UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 11th Nov 2020 Shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

Formula used:

Average = Sum of all the terms/Total number of terms

Calculation:

Total number of paper printed by printer C on Monday, Wednesday, Thursday and Friday = 35 + 33 + 32 + 37 = 137

Average = 137/4 = 34.25

∴ The required average is 34.25

Calculation:

Total number of pages printed by all the printers in all the five days = 155 + 124 + 167 + 140 + 112 = 698

∴ The total number of pages printed by all the printers in all the five days is 698

Calculation:

Total number of pages printed by printer A in all the five days = 25 + 40 + 22 + 32 + 36 = 155

Total number of pages printed by printer B in all the five days = 20 + 15 + 11 + 42 + 36 = 124

Total number of pages printed by printer C in all the five days = 35 + 30 + 33 + 32 + 37 = 167

Total number of pages printed by printer D in all the five days = 15 + 20 + 40 + 30 + 35 = 140

Total number of pages printed by printer E in all the five days = 25 + 20 + 20 + 22 + 25 = 112

Arranging according to the ascending order = 112 < 124 < 140 < 155 < 167

∴ The printer D has printed third lowest number of pages in all the five days

Formula used:

Percentage = (Paged printed by printer E/Pages printed by printer D) × 100

Calculation:

Total number of pages printed by printer D in all the five days = 15 + 20 + 40 + 30 + 35 = 140

Total number of pages printed by printer E in all the five days = 25 + 20 + 20 + 22 + 25 = 112

Percentage = (112/140) × 100 = 80%

∴ The required percentage is 80%

Calculation:

The total number of pages printed by printer E on Monday = 25

The total number of pages printed by printer D on Wednesday = 40

Ratio = 25/40 = 5 ∶ 8

∴ The ratio of pages printed by printer E on Monday to the pages printed by printer D on Wednesday is 5 ∶ 8

Hence, we may say the teaching objective of education is to share and care with critical and reflective evaluation and learning.

Robert Mills Gagne was an American educational psychologist best known for his "conditions of learning".

• Also known for his science of instruction.
• This hierarchy is based on a simple to complex approach.

Gagne suggests that learning tasks for intellectual skills can be organized in a hierarchy according to complexity. The primary significance of the hierarchy is to identify prerequisites that should be completed to facilitate learning at each level. Prerequisites are identified by doing a task analysis of a learning/training task. He has classified learning into eight types in hierarchical order as given below:

1. Signal learning: It is also known as classical conditioning. In this learning, The unconditioned stimulus is paired with the conditioned stimulus to elicit the response and later on to see whether CS is alone able to elicit the response or not.
2. S-R learning: It is also known as instrumental learning. In this kind of learning the experimenter waits for the subject to emit a response that approximates the one he wishes to establish and then reinforces it.
3. Chain learning: Chaining means the connection of a set of individual S-R in sequence.
4. Verbal associate learning: Mediating connections between each verbal unit and the next must-have been previously learned.
5. Multiple discrimination: Discrimination involves higher mental processes. It is the basis upon which we learn to think and solve problems.
6. Concept learning: A concept is a class of stimuli, which have common characteristics. We form concepts by finding properties that a class of objects shares in common.
7. Learning of principle: Learning of principle depends upon learning of concept formation and another form of learning. Principles show the regular relationship between two or more concepts.
8. Problem-solving: This comes at the highest stage in the hierarchy of the learning process. It depends on learning rules. It constitutes the use of the ‘discovery method’.

Conclusion:

From the above discussion, it is clear that discrimination learning immediately precedes' concept of learning.

Hence, we may say that adolescence is the age of conceptual understanding based on Jean Piaget. Also, there is ample scope for promoting concept learning under the adolescence stage of the learner because the learners have the ability to think abstractly with logical arguments.

Programmed Instructional material :

• It is a technique of self-instruction, one can learn by himself or herself
• The instruction could be computer-assisted or printed format
• The main focus is to develop materials that maximize learning foster understanding and reinforcement to the learner.
• Programmed Instructional material uses active responding and immediate feedback as important principles for learning
• The significant characteristics of Programmed Instructional material are
• Active responding
• Immediate feedback
• Individual difference is taken care
• Continuous evaluation
• Immediate confirmation
• Self-pacing

Thus the use of programmed instructional material as a supplement has the potential to optimize learning outcomes.

Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in Teaching:

• It is an integration of Information Technology and telecommunication system using computers and necessary devices.
• It can use wireless and wired media.
• It covers any product that will store, retrieve, manipulate, transmit, or receive information electronically in a digital form
• ICT has its use in education, banking, health, e-commerce services, social networking, online research, etc.
• It has a broader and comprehensive use of devices.
• ICT enables learning through the use of computers, overhead projectors, videos, documentaries, whiteboards, etc.
• It is an infrastructure to enable modern computing.
• Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in teaching comprises Online learning, Learning through Mobile Application, and Web-based learning
• It is a modern teaching technique
• It has the potential to optimize learning outcomes

Therefore, Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

The correct solution is "Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)".

Key Points

Criterion reference assessment: This is the process of evaluating (grading) the learning of students against a set of pre-determined qualities or criteria without reference to the achievement of others. A criteria referenced test is a style of test that uses test scores to generate a statement about the behaviour that can be expected of a person with that score. Most tests and quizzes that are written by school teachers can be considered as criterion-referenced tests.

Norm-referenced assessment: compares the student to the expected performance against that of peers within a cohort with similar training and experience. Examples of norm-referenced tests include the SAT, IQ tests, and tests that are graded on a curve. If you score at the 80^th percentile, that means you scored better than 80% of people in your group.

• Both tests have their own advantages and disadvantages. Like the quality of NRT is usually high because they are developed by the experts, piloted and revised before they are used with the students. It is generally intended to judge the school performance and schools accountability of providing learning standards and maintaining the quality of education. These tests may be designed to measure oral-language ability, visual motor skills, and cognitive and social development.
• CRT is good to measure specific skills, objectives or domain. It gives direction to learn how well students are learning. It is good to determine learning progress if students have learning gaps or academic deficits that need to be addressed. CRT gives direction to teaching and re-teaching. Instructors can use the test results to determine how well they are teaching the curriculum and where they are lagging behind.
• Thus it is true that for ensuring successful teaching-learning systems both norm-referenced and criterion reference testing procedures for interpretation of scores have to be synthesized. And parents and educational administrators along with the students themselves need to know the status of accomplishment in terms of laid down criteria and relative positions of the participants and that of others.

