The total number of male students in Computer and Mining Departments together = 462 + 324 = 786

∴ The total number of male students in Computer and Mining Departments together is 786

Formula used:

Percentage = (Obtained value/Maximum value) × 100

Calculation:

The number of female in the civil department = (35/100) × 220 = 77

The number of female in the electrical department = (65/100) × 360 = 234

Total number of female in civil and electrical department = 77 + 234 = 311

Total number of students in civil and electrical department = 220 + 360 = 580

Total number of male student in civil and electrical department = 580 – 311 = 269

Required ratio = 311/269

∴ The required ratio of female and male is 311 ∶ 269

Formula used:

Average = Sum of all the terms/Total number of terms

Calculation:

Total percentage of female students in all the departments = 45 + 35 + 23 + 65 + 44 + 40 = 252%

Average = 252/6 = 42%

∴ The average of all the female students in all the departments is 42%

Confusion Points we have given Percentage of Female in column 2 and Percentage of Male in column 3. That is why we can find the average percentage from the given data.

Indirect instruction:

• Indirect instruction is an approach to teaching and learning in which concepts, patterns, and abstractions are taught in the context of strategies that emphasize concept learning, inquiry, and problem-solving.
• In indirect instruction, the learner acquires information by Emphasizing direct and indirect exemplars, Inquiry-based question-answer sessions, and constructs new knowledge to solve real-world problems.
• Indirect instruction is an approach to teaching and learning in which
• The process is the inquiry,
• The content involves concepts
• The context is a problem.
• It is actively involved in its own learning and contributes new knowledge to solve real-world problems.
• The strategies of indirect instruction are as follows,
• Use of advance organizers.
• Conceptual movement—inductive and deductive.
• Use of examples and non-examples.
• Use of questions to guide search and discovery.
• Use of student ideas.
• Student self-evaluation.
• Use of group discussion.

Therefore, (A), (C), and (E) is only correct here.

The scale of measurement:

• A scale is a device or an object used to measure or quantify any event or another object.
• In Statistics, the variables or numbers are defined and categorized using different scales of measurements.
• Each level of measurement scale has specific properties that determine the various use of statistical analysis.
• There are five scales of measurement
• ​Nominal scale
• Ordinal scale
• Interval scale
• Ratio scale
• Attitude scale

Correct matching is (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

Attitude scales:

• It provides a quantitative measurement of attitudes, opinions, or values by summarizing numerical scores given by researchers to people's responses to sets of statements exploring dimensions of an underlying theme.
• In qualitative research, this scale is very important

Research is defined as careful consideration of a study regarding a particular concern or problem using scientific methods. According to the American sociologist Earl Robert Babbie, “research is a systematic inquiry to describe, explain, predict, and control the observed phenomenon. It involves inductive and deductive methods.”

Key Points

Assertion (A): In order to bridge the gap between theory and practice both fundamental and applied research formats have to be promoted.

Explanation:

• Fundamental research, also known as basic research or pure research does not usually generate findings that have immediate applications in a practical level. Fundamental research is driven by curiosity and the desire to expand knowledge in a specific research area. This type of research makes a specific contribution to the academic body of knowledge in the research area.
• Opposite to fundamental research is applied research that aims to solve specific practical problems, thus findings of applied research do have immediate practical implications.
• It is important to note that although fundamental studies do not pursue immediate commercial objectives, nevertheless, findings of fundamental studies may result in innovations, as well as, generating solutions to practical problems.
• For example, a study entitled “A critical assessment of the role of organizational culture in facilitating management-employee communications” is a fundamental study, but the findings of this study may be used to increase the levels of effectiveness of management-employee communications, thus resulting in practical implications.
• Fundamental research is the base for applied research. Thus, in order to bridge the gap between theory and practice both fundamental and applied research formats have to be promoted. The assertion is correct.

Reason (R): Fundamental research focuses on theory making and applied research is directed at exploring the applicability of the theory in varied practical

situations.

