UGC NET Official Paper 1: Held On - 27th Dec 2021 Shift 2 (Previous Year Paper)

Given:

The given sequence: 1/2, 2/6, 4/18, 8/54, ?

Calculation:

The logic follows,

1/2 × 2/3 = 2/6

2/6 × 2/3 = 4/18

4/18 × 2/3 = 8/54

8/54 × 2/3 = 16/162

∴ The next in the above sequence is 16/162

the correct response is A - I , B - III , C - IV , D - II

Key Points

• A (Prevention) - I (Land-use planning): Prevention involves measures like land-use planning to reduce disaster risks.
• B (Preparedness) - III (Risk assessment): Preparedness includes assessing risks to prepare effectively.
• C (Recovery) - IV (Construction): Recovery often involves reconstruction and rebuilding after a disaster.
• D (Response) - II (Rescue): Response includes immediate actions like rescue operations during a disaster.

Additional Information

• Disaster management is the systematic process of preparing for, responding to, recovering from, and mitigating the effects of disasters.
• It involves identifying risks, creating and implementing plans to handle emergencies, providing immediate relief and rescue during disasters, and rebuilding and improving infrastructure and communities afterward.
• The goal is to reduce the impact of disasters and enhance community resilience.

Confusion Points The official answer key is option 3 which is considered as an incorrect response.

Ineffective communication is a breakdown or failure in the communication process.

Key Points

• Ineffective communication might result from any disruption or breakdown in the process.
• Factors affecting effective communication:
• Communication Status/Role
• Cultural Differences,
• Clarity of Message,
• Choice of communication,
• channels Length of Communication,
• Use of Language,
• Disabilities,
• Receiver Individual Perceptions,
• Atmosphere/Noise,
• Lack of Feedback.
• The obvious example is language; if you as the sender, talk in a language that the receiver does not comprehend, the communication will fail.

Therefore, Ambiguity can make communication ineffective. 

Additional Information

• Effective communication is defined as communication between two or more persons in which the intended message is transmitted.
• Some methods which can enhance effective communication are listed below:
• Active listening.
• Simplicity.
• Straightforwardness.
• Feedback.
• Speaking clearly/articulation.
• Knowledge of the receiver/audience.
• Speed and sequence of speech.
• Relationship between the sender and the receiver.

The term 'proclamation of emergency' is used in the Constitution to describe War, external aggression, or armed revolt to any part of India. 

Key Points

• The president can proclaim a national emergency under Article 352, when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war, an external attack or armed insurrection
• Articles 358 and 359 deal with fundamental rights during a national emergency.
• When a proclamation of National Emergency is issued, Article 358 states that the six fundamental rights outlined in Article 19 are automatically suspended.
• During a National Emergency, the President has the authority to suspend the enforcement of Fundamental Rights in any court.
• Only those Fundamental Rights listed in the Presidential Order are subject to the suspension of enforcement.
• After 44th Amendment Act, the President may not suspend the right to petition the courts under Articles 20 and 21 of the Indian Constitution.

Therefore,  the Indian Constitution, some fundamental rights of the citizens can be suspended during a National emergency.

Additional Information

• The term armed revolt replaced the Internal disturbance by the 44th amendment.
• After the 44th Amendment Act 1978, Article 19 can only be suspended not be suspended during the armed revolt.
• During the Financial Emergency, there is no such provisions for suspension of Fundamental rights.

Storage device is one of the most important components of every computing equipment. 

Key Points

• The storage device is computer hardware that is utilised for storing, transferring, or extracting data files.
• DVD stands for digital versatile disc and is a type of optical disc used for data storage and multimedia platforms.
• In 1963, David Paul Gregg and James Russell devised optical recording technology and its storage capacity ranged from 4.7 GB to 17.08 gigabytes.
• Compact disc read-only memory or CD-ROM is a type of computer memory that is stored on a compact disc and read by optical means.
• In 1982, Japanese company Denon developed CD-ROM.
• A floppy disc is a type of storage media that reads data storage information and is used to store electronic data.
• In 1967 Alan Shugart invented the floppy disc drive at IBM.
• Magnetic tape is a sort of physical storage media that can be used to store many types of data.
• In 1928, Fritz Pfleumer invented magnetic tape for recording sound in Germany.