• Etymologically, a hypothesis is made up of two words 'hypo' (less than) and 'thesis', which means less than a thesis.
• It is the presumptive statement of a proposition or a reasonable guess, based upon the available evidence, which the researcher seeks to prove through his/her study.
• A hypothesis is an assumption or proposition whose testability is to be tested on the basis of the compatibility of its implications with empirical evidence with previous knowledge.

Historical method:

• It is more difficult to test a historical hypothesis than in other types of researches, due to the reason that historical research is considered ex post facto in nature.
• The events being investigated have already taken place.
• Therefore the researcher has no control over the variables. He cannot manipulate them.
• It is also not possible for him to repeat or re-enact the event. He can merely interpret the available data related to the event that occurred in the past.
• Thus, the hypothesis in the historical method of research is implied and not explicit.
• For example, suppose that someone is writing a thesis about the Battle of Waterloo.

All the information about the Battle of Waterloo is the same everywhere, what can the researcher add?? Nothing actually, he/she is going to end up summarizing a dozen of books about it without bringing anything new to the topic (not because he/she cannot but because it's history and cannot be manipulated).

Therefore, in the historical method of research, hypotheses are usually implied rather than being explicit.

Additional Information

Research is a systematic inquiry towards understanding a complex social phenomenon or a process. They are broadly categorized into qualitative and quantitative research. Based on the research problem, the selection of research method by the researcher may vary.

Qualitative research:

• It is grounded in the assumption that individuals construct social reality in the form of meanings and interpretations, and that these constructions tend to be transitory and situational.
• Qualitative research typically involves qualitative data, i.e., data obtained through methods such as interviews, on-site observations, and focus groups that are in narrative rather than numerical form.
• Such data are analyzed by looking for themes and patterns. It involves reading, re-reading, and exploring the data.

Following are the features of qualitative research:

• Qualitative research assumes that there exist multiple realities in situations. These realities exist in concrete forms. They are perceived by people differently and thus become different mental constructs for different people. This requires the researcher to be immersed in the situation in present as well as the past to understand and interpret the reality.
• Qualitative researchers do not believe in the process of generalization as propounded by scientists. They argue that in the process of making a generalization, a lot of meaningful information existing in individual units is undermined; hence generalized knowledge does not represent real knowledge. According to them, the process of knowledge generation must be taken into account and generalization should be suitable as per different specific situations and should not be taken absolutely. Thus, they believe in context-bound generalizations.
• Emergent design refers to the ability to adapt to new ideas, concepts, or findings that arise while conducting qualitative research.
• The objective is to explore a phenomenon to gain understanding by diving deeper into the problem.
• Used qualitative methods of data collection such as interviews, focus groups, observation, etc.
• The sample size is kept small.
• Believes in interpretivism paradigm and disregards the positivist assumptions and statistical data analysis
• Inductive reasoning is employee where things are observed, a pattern is developed and then the theory is formed
• The conclusions are descriptive rather than predictive

Thus, (A), (C) and (E) only is the correct answer.

The correct solution is "A-(II), B-(III), C-(IV), D-(I)"

Sampling: is a process used in statistical analysis in which a predetermined number of observations are taken from a larger population. The methodology used to sample from a larger population depends on the type of analysis being performed, but it may include simple random sampling or systematic sampling.

Key Points

Population: Set of all elements of interest in a study

Sample: Subset of population

Types of sampling:

• Probability sampling: is a sampling technique in which the researcher chooses samples from a larger population using a method based on the theory of probability. Probability samples are selected in such a way as to be representative of the population.
• Non-probability sampling: is a sampling method in which not all the members of the population have an equal chance of participating in the study, unlike probability sampling.

In the above question the sampling given is probability sampling, except for dimensional sampling, let us brief each one of them:

• Stratified sampling: In this type of sampling the population is divided into relatively homogeneous groups called strata based on their characteristics (gender, race, educational background). Once divided, each group is randomly sampled using another sampling method. It is suitable when the population is heterogeneous.
• Cluster sampling: Elements in the population are divided into separate groups called clusters. Each cluster is representative of the population as a whole. Cluster sampling is a method of probability that is often used to study large populations, particularly those that are widely geographically dispersed.
• Systematic sampling: is a probability sampling method in which researchers select members of the population at a regular interval ( or k) determined in advance.
• k= N/n, where k is a systematic sampling interval, N is the population size and n is the sample size. Elements are chosen at uniform intervals.
• Dimensional sampling: is an extension to quota sampling. The researcher takes into account several characteristics example gender, age, income, residence and education. The researcher must ensure that there is at least one person in the study representing each of the chosen characteristics. It is a non-probability sampling type. For example: Out of 20 people the researcher ensures they have interviewed 5 male people (certain gender), 5 (certain age group) and 5 who have income between 30000 to 40000.

Therefore, it is clear from the above explanation that the answer to the above question is "Option 4".

Research:

• A systematic search for an answer to a question or a solution to a problem is called research.
• The term research consist of two words,’ Re’+’Search’. “Re” means again and again and “Search” means to find out something
• Actually, research is simply the process of arriving at a dependable solution to a problem through the planned and systematic collection, analysis, and interpretation of data.
• Research is the most important process for advancing knowledge for promoting progress and enabling man to relate more effectively to his environment to accomplish his purpose and to solve his conflicts.

Purpose of the research:

• Research extends knowledge of human beings' social life and environment.
• Research reveals the mysteries of nature.
• Research establishes generalizations and general laws and contributes to theory building in various fields of knowledge.
• Research verifies and tests existing facts and theories.
• Research helps us to improve our knowledge and ability to handle situations.
• General laws developed through research may enable us to make reliable predictions of events.
• The research aims to analyze inter-relationship between variables and to derive causal explanations, which help us to better understanding the world in which we live.
• The research aims to find solutions to the problem, e.g.:- socio-economic problems, health problems, organizational and human relational problems, and so on.
• Research also aims at developing new tools, concepts, and theories for a better understanding of unknown phenomena.
• Research helps the national planning board to focus on our national development. It enables the planners to evaluate alternative strategies, on-going programs, and evaluation, etc.,
• Research provides functional data for rational decision-making and formulation of strategies and policies.

Action research:

• In action research, research is jointed with action.
• Researchers became participants in planned policy initiatives.
• It is an action program launched for solving a problem or for improving an existing situation,  basically directed at bettering the situation​.
• Government institutions and voluntary agencies undertake action programs for achieving specific goals or objectives.
• Social welfare programs human resource development programs, research for improving the quality of life in factories and offices, etc, are some examples of the action research program.

