Official Paper

UGC NET Paper 1: 5th January 2026 Shift 2 (Previous Year Paper)

50 questions · 60 minutes · with answers · free

Attempt as Timed Mock Test

Paper 1 (50 questions)

The following table shows the number of tourists who visited six different cities namely, Shimla, Jaipur, Delhi, Agra, Goa and Manali by using five different modes of transport namely, Air, Bike, Train, Bus and Car in a given month of 2024. Based on the data in the table, answer the questions that follow.

 

CityNumber of Tourists
Mode of Transport Used
AirBikeTrainBusCar
Shimla348382376344384
Jaipur364374332356360
Delhi296362388326312
Agra296340370284264
Goa366298318310298
Manali348284326316336
1

What is the average number of Tourists who travelled by Bike to different cities?

  1. ((a))

    320

  2. ((b))

    290

  3. ((c))

    340

  4. ((d))

    268

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

340

Given:

Number of cities = 6

Bike tourists:

Shimla = 382

Jaipur = 374

Delhi = 362

Agra = 340

Goa = 298

Manali = 284

Formula used:

Average = Total ÷ Number of observations

Calculation:

Total Bike tourists = 382 + 374 + 362 + 340 + 298 + 284

⇒ Total = 2040

⇒ Average = 2040 ÷ 6

⇒ Average = 340

∴ The average number of tourists who travelled by Bike is 340.

2

Number of Tourists who visited different cities using all the five transport is more than 1600 for exactly ————— cities.

  1. ((a))

    3

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    5

  4. ((d))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

4

Given:

Six cities: Shimla, Jaipur, Delhi, Agra, Goa, Manali

Five modes: Air, Bike, Train, Bus, Car

Condition: Total tourists > 1600

Formula used:

Total tourists of a city = Sum of all five modes

Calculation:

Shimla = 348 + 382 + 376 + 344 + 384

⇒ 1834 > 1600 ✔

Jaipur = 364 + 374 + 332 + 356 + 360

⇒ 1786 > 1600 ✔

Delhi = 296 + 362 + 388 + 326 + 312

⇒ 1684 > 1600 ✔

Agra = 296 + 340 + 370 + 284 + 264

⇒ 1554 < 1600 ✘

Goa = 366 + 298 + 318 + 310 + 298

⇒ 1590 < 1600 ✘

Manali = 348 + 284 + 326 + 316 + 336

⇒ 1610 > 1600 ✔

∴ Number of cities = 4.

3

Who is the respective ratio of the number of Tourists who visited jaipur by Car to the number of Tourists who visited Goa by Bus?

  1. ((a))

    35:32

  2. ((b))

    37:32

  3. ((c))

    36:31

  4. ((d))

    32:27

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

36:31

Given:

Tourists visited Jaipur by Car = 360

Tourists visited Goa by Bus = 310

Formula used:

Required ratio = Jaipur (Car) : Goa (Bus)

Calculation:

Required ratio = 360 : 310

⇒ Divide both terms by 10

⇒ 36 : 31

∴ The required ratio is 36 : 31.

4

The number of Tourists who visited Shimla by using all the five modes of transport is approximately————— % more than those we visited Manali by using all the five modes of transport.

  1. ((a))

    11.67

  2. ((b))

    14.34

  3. ((c))

    12.87

  4. ((d))

    13.91

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

13.91

Given:

Total tourists in Shimla = 348 + 382 + 376 + 344 + 384

Total tourists in Manali = 348 + 284 + 326 + 316 + 336

Formula used:

Percentage more = (Difference ÷ Manali total) × 100

Calculation:

Shimla total = 1834

Manali total = 1610

Difference = 1834 − 1610 = 224

⇒ Percentage more = (224 ÷ 1610) × 100

⇒ Percentage more ≈ 13.9%

5

What is the difference between the number of Tourists who travelled by Air and the number of Tourists who travelled by Bus?

  1. ((a))

    82

  2. ((b))

    84

  3. ((c))

    78

  4. ((d))

    80

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

82

Given:

Air travellers = Shimla + Jaipur + Delhi + Agra + Goa + Manali

Bus travellers = Shimla + Jaipur + Delhi + Agra + Goa + Manali

Formula used:

Difference = Total Air − Total Bus

Calculation:

Total Air = 348 + 364 + 296 + 296 + 366 + 348

⇒ Total Air = 2018

Total Bus = 344 + 356 + 326 + 284 + 310 + 316

⇒ Total Bus = 1936

⇒ Difference = 2018 − 1936

⇒ Difference = 82

∴ The difference is 82 tourists.

6

Match List I with List - II.

List - I (Purpose)List - II (Scheme)
A. For disabled studentsI. DIKSHA
B. Performance AssessmentII. NISHTHA
C. Digital InfrastructureIII. PARAKH
D. In-service training for school heads and teachersIV. SAKSHAM
<br>

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

  2. ((b))

    A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

  3. ((c))

    А-ІІІ, В-II, C-IV, D-I

  4. ((d))

    A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

.

The correct answer is - A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Key Points

  • SAKSHAM
  • This scheme is aimed at disabled students, facilitating their education and skill development.
  • It provides necessary resources and support to ensure inclusivity in education.
  • PARAKH
  • It stands for Performance Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic Development.
  • The scheme is designed to assess and improve the performance of students.
  • DIKSHA
  • DIKSHA is a Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing, providing online educational resources for students and teachers.
  • It helps in enhancing learning through interactive and digital methods.
  • NISHTHA
  • This scheme is for in-service training of school heads and teachers.
  • The focus is on improving the quality of education and equipping educators with necessary skills.

Additional Information

  • SAKSHAM
  • It focuses on holistic development and inclusive education for children with special needs.
  • Accessibility features and assistive technologies are integral to this scheme.
  • PARAKH
  • Operates under the National Education Policy to establish standard guidelines for assessments.
  • Encourages competency-based learning and evaluation.
  • DIKSHA
  • Acts as a repository for digital learning materials, including e-books, videos, and assessments.
  • Supports multi-lingual and interactive content for diverse learners.
  • NISHTHA
  • Aims to enhance the pedagogical skills of educators and foster continuous professional development.
  • Focused on foundational literacy, numeracy, and overall school leadership development.
Code
7

Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): SWAYAM courses are available free of cost to any learner.

Reason (R): SWAYAM courses are telecasted on Gyanvani, the free DD channel.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. ((b))

    Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

  3. ((c))

    (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

  4. ((d))

    (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(A) is correct but (R) is not correct

The correct answer is - (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

Key Points

  • SWAYAM courses are available free of cost
  • The Government of India launched the SWAYAM platform to provide accessible and inclusive education for all learners.
  • SWAYAM courses are available to learners at no cost, and only a nominal fee is charged for certification, making them highly accessible to everyone.
  • Reason (R) is incorrect
  • SWAYAM courses are not telecasted on Gyanvani. Instead, they are provided through the online platform SWAYAM.
  • Gyanvani is a separate initiative, a radio network for educational content, and is not directly connected to SWAYAM courses.

Additional Information

  • About SWAYAM
  • SWAYAM (Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds) is an initiative by the Government of India to provide free online courses in various disciplines.
  • The platform offers courses for school, undergraduate, postgraduate, and other professional levels.
  • SWAYAM is part of the Digital India initiative and aims to bridge the educational gap in India by providing quality content to all learners.
  • Gyanvani
  • Gyanvani is an educational radio network launched by IGNOU (Indira Gandhi National Open University).
  • It broadcasts programs related to various fields like education, health, and agriculture, catering to a diverse audience.
  • Unlike SWAYAM, it is an audio-based platform and does not offer online courses.
8

The h-index is used to gauge a researcher's productivity. Which statement accurately defines h-index?

  1. ((a))

    The number of publications an author has authored.

  2. ((b))

    The average number of citations a publication receives.

  3. ((c))

    The maximum number 'h' such that an author has 'h' papers each cited at least 'h' times.

  4. ((d))

    The maximum number 'h' such that an author has 'h' papers each cited at most 'h' times.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The maximum number 'h' such that an author has 'h' papers each cited at least 'h' times.

The correct answer is - The maximum number 'h' such that an author has 'h' papers each cited at least 'h' times

Key Points

  • h-index
  • The h-index measures a researcher's productivity and impact based on their publications and citation count.
  • It is calculated as the maximum number 'h' such that the researcher has 'h' papers, each cited at least 'h' times.
  • This metric combines both the quantity of publications and the quality (in terms of citations).
  • Applications
  • Used for assessing the academic impact of researchers.
  • Frequently applied in research evaluations, grant applications, and institutional rankings.