​Therefore, DVD⇒CD-ROM⇒Floppy Disk⇒Magnetic Tape correct sequence of the following storage devices in descending order of their emergence.

Additional Information

• Storage devices are divided into two categories: Primary storage and Secondary storage.
• Primary devices are internal to the computer and are often smaller in size
• Secondary devices have a bigger storage capacity and keep data for a longer period of time.
• Examples of primary devices and secondary devices are RAM and cache memory, **hard discs, optical disc drives, USB storage etc. **​

Confusion Points

• In 1928, Fritz Pfleumer invented magnetic tape for recording sound in Germany.
• In 1963, David Paul Gregg and James Russell devised optical recording technology.
• In 1967,  Alan Shugart invented the floppy disc drive at IBM.
• In 1982, Japanese company Denon developed CD-ROM.

Cognitive psychologists utilize the Information Processing Model as a framework to explain and characterize mental processes.

Key Points

Therefore, A -I, B -II, C -IV, D -III

Additional Information

• The premise of Information Processing Theory is that long-term memory is formed in stages:**

1. Perceive something through our sensory memory, which includes everything we can see, hear, feel, or taste in a given moment;
2. use our short-term memory to remember things for very short periods of time, such as a phone number;
3. long-term memory is permanently stored in our brains.

The notion of sustainable development was born out of growing concern about human society's impact on the environment. 

Key Points

Statement I: Education for sustainable development has to be related to the process of taking decisions pertaining to economy, politics, and natural environment.

• The Brundtland Commission defined sustainable development in 1987 as "development that meets current demands without jeopardising future generations' ability to meet their own needs" (Brundtland, 1987).
• Through education for sustainable development, every citizen being may gain the information, skills, attitudes, and values needed to construct a sustainable future.
• It learners are encouraged to participate in the decision-making process related to environmental issues which affect by the economy or politics.

So, Statement I is correct. 

Statement II: Inviting senior citizens to schools and allowing them to speak on the environment of their childhood, may help in developing a concept of sustainable development. 

• It also necessitates interactive teaching and learning approaches that motivate and empower students to modify their behavior and take action in the interest of long-term sustainability.
• Although teachers can allow participatory learning through which action research/learning to act, and case studies involving local community groups and businesses.
• Education for sustainable development fosters skills such as critical thinking, anticipating future situations, and making collaborative decisions.

Thus, Statement II is correct. 

Therefore, Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. 

Additional Information

• Education for Sustainable Development necessitates significant changes in the way education is currently delivered
• To promote a sustainable development education curriculum embedded in an interdisciplinary and holistic manner, allowing for a whole-institution approach to policymaking.
• It can promote critical thinking, problem-solving, and action in learners to develop confidence in addressing the challenges to sustainable development.

Microblogging is a type of blogging that is more condensed. 

Key Points

Statement I: 'Twitter' is a microblogging site that is very restricted on the size of the post. 

• Twitter is a social networking service based on microblogging.
• Twitter is an online microblogging service that allows users to send short messages to groups of people via computer or mobile phone.
• it can read the short 140 character (or fewer) based communications known as tweets.

Statement I is correct. 

Statement II: 'Wiki' allows readers to edit posts, and entries in it are usually not in chronological order.

• Wikis date back to 1995 when Ward Cunningham developed a new collaborative technique for organizing material on websites.
• A wiki is a website that users may edit or contribute to.
• Wikis were influenced by Apple's HyperCard program, which allowed users to create virtual "card stacks" of information with a variety of connections, or links, between the cards.
• All past changes to the page in question are listed in reverse-chronological order.

Statement II is correct. 

Therefore, Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Additional Information

• Microblogs are designed to be concise but standard blogs have no limits on words to give a complete view of a topic.
• Users can also choose to follow specific topics by clicking on hashtags (for example, #movies).
• HyperCard allows readers to annotate and link papers and books on microfilm.

Fallacies occur when common errors in reasoning that will undermine the logic of your argument. 