​

Therefore, Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Academic eco-system:

• An academic institution is an ecosystem.
• One dictionary definition of the ecosystem is: "a biological community of interacting organisms and their physical environment."
• If we believe that a school is an ecosystem, it has tremendous implications for how we organize schools and conduct ourselves within them.
• A fundamental principle of an ecosystem is interdependence.
• In an academic institution, teachers and students both are independent of each other.
• A teacher is successful only when his/her students achieve the desired learning goals.
• Students depend on the teacher for better knowledge, motivation, and guidance.
• Another fundamental principle of ecosystems, they are designed to adapt and thrive which is very common in academic life.
• A straightforward admission of one's own limitations is acceptable in an academic eco-system.

Therefore, Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

The term ‘Communication’ is derived from the Latin “Communis”, which means - ‘to make common’, ‘to share’ or ‘to transmit’. Communication is a two-way process in which participants not only exchange ideas and information but also share mutual understanding. It can be broadly divided into four types based on the size of a social group.

Mass Communication:

• In mass communication, have a large number of audiences that are diverse and they are all can’t be grouped in one place so we need a certain tool or technology for the communication process.
• It is a single source for transmitting the information.
• But in mass communication, there is no direct access to the receiver.
• So, for that, they need media like newspapers, radio, television, and the internet.
• Here the audience feedback is very less or delayed.

​

Mass media constitute two things

• Media technology: the techniques, skills, or methods used as a tool or outlet for communication
• Mass communication: imparting or exchanging information to large segments of the population
• The stages in mass communication
• Exposure
• Attention
• Perception
• Retention
• Attitudinal change

Classroom teaching and learning is a complex, multilayered, and social experience. Many things happen at the same time, and the students and teacher must interpret and process these events with considerable rapidity. 

The way in which each student perceives, interprets, processes, and understands classroom activities—not what the teacher does—is the single most important factor in determining the educational outcomes acquired by that student.

Key Points

Classroom teaching-learning limitations

• Working memory without a scientific exploration of divergent thinking and ideas.
• Conscious awareness but less opportunity to participate and discuss it due to lack of time and ways of expression.
• Yes tags used by students even if there are mental disagreements

Working memory:

• As the base of retaining information and experience within the mind.
• In classroom learning memory power is used traditionally to memorization without drilling deep with scientific and logical reasoning, or without creative thinking, it focuses on rote memorization, which is a limitation.
• As a limitation, working memory helps giving ideas and solutions to a problem.

Conscious awareness:

• The great quality of thinking but within a classroom learning students can't talk freely about their thinking, awareness, and mental skills due to lack of time and burden of instruction.
• Even if this is a great important quality to talk about our disagreements.

'Yes' tags:

• The teacher eccentric and one-word answer type learning, which doesn't give chance to improve creative thinking

Overall, we can say those classroom limitations where it is easy to talk about something are - Working memory, Conscious awareness, and Yes tags.

Effective classroom communication:

• It is a kind of face to face interaction
• The main aim is to achieve the instructional objectives
• Mainly the objectives related to the cognitive domain
• According to Cole and Chan there are five distinctive stages
• Formulation of massage
• Encoding
• Transmission
• Decoding and interpretation
• Evaluation and feedback
• Effective classroom communication would help students internalize knowledge, subject matter, articulation, language felicity.

Impacts of Classroom communication:

• It develops interaction between the teacher and student
• Develop a large scope of exchange of ideas and information
• Develop a supportive system of communication
• Allow questioning and in-depth study
• Develop management skill
• Improve the overall learning environment.

Therefore it is clear that the impact of classroom communication should be so regulated that it should result in the Exchange of ideas and information.

Below is the explanation of the correct answer:

Therefore, the correct option is (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

Research ethics:

• Research ethics govern the standards of conduct for scientific researchers.
• It is important to adhere to ethical principles in order to protect the dignity, rights, and welfare of research participants.
• Research ethics and its observance are necessary for the interest of credibility and quality of research.
• This is because the policy-making bodies have to be accountable for pursuing research with an eye on promoting excellence.

Principles of research ethics:

• Honesty: Honestly report data, results, methods and procedures, and publication status. Do not fabricate, falsify, or misrepresent data.
• Objectivity: Strive to avoid bias in experimental design, data analysis, data interpretation, peer review, personnel decisions, grant writing, expert testimony, and other aspects of research.
• Integrity: Keep your promises and agreements; act with sincerity; strive for consistency of thought and action.
• Carefulness: Avoid careless errors and negligence; carefully and critically examine your own work and the work of your peers. Keep good records of research activities.
• Openness: Share data, results, ideas, tools, resources. Be open to criticism and new ideas.
• Confidentiality: Protect confidential communications, such as papers or grants submitted for publication, personnel records, trade or military secrets, and patient records.
• Respect for intellectual property: Honor patents, copyrights, and other forms of intellectual property. Do not use unpublished data, methods, or results without permission. Give credit where credit is due. Never plagiarize.
• Competence: Maintain and improve your own professional competence and expertise through lifelong education and learning; take steps to promote competence in science as a whole.
• Legality: Know and obey relevant laws and institutional and governmental policies.
• Respect to all: respect for colleagues, respect for human properties, non-discrimination

:

• Every research institute has to enforce research ethics in order to ensure the credibility and meaningfulness of human inquiry
• ICT tools are mainly used by researchers for their ability to ease the knowledge-gathering process and to enhance resource-development.
• Researchers in general value creativity and originality.
• ICT tools that provide the most open situations with great autonomy to the researcher can really help in identifying and solving research problems in the most creative ways.
• ICT tools help to manage information, protect them, and maintain confidentiality using specific keys.

Therefore, Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Girls:  A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in row.

1. Only B is standing between D and F.
2. A does not stand next to either F or D.
3. C does not stand next to D.
4. Only E stands between A and C.

(A) Only F stands between B and C - True

(B) Only C stands between A and F - False

(C) D and A occupy extreme ends - True

(D) Only E stands between F and A - False

(E) Only B stands between D and F - True

Hence, ‘(A), (C) and (E) only’ is the correct answer.