Additional Information

  • Citation Patterns
  • The h-index does not account for papers with citations below 'h', even if the total number of citations is high.
  • It ignores the influence of highly cited individual papers that may skew productivity measures.
  • Limitations
  • The h-index is influenced by disciplinary norms, as citation behaviors vary across fields.
  • It does not adjust for co-authorship, potentially inflating scores for collaborative works.
  • Alternative Metrics
  • Other metrics such as the i10-index or total citation count can complement the h-index for a more comprehensive evaluation.
  • Newer measures like the g-index give more weight to highly cited publications.
9

Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Gandhiji's papers published many advertisements.

Reason (R): They enjoyed wide circulation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. ((b))

    Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

  3. ((c))

     (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

  4. ((d))

    (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

The correct answer is - (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Key Points

  • Assertion (A): Gandhiji's papers published many advertisements
  • Gandhiji's newspapers, such as Young India and Harijan, were influential platforms for sharing his ideas and promoting various causes.
  • They also carried advertisements, which were a common feature in newspapers of the time.
  • Reason (R): They enjoyed wide circulation
  • Gandhiji's newspapers reached a large audience due to his popularity and the relevance of his views on social and political issues.
  • The wide circulation helped attract advertisements, but this was not the sole or primary reason for their inclusion.
  • Explanation of the correct answer
  • (A) is not correct but (R) is correct individually.
  • However, the wide circulation of Gandhiji's newspapers is not the direct cause for the inclusion of advertisements.

Additional Information

  • Gandhiji's newspapers
  • Young India: A weekly journal launched in 1919 to advocate for Indian independence and social reforms.
  • Harijan: Focused on issues related to untouchability and social justice.
  • Importance of advertisements in newspapers
  • Advertisements were a source of revenue for newspapers, including Gandhiji's publications.
  • They were used to promote social causes and businesses aligned with Gandhiji's principles.
  • Wide circulation
  • The newspapers were widely circulated due to their engaging content and Gandhiji's charismatic leadership.
  • They reached both urban and rural areas, spreading Gandhiji's ideas across India.
10

Match List - I with List - II.

List - I (Folk Theatre Forms)List - II (States)
A. TamashaI. Gujarat
B. YakshaganaII. Tamilnadu
C. BhavaiIII. Karnataka
D. TherukoothuIV. Maharashtra
<br>

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. ((a))

    А-І, В-II, C-III, D-IV

  2. ((b))

    A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

  3. ((c))

    A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

  4. ((d))

    A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

The correct answer is - A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Key Points

  • Tamasha
  • Associated with Maharashtra.
  • A traditional form of Marathi folk theatre, known for its lively music and dance.
  • Yakshagana
  • Originates from Karnataka.
  • A blend of dance, music, and drama performed in the Kannada language.
  • Bhavai
  • Linked to Gujarat.
  • A traditional folk theatre form often performed in villages, focusing on social and ethical themes.
  • Therukoothu
  • Popular in Tamil Nadu.
  • A vibrant street theatre form depicting mythological stories, performed in open spaces.

Additional Information

  • Folk theatre
  • Represents the cultural heritage of India, showcasing regional traditions, stories, and art forms.
  • Often performed during festivals or special occasions, highlighting local myths and social issues.
  • Regional variations
  • Each state has its unique folk theatre form, influenced by local culture and history.
  • Examples include Bhand Pather in Kashmir and Jatra in Bengal.
  • Performance style
  • Combines acting, music, and dance to narrate stories effectively.
  • Engages audiences with humor, drama, and moral lessons.
11

Select the correct statements:

A. SWAYAM supports active learning

B. MOOCs need smart boards

C. In lecture method, teacher speaks only, student questioning is not allowed

D. OHP can be used to play a CD

E. Vidyanjali is an initiative of remedial classes

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    B and C Only

  2. ((b))

     A and E Only

  3. ((c))

     C and D Only

  4. ((d))

    A, B, C and E Only

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

 A and E Only

The correct answer is - A and E Only

Key Points

  • SWAYAM supports active learning
  • SWAYAM (Study Webs of Active–Learning for Young Aspiring Minds) promotes interactive learning through online courses.
  • Includes features like video lectures, quizzes, and discussion forums.
  • MOOCs need smart boards (Incorrect)
  • MOOCs are online platforms accessible via internet-enabled devices.
  • They do not require smart boards for participation.
  • Lecture method restricts questioning (Incorrect)
  • Lecture method is teacher-centered but allows student interaction.
  • Students can ask questions for clarification.
  • OHP can be used to play a CD (Incorrect)
  • OHP (Overhead Projector) is used for transparencies.
  • It cannot play digital media like CDs.
  • Vidyanjali is an initiative of remedial classes
  • Vidyanjali involves volunteer participation in schools.
  • Supports remedial teaching and co-curricular activities.

Additional Information

  • SWAYAM Platform
  • Launched by the Government of India under Digital India initiative.
  • Covers courses from school level to postgraduate level.
  • MOOCs (Massive Open Online Courses)
  • Provide open access learning to a large number of learners.
  • Examples include platforms like SWAYAM and Coursera.
  • OHP (Overhead Projector)
  • Projects images using light and transparencies.
  • Commonly used before digital projectors became widespread.
  • Vidyanjali Scheme
  • Initiative of Ministry of Education.
  • Aims to strengthen schools through community and volunteer involvement.
12

Match List I with List - II.

List - I (Question)List - II (Answer)
A. The average of first 50 natural numbers is:I. 20
B. The average of all odd numbers upto 100 is:II. 39.8
C. The mean of 12, 22, 32, 42, 52, 62 and 72 is:III. 25.5
D. The average of all prime numbers between 30 and 50 is:IV. 50
<br>

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

     A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

  2. ((b))

    A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

  3. ((c))

    A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

  4. ((d))

    A-1, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Formula used:

Average of first n natural numbers: Sum of numbers ÷ Count of numbers = n(n + 1)/2 ÷ n = (n + 1)/2

Average of odd numbers: (First odd + Last odd) ÷ 2

Mean: Sum of numbers ÷ Total count

Average of prime numbers: Sum of primes ÷ Total count of primes

Calculations:

For A:

n = 50

Sum of first 50 natural numbers = n(n + 1)/2 = 50 × (50 + 1)/2 = 1275

⇒ Average = 1275 ÷ 50 = 25.5

For B:

Odd numbers up to 100: 1, 3, 5, ..., 99

Total odd numbers = 50

Average = (First odd + Last odd) ÷ 2 = (1 + 99) ÷ 2 = 50

For C:

Numbers = 12, 22, 32, 42, 52, 62, 72

Total numbers = 7

Sum = 1 + 4 + 9 + 16 + 25 + 36 + 49 = 140

Mean = 140 ÷ 7 = 20

For D:

Prime numbers between 30 and 50: 31, 37, 41, 43, 47

Sum = 31 + 37 + 41 + 43 + 47 = 199

Total count = 5

⇒ Average = 199 ÷ 5 = 39.8

∴ The correct answer is A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II.

13

What are the communication media ?

  1. ((a))

    A conference or a Meeting

  2. ((b))

    Advertisers and Camera Crew

  3. ((c))

    Newspapers, Radio, Video and Television

  4. ((d))

    Mela or Procession

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Newspapers, Radio, Video and Television

.

The correct answer is - Newspapers, Radio, Video and Television

Key Points

  • Mass Communication Media
  • Newspapers: Printed publications that deliver news, advertisements, and other information to the public.
  • Radio: A widely accessible audio-based communication tool that broadcasts news, music, and updates to listeners.
  • Video: A visual medium used for conveying messages, advertisements, and entertainment effectively.
  • Television: A versatile medium combining visuals and audio to reach a large audience for news, entertainment, and education.
  • These media are designed to reach a broad audience and are commonly used for mass communication.

Additional Information

  • Types of Communication Media
  • Print Media: Includes newspapers, magazines, and pamphlets. Primarily used for written communication.
  • Broadcast Media: Covers audio-visual mediums like radio and television, offering real-time updates and entertainment.
  • Digital Media: Includes online platforms, social media, and websites, providing interactive and instantaneous communication.
  • Advantages of Mass Communication Media
  • Helps disseminate information to a large audience quickly.
  • Promotes awareness about social, political, and cultural issues.
  • Facilitates education and entertainment on a global scale.
Code
14

Match List I with List - II.

List - I (Biotic Interactions)List - II (Effect on Species)
A. AmensalismI. One species is benefitted, other is unaffected
B. MutualismII. One species is benefitted, other is harmed
C. CommensalismIII. One species is harmed, other is unaffected
D. ParasitismIV. Both are benefitted
<br>

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A-III, В-1, C-II, D-IV

  2. ((b))

    A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

  3. ((c))

    A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

  4. ((d))

    Α-Ι, Β-II, C-III, D-IV

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

The correct answer is - A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Key Points

  • A-III (Amensalism)
  • In Amensalism, one species is harmed while the other remains unaffected.
  • An example is the release of toxic substances by some fungi, which harm nearby plants but do not benefit the fungi themselves.
  • B-IV (Mutualism)
  • In Mutualism, both species benefit from their interaction.
  • Example: Pollinators such as bees receive nectar, while plants benefit from pollination.
  • C-I (Commensalism)
  • In Commensalism, one species is benefitted, while the other remains unaffected.
  • Example: Barnacles attach to whales to gain mobility and access to nutrients without harming or benefiting the whale.
  • D-II (Parasitism)
  • In Parasitism, one species (the parasite) benefits at the expense of the other species (the host), which is harmed.
  • Example: Tapeworms in the intestines of mammals feed on nutrients meant for the host.