Key Points

• Illicit Minor Fallacy occurs when the minor term is undistributed in the premiss but is distributed in the conclusion.
• This fallacy has the following argument form:
• All A are B.
• All A are C.
• Therefore, all C are B.
• Rule: In a valid standard-form categorical syllogism no term can be distributed in the conclusion unless it is also distributed in the premises.
• Reason: otherwise the conclusion would assert more than what is contained in the premises.
• For example: 
• Some spaniels are not good hunters.
• All spaniels are gentle dogs.
• Therefore, No gentle dogs are good hunters.
• The minor term here is dogs, which is not distributed in the minor premise "All spaniels are gentle dogs" because this premise is only defining property of possibly some dogs.

Therefore, Fallacy of Illicit Minor is committed in the argument. 

Additional Information

• Illicit major occurs in a categorical syllogism that is invalid because its major term is undistributed in the major premise but distributed in the conclusion.
• The fallacy of exclusive premises is a syllogistic fallacy committed in a categorical syllogism that is invalid because both of its premises are negative.
• The formal fallacy of four terms (Latin: quaternio terminorum) arises when a syllogism contains four (or more) terms instead of the required three, making it invalid.

The Constitution's Articles 15(4) and 16(4) allowed state and federal governments to set aside seats in government services for members of the SC and ST communities.

Key Points

• The Constitution (77th Amendment) Act of 1995 added a new clause (4A) to Article 16 of the Constitution allowing the government to give reservations in promotion.
• The 81st Amendment Act of 2000 placed Article 16 (4 B) into the Constitution, allowing the state to fill unfilled SC/ST vacancies in the next year, effectively nullifying the fifty per cent reservation cap on total vacancies for that year.
• In-State of Madras v. Smt.Champakam Dorairajan (1951), the Supreme Court pointed out that while Article 16(4) of the Constitution provides for reservations in favour of backward persons in government employment no such provision exists in Article 15.
• In the case of Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992), the court considered the meaning and extent of Article 16 (4).
• According to the Court, the creamy layer of OBCs should be eliminated from the list of reservation beneficiaries, reservations should not be made in promotions, and the total reserved quota should not exceed 50%.

Therefore, For the reservation of the socially disadvantaged sections, the ceiling fixed by the Supreme Court of India is 50%. 

Additional Information

• Articles 330 and 332 provide for particular representation in the Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies, respectively, by reserving seats for SCs and STs.
• Every Panchayat is required by Article 243D to reserve seats for SCs and STs.
• Every municipality is required by Article 233T to reserve seats for SCs and STs.
• According to Article 335 of the constitution, the claims of STs and STs must be taken into account in conjunction with the maintenance of the efficacy of the system.

The Nyāya philosophy as a practitioner and believer of realism seeks for acquiring knowledge of reality.

Key Points

Assertion(A): According to the Nyāya system, the argument "Sound is quality because it is visible is fallacious."

• The Nyāya school of thought adheres to atomistic pluralism and logical realism.
• Hetvabhasa is an important Sanskrit term that means fallacy in the English language.
• A fallacy is the use of invalid or otherwise faulty reasoning or wrong moves in the construction of an argument.
• Sound is invisible and it cant be seen. So, the argument "Sound is quality because it is visible" is fallacious.

Hence, Assertion (A) is correct.

Reason (R): It commits the fallacy of Svarupāsidhha.

• Five kinds of formal fallacies recognized are as follows:
• Assiddha or Sadhyasama
• Savyabhicara
• Satpratipaksa
• Badhita
• Viruddha
• The Asiddha hetu is one which is not yet proved, but requires to be proved, like the sadhya. This means that the asiddha hetu is not a proven or an established fact, but an asiddha or unproven assumption.
• Assiddha can be divided into - Ashraya Siddha, Svarupasiddha, and Vyapvyatvasiddha.
• Svarupasiddha occurs when the minor term is not unreal but because of the very nature of the middle term, the middle term cannot be present in the minor term.
• For example; the sound is a quality,be­ cause it can be seen. Here the sound is the minor term, it is real but the middle term seen cannot be present in the minor term sound because sound cannot be seen, it can be heard.