Given:

\(\sqrt{{{(4)}^n}} \) = 256

Concept used:

a^b = a^c then b = c

Formula used:

(a^b)^c = a^{(b × c)}

Calculation:

Our equation:

\(√ {{{(4)}^n}}\) = 256

⇒ 4ⁿ = (256)²      ----(By squaring both the side)

⇒ 4n = (4⁴)²      ----(∵ 256 = 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 = 4⁴)

⇒ 4n = 4⁸

⇒ n = 8

Now, √n = √8 = 2√2

∴ The answer of the given expression is 2√2

Given:

Discount, (D) = 20%

Formula used:

Selling price = Marked price × (100 – D%)/100

Profit = SP – CP

Profit % = (Profit/CP) × 100

Successive profit = P₁ + P₂ + (P₁P₂)/100

Here, P₁ and P₂ is profit

Calculation:

Let the cost price of the goods be 100x

Then, MP = CP + 50% of CP

⇒ 100x + 50x = 150x

Now, Selling price = Marked price × (100 – D%)/100

⇒ 150x × (100 – 20)/100 = 120x

Profit = SP – CP

⇒ 120x – 100x = 20x

Profit % = (20x/100x) × 100 = 20%

When the trader weights the goods 20% less then it means, instead of 1000 gram trade weights 800 grams

Trader earns profit of 200 grams in 800 grams then the profit % is

Profit % = (200/800) × 100 = 25%

Overall profit = 20 + 25 + (20 × 25)/100 = 50%

∴ The net profit earned by the trader is 50%

Calculation:

∴ The man is 600 meters far and in the west direction from his original position

Given:

The man reaches the office late by 30 minutes

Formula used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Concept used:

Speed is inversely proportional to the time taken 

Calculation:

Let the distance from the office and home be x and original speed be y

Then, the Original time is taken = x/y

Decreased speed = 2y/3

Time is taken when speed is decreased = Distance/Speed = x/(2y/3)

Now, A/Q

x/(2y/3) – x/y = 30

⇒ 3x/2y – x/y = 30

⇒ x/2y = 30

⇒ x/y = 30 × 2 = 60 minutes

∴ The actual time is taken by the man to reach the office is 60 minutes

The correct solution is "(A), (B), (C), (E), (D)".

Nyaya Philosophy:

• It is one of the six systems of Indian Philosophy.
• Gautama is the main proponent of Nayaya philosophy.
• The four Pramanas of Nyaya philosophy is perception, inference, analogical reasoning and testimony.

Key Points

There are five members in nyaya syllogism:

• Pratigya or proposition: It is the logical statement which is to be proved.
• For example: The hill is fiery.
• Hetu or reason: which states the reason for the establishment of the proposition.
• For example: Because the hill is smoky.(hetu)
• Udharana: which gives the universal concommitance together with an example.
• For example: whatever is smoky is fiery, e.g. a kitchen.
• Upanaya: the application of the universal concommitance to the present case.
• For example: This hill is also smoky.
• Nigamana: conclusion drawn from the preceding propositions.
• For example: Therefore this hill is fiery.

 These five propositions of the Indian syllogism are called members or avayavas.

The correct solution is "Viruddha"

 A fallacy in Indian logic is known as Hetvabhasa. This fallacy means, the middle term appears to be a reason but is not a valid reason. In western logic, fallacies are formal in nature.

Key Points

These are the following fallacies in Indian logic:

• Savyabhicara or the fallacy of irregular middle: a middle term may be irregularly related to the major term. When the middle is not uniformly related to the major term then that is called savyabhicara hetu.
• example: all bipeds are rational.
• swans are bipeds.
• therefore, swans are rational.
• Viruddha or the contradictory middle: The viruddha hetu or the contradictory middle is that hetu, which though offered to establish the existence of the sadhya actually establishes the non-existence of the sadhya.
• example: sound is eternal because it is produced.
• Satpratipaka or the inferentially contradicted middle: when a hetu which is advanced to establish a particular sadhya in inference is validly contradicted by another hetu which proves the non-existence of the sadhya of the first inference, the fallacy of satpratipaka arises.
• example: sound is eternal because it is audible.
• Asiddha or the unproved middle: The asiddha hetu is one which is not yet proved, but requires to be proved, like the sadhya. This means that the asiddha hetu is not a proved or an established fact, but an asiddha or unproved assumption.
• Example: sky lotus is fragnant, because it has lotuses in it like a natural lotus.
• Badhita hetu or the non-inferentially contradicted middle: The middle term of inference may be contradicted by some other stronger means of knowing such as perception, testimony, etc.
• Example: "fire is cold because it is a substance".

Hence the answer to the above question is "Viruddha" or contradictory middle which happens when a middle term exists, not in the objects in which a major exists, but in those in which major does not exist. That is, Viruddha or the contradictory middle is that which is pervaded by the absence of the major term.

Note the following philosophers and their philosophy:

• Plato (429–347 BCE): He is one of the most dazzling thinkers in the Western philosophical tradition and one of the most penetrating, wide-ranging, and influential authors in the history of philosophy. As per Plato, the soul always retains the ability to recollect what it once grasped of the forms, when it was disembodied, and that the lives we lead are to some extent a punishment or reward for choices we made in a previous existence.
• David Hume in his 'An Enquiry Concerning Human Understanding', explains what mattered most in his philosophy: “All the objects of human reason or enquiry may naturally be divided into two kinds, Relations of Ideas, and Matters of Fact.” Hume making a distinction between ‘relations of ideas’ and ‘matters of fact’ which is broadly known today as Hume’s Fork. The description of his fork corresponds to three separate distinctions which have been important in analytic philosophy. Though not explicit, Hume's fork identifies three dichotomies namely, analytic/synthetic, necessary/contingent and a priori/a posteriori (priori mean knowledge prior to any experience and posteriori means knowledge after any experience).
• David Hume’s (1711-1776) exciting new philosophic outlook combined the empiricism of John Locke and George Berkeley, who argued that knowledge comes only from sense perception, with the moral philosophy of Francis Hutcheson, who argued that morality comes only from sentiment or feeling. Putting these together Hume states that our knowledge is nothing but sense perceptions which our feeling leads us to believe.
• For Kant, synthetic propositions are a priori. For him, synthetic propositions a priori are most significant in scientific cognition and are found in mathematics and in physics.

Statement I: Dioxins and furans are highly toxic substances produced mainly during incineration of municipal solid waste, hazardous and medical wastes.

Explanation:

• Dioxins are a group of highly toxic chemical compounds that are harmful to health. They can cause problems with reproduction, development, and the immune system.
• They can also disrupt hormones and lead to cancer.
• Known as persistent environmental pollutants (POPs), dioxins can remain in the environment for many years.
• Dioxins are mainly byproducts of industrial practices. They are produced through a variety of incineration processes, including improper municipal waste incineration and burning of trash, and can be released into the air during natural processes, such as forest fires and volcanoes.
• Furan is a colorless, flammable, highly volatile liquid with a boiling point close to room temperature.
• Furan is a volatile (boiling point = 31.4°C) cyclic ether found in cigarette smoke and is used in the production of resins and lacquers, agrochemicals, and pharmaceuticals
• Furan is a heterocyclic organic compound, consisting of a five-membered aromatic ring with four carbon atoms and one oxygen. Chemical compounds containing such rings are also referred to as furans. Furan is used as a starting point for other specialty chemicals.