Additional Information

  • Biotic Interactions Overview
  • Biotic interactions occur between living organisms within an ecosystem and are crucial for survival, reproduction, and ecological balance.
  • These interactions can be classified based on their effect on the species involved: positive, negative, or neutral.
  • Common Examples of Biotic Interactions
  • Predation: One organism (the predator) kills and consumes another (the prey).
  • Competition: Two species compete for limited resources, negatively affecting both.
  • Symbiosis: Includes mutualism, commensalism, and parasitism, where organisms live in close association.
  • Ecological Importance
  • Understanding these interactions helps predict population dynamics and ecosystem stability.
  • They play a critical role in nutrient cycling, energy flow, and maintaining biodiversity.
15

If the statement "No lotuses are roses" is given as false, then which of the following statements can be inferred to be true?

  1. ((a))

     Some lotuses are not roses

  2. ((b))

     All lotuses are roses

  3. ((c))

    Some roses are not lotuses

  4. ((d))

    Some lotuses are roses

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Some lotuses are roses

.

The correct answer is - Some lotuses are roses

Key Points

  • False statement of "No lotuses are roses"
  • If the statement "No lotuses are roses" is false, it implies that there exists at least one lotus that is a rose.
  • Inference
  • The logical inference is that Some lotuses are roses must be true.
  • This contradicts the false statement and aligns with the basic principles of logical reasoning.

Additional Information

  • Logical reasoning concepts
  • A statement being false indicates the opposite of what the statement claims must be true.
  • For example, if "No A are B" is false, then "Some A are B" is true.
  • This principle is based on the rules of propositional logic.
  • Types of statements
  • Universal negative: Statements like "No A are B" exclude all possibilities of overlap between A and B.
  • Particular affirmative: Statements like "Some A are B" indicate at least one overlap between A and B.
Code
16

Select the correct statements.

A. Navoday Vidyalayas were envisaged by the NPE 1986.

B. NEP 2020 suggests opening of PM-Viksit Bharat Schools in each district by 2047.

C. Operation Blackboard was launched to improve school infrastructure.

D. NEP 2020 was written under the chairpersonship of a scientist K. Kasturirangan.

E. Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, was given by Prime Minister Atal Behari Vajpayee

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    B, D and E Only

  2. ((b))

    A and B Only

  3. ((c))

    A, B, C, D and E

  4. ((d))

    A, C and D Only

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A, C and D Only

The correct answer is - Navoday Vidyalayas were envisaged by the NPE 1986, Operation Blackboard was launched to improve school infrastructure, and NEP 2020 was written under the chairpersonship of a scientist K. Kasturirangan.

Key Points

  • Navoday Vidyalayas were envisaged by the NPE 1986
  • The National Policy on Education (NPE) of 1986 proposed the establishment of Navodaya Vidyalayas to provide quality education to talented rural children irrespective of their socio-economic background.
  • These schools aim to foster academic excellence and overall development.
  • Operation Blackboard was launched to improve school infrastructure
  • Operation Blackboard was introduced in 1987 as a nationwide program to improve the quality of primary education.
  • Its focus was on providing essential facilities like classrooms, blackboards, and teaching aids in government schools.
  • NEP 2020 was written under the chairpersonship of a scientist K. Kasturirangan
  • The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 was drafted under the leadership of Dr. K. Kasturirangan, a renowned scientist and former chairman of ISRO.
  • It focuses on holistic development, flexibility, and inclusivity in education.

Additional Information

  • PM-Viksit Bharat Schools
  • The NEP 2020 does not mention PM-Viksit Bharat Schools specifically; this statement might reflect future initiatives but is not part of the current policy.
  • Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act
  • This Act was enacted in 2009 during the tenure of Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh, not Atal Behari Vajpayee.
  • It ensures free and compulsory education to children aged 6-14 years under Article 21A of the Constitution.
17

Which of the following are included in major research designs ?

A. Experimental

B. Cross-sectional

C. Longitudinal

D. Case-study

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. ((a))

    A and D Only

  2. ((b))

    B and C Only

  3. ((c))

    A, B and D Only

  4. ((d))

    A, B, C and D

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A, B, C and D

The correct answer is - A, B, C, and D

Key Points

  • Experimental Research Design
  • This design involves the manipulation of one or more variables to observe their effect on other variables.
  • It is used to establish cause-and-effect relationships.
  • Often conducted in a controlled environment to minimize external influences.
  • Cross-Sectional Research Design
  • This design collects data at a single point in time from a sample population.
  • It is useful for studying prevalence and making comparisons between groups.
  • Longitudinal Research Design
  • Data is collected over an extended period from the same participants.
  • It is effective in studying changes and trends over time.
  • Case-Study Research Design
  • Focuses on an in-depth analysis of a single case or a small number of cases.
  • It is commonly used in fields such as psychology and sociology.

Additional Information

  • Importance of Research Designs
  • They provide a structured framework to conduct research systematically.
  • Help in addressing research questions with valid and reliable results.
  • Aid in selecting the appropriate methods for data collection and analysis.
  • Factors Influencing Research Design
  • Nature of the research problem: Determines the type of design to be used.
  • Resources available: Budget, time, and access to participants.
  • Ethical considerations: Ensures the safety and privacy of participants.
18

Arrange the following institutions chronologically according to their year of establishment.

A. Advertising Agencies Association of India

B. All India Federation of Working Journalists

C. United News of India

D. Indian Languages Newspaper Association

E. Indian Society of Advertisers

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A, B, C, D, E

  2. ((b))

    E, D, C, B, A

  3. ((c))

    D, A, B, E, C

  4. ((d))

    B, C, A, D, E

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

D, A, B, E, C

.

The correct answer is - Indian Languages Newspaper Association, Advertising Agencies Association of India, All India Federation of Working Journalists, Indian Society of Advertisers, United News of India

Key Points

  • Indian Languages Newspaper Association (ILNA)
  • Established in 1941, it represents the interests of newspapers published in regional languages.
  • The association ensures the growth and development of vernacular press in India.
  • Advertising Agencies Association of India (AAAI)
  • Founded in 1945, AAAI promotes the interests of advertising agencies in India.
  • It plays a crucial role in setting ethical standards for advertising practices.
  • All India Federation of Working Journalists (AIFWJ)
  • Formed in 1950, it is a key organization that advocates for the rights and welfare of working journalists in India.
  • Indian Society of Advertisers (ISA)
  • Established in 1951, it represents advertisers and works to improve advertising effectiveness.
  • United News of India (UNI)
  • Started in 1961, UNI is a leading news agency providing news and information services in India.

Additional Information

  • Importance of Chronological Order
  • Understanding the timeline of these organizations helps grasp the evolution of India's media and advertising industries.
  • It highlights the progressive development of different sectors, such as vernacular press, advertising, journalism, and news dissemination.
  • Significance of These Organizations
  • ILNA: Focuses on regional press development, vital for cultural and linguistic representation.
  • AAAI: Ensures ethical practices and professionalism in advertising.
  • AIFWJ: Safeguards the rights of journalists and promotes free press.
  • ISA: Focuses on advertisers' interests and advertising efficiency.
  • UNI: Plays a key role in disseminating accurate and unbiased news across the country.
Code
19

Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD), is a parameter to monitor the quality of water. It measures—————.

  1. ((a))

    Organic contamination of water

  2. ((b))

    Inorganic contamination of water

  3. ((c))

    pH of water

  4. ((d))

    Salinity of water

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Organic contamination of water

.

The correct answer is - Organic contamination of water

Key Points

  • Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a key parameter used to assess the organic contamination in water bodies.
  • BOD measures the amount of oxygen required by microorganisms to break down organic matter present in water.
  • Higher BOD levels indicate a higher concentration of organic pollutants, which can lead to oxygen depletion in water, negatively impacting aquatic life.
  • BOD is a critical metric for monitoring the health of aquatic ecosystems and identifying water pollution caused by organic waste.

Additional Information

  • Significance of BOD
  • BOD is used to evaluate the effectiveness of wastewater treatment plants by measuring the reduction in organic pollutants post-treatment.
  • It is an important indicator of water quality for environmental protection agencies and policymakers.
  • Factors affecting BOD
  • Presence of organic waste from sources like sewage, agricultural runoff, and industrial effluents.
  • Water temperature, which influences the activity of microorganisms.
  • Availability of dissolved oxygen in the water body.
  • Difference between BOD and COD
  • Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) measures the total quantity of oxygen required to oxidize both organic and inorganic matter.
  • BOD specifically focuses on the biodegradable organic matter, while COD is a broader parameter.
Code
20

Which of the following are characteristics of qualitative research?