​Hence, Reason (R) is correct.

Therefore, Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Language works as a means of communication between the members of society.

Key Points

So, the correct arrangement will be A -III , B -I , C -IV , D -II

Question is incorrect.

The correct answer is commands and controls employees.

Key Points

• Let's refer to the first paragraph of the passage:
• Leaders in powerful positions once thought workers should be told what to do and how to do it.
• let everyone know that those at the top had power and those at the bottom had none.

                    (Taken from the line **"**They believed strict control...had none")

• From the above-mentioned statements, it is evident that the traditional conceptualization of a leader is based on his ability to command and control the employees.

Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Conceptualization means the process of forming an idea or concept.

The correct answer is leaders distribute responsibilities among workers.

Key Points

• Let's refer to the passage:
• Today’s leaders share power rather than hoard it.
• They find ways to increase an organization’s brain power by getting everyone involved and committed.
• From the above statements, it is clear that the statement "Today's leaders share power rather than hoard it" implies that the leaders distribute responsibilities among workers.

​Therefore, option 2 is the correct answer.​

Additional Information

• Hoard means to accumulate or store something often in a secretive manner.
• For eg: Power hoarded by a few is a threat to democracy.

The correct answer is Employee empowerment leads to improvement in production.

Key Points

• The given passage discusses the difference between old and new conceptualization of a leader.
• Let's refer to the passage:
• Today, the old views of the distribution of power are no longer valid.
• Today’s leaders share power rather than hoard it.
• They find ways to increase an organization’s brain power by getting everyone involved and committed.
• From the above-mentioned statements, it is evident that unlike the old leaders,  the new leaders advocate for distribution of power which leads to employee empowerment and improvement in production.

Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is demotivation and maintain status quo.

Key Points

• Let's refer to the passage:
• They (leaders)  believed strict control was needed for the organization to function efficiently and effectively fixed organizational hierarchies.

​​​                    (Taken from the line " They believed....had none.")

• An emphasis on control serves to squelch motivation, innovation and morale, rather than produce desired results**.**
• From the above-mentioned statements, it is evident that an emphasis on control serves to enhance demotivation and maintain status quo.

​​ Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Status quo means the present or existing state of affairs.
• The royalty tries to maintain the status quo amidst the growing unrest.
• Squelch means to suppress or stop something.
• For eg: The protest was ruthlessly squelched by the police.​

Given:

There are 5 items along with the number of items brought and sold for each quarter for each item in a given table.

Total number of quarters = 4

Formula used:

Average = Sum of the terms/Number of the terms

Calculation:

Total number of items bought in Q1 = 300 + 270 + 280 + 320 + 325 = 1495

Total number of items sold in Q1 = 170 + 180 + 210 + 250 + 275 = 1085

Difference between the number of item brought and item sold for Quarter Q1 = 1495 - 1085 = 410

Total types of items = 5

The average between the number of items brought and items sold for Quarter Q1 = 410/5 = 82

∴ The average of difference between items brought and items sold for Quarter Q1 is 82.

Given:

There are 5 items along with the number of items brought and sold for each quarter for each item in a given table.

Total number of quarters = 4

Calculation:

Total number of Item A sold = 170 + 335 + 320 + 370 = 1195

Avergae number of item A sold for all quarters = 1195/4 = 298.75

Total number of Item B sold = 180 + 200 + 330 + 340 = 1050

Avergae number of item B sold for all quarters = 1050/4 = 262.5

Total number of Item C sold = 210 + 310 + 200 + 200 = 920

Avergae number of item C sold for all quarters = 920/4 = 230

Total number of Item D sold = 250 + 290 + 180 + 240 = 960

Avergae number of item D sold for all quarters = 960/4 = 240

Total number of Item E sold = 275 + 315 + 170 + 190 = 950

Avergae number of item E sold for all quarters = 950/4 = 237.5

Here, the average number of item C that are sold is lower than all items.

Therefore, item C has the minimum average items sold for all quarters.

Given:

There are 5 items along with the number of items brought and sold for each quarter for each item in a given table.