Explanation: 

• Fundamental research is driven by a scientist's curiosity or interest in a scientific question. The main motivation is to expand man's knowledge, not to create or invent something. There is no obvious commercial value to the discoveries that result from basic research. It focuses on theory-making.
• Examples Of Fundamental Research:
• How did the universe begin?
• What are protons, neutrons, and electrons composed of?
• How do slime molds reproduce?
• What is the specific genetic code of the fruit fly?
• Applied research is designed to solve practical problems of the modern world, rather than to acquire knowledge for knowledge's sake. One might say that the goal of the applied scientist is to improve the human condition.
• Examples Of Applied Research:
• improve agricultural crop production
• treat or cure a specific disease
• improve the energy efficiency of homes, offices, or modes of transportation.

The reason is correct.

Important Points

While basic research aims at expanding knowledge by creating new theories and modifying existing ones, applied research is focused on providing practical solutions to specific problems by analyzing empirical evidence. Both types of research need to be promoted to bridge the gap between theory and practice. Thus, Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). Option 1 is the correct answer.

The positive factors of effective classroom communication are as follows:

Therefore**,** (B), (C), (D) only correct options.

• Restrictive actions can limit the effectiveness of classroom communication, So it is not a positive factor of classroom communication.
• Scattered reflections affect learning. It diverts the attention of the student.

Message production is fundamental to communication whether the message being produced is verbal, nonverbal, or both and regardless of the particular context within which communication takes place. Communicators must transmute their thinking into speech, writing, or some nonverbal medium of expression.

The sequence of stages of message processing:

1. Perception: Perception is a process consisting of three parts that we use to make sense of messages we encounter. We select, organize, and interpret stimuli so that they make sense to us.
2. Understanding: Every receiver who enters into the Communication Process brings with them their own ideas and feelings that influence their understanding of your message, and their response to it. That means it's the job, as the sender, to take these ideas and feelings into consideration when drawing up the message.
3. Selection: The next step in message processing is to select the appropriate messages in accordance with priority and then responding to them. There are various queries put in a sequence in a queue. However, appropriate messages need to be selected on a particular basis for the purpose of clearly indicating the response.
4. Internalization:  This process is an important step in message processing. It basically includes decrypting the coded messages. In this message processing as messages need to be understood by the receiver in order to understand the request and respond accordingly.
5. Action: This is the final stage in the message processing. Taking action is important from the point of view of completing the questions posted by the clients and then answering them.

Therefore, option 4 is the correct answer.

The Vedanga are six auxiliary disciplines of Hinduism that developed in ancient times and have been connected with the study of the Vedas.

The six Vedangas are:

1. Shiksha = phonetics,
2. Vyakarana = grammar,
3. Chandas = metrics,
4. Nirukta = etymology,
5. Kalpa = ritual,
6. Jyotishya = astronomy.

Therefore Option 2 is the correct answer.

Statement I: Equality of educational opportunities is a pre-condition for achieving equity in education.

Explanation:

• Equality can be understood as the treatment meted out equally among different people in a group irrespective of their backgrounds.
• This means everybody is treated equally without making any discrimination.
• Equality in education is important because to achieve the objectives of education it becomes mandatory that children are at least given access.
• “Educational equity is the assurance that every student has access to the resources and educational rigor they need during their education despite race, gender, ethnicity, language, disability, family background or family income.”
• Therefore, Equality of educational opportunities is a pre-condition for achieving equity in education.

​Therefore, the statement I is correct.

Statement II: Equity in education can be achieved without equality of educational opportunities.

Explanation:

• The equalization of educational opportunities is essentially linked with the equality notions in the social system.
• The social system which intends to provide equal opportunities for the advance­ment of all has to make provision for equal educational opportunities also.
• Therefore, Equity in education cannot be achieved without equality of educational opportunities.

Therefore, Statement II is the False.

Therefore, option 3 is the correct answer.