A. Researcher as key instrument

B. Research tool as key instrument

C. Context-free generalization

D. Context-specific generalization

E. Inductive data analysis

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. ((a))

    A, B and E Only

  2. ((b))

    B, C and D Only

  3. ((c))

    A, D and E Only

  4. ((d))

    A and E Only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A, D and E Only

The correct answer is - A, D and E Only

Key Points

  • Researcher as key instrument
  • In qualitative research, the researcher plays a central role in collecting and analyzing data, emphasizing their direct involvement.
  • The focus is on subjective understanding, where the researcher interprets data based on context.
  • Context-specific generalization
  • Qualitative research aims for context-specific generalization, meaning findings are applicable within the unique context of the study.
  • This contrasts with quantitative research, which often seeks context-free generalization.
  • Inductive data analysis
  • Qualitative research employs inductive reasoning, where patterns and themes emerge from the data itself.
  • Data analysis begins without predefined hypotheses, allowing for an exploratory approach.

Additional Information

  • Qualitative Research Characteristics
  • Focuses on exploring meaning and understanding phenomena in their natural setting.
  • Data collection methods include interviews, observations, and document analysis.
  • Results are often presented in the form of narratives or themes.
  • Quantitative Research Comparison
  • Quantitative research relies on objective measurements and statistical analysis.
  • It emphasizes context-free generalization and the use of standardized research tools.
21

Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Individual difference is a natural phenomenon.

Reason (R): Individual difference can be negated with education.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. ((b))

    Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

  3. ((c))

    (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

  4. ((d))

    (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(A) is correct but (R) is not correct

.

The correct answer is - (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

Key Points

  • Assertion (A): Individual difference is a natural phenomenon
  • Individual differences refer to the unique characteristics and traits that vary among individuals.
  • These differences are influenced by genetic factors, environmental factors, and personal experiences.
  • It is a natural phenomenon observed in all human beings and cannot be eliminated completely.
  • Reason (R): Individual difference can be negated with education
  • This statement is incorrect because education cannot eliminate individual differences.
  • Education can only help in minimizing the impact of certain differences by providing equal opportunities for skill and knowledge development.
  • The fundamental traits and characteristics of individuals, however, remain unique and cannot be negated.
  • Thus, while the assertion (A) is correct, the reason (R) is not valid.

Additional Information

  • Factors Influencing Individual Differences
  • Hereditary Factors: Genetic makeup plays a significant role in shaping individual differences.
  • Environmental Factors: Social, cultural, and familial environments influence behavior and characteristics.
  • Learning Experiences: Educational and life experiences contribute to individual variations.
  • Role of Education
  • Education aims to develop potential, not eliminate differences.
  • It fosters adaptation and growth by catering to diverse needs and abilities.
  • Methods like inclusive education and differentiated teaching help address individual differences effectively.
Code
22

Find the missing term in the series given below:

26, 62, 78, 87, 35, 53, ?, 47

  1. ((a))

    88

  2. ((b))

     67

  3. ((c))

    74

  4. ((d))

    112

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

74

Given:

Series: 26, 62, 78, 87, 35, 53, ?, 47

Pattern:

26 → 62 (reverse)

78 → 87 (reverse)

35 → 53 (reverse)

Pattern: alternate reverse pairs

Calculation:

Next should follow same pattern:

? → 47 (reverse pair)

⇒ Missing term = 74

∴ Missing number = 74

∴ The Correct option is 3.

23

"If (L)M represents a number L in base-M number system, then identify the correct descending order of the following numbers A-D when converted to decimal number system.

A. (20003.2)4

B. (111111.11)2

C. (732.2)8

D. (C2.6)16

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    B, C, D, A

  2. ((b))

    D, A, B, C

  3. ((c))

    A, C, D, B

  4. ((d))

    C, D, A, В

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A, C, D, B

.

The correct answer is - C, D, A, B

Key Points

  • Converting to Decimal:
  • Each number is given in a different base system, and we need to convert them to the decimal system for comparison.
  • Conversion is done using the formula:

(Digits) × (Base)Position, where "Position" starts from 0 for the rightmost digit.

  • Decimal Values for Each Number:
  • A = (20003.2)4:
  • Decimal value = 2×44 + 0×43 + 0×42 + 0×41 + 3×40 + 2×4-1
  • = 512 + 3 + 0.5 = 515.5
  • B = (111111.11)2:
  • Decimal value = 1×25 + 1×24 + 1×23 + 1×22 + 1×21 + 1×20 + 1×2-1 + 1×2-2
  • = 32 + 16 + 8 + 4 + 2 + 1 + 0.5 + 0.25 = 63.75
  • C = (732.2)8:
  • Decimal value = 7×82 + 3×81 + 2×80 + 2×8-1
  • = 448 + 24 + 2 + 0.25 = 474.25
  • D = (C2.6)16:
  • Here, "C" represents 12 in decimal.
  • Decimal value = 12×161 + 2×160 + 6×16-1
  • = 192 + 2 + 0.375 = 194.375
  • Descending Order:
  • From the calculated values:
  • A = 515.5 C = 474.25, D = 194.375, B = 63.75
  • Final order: A, C, D, B

Additional Information

  • Base Systems and Conversion:
  • Base-2 (Binary): Uses digits 0 and 1. Each digit represents a power of 2.
  • Base-4 (Quaternary): Uses digits 0, 1, 2, 3. Each digit represents a power of 4.
  • Base-8 (Octal): Uses digits 0 to 7. Each digit represents a power of 8.
  • Base-16 (Hexadecimal): Uses digits 0-9 and letters A-F (where A=10, B=11, ..., F=15).
  • Fractional Part Conversion:
  • For fractional parts, multiply each digit by the base raised to a negative power corresponding to its position.
24

Which of the following made a significant contribution to growth of ICT usage?

A. exponential progress of the semiconductor technology paving the way for low-cost hardware.

B. introduction of user-friendly software and interfaces to computers.

C. merges of computer and communication technology to produce smart and mobile devices.

D. rise of cloud computing leading to services like Google Docs and Microsoft 365, without the need for large investments in hardware.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A, B, C and D

  2. ((b))

     B, C and D Only

  3. ((c))

    A and B Only

  4. ((d))

     A and C Only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A and B Only

The correct answer is - A and B Only

Key Points

  • Exponential progress of semiconductor technology
  • The rapid advancements in semiconductor technology have made it possible to produce low-cost hardware.
  • This reduction in cost has been critical for the widespread adoption of ICT (Information and Communication Technology).
  • User-friendly software and interfaces
  • The development of intuitive software and user-friendly interfaces has significantly reduced the learning curve for new users.
  • This has allowed more individuals and organizations to adopt and utilize ICT effectively.

Additional Information

  • Emergence of smart and mobile devices
  • The integration of computer and communication technologies has resulted in the creation of smart and mobile devices.
  • While this is a significant advancement, it is not directly linked to the foundational growth of ICT usage.
  • Cloud computing
  • Cloud computing has enabled services like Google Docs and Microsoft 365, allowing users to access software and storage without heavy hardware investments.
  • However, cloud computing is more of a later-stage innovation rather than a foundational factor in the initial growth of ICT usage.
25

A new central institute of higher education like central university can be established by:

  1. ((a))

    The Parliament

  2. ((b))

    The President of India

  3. ((c))

    The legislative Assembly of the respective state

  4. ((d))

    The UGC

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Parliament

The correct answer is - The Parliament

Key Points

  • Establishment of Central Institutes
  • A new central institute of higher education, such as a central university, can only be established by an Act of Parliament.
  • Such institutions are created to ensure uniform standards of education and access across the country under the purview of the central government.
  • Role of the Parliament
  • The Parliament enacts a specific law that formally establishes the central university or institute.
  • For example, the Central Universities Act passed by Parliament governs the establishment and functioning of central universities in India.

Additional Information

  • Role of the President
  • The President of India does not establish universities but may give their assent to the bills passed by the Parliament for creating such institutions.
  • However, the President may function as the Visitor for central universities, overseeing their administration.
  • Role of State Legislatures
  • State legislatures can establish state universities by passing state-specific legislation but cannot establish central universities or institutes.
  • Role of the UGC
  • The University Grants Commission (UGC) does not establish universities but regulates their functioning and provides funding and guidelines for higher education institutions.
26

Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Search Engine is a hardware device that searches for any website on the World Wide Web.

Reason (R): Google and Microsoft's Bing are two popular search engines.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. ((b))

     Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

  3. ((c))

    (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

  4. ((d))

    (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

.