Total number of quarters = 4

Calculation:

Total number of items bought in Q1 = 300 + 270 + 280 + 320 + 325 = 1495

Total number of items sold in Q1 = 170 + 180 + 210 + 250 + 275 = 1085

The ratio of bought to sold in Q1 = 1495/1085 = 1.377...

Total number of items bought in Q2 = 400 + 280 + 350 + 340 + 370 = 1740

Total number of items sold in Q2 = 335 + 200 + 310 + 290 + 315 = 1450

The ratio of bought to sold in Q2 = 1740/1450 = 1.2

Total number of items bought in Q3 = 370 + 350 + 250 + 280 + 320 = 1570

Total number of items sold in Q3 = 320 + 330 + 200 + 180 + 170 = 1200

The ratio of bought to sold in Q3 = 1570/1200 = 1.30...

Total number of items bought in Q4 = 410 + 380 + 250 + 280 + 265 = 1585

Total number of items sold in Q4 = 370 + 340 + 200 + 240 + 190 = 1340

The ratio of bought to sold in Q4 = 1585/1340 = 1.18...

Hence, Q4 has the lower ratio of bought to sold.

Therefore, Q4 quarter has the minimum bought to sold ratio.

Given:

There are 5 items along with the number of items brought and sold for each quarter for each item in a given table.

Total number of quarters = 4

Calculation:

Total number of items sold in Q1 = 170 + 180 + 210 + 250 + 275 = 1085

Total number of items sold in Q2 = 335 + 200 + 310 + 290 + 315 = 1450

The total number of sold items increases = 1450 - 1085 = 365

The percentage increases = (365/1085) × 100

= (73/217) × 100

= 33.64...%

≈ 33.64%

∴ The percentage increase of items sold from Q1 to Q2 is 33.64%

Given:

There are 5 items along with the number of items brought and sold for each quarter for each item in a given table.

Total number of quarters = 4

Calculation:

Total number of items sold in Q1 = 170 + 180 + 210 + 250 + 275 = 1085

Total number of items sold in Q2 = 335 + 200 + 310 + 290 + 315 = 1450

Total number of items sold in Q3 = 320 + 330 + 200 + 180 + 170 = 1200

Total number of items sold in Q4 = 370 + 340 + 200 + 240 + 190 = 1340

Here, the total number of items sold in Q2 is greater than all quarters.

Therefore, quarter Q2 has maximum number of items sold.

Gasohol containing various gasoline and ethanol ratios is now employed in many countries.

Key Points

• The term "gasohol" refers to a mixture of 10% ethanol and gasoline.
• Ethanol increases the octane rating of lead-free motor fuel and reduces carbon monoxide emissions from tailpipes substantially.
• It emits fewer pollutants ethanol-based gasoline has a higher octane rating and burns more fully than regular gasoline.
• These chemicals are components of urban haze thus, the significance of ethanol in pollution reduction is debatable.
• Gasohol burns in a lighter fuel and air mixture than gasoline which helps to mitigate the fuel economy issue.
• Fuel is manned by computerised engine systems which increase the efficiency of burning gasoline.

​Therefore, Gasohol is a mixture of gasoline and ethanol.

Additional Information

• Methanol-based gasoline is more hazardous and corrosive when it is mixed with formaldehyde.
• The fundamental benefit of using gasohol is that it has a higher oxygen content which allows for better fuel economy and lower pollutant emissions.
• It's also been touted as a way to cut down on corn surpluses.

Working memory is a word that refers to a limited capacity system that is capable of temporarily storing and processing information.

Key Points

Statement I: Working memory has a development trajectory- it increases throughout childhood and it decreases with aging.

• Working memory is a portion of the human memory system with a limited capacity that combines the temporary storage and manipulation of data in the service of cognition.
• Neurons in our brains activate generate or modify networks of connections that generate memories.
• Human brains are not fully developed when they are born.
• Our capacity to remember grows as our brain develops throughout infancy and early childhood.

Therefore, Statement I is correct.

Statement II: Working memory does not get adversely affected by ongoing stresses.

• Stress has a powerful influence on memory function.
• Stress appears to have varying impacts depending on the type of memory.
• Acute stress can be highly disruptive to working memory processing.