Therefore, Statement I is correct.

Statement II: Dioxins and furans play a crucial role in photochemical smog formation.

Explanation:

• A chemical reaction between solar ultraviolet radiation and an atmosphere polluted with hydrocarbons and oxides of nitrogen causes photochemical smog.
• This is especially common from automobile exhaust.
• Smog can happen both during the day and at night, but photochemical smog only happens in the presence of sunlight.
• Photochemical smog is composed of primary and secondary pollutants. Primary pollutants, which include nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds, are introduced into the atmosphere via vehicular emissions and industrial processes.
• Photochemical smog is a type of smog produced when ultraviolet light from the sun reacts with nitrogen oxides in the atmosphere.
• It is visible as a brown haze, and is most prominent during the morning and afternoon, especially in densely populated, warm cities.
• Dioxins and furans do not play a crucial role in photochemical smog formation.

Therefore, statement II is incorrect.

Therefore, Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.

India is a country that is blessed by Sun. Solar energy is available almost throughout the year and can be used as alternate source input to meet our energy demands.

• Solar energy is the cheapest, inexhaustible, environmentally friendly, and can be used for various domestic and agricultural requirements including cooking, drying, dehydration, heating, cooling, and solar power generation.
• A survey of solar cookers worldwide shows that a wide variety of cookers have been designed.
• The common feature of each design is the glossy reflective surface that directs the sun‟s rays onto the cooking area and dark inner walls of the cooking area and cooking vessel.
• The incident solar radiation is directed by the reflector onto the cooking pot located at the focus.

Key Points

A dish solar cooker: -

• Parabolic Concentrating cooker
• Dish type of solar cookers is used for faster outdoor cooking for about 10-15 persons.
• Such cookers may be used for cooking food without any conventional fuel for large families or institutions.
• A dish type of solar cooker uses a parabolic dish to concentrate the incident solar radiation.
• This solar cooker is also known as the SK-14 type of solar cooker.
• The SK-14 is a parabolic solar cooker invented by Dr. Dieter Seifert that can cook for 10-15 people per day with only 2-3 hours of sunlight. (also note that using a pressure cooker dramatically reduces the cooking time.) Food can be kept hot for hours (or allowed to finish cooking) using a heat-retention cooker.
• This model of solar cooker is useful for homes and small establishments.
• On a sunny day, the cooker can deliver the power of about 0.6 KW, which can boil two to three litres of water in half an hour.
• The temperature achieved at the bottom of the vessel can reach 350-500ºC.
• The cost of the dish type of solar cooker may vary from Rs. 5500 to Rs. 7000 depending upon the type of reflector and other features.
• It can save up to 10 LPG cylinders per year upon full use at small establishments.
• At present, Govt. of India provides an incentive of up to 30% of the cost of the cooker (subject to a maximum of Rs. 1500 per cooker).
• The parabolic concentrator is a dish type solar concentrating cooker designed and developed by Dr Ing. Dieter Siefert.
• It has an aperture diameter of 1.4 meter and focal length of 0.28 meter.
• A concentrating solar cooker uses large inexpensive reflective surfaces like an anodized aluminium sheet or glass mirrors, which are usually less expensive. which has a reflectivity of over 80%.
• The smaller absorbing (receiving) surface is insulated from all sides except the side exposed to concentrated solar energy..

Important Points

Hence, we may say that option 2 is right as A dish solar cooker

• has a reflecting material of the anodized aluminium sheet.
• needs to track the sun to deliver the power of about 0.6 kW.
• uses a parabolic dish to concentrate the incident solar radiation.

CABE is the highest body to advise central and state governments on education.

• The Central Advisory Board of Education, the oldest and the most important advisory body of the Government of India in education was first established in 1920 and dissolved in 1923 as a measure of the economy. It was revived in 1935 and has been in existence ever since.
• The Central Advisory Board of Education or CABE is the apex advisory body responsible for advising the Central and the State Governments in the field of education.
• It was first established in the year 1920 but was dissolved later. It again came into existence in the year 1935. It is the highest and the oldest advisory board for governments in the educational domain.

Objectives

• To provide suggestions to all the educational institutions of the country in preparing the syllabus.
• To provide a common platform for the state and the Centre to share their views about improving educational standards.
• To advise the state and the central governments, regarding any kind of educational question.
• Appoint committees for making recommendations on various educational issues.
• To ask for expert reviews and information and suggestions from various government agencies, non-government organizations, and institutions in matters pertaining to education.

1. UGC stands for University Grants Commission​:

• The University Grants Commission of India (UGC India) is a statutory body set up by the Government of India in accordance with the UGC Act 1956 under the Ministry of Education and is charged with coordination, determination, and maintenance of standards of higher education.
• The main aim & role of UGC in higher education is to provide funds to universities and coordinate, determine & maintain the ethics in institutions of higher education.
• The commission upholds the interpretation among the universities, government, and the community.

2. National Skill Development Agency (NSDA)

• It is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship that anchors the National Skill Qualifications Framework and allied quality assurance mechanisms for synergizing skill initiatives in the country.

3. The National Institute of Educational Planning and Administration (NIEPA):

• It is established by the Ministry of Human Resource Development, Government of India is a premier organization dealing with capacity building and research in the planning and management of education not only in India but also in South Asia.

In the Vedic period, women enjoyed a privileged place in society. The wife was the mistress of the household and she had the authority over the slaves. Women participated with her husband in all the religious ceremonies. In the Vedas, few women scholars are mentioned like Gargi, Maitreyi, VIswambhara, and Apala.

1. Gargi was the daughter of sage Vachaknu and Vedic prophetess.
2. She composed numerous hymns that questioned the origin of human existence.
3. Gargi was one of the famous participants when the King Janak of Videha arranged a 'Brahma yajna'.
4. Maitreyi was a woman philosopher and prophet.
5. The Rig Veda contains numerous hymns out of which nearly 10 are accredited to Maitreyi.
6. She contributed towards the improvement of her husband's personality and the flowering of spiritual thoughts.
7. Yajnavalkya was the husband of Maitreyi and had two wives Katyayani and Maitreyi. Maitreyi was well-versed in the Hindu scriptures and Katyayani was an ordinary woman.
8. Other prominent women during the Vedic period are Ghosha, Lopamudra, Sakata, and Nivavari.