The correct answer is -(A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

Key Points

  • Assertion (A)
  • The statement that a "Search Engine is a hardware device that searches for any website on the World Wide Web" is incorrect.
  • A search engine is a software application or tool, not hardware, that retrieves and organizes information on the web based on user queries.
  • Examples of search engines are Google, Bing, and others.
  • Reason (R)
  • The statement that "Google and Microsoft's Bing are two popular search engines" is correct.
  • These are widely used software tools designed to search for information on the World Wide Web.
  • Conclusion
  • While both the assertion and reason are presented, the reason does not justify or explain the assertion. Hence, the correct answer is that both are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Additional Information

  • What is a Search Engine?
  • A search engine is an online tool or software application that allows users to search for and retrieve information from the internet.
  • It uses algorithms to index and rank web pages, offering the most relevant results for a user's query.
  • Examples include Google, Bing, Yahoo, and DuckDuckGo.
  • Hardware vs. Software
  • Hardware: Refers to the physical components of a computer system, such as CPUs, motherboards, and memory devices.
  • Software: Refers to programs and applications like search engines, which run on hardware and perform specific tasks.
  • Search Engine Functionality
  • Search engines work by crawling the web, indexing content, and ranking results based on relevance and user intent.
  • They use algorithms such as PageRank to determine the order of results displayed to the user.
Code
27

Match List I with List - II.

List- I (Elements)List - II(Memory level teaching)
A. To develop mental aspects of trainingI. Support system
B. Introduction, preparation and statement of purposeII. Syntax
C. Teacher is more active and dominantIII. Focus
D. Cramming abilityIV. Social system
<br>

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

     A-III, В-II, C-IV, D-I

  2. ((b))

    A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

  3. ((c))

    A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

  4. ((d))

    A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

 A-III, В-II, C-IV, D-I

The correct answer is - A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

Key Points

  • A. To develop mental aspects of training → Focus
  • Memory level teaching emphasizes mental development like recall and retention.
  • This aligns with the focus of teaching on cognitive aspects.
  • B. Introduction, preparation and statement of purpose → Syntax
  • These are structured steps of teaching.
  • They represent the syntax (sequence of teaching activities).
  • C. Teacher is more active and dominant → Social system
  • Memory level teaching is teacher-centered.
  • This reflects the social system where teacher dominates classroom interaction.
  • D. Cramming ability → Support system
  • Memory level relies on rote learning and repetition.
  • These act as a support system for memorization.

Additional Information

  • Memory Level Teaching
  • Proposed by Herbart.
  • Focuses on recall, recognition, and retention.
  • Syntax
  • Refers to step-wise procedure in teaching.
  • Includes stages like introduction, presentation, and recapitulation.
  • Social System
  • Defines roles of teacher and students in classroom.
  • In memory level, teacher has dominant authority.
  • Support System
  • Includes teaching aids and methods that facilitate learning.
  • In memory level, repetition and drills act as support.
28

If the length and breadth of a rectangle are changed by +20% and by -10% respectively, then what shall be the percentage change in the area of the rectangle?

  1. ((a))

    4% decrease

  2. ((b))

    4% increase

  3. ((c))

    8% decrease

  4. ((d))

    8% increase

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

8% increase

Given:

Length increased by 20%

Breadth decreased by 10%

Formula used:

Net % change = a + b + (ab / 100)

Where,

a = 20

b = −10

Calculation:

Net % change = 20 + (−10) + (20 × −10) / 100

= 20 − 10 − 2

= 8%

∴ Area increases by 8%

∴ The correct option is 4.

29

To appear in the NET exam, one must have 55 percent marks in the subject at post graduation level, this is:

  1. ((a))

     Norm-referenced evaluation

  2. ((b))

    Placement evaluation

  3. ((c))

    Criterion-referenced evaluation

  4. ((d))

    Formative assessment

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Criterion-referenced evaluation

Given:

To appear in the NET exam, one must have 55% marks in the subject at the post-graduation level.

Formula used:

Criterion-referenced evaluation: Measures an individual's performance against a specific set of criteria or standards.

Calculation:

The eligibility requirement for the NET exam states that candidates must achieve at least 55% marks in their postgraduate subject. This is a fixed standard or benchmark that determines eligibility.

⇒ The evaluation is based on whether the candidate meets the specified criterion (55% marks), not on comparison with other candidates or relative performance.

∴ The correct answer is option (3): Criterion-referenced evaluation.

30

As we move across the Himalayan landscape, the physical and biological structure of the community changes. Arrange the following tree types found across the Altitude gradient of Himalayas from Foothill regions (<500 meters, above sea level) towards higher regions.

A. Chir pine

B. Silver fir

C. Blue pine

D. Deciduous forests

E. Wet temperate forests

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    E, A, D, В, С

  2. ((b))

    B, D, E, A, C

  3. ((c))

    E, D, C, А, В

  4. ((d))

    D, E, A, C, B

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

D, E, A, C, B

.

The correct answer is - Deciduous forests, Wet temperate forests, Chir pine, Blue pine, Silver fir

Key Points

  • Deciduous forests
  • Found in the lower foothills of the Himalayas, below 500 meters above sea level.
  • Characterized by trees that shed their leaves seasonally, such as Sal and Teak.
  • Wet temperate forests
  • Present at slightly higher altitudes, typically between 1000 to 2000 meters.
  • Dominated by trees like Oak and Rhododendron, which thrive in moist conditions.
  • Chir pine
  • Appears in the mid-altitude range, usually between 1000 to 1700 meters.
  • Adapted to drier conditions and poor soils.
  • Blue pine
  • Grows at higher altitudes, typically in the range of 2000 to 3000 meters.
  • Thrives in cold climates and acts as a transitional species towards conifer-dominated forests.
  • Silver fir
  • Found at the highest altitudes, above 3000 meters.
  • Forms dense forests in cold, snowy regions and is adapted to harsh climatic conditions.

Additional Information

  • Himalayan vegetation and altitude gradient
  • Vegetation in the Himalayas changes markedly with altitude due to variations in temperature, moisture, and sunlight.
  • Low altitudes generally feature tropical and deciduous forests, while higher altitudes are dominated by coniferous and alpine trees.
  • Ecological significance of Himalayan forests
  • Provide vital ecosystem services, including carbon sequestration, soil conservation, and habitat for wildlife.
  • Play a critical role in regulating regional climate and water resources.
  • Adaptations of Himalayan trees
  • Low-altitude trees like deciduous species adapt to warm climates and seasonal rainfall.
  • High-altitude trees like Silver fir are adapted to extreme cold and snow through features like needle-like leaves and cone-shaped crowns.
Code
31

Which of the following Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) is concerned with protection, restoration and promotion of sustainable use of terrestrial ecosystems?

A. SDG-1

B. SDG-5

C. SDG-10

D. SDG-15

E. SDG-17

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

     A and E Only

  2. ((b))

     B Only

  3. ((c))

    C and D Only

  4. ((d))

    D Only

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

D Only

.

The correct answer is - SDG-15

Key Points

  • SDG-15 focuses on the protection, restoration, and sustainable use of terrestrial ecosystems.
  • It aims to manage forests sustainably, combat desertification, halt and reverse land degradation, and stop biodiversity loss.
  • This goal emphasizes the importance of preserving the planet's ecosystems for future generations and maintaining ecological balance.
  • Key targets under SDG-15 include:
  • Ensuring conservation of mountain ecosystems and their biodiversity.
  • Combating poaching and trafficking of protected species.
  • Enhancing financial resources to conserve and sustainably use ecosystems.

Additional Information

  • Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):
  • The SDGs are a collection of 17 global goals set by the United Nations in 2015.
  • They address a range of global challenges, including poverty, inequality, climate change, environmental degradation, and peace and justice.
  • Other related SDGs:
  • SDG-13: Focuses on climate action and addressing the impacts of climate change.
  • SDG-14: Focuses on life below water, promoting the conservation of marine ecosystems.
  • Importance of SDG-15:
  • Terrestrial ecosystems provide essential resources such as food, clean water, and oxygen.
  • They play a critical role in regulating climate and supporting biodiversity.
  • Unsustainable practices, such as deforestation and overgrazing, threaten these vital ecosystems.
Code
32

One dozen pairs of gloves quoted at ₹120 are sold at a discount of 20%. Find how many pairs of gloves can be bought for ₹16?

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    3

  3. ((c))

    2

  4. ((d))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2

Given:

Quoted price for 1 dozen (12 pairs) of gloves = ₹120

Discount = 20%

Budget = ₹16

Formula used:

Effective price = Quoted price - (Discount% × Quoted price)

Cost per pair = Effective price ÷ Quantity

Number of pairs = Budget ÷ Cost per pair

Calculation:

Effective price = ₹120 - (20% × ₹120)

⇒ Effective price = ₹120 - ₹24 = ₹96

Cost per pair = ₹96 ÷ 12

⇒ Cost per pair = ₹8

Number of pairs = ₹16 ÷ ₹8

⇒ Number of pairs = 2

∴ The correct answer is 2 pairs of gloves.