So, Statement II is Incorrect. 

Hence, Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. 

Additional Information

• Working memory is distinct from long-term memory which is a separate element of the memory system with a large storage capacity and a more stable form of knowledge.
• According to the multi-component model, Working memory contains an executive controller that interacts with different short-term stores for auditory-verbal and visuospatial information.
• Working memory has proven valuable in identifying the individual differences in cognition, neuropsychology, normal and abnormal child development.

Causal research is a form of study that determines if two events have a cause-and-effect relationship.

Key Points

Assertion A: Causal relationship between the independent variable and the dependent variable cannot be established beyond doubt if the researcher fails to control the conditions.

• In experiments research, a causal relationship is cause-and-effect is conditions between two variables.
• Researchers call independent and dependent variables when one variable causes or contributes to change in another.
• The cause is an independent variable, while the consequence is a dependent variable.
• The researcher tries to control the different variables and tries to manipulate the independent variable and tries to observe the effect on the dependent variable.
• In case, is the researcher don't able to control the conditions then unable to establish the causal relationship between variables and created doubt.

Therefore, Assertion A is Correct. 

Reason R:  A set of confounding variables are likely to influence the value of the dependent variable if they are not controlled by the researcher.

• A confounding variable is an unmeasured third variable that affects both the purported cause and effect in research.
• It is extraneous variables that affect the independent and dependent variables in a study.
• Confounding variables must be taken into account to ensure the internal validity of your study.
• If you don't, your results might not accurately reflect the link between the variables you're interested in.

So, Reason R is Correct and the explanation of A.

Hence, Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A/(A).

Additional Information

 To reduce the impact of confounding variables:

• Restriction: Only subjects with the same values of potential confounding factors are included in this method's treatment group.
• Matching: You choose a comparison group that is similar to the treatment group in this manner.
• Statistical control: If you've already gathered the data, you can use the potential confounders as control variables in your regression models to account for the confounding variable's impact.
• Randomization: Randomizing the values of your independent variable is another approach to reduce the impact of confounding variables.

The audible frequency range refers to the range of sound frequencies that humans and other animals can hear.

Key Points Assertion A: The decibel level for a given loudness may be different at different frequencies in the audible range.

• Decibels(dB) are a unit of measurement for sound.
• The frequency of sound is defined as the number of pressure variations per second.
• For example, A whisper is 30 decibels, a normal conversation is 60 decibels, and a motorcycle engine running is 95 decibels.
• A listener can measure the frequency and perceived loudness of any sound using the link between Hertz and decibels.
• Hertz is a unit of measurement for the frequency or quantity of air pressure change vibration.
• Decibels are used to measure the change in air pressure caused by the vibrating object.

Thus, Assertion A is correct. 

Reason R: The human ear has a different frequency response.

• The audible range refers to the range of sound frequencies that humans and other animals can hear.
• Humans can notice noises in the 20 Hz to 20 kHz frequency range.
• Sounds with frequencies ranging from 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz can be heard by a normal human ear.

So, Reason R is the correct explanation of A. 

Therefore, Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. 

Additional Information

• A sound wave is a rapidly fluctuating pressure wave that travels through a medium.
• The atmospheric pressure varies frequently as sound travels through the air.
• The loudness of a sound or noise is another characteristic.
• Loud noise has a bigger pressure variation, whereas quiet noise has a smaller variance.

A QR code is a type of barcode that stores information as a series of pixels in a square-shaped grid and can be read simply by a digital device.

Key Points

• The original QR code system was created in 1994 by Denso Wave, a Toyota subsidiary in Japan.
• QR stands for Quick Response.
• A QR code read in two directions: top to bottom and right to left. This allows it to store a lot more information.
• QR codes contain Website URLs, phone numbers, and up to 4,000 characters of text.
• QR codes can be used for a variety of purposes, including:
• Authenticate online accounts and double-check login information.
• Wi-Fi can be accessed by saving encryption information such as the SSID, password, and encryption type.
• Payment information is sent and received.

Therefore, The full form of QR is Quick Response. 