Therefore, option 3 is the correct answer.

Saṅghamittā (Saṅghamitrā in Sanskrit) was the eldest daughter of Emperor Ashoka (304 BC – 232 BC) and his first wife, Devi. Together with her brother Mahinda, she entered an order of Buddhist monks. The two siblings later went to Sri Lanka to spread the teachings of Buddha at the request of King Devanampiya Tissa (250 BC – 210 BC) who was a contemporary of Ashoka.

The NATIONAL ASSESSMENT AND ACCREDITATION COUNCIL (NAAC) conducts assessment and accreditation of Higher Educational Institutions (HEI) such as colleges, universities, or other recognized institutions to derive an understanding of the 'Quality Status' of the institution.

Important Points

NAAC has categorized the Higher Educational Institutions (HEI) into three major types:

• (University, Autonomous College, and Affiliated/Constituent College)

1. Universities (Central / State / Private / Deemed-to-be) and Institutions of National Importance
2. Autonomous colleges /Constituent Colleges / Affiliated Colleges (affiliated to universities recognized by UGC as an affiliating University)
3. Accredited HEIs applying for Reassessment or Subsequent Cycles of Accreditation.

The NAAC has identified a set of seven criteria to serve as the basis of its assessment procedures for the three types of HEIs are:

• Curricular Aspects
• Teaching-learning & Evaluation
• Research, Innovations & Extension
• Infrastructure & Learning Resources
• Student Support & Progression
• Governance, Leadership & Management
• Institutional Values & Best Practices.​

Hence, we may say the criteria for the assessment of higher education institutions as laid down by the National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) includes:

(A) Curricular aspects

(B) Teaching-learning and Evaluation

(D) Research, innovation and extension

Bit rate is commonly measured in bits per second (bit/s) and often includes a prefix, such as 'kilo', 'mega', 'Giga', or 'Tera'.

• One kilobit per second (kbit/s) is the equivalent of 1000 bits per second.
• In video streaming, bitrate refers to the number of bits that are conveyed or processed in a given unit of time.
• In most computing and digital communication environments, one byte per second (1 B/s) corresponds to 8 bits.

​Hence, we may say that Bit rate is the number of bits per second that can be transmitted over a network.

A greenhouse gas is any gaseous compound in the atmosphere that is capable of absorbing infrared radiation, thereby trapping and holding heat in the atmosphere. By increasing the heat in the atmosphere, greenhouse gases are responsible for the greenhouse effect, which ultimately leads to global warming.

• The primary greenhouse gases in Earth's atmosphere are water vapor (H₂O), carbon dioxide (CO₂), methane (CH₄), nitrous oxide (N₂O), and ozone (O₃).

• The higher concentrations of greenhouse gases—and carbon dioxide in particular—is causing extra heat to be trapped and global temperatures to rise

• Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs), perfluorocarbons (PFCs), and sulfur hexafluoride (SF6) are sometimes called high-GWP gases because, for a given amount of mass, they trap substantially more heat than CO2.

• Methane (CH4)

• It is estimated to have a GWP of 28–36 over 100 years.

• CH4 emitted today lasts about a decade on average, which is much less time than CO2.

• Methane is a stronger greenhouse gas than carbon dioxide because it has a much higher heat-trapping ability. Methane on a weight basis has 21 times the global warming potential (GWP) of carbon dioxide.

• So 16 grams of methane (one mole) when completely burned produces 44 grams of carbon dioxide (one “gram molecular weight” or mole).

• Nitrous oxide

• It is commonly known as laughing gas or nitrous, is a chemical compound, an oxide of nitrogen with the formula N2O.

• At room temperature, it is a colorless non-flammable gas, with a slight metallic scent and taste. At elevated temperatures, nitrous oxide is a powerful oxidizer similar to molecular oxygen.

• It is a powerful greenhouse gas that has a GWP 300 times that of carbon dioxide on a 100-year time scale

• It accounts for about 6 percent of human-caused greenhouse gas emissions worldwide.

• CFC-12:

• A single molecule of CFC-12 can hold nearly 11,000 times the heat of carbon dioxide, making it an extraordinarily potent greenhouse gas. The small, dark shed where the refrigerant cache was gathering dust held nearly 30,000 pounds of CFCs.

• CFC-11:

• CFC-12 has a GWP of 8500, while CFC-11 has a GWP of 5000. Various HCFCs and HFCs have GWPs ranging from 93 to 12,100. Water, a substitute in numerous end-uses, has a GWP of 0. GWP represents how much a given mass of a chemical contributes to global warming, over a given time period, compared to the same mass of CO2.

• Trichlorofluoromethane, also called freon-11, CFC-11, or R-11, is a chlorofluorocarbon (CFC). It is a colorless, faintly ethereal, and sweetish-smelling liquid that boils around room temperature. CFC-11 is a Class 1 ozone-depleting substance which damages Earth's protective stratospheric ozone layer.

• Sulfur hexafluoride 

• It is an extremely potent and persistent man-made and naturally occurring greenhouse gas that is primarily utilized as an electrical insulator and arc suppressant. It is inorganic, colorless, odorless, non-flammable, and non-toxic.

• It makes a hugely effective insulating material for medium and high-voltage electrical installations. It is widely used across the industry, from large power stations to wind turbines to electrical sub-stations in towns and cities.

Therefore Option 4 is the correct answer.

Statement I: Board of studies is the basic unit of the academic system of the University.

Explanation:

1. University consists of various units and subunits in its academic system.
2. There are professors, deans, heads of Department, senior officers, and others. These units and subunits help in the integration of various factors ultimately help in the achievement of overall objectives.
3. The quality of the academic system is dependent on the most basic unit that is the Board of Studies.
4. It is the building block of the academic system, existing at the right bottom of the tier system.
5. It is this basic unit that helps setting up the whole system systematically.

Therefore, the statement I is correct.

Statement II: The responsibilities of the Board of studies include planning, coordination, and review of the academic programs of the university.

Explanation:

Functions of the Board of Studies:

• To monitor and review the existing programme structures, course syllabi, vis-à-vis programmes of other Institutes, teaching and evaluation methodology, market requirement, modern trends and update the courses and programmes and make suggestions for amendments, if any.

Planning is not the main function of the Board of Studies. Therefore, statement II is the incorrect

Therefore, Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

Wireless networking is a method by which homes, telecommunications networks, and business installations avoid the costly process of introducing cables into a building, or as a connection between various equipment locations.​ The main purpose of using a wireless network is its flexibility, roaming, low cost, and high standard.