33

Which of the following are the approaches to training developed from the cybernetic group of behaviour theorists?

A. Theory – to –  practice model

B. Theory – to – law model

C. Simulation

D. Practice – to – theory model

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

     A and C only

  2. ((b))

    B and D only

  3. ((c))

    A and B only

  4. ((d))

    C and D only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A and B only

.

The correct answer is - Theory–to–practice model and Theory–to–law model

Key Points

  • Theory–to–practice model
  • This approach focuses on applying theoretical knowledge directly to practical scenarios.
  • It ensures that learners understand the connection between abstract concepts and real-world applications.
  • Developed under the influence of cybernetic behavior theories, which emphasize systems thinking and structured feedback loops.
  • Theory–to–law model
  • In this approach, theoretical ideas are used to establish universal laws or principles.
  • It emphasizes the logical progression from specific theories to generalized laws.
  • This is closely aligned with the scientific approach of validating theoretical concepts.

Additional Information

  • Cybernetic behavior theories
  • These theories emphasize the role of feedback mechanisms in learning and behavior adjustment.
  • They view organizations and individuals as systems that respond to external stimuli through structured, adaptive processes.
  • Simulation and Practice–to–theory model
  • While these approaches are also effective in training, they are not directly derived from cybernetic behavior theories.
  • Simulation involves replicating real-world scenarios for experiential learning.
  • The Practice–to–theory model focuses on deriving theoretical understanding from practical experiences.
Code
34

Arrange the following in order of decreasing denotation:

A. Periodicals

B. Library

C. Footnote

D. Article

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. ((a))

    B, A, D, C

  2. ((b))

    A, B, D, C

  3. ((c))

    D, C, A, В

  4. ((d))

    C, D, A, В

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

B, A, D, C

.

The correct answer is - B, A, D, C.

Key Points

  • Denotation
  • Denotation refers to the extent of inclusion or the range of items that a term encompasses.
  • Order of Decreasing Denotation
  • Library is the broadest term, encompassing everything within a collection, such as books, periodicals, articles, and footnotes.
  • Periodicals refer to a category of materials within a library, such as journals and magazines.
  • Article is more specific and refers to a single piece of writing found in periodicals or books.
  • Footnote is the most specific, referring to annotations or references that provide additional information about a specific part of an article or text.

Additional Information

  • Library
  • A library is a broad term that refers to a collection of books, periodicals, and other informational resources.
  • It serves as the highest level of categorization in this context.
  • Periodicals
  • These are publications issued at regular intervals, such as magazines, journals, and newspapers.
  • They fall under the library collection but are more specific than the term "library."
  • Article
  • An article is a specific piece of writing, often part of a periodical or book.
  • It is more specific than "periodicals" and less encompassing than "footnotes."
  • Footnote
  • A footnote is a reference or annotation that provides additional information about a particular section of an article or text.
  • It is the narrowest in scope and the most specific term in this hierarchy.
Code
35

Arrange the following in a chronological order :

A. Zoological Survey of India 

B. Plastic Waste Management Rules 

C. Botanical Survey of India 

D. Battery Waste Management Rules

Ε. Forest Survey of India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. ((a))

    A, C, E, D, B

  2. ((b))

    C, A, E, B, D

  3. ((c))

    D, B, A, E, C

  4. ((d))

    B, A, C, E, D

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

C, A, E, B, D

.

The correct answer is - C, A, E, B, D

Key Points

  • C. Botanical Survey of India
  • Established in 1890, the Botanical Survey of India focuses on the study and conservation of India's plant resources.
  • A. Zoological Survey of India
  • Established in 1916, the Zoological Survey of India is responsible for the inventory and study of the country's fauna.
  • E. Forest Survey of India
  • The Forest Survey of India was founded in 1981 to assess and monitor forest resources in India.
  • B. Plastic Waste Management Rules
  • The Plastic Waste Management Rules came into effect in 2016, focusing on reducing plastic pollution and promoting recycling.
  • D. Battery Waste Management Rules
  • The Battery Waste Management Rules were introduced in 2022 to address the safe disposal and recycling of batteries.

Additional Information

  • Plastic Waste Management Rules (2016)
  • These rules aim to minimize plastic waste generation and promote the use of biodegradable materials.
  • It applies to manufacturers, importers, and users of plastic materials.
  • Zoological and Botanical Surveys of India
  • Both surveys play a crucial role in documenting biodiversity and supporting conservation efforts.
  • The Zoological Survey of India specializes in fauna, while the Botanical Survey of India focuses on flora.
  • Forest Survey of India
  • Publishes the biennial India State of Forest Report, providing detailed data on forest cover and health.
  • Battery Waste Management Rules (2022)
  • These rules aim to ensure the safe disposal and recycling of batteries, minimizing environmental hazards.
36

Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Quantitative research has been subjected to many criticism by qualitative researchers.

Reason (R): A natural science model is not appropriate for studying the social world.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. ((b))

    Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

  3. ((c))

    (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

  4. ((d))

    (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

The correct answer is - Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Key Points

  • Assertion (A): Quantitative research criticism
  • Quantitative research methods, which rely on numerical and statistical data, have been criticized for their inability to capture the depth and complexity of social phenomena.
  • Qualitative researchers argue that quantitative methods often ignore the subjective experiences and meanings individuals attach to their actions.
  • Reason (R): Inappropriateness of natural science models
  • Natural science models, such as those used in physics or biology, focus on objectivity, causality, and predictability.
  • However, social phenomena are context-dependent and influenced by human emotions, values, and meanings, making such models less suitable.
  • Correct Explanation
  • Both the assertion and reason are correct, and the reason directly explains the criticism raised by qualitative researchers against quantitative methods.
  • The reliance on natural science models in quantitative research is seen as a major limitation when studying the social world.

Additional Information

  • Quantitative Research
  • Focuses on measurable data and uses structured methods like surveys, experiments, and statistical analysis.
  • Strengths include generalizability and the ability to test hypotheses.
  • Limitations include its inability to capture the subjective, interpretive, and contextual dimensions of social realities.
  • Qualitative Research
  • Focuses on understanding meanings, experiences, and narratives through unstructured methods like interviews, focus groups, and observations.
  • Emphasizes the subjective and interpretive aspects of social phenomena.
  • Social World and Natural Science Models
  • The social world is characterized by human interactions, culture, and emotions, which are dynamic and context-specific.
  • Natural science models, by contrast, aim to establish universal laws through controlled, objective methods, making them less adaptable to studying complex social realities.
37

Which of the followings is a secondary pollutant in the troposphere?

  1. ((a))

    Carbon monoxide

  2. ((b))

    Sulphur dioxide

  3. ((c))

    Ozone

  4. ((d))

    Nitrogen dioxide

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ozone

.

The correct answer is - Ozone

Key Points

  • Ozone is a secondary pollutant.
  • It is not emitted directly into the atmosphere but forms when primary pollutants such as nitrogen oxides (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) react in the presence of sunlight.
  • It is a major component of photochemical smog, particularly in urban areas with high vehicle emissions.
  • Ozone in the troposphere (near Earth's surface) is harmful to human health and the environment, unlike the ozone layer in the stratosphere, which protects us from ultraviolet radiation.

Additional Information

  • Primary vs Secondary Pollutants
  • Primary pollutants are directly emitted from sources such as vehicles, industries, and natural events (e.g., volcanic eruptions). Examples include carbon monoxide (CO), sulphur dioxide (SO2), and nitrogen dioxide (NO2).
  • Secondary pollutants are not emitted directly but form when primary pollutants react in the atmosphere. Examples include ozone (O3) and peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN).
  • Formation of Ozone
  • Ozone forms when nitrogen oxides (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) react with sunlight through photochemical processes.
  • It is more prevalent during sunny days and in areas with heavy traffic or industrial activity.
  • Effects of Ozone
  • Causes respiratory problems, such as asthma and reduced lung function.
  • Damages crops, forests, and other vegetation by interfering with photosynthesis.
  • Contributes to the formation of smog, reducing air quality.
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38

Which of the following propositions are so related that they cannot both be false though they can both be true?

A. All pitcher-plants are carnivores

B. No pitcher-plants are carnivores

C. Some pitcher-plants are carnivores

D. Some pitcher-plants are not carnivores

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A and C Only

  2. ((b))

    A and D Only

  3. ((c))

    B and C Only

  4. ((d))

    C and D Only

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

C and D Only

The correct answer is - C and D Only

Key Points

  • C and D propositions are logically related such that they cannot both be false, but they can both be true.
  • This relationship occurs because:
  • Proposition C (Some pitcher-plants are carnivores) affirms the existence of at least one carnivorous pitcher-plant.
  • Proposition D (Some pitcher-plants are not carnivores) affirms the existence of at least one non-carnivorous pitcher-plant.
  • Both statements can coexist because they describe different subsets within the category of pitcher-plants.
  • However, it is impossible for both statements to be false simultaneously because:
  • If C is false, it implies no pitcher-plants are carnivores.
  • If D is false, it implies all pitcher-plants are carnivores.
  • These two implications contradict each other.