Additional Information

Working of QR code: 

• The patterns in QR codes are binary codes that may be decoded to expose the data contained within the code.
• The three huge squares outside the QR code can be used by a QR reader to identify a normal QR code.
• When it recognizes these three shapes then it understands that everything inside the square is a QR code.
• The QR code is analyzed by breaking it down into a grid by the QR reader.
• It examines each grid square and assigns a value to each one based on whether it is black or white.
• The grid squares are then grouped together to form larger patterns.

The University Grants Commission (UGC) introduced the CBCS or Choice Based Credit System.

Key Points

• This choice-based credit system in higher education allows for greater flexibility in curriculum development and credit allocation based on course difficulty and teaching hours.
• CBCS places a strong emphasis on group discussions, assignments, class activities, and internal assessments, resulting in a positive learning atmosphere.
• The Choice Based Credit System follows a semester-by-semester structure with even and odd semesters adding up to an academic year.
• The CBCS uses a grading and evaluation method to map student performance.
• It offers students select inter-disciplinary, intra-disciplinary, and skill-based courses.
• CBCS ensures that education is broad and meets global standards.

Therefore, A, B, and C are correct. 

Additional Information

• CBCS was introduced to fulfill the vision of the New Education Policy (NEP).
• Higher education institutions must focus on striking a balance between teaching education and boosting skill development.
• The UGC wants to develop a "learner-centric" approach in the overall education delivery mechanism through CBSC.

Oxidative stress is defined as a disruption in the equilibrium between the formation of reactive oxygen species and antioxidants. 

Key Points

 Statement I: Oxidative stress is an imbalance between the accumulation of oxygen reactive substances and the ability of the body to destroy them.

• An imbalance between the synthesis and accumulation of oxygen reactive species causes oxidative stress.
• These factors can include an imbalance in the synthesis and accumulation of oxygen: diet, lifestyle, certain conditions, environmental factors such as pollution and radiation.
• Mild inflammation results from this form of oxidative stress, which subsides once the immune system has fought off an infection or repaired an injury.

So, the Statement is true. 

Statement II: Oxidative stress is significantly lowered by the presence of oxidants.

• An imbalance between free radicals and antioxidants in your body causes oxidative stress.
• Oxygen-containing molecules with an unequal number of electrons are known as free radicals.
• Because free radicals react so quickly with other molecules they can create enormous chain chemical reactions in your body.
• Oxidation is the term for these kinds of processes.

Thus, Statement II is False. 

Therefore, Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Additional Information

• The potential function of oxidative stress in the creation of tissue damage in diabetes mellitus is explored.
• When there are more free radicals present antioxidants can keep in check but the free radicals might start causing harm to your body's fatty tissue, DNA, and proteins.
• Damage to proteins, lipids, and DNA, which make up a big part of your body, can lead to a wide range of disorders over time.

The correct answer is A, C, and D only

The word hypothesis consists of two words: Hypo + thesis = Hypothesis. ‘Hypo’ means tentative or subject to verification and ‘Thesis’ means a statement about the solution of a problem. The word meaning of the term hypothesis is a tentative statement about the solution to the problem

Key Points

A good Hypothesis must possess the following characteristics

• It is never formulated in the form of a question.
• It should be empirically testable, whether it is right or wrong.
• It should be specific and precise. and should not include generalization. If generalization exists, then a hypothesis cannot reach the correct conclusions
• It should specify variables between which the relationship is to be established.
• It should describe one issue only. A hypothesis can be formed either in descriptive or relational form.
• It should not conflict with any law of nature which is known to be true. guarantees that available tools and techniques will be effectively used for the purpose of verification.
• It should be potentially tested which means it should Relate to existing theories and/or “point” toward new theories that  should lead to studies beyond the present one (often hard to determine in advance)
• It should be stated as far as possible in the most simple terms so that the same is easily understandable by all concerned.
• It must explain the facts that gave rise to the need for explanation.
• It should be amenable to testing within a reasonable time.
• It should not be contradictory,
• It should be presently testable and better than its rival hypothesis.

Thus we conclude that the correct answer is A, C, and Donly

Given:

The given time = 4:40 pm to 6:10 pm

Formula used:

Minute hand makes 6º in 1 minute.

1 hour = 60 minutes

Calculation:

Total time from 4:40 pm to 6:10 pm = 6:10 pm - 4:40 pm = 1 hour 30 minutes

1 hour 30 minutes = (1 × 60) + 30 minutes = 90 minutes

The angle made by the minute hand of a clock while moving from 4:40 pm to 6:10 pm = 90 × 6 = 540º

∴ The angle made by the minute hand of a clock while moving from 4:40 pm to 6:10 pm is 540º

The correct answer is C, A, D, E, B

Bloom's taxonomy is a set of three hierarchical models used for the classification of educational learning objectives into levels of complexity and specificity. \

The three lists cover the learning objectives in

• Cognitive,
• Affective and
• Psychomotor domains.

Key Points

​Bloom's cognitive taxonomy originally in 1956  was represented by six different domain levels as following below.​

Bloom's Taxonomy of cognitive skills:

• Knowledge: Identifying the steps on how to solve, factor, evaluate, etc.
• Understanding: describe what we are looking for and why – zeros, vertex, intersection, etc.
• Application: Solve an equation or draw a graph
• Analyze: Compare, contrast, and classify
• Evaluation: Explain and defend your solution

In the 2001 revised edition of Bloom's taxonomy, the levels have slightly different names and their order was revised: Remember, Understand, Apply, Analyze, Evaluate, and Create (rather than Synthesize).​

Hence the correct answer is  C, A, D, E, B

Philip G. Altbach is an American author and researcher said: "the complexity of the social context in which higher education exists in India, very likely makes systemic reforms impossible".

Important Points

Assertion (A): The complexity of the social context in which higher education exists in India, very likely, makes systemic reforms impossible.

• The politics of the society is often played out in the universities, escalating campus conflicts and further politicizing higher education.
• Social unrest is the result and most often the changes are not implemented.
• India has great potential for meritorious students out somehow, a huge percentage of these students are restricted from the available educational opportunities due to the influence of the Quota system.
• Reservations are unpopular among the academic community as well as among students.
• Despite considerable conflict and controversy and quite a few proposals for reform over several decades, there is still no solution to the issue of the medium of instruction in Indian higher education.
• Controversies concerning the medium of instruction in schools and especially in higher education have, from time to time, erupted into violence.
• It was often claimed that reforms did not succeed because teachers did not have the initiative or freedom to design and develop courses of study and evolve methods of students assessment.
• The use of higher education to implement broader social policy inevitably creates controversy and has, in general, not been successful.

Therefore, Assertion (A) is true.

Reason(R): The inadequacy of infrastructure and the attitude of the academic community to prefer the status quo than taking risks, with experiments and innovation that require initiative and considerable efforts, are the principal impediments.

• The inadequacy of infrastructure in most institutions is a serious impediment to meaningful reforms. There are not just enough resources to make good these deficiencies.
• Indian higher education is chronically short of money. Even when compared to the resources provided to higher education in many other Third World countries, India seems, when measured on a per capita basis, to be relatively poorly endowed.
• Academic communities are following the old pattern and are not ready to embrace the new pattern of learning in higher education.
• Infrastructure is not a part of the social context.

Therefore, Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

The correct answer is Positivism

A philosophical position consists of statements that are believed to be true by the thinkers who accept them, and which may or may not be empirical. that is the knowledge comes only or primarily from sensory experience

Important Points

Positivism

• It implies that there are objective, independent laws of nature to which human life is subjected.
• It is the purpose of research to discover and describe these objective laws.
• In philosophy, positivism adheres to the view that only “factual” knowledge gained through observation (the senses), including measurement, is trustworthy.
• In positivism studies, the role of the researcher is limited to data collection and interpretation in an objective way.
• The above statement scientists should put aside, their personal beliefs and biases and see the world as it "really" is. " is actually propounding to see things objectively hence it reflects Positivism

Additional Information

• Postpositivists 
• It argues that the ideas, and even the particular identity, of a researcher influence what they observe and therefore impact what they conclude.
• It pursues objective answers by attempting to recognize, and work with, such biases