Types of Wireless Networks.

1. WLAN (Wireless Local Area Network)
2. WWAN (Wireless Wide Area Network)
3. WMAN (Wireless Metropolitan Area Network)
4. WPAN (Wireless Personal Area Network)
5. Ad-hoc Network.
6. Hybrid Network.

Wi-Fi is a wireless networking technology that allows devices such as computers (laptops and desktops), mobile devices (smartphones and wearables), and other equipment (printers and video cameras) to interface with the Internet. Internet connectivity occurs through a wireless router.

• In general, wireless networks are less secure than wired networks since the communication signals are transmitted through the air. Because the connection travels via radio wave, it can easily be intercepted if the proper encryption technologies (WEP, WPA2) are not in place.
• Wired networks are generally much faster than wireless networks. This is mainly because a separate cable is used to connect each device to the network with each cable transmitting data at the same speed. A wired network is also faster since it never is weighed down by unexpected or unnecessary traffic.
• Wireless networks enable multiple devices to use the same internet connection remotely, as well as share files and other resources. There are also disadvantages to wireless networks, however, especially when you compare them with wired networks, which generally maintain a faster internet speed and are more secure.

Benefits of Wireless Network

• Increased Mobility: Wireless networks allow mobile users to access real-time information so they can roam around your company’s space without getting disconnected from the network. This increases teamwork and productivity company-wide that is not possible with traditional networks.
• Installation Speed and Simplicity: Installing a wireless network system reduces cables, which are cumbersome to set up and can impose a safety risk, should employees trip on them. It can also be installed quickly and easily when compared to a traditional network.
• Wider Reach of the Network: The wireless network can be extended to places in your organization that are not accessible for wires and cables.
• More Flexibility: Should your network change in the future, you can easily update the wireless network to meet new configurations.
• Reduced Cost of Ownership over Time: Wireless networking may carry a slightly higher initial investment, but the overall expenses over time are lower. It also may have a longer lifecycle than a traditionally connected network.
• Increased Scalability: Wireless systems can be specifically configured to meet the needs of specific applications. These can be easily changed and scaled depending on your organization’s needs.

​Therefore Option 2 is the correct answer.

1. ontological: "It is impossible that the same thing belongs and not belong to the same thing at the same time and in the same respect." 2. psychological: "No one can believe that the same thing can (at the same time) be and not be." 3. logical: "The most certain of all basic principles is that contradictory propositions are not true simultaneously." Example:  "man" means "two-footed animal" (for example), and so if anything is a man, it is necessary (by virtue of the meaning of "man") that it must be a two-footed animal, and so it is impossible at the same time for it not to be a two-footed animal. | | (C) Clearness and distinctness | - Clear and distinct perceptions are defined by Descartes as those perceptions which are so self-evident that, while they are held in the mind, they cannot logically be doubted. - In the Principle of Philosophy, Descartes reiterates the truth rule from the Third Meditation (in the somewhat weaker form that we can avoid the error by assenting only to what we clearly and distinctly perceive) and indicates how we often go wrong with respect to that rule. | | (D) Pre-established harmony | - Gottfried Leibniz's theory of pre-established harmony is a philosophical theory about causation under which every "substance" affects only itself, but all the substances (both bodies and minds) in the world nevertheless seem to causally interact with each other because they have been programmed by God in advance to "harmonize" with each other. Leibniz's term for these substances was "monads", which he described in a popular work (Monadology ) as "windowless". |

Therefore Option 2 is the correct answer.

The full form of the abbreviation ISP is Internet Service Provider.

1. An Internet service provider (ISP), a company that provides Internet connections and services to individuals and organizations.
2. In addition to providing access to the Internet, ISPs may also provide software packages (such as browsers), e-mail accounts, and a personal Web site or home page.
3. ISPs can host Web sites for businesses and can also build the Web sites themselves.
4. ISPs are all connected to each other through network access points, public network facilities on the Internet backbone.

Multilateral Fund:

• The Multilateral Fund for the Implementation of the Montreal Protocol was established in 1991 under Article 10 of the treaty.
• The Fund's objective is to provide financial and technical assistance to developing country parties to the Montreal Protocol whose annual per capita consumption and production of ODS is less than 0.3 kg to comply with the control measures of the Protocol.
• The Multilateral Fund help developing countries comply with their obligations under the Protocol to phase out the use of ozone-depleting substances (ODS) at an agreed schedule.
• ODS is used in refrigeration, foam extrusion, industrial cleaning, fire extinguishing and fumigation.
• The phase-out of ODS will enable the ozone layer to repair itself.
• The Fund was the first financial mechanism to be born from an international treaty.
• It embodies the principle agreed at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development in 1992 that countries have a common but differentiated responsibility to protect and manage the global commons
• Financial and technical assistance is provided in the form of grants or concessional loans and is delivered primarily through four implementing agencies:
• United Nation Environment Programme (UNEP)
• United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
• United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO)
• World Bank

Therefore, we can conclude, a multilateral fund for implementation of Montreal Protocol was set up to provide financial and technical assistance to developing countries, parties to Montreal protocol, whose annual per capita consumption and production of ozone-depleting substances amounted to less than 0.3 kg.

The methodology for the delivery of voice and multimedia sessions over the internet is called VoIP.

• Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP), is a technology that allows you to make voice calls using a broadband Internet connection instead of a regular (or analog) phone line.
• Some VoIP services may only allow you to call other people using the same service, but others may allow you to call anyone who has a telephone number - including local, long-distance, mobile, and international numbers.
• Also, while some VoIP services only work over your computer or a special VoIP phone, other services allow you to use a traditional phone connected to a VoIP adapter.
• VoIP services convert your voice into a digital signal that travels over the Internet. If you are calling a regular phone number, the signal is converted to a regular telephone signal before it reaches the destination.
• VoIP can allow you to make a call directly from a computer, a special VoIP phone, or a traditional phone connected to a special adapter.
• In addition, wireless "hot spots" in locations such as airports, parks, and cafes allow you to connect to the Internet and may enable you to use VoIP service wirelessly.

1. TCP/IP: The Internet protocol suite is the conceptual model and set of communications protocols used in the Internet and similar computer networks. It is commonly known as TCP/IP because the foundational protocols in the suite are the Transmission Control Protocol and the Internet Protocol.

2. UDP: In computer networking, the User Datagram Protocol is one of the core members of the Internet protocol suite. 

3. Chat:  to take part in an online discussion in a chat room.

There are different components in the computer system. They all have their own working mechanisms.

Some component takes input, some process the data and some give output.

All these components combine and make our work easier, comfortable, and convenient.

 

Hence, we may conclude that the right answer be (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III).

Sick building syndrome (SBS) is a condition in which people in a building suffer from symptoms of illness or become infected with chronic disease from the building in which they work or reside.

• The outbreaks may or may not be a direct result of inadequate cleaning or inappropriate cleaning methods.
• Describe situations in which building occupants experience acute health and comfort effects that appear to be linked with time spent in a building, but no specific illness or cause can be identified.
• Building occupants complain of symptoms associated with acute discomfort, e.g., headache; eye, nose, or throat irritation; dry cough; dry or itchy skin; dizziness and nausea; difficulty in concentrating; fatigue; and sensitivity to odours.
• The cause of the symptoms is not known.
• Most of the complainants report relief soon after leaving the building.
• Building occupants complain of symptoms such as cough; chest tightness; fever, chills; and muscle aches.
• The symptoms can be clinically defined and have clearly identifiable causes.
• Complainants may require prolonged recovery times after leaving the building.

Hence, we may say that Sick Building Syndrome (SBS) is a condition Of human health due to indoor air pollution.

Skill-based/vocational education:

• In order to make education relevant and to create ‘industry fit’ skilled workforce, the institutions recognized under Community Colleges / B.Voc Degree programme, and Deen Dayal Upadhyay KAUSHAL Kendras offering skill-based courses will have to be in constant dialogue with the industry and respective Sector Skill Council(s) so that they remain updated on the requirements of the workforce for the local economy.
• There will be credit-based modular programmes, wherein banking of credits for skill and general education components shall be permitted so as to enable multiple exit and entry.
• This would enable the learner to seek employment after any level of Award and join back as and when feasible to upgrade her / his qualification/skill competency either to move higher in her / his job or in the higher education system.
• This will also provide the learner with an opportunity for vertical mobility to the second year of B.Voc degree programme after one-year of diploma and to the third year of B.Voc degree programme after a two-year advanced diploma.

The students may further move to masters and research degree programmes (NSQF Level 8 – 10) As the CBSE and many other school boards are initiating skill-based vocational courses with certification at NSQF Level 4 for students completing 10+2, there may be three types of learners getting admission to the first semester of skill-based courses under NSQF:

• Category – 1: students already acquired NSQF certification Level 4 in a particular industry sector and opted for admission in the skill-based courses under NSQF in the institutions recognized under Community Colleges / B.Voc Degree programme / Deen Dayal Upadhyay KAUSHAL Kendras in the same trade with job role for which he/she was previously certified at the school level.
• Category – 2: students who have acquired NSQF certification Level 4 but may like to change their trade and may enter into skill-based courses in a different trade.
• Category – 3: students passed 10+2 examination with conventional schooling without any background of vocational training.
• The institutions/community college / KAUSHAL Kendras will develop curriculum and arrange for skill-intensive training/teaching for the learners belonging to the 2 category-2 and 3 as above during the first six months who will be assessed and certified for NSQF Level 4 of skill competency by concerned SSC at the end of the first semester.
• However, learners belonging to category-1 will not require such certification as they were already having NSQF level 4 certificates in the same industry sector/job role required for specified skill credits.
• All the learners continuing to Diploma courses or further will be treated at par from the second semester onwards. Students may exit after six months with a Certificate (NSQF Level 4) or may continue for diploma or advanced diploma level courses.​​

Therefore, in the context of skill-based/vocational education, NSQF competency level 8 is equivalent to Masters's (Post-graduate) degree.

The correct answer is fast rate of developmental activities.

Key Points

• From the passage,'Birds are under severe stress and strain because of human activities and many of them are facing a threat to their survival. The threats come in various way, such as habital loss and damage to ecosystems, agricultural and industrial activities and issues like pesticides poisoning and effluent discharges, urbanization and to some extent, hunting and pet trade' indicates that growing human activities (agricultural, industrial, effluent discharges) are having an undesirable effect on birds.

Hence, we can say that faster development activities are destroying the ecosystem that is essential for the survival of the birds.

The correct answer is highly endangered​.

Key Points

• From the passage,' Some species which were categorised as being of "least concern" by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) were found to be seriously endangered' denotes most of the species have fallen into the category of 'seriously endangered' from the category of 'least concern'.

Therefore the correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is in specific geographical areas​.

Key Points

• From the passage,' Some geographical areas present greater threats to them than others. Some species which are found in the Western and the Eastern Ghats are fast dwindling.' clearly says that some unique species that are only found in some specific geographical areas are disappearing in a faster way.

Therefore the correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is stability of survival in areas other than urban.

Key Points

• From the passage,' Amidst the bleak news, one bright sport is about the sparrows which had disappeared from cities but are now found to be stable in numbers in other areas. That shows some resilience but the conditions that helped them to survive may not be available to other birds' gives an example of how sparrows have survived in other locations other than urban which is good news amidst rising concerns.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

The correct answer is it is time to take international reports on bird extinction seriously.

Key Points

From the passage, statements like,

• 'Birds are under severe stress and strain because of human activities and many of them are facing a threat to their survival'
• 'A study has noted both long-term and recently recorded annual losses. Some species which were categorised as being of "least concern" by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) were found to be seriously endangered.'
• 'Protection of habitats and other steps to save the birds should get high priority. We are yet to realise that the disappearance of birds from nature or the diminution of their numbers will make life difficult for us.'
• Indicate that the author is concerned about the extinction of birds. An international report (study) from 'International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)' does raise a concern about the faster reduction of birds and such reports should be taken into consideration to save the birds, save nature and human beings.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

First, we should get straight on the four "categorical forms" of statements.

• Universal affirmative (total affirmation)

     All (scientific theories) are (improvable): 

• Universal negative (total negation)

           No (celestial bodies) are (static).

• Particular affirmative (partial affirmation)

           Some (fruits) are (bitter).

• Particular negative (partial negation)

          Some (chemicals) are not (toxic).

​

A categorical proposition: is a proposition that asserts or denies that all or some of the members of one category are included in another. The study of arguments using categorical statements forms an important branch of deductive reasoning. 

Distribution in categorical Propositions:

• The A statement distributes the subject term only.
• The E-statement distributes both the subject term and predicate term.
• The I statement distributes no terms (neither the subject nor the predicate)
• The O statement distributes the predicate term only.

Distribution

 

Therefore, in Universal Negative Proposition- Both the terms are distributed.