Additional Information

  • Contradictory propositions
  • Propositions A (All pitcher-plants are carnivores) and B (No pitcher-plants are carnivores) are contradictory.
  • They cannot both be true at the same time but can both be false if some pitcher-plants are carnivores and some are not.
  • Sub-contrary relationship
  • Propositions C and D exhibit a sub-contrary relationship, which means they can both be true but cannot both be false.
  • This type of logical relationship is commonly seen in categorical logic.
  • Logical compatibility
  • C and D are logically compatible and reflect different subsets of the universal set of pitcher-plants.
  • This compatibility allows for coexistence of both propositions within the logical framework.
39

If in a certain code language:

"SCHOOL" is coded as 'HCSLOO' and "MEDIUM" is coded as 'DEMMUI' then how "TABLES" shall be coded in that language?

  1. ((a))

     BTAELS

  2. ((b))

     BATSEL

  3. ((c))

     ATBLES

  4. ((d))

    ABTELS

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

 BATSEL

Given:

SCHOOL → HCSLOO

MEDIUM → DEMMUI

TABLES → ?

Logic used:

Letters are rearranged in a fixed pattern

Position pattern: 3, 2, 1, 6, 5, 4

Verification:

S C H O O L

3 2 1 6 5 4 

⇒ H C S L O O

M E D I U M

3 2 1 6 5 4

⇒ D E M M U I

Calculations:

T A B L E S

3 2 1 6 5 4

⇒ B A T S E L

∴ TABLES is coded as BATSEL.

40

Which of the following are traditional forms of communication ?

A. Street plays

B. Puppetry

C. Nautanki

D. Posters

E. Single screen film theaters

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. ((a))

    D and E Only

  2. ((b))

     B, C and D Only

  3. ((c))

    C, D and E Only

  4. ((d))

    A, B and C Only

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A, B and C Only

.

The correct answer is - A, B, and C Only

Key Points

  • Traditional forms of communication
  • Traditional communication involves methods deeply rooted in culture and heritage.
  • Street plays are a popular medium used to convey social messages in an engaging and interactive way.
  • Puppetry is a folk art form used historically to narrate stories, myths, and societal issues.
  • Nautanki, a traditional form of drama, is widely recognized for its cultural significance in entertainment and education.

Additional Information

  • Modern communication methods
  • Posters are visual aids primarily used for advertising, awareness campaigns, and promotions rather than traditional storytelling.
  • Single-screen film theaters represent modern entertainment mediums and are not considered traditional communication forms.
  • Characteristics of traditional communication
  • Often oral or performance-based, making it accessible to all segments of society.
  • Preserves cultural values and traditions while addressing community-specific issues.
  • Utilizes creative mediums such as folk music, dance, and drama to convey messages.
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41

Which of the following pair of acronym and its expansion is incorrectly matched ?

  1. ((a))

    FTP -  File Transfer Protocol 

  2. ((b))

    SMTP -  Simple Mail Technology Protocol

  3. ((c))

    UDP - User Datagram Protocol

  4. ((d))

    ROM - Read Only Memory

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

SMTP -  Simple Mail Technology Protocol

.

The correct answer is - SMTP - Simple Mail Technology Protocol

Key Points

  • SMTP
  • The correct expansion of SMTP is Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, not Simple Mail Technology Protocol.
  • SMTP is an internet standard protocol used for sending emails.
  • It enables communication between mail servers and is critical in email transmission.
  • Other Acronyms
  • FTP - Correctly expanded as File Transfer Protocol, used for transferring files between computers on a network.
  • UDP - Correctly expanded as User Datagram Protocol, a communication protocol used for time-sensitive transmissions.
  • ROM - Correctly expanded as Read Only Memory, a type of non-volatile storage in computers.

Additional Information

  • SMTP Features
  • Works on port 25 by default for email relay and delivery.
  • Supports basic authentication mechanisms to ensure secure communication.
  • Primarily used for outgoing mail; incoming emails are managed by other protocols like IMAP or POP3.
  • Comparison of Protocols
  • FTP - Used for transferring files between systems in a network.
  • UDP - A lightweight, connectionless protocol ideal for real-time applications like video streaming.
  • ROM - A storage medium that retains data even when the power is turned off.
Code
42

Mean and variance for four different Binomial distributions with parameters n (number of trials) and p (probability of success) are given in A-D below. Compute the number of trials (n) for each

Binomial distribution and arrange in ascending order.

A. Mean = 2.1, Variance = 1.47

B. Mean = 2.0, Variance = 1.20

C. Mean = 4.0, Variance = 2.00

D. Mean = 3.6, Variance = 1.44

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    C, D, A, В

  2. ((b))

    A, C, B, D

  3. ((c))

    D, A, C, В

  4. ((d))

    B, D, A, C

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

B, D, A, C

The correct answer is - B, D, A, C

Key Points

  • Binomial distribution is characterized by two parameters:
  • Mean (μ) = n × p, where n is the number of trials, and p is the probability of success.
  • Variance (σ²) = n × p × (1 - p).
  • To find n, use the formula:
  • p = Mean / Variance.
  • Substitute p into n = Mean / p to compute n.
  • Using the given values:
  • A: Mean = 2.1, Variance = 1.47
  • B: Mean = 2.0, Variance = 1.20
  • C: Mean = 4.0, Variance = 2.00
  • D: Mean = 3.6, Variance = 1.44
  • Calculate n for each:
  • B: p = 2.0 / 1.20 = 0.6, n = 2.0 / 0.6 = 3.33 (approx).
  • D: p = 3.6 / 1.44 = 0.4, n = 3.6 / 0.4 = 9.
  • A: p = 2.1 / 1.47 = 0.428, n = 2.1 / 0.428 = 4.91 (approx).
  • C: p = 4.0 / 2.00 = 0.5, n = 4.0 / 0.5 = 8.
  • Arrange n in ascending order: B, D, A, C.

Additional Information

  • Binomial Distribution properties:
  • It applies to scenarios with a fixed number of independent trials.
  • Each trial has only two outcomes: success or failure.
  • The probability p of success remains constant across trials.
  • Mean and Variance Relationship:
  • The mean is directly proportional to both n and p.
  • Variance depends on both the probability of success (p) and failure (1 - p).
  • Applications of Binomial Distribution:
  • Used in scenarios like coin tosses, quality control, and medical trials.
  • Helps in estimating probabilities in binary outcomes.
43

Which of the following statements are logically equivalent ?

A. Some non-sedans are cars

B. Some cars are not non-sedans

C. Some cars are sedans

D. Some sedans are cars

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. ((a))

    B, C and D Only

  2. ((b))

     A and B Only

  3. ((c))

    A, B and C Only

  4. ((d))

     A, C and D Only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A, B and C Only

.

The correct answer is - A, B, and C Only

Key Points

  • Statement A: "Some non-sedans are cars."
  • This means there exists at least one object that is both a car and not a sedan.
  • Statement B: "Some cars are not non-sedans."
  • This is logically equivalent to Statement A because if some cars are not non-sedans, it means those cars must be sedans.
  • Statement C: "Some cars are sedans."
  • This is also logically equivalent to Statement A because if some cars are sedans, it implies some non-sedans are cars.
  • Statement D: "Some sedans are cars."
  • This statement does not add new information because sedans are already a subset of cars.
  • It is not logically equivalent to A, B, or C as it is a tautology.

Additional Information

  • Logical Equivalence
  • Two statements are logically equivalent if they always have the same truth value.
  • In this question:
  • Statement A implies that non-sedans exist as a subset of cars.
  • Statement B rephrases the same idea, as it negates "not non-sedans," leading to sedans.
  • Statement C directly states the same subset relation as A and B.
  • Subset Relationship
  • The term "some" indicates the existence of at least one element in the subset.
  • In this case, the subset relationship between cars, sedans, and non-sedans is critical for determining logical equivalence.
  • Tautology
  • Statement D is a tautology because it restates a universally known fact: "All sedans are cars."
  • Tautologies are always true but are not equivalent to the other statements in this case.
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44

Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The argument that sound is eternal because it is produced is fallacious according to classical Indian School of logic.

Reason (R): In the above argument, the middle term is too narrow.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. ((b))

    Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

  3. ((c))

    (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

  4. ((d))

    (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(A) is correct but (R) is not correct

The correct answer is: Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is not correct.

Key Points

  • Assertion (A) is correct.
  • According to Nyāya (Classical Indian Logic), the inference "Sound is eternal because it is produced" is logically fallacious.
  • Here, producedness (Kṛtakatva) is the Hetu (middle term), while eternality (Nityatva) is the property to be established.
  • Nyāya philosophers maintain that whatever is produced is necessarily non-eternal (Anitya).
  • Therefore, the reason supports the opposite conclusion and results in a Viruddha Hetvābhāsa (contradictory reason).
  • Reason (R) is not correct.
  • The defect in the argument does not arise because the middle term is too narrow.
  • A narrow middle term is associated with the fallacy called Asādhāraṇa Hetu.
  • In the present case, the middle term directly contradicts the conclusion that is intended to be proved.
  • Hence, the fallacy is Viruddha Hetvābhāsa, not a case of a narrow middle term.
  • Therefore, Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.

Additional Information

  • Viruddha Hetvābhāsa
  • A fallacy in which the reason offered proves the exact opposite of the proposition intended to be established.
  • Example: "Sound is eternal because it is produced."
  • Hetvābhāsa
  • Literally means "fallacious reason" or "semblance of a valid reason".
  • It refers to an apparently valid inference that fails due to a defect in the middle term.
  • Important Terms in Nyāya Logic
  • Pakṣa – The subject under consideration (Sound).
  • Sādhya – The property to be proved (Eternality).
  • Hetu – The reason offered in support of the conclusion (Producedness).
  • Vyāpti – The universal and invariable relation between the Hetu and the Sādhya.
45

Match List I with List - II.

List - I (Task)List - II (Appropriate Software)
A. Producing a letter to send out to patientsI. Database
B. Creating graphs to show number of people attending the health centreII. Word Processing
C. Creating queries from patients' detailsIII. Presentation
D. Creating an interactive display of health services offeredIV. Spreadsheet
<br>

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

  2. ((b))

    A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

  3. ((c))

    A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

  4. ((d))

    A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

.

The correct answer is - A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Key Points

  • A-II (Producing a letter to send out to patients - Word Processing)
  • Word processing software, such as Microsoft Word, is specifically designed for creating text-based documents, including letters and reports.
  • It allows for formatting, editing, and adding personalized details, making it ideal for producing patient letters.
  • B-IV (Creating graphs to show the number of people attending the health centre - Spreadsheet)
  • Spreadsheet software, like Microsoft Excel, is best suited for organizing numerical data and creating visual representations such as graphs and charts.
  • It can handle large datasets efficiently and provide insights through various graphing tools.
  • C-I (Creating queries from patients' details - Database)
  • Database software, such as Microsoft Access or SQL-based systems, is used for storing, retrieving, and querying detailed patient information.
  • It supports complex searches and data manipulation, which is essential for managing patient records effectively.
  • D-III (Creating an interactive display of health services offered - Presentation)
  • Presentation software, like Microsoft PowerPoint, is used to create visually appealing and interactive displays for health services.
  • It supports multimedia elements like images, videos, and animations, making it ideal for creating engaging presentations.

Additional Information

  • Word Processing
  • Used for creating, editing, and formatting textual documents.
  • Examples include Microsoft Word, Google Docs, and LibreOffice Writer.
  • Spreadsheet Software
  • Primarily used for data analysis, calculations, and creating charts.
  • Examples include Microsoft Excel, Google Sheets, and LibreOffice Calc.
  • Database Software
  • Designed for large-scale data storage and management.
  • Examples include Microsoft Access, MySQL, and Oracle Database.
  • Presentation Software
  • Used for creating engaging slideshows and interactive displays.
  • Examples include Microsoft PowerPoint, Google Slides, and Prezi.
Code

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions :

To avoid the various foolish opinions to which mankind is prone, no superhuman brain is required. A few simple rules will keep you free, not from all errors, but from silly errors. If the matter is one that can be settled by observation, make the observation yourself. Aristotle could have avoided the mistake of thinking that women have fewer teeth than man, by the simple device of asking Mrs. Aristotle to keep her mouth open while he counted. Thinking that you know when in fact you do not is a bad mistake, to which we are all prone. I believe myself that hedgehogs eat black beetles, because I have been told that they do; but if I was writing a book on the habits of hedgehogs, I should not commit myself until I had been enjoying this diet. Aristotle, however, was less cautious. Ancient and medieval writers knew all about unicorns and salamanders; not one of them thought it necessary to avoid dogmatic statements about them because he had never seen one of them.

46

According to the author, how can the matter be resolved?

  1. ((a))

    By the experience of the people

  2. ((b))

    By observing yourself

  3. ((c))

    By reading the books

  4. ((d))

    By following dogmatic statements

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

By observing yourself

The correct answer is Option 2: By observing yourself.

 

Key Points

  • The author clearly states that if a matter can be settled by observation, one should make the observation personally.
  • He gives the example of Aristotle, who could have avoided his mistake by simply checking the fact himself.
  • The passage emphasizes avoiding blind belief and relying on direct verification instead of assumptions.
  • Thus, according to the author, matters should be resolved by observing yourself.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Relevant Line from the Passage: “If the matter is one that can be settled by observation, make the observation yourself.”

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: The author warns against relying solely on what others say without verification.
  • Option 3: Reading books is not suggested as the primary method for resolving factual matters.
  • Option 4: The author criticizes dogmatic statements made without personal evidence or observation.
47

The author portrays mankind as:

  1. ((a))

    very intelligent

  2. ((b))

    having superhuman qualities

  3. ((c))

    having supernatural power

  4. ((d))

    ignorant

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

ignorant

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • The author states that mankind is prone to foolish opinions and silly errors.
  • He emphasizes that people often think they know when in fact they do not.
  • The examples of Aristotle and ancient writers show how people made dogmatic statements without evidence.
  • This portrayal reflects mankind as ignorant rather than intelligent or superhuman.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Relevant Line from the Passage: “To avoid the various foolish opinions to which mankind is prone…”

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: The passage does not describe mankind as very intelligent; rather, it highlights their tendency toward error.
  • Option 2: The author clearly states that no superhuman brain is required, rejecting this idea.
  • Option 3: There is no mention of mankind possessing supernatural powers; instead, human fallibility is emphasized.
48

According to the author, the ancient and medieval writers were in the habit of—————.

  1. ((a))

     using reasoning

  2. ((b))

    giving dogmatic statements

  3. ((c))

    drawing inferences from the old texts

  4. ((d))

    addressing to the profound questions

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

giving dogmatic statements

The correct answer is Option 2: giving dogmatic statements.

 

Key Points

  • The passage states that ancient and medieval writers made dogmatic statements about unicorns and salamanders.
  • They did so even though they had never seen such creatures.
  • The author criticizes their habit of making assertive claims without evidence.
  • This clearly shows they were in the habit of giving dogmatic statements.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Relevant Line from the Passage: “...not one of them thought it necessary to avoid dogmatic statements about them because he had never seen one of them.”

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: The passage does not mention logical reasoning; instead, it highlights lack of verification.
  • Option 3: There is no reference to drawing inferences from old texts.
  • Option 4: The writers are not described as addressing profound questions, but rather making unverified claims.
49

According to the author, one can draw conclusions on the basis of :

  1. ((a))

    sound theoretical knowledge

  2. ((b))

    reasoning

  3. ((c))

     empirical evidence

  4. ((d))

    discussion and consultation with people

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

 empirical evidence

The correct answer is Option 3:  empirical evidence.

 

Key Points

  • The author clearly advises that if a matter can be settled by observation, one should observe it personally.
  • He criticizes making claims without direct verification or personal experience.
  • The examples of Aristotle and ancient writers highlight the dangers of conclusions without evidence.
  • Thus, the author supports drawing conclusions based on empirical evidence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: The passage does not emphasize theoretical knowledge without verification.
  • Option 2: While reasoning is important, the author stresses direct observation over mere reasoning.
  • Option 4: The author cautions against relying solely on what others say without personal verification.
50

The author implies that :

  1. ((a))

     he never saw hedgehogs eating black beetles

  2. ((b))

    a book on the habits of hedgehogs must be written by someone

  3. ((c))

     the eating patterns of hedgehogs need to be studied

  4. ((d))

    he saw hedgehogs eating black beetles

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

 he never saw hedgehogs eating black beetles

The correct answer is Option 1:  he never saw hedgehogs eating black beetles.

 

Key Points

  • The author says he believes hedgehogs eat black beetles because he has been told so, not because he has observed it.
  • He adds that if he were to write a book, he would not commit himself until he had personally observed this diet.
  • This suggests that he has not verified the fact himself.
  • Thus, it is implied that he has never seen hedgehogs eating black beetles.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Relevant Line from the Passage: “I believe myself that hedgehogs eat black beetles, because I have been told that they do…”

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2: The passage does not imply that such a book must necessarily be written.
  • Option 3: Although study is suggested for accuracy, this is not the direct implication of the statement.
  • Option 4: This contradicts the passage, as the author admits he has only been told about it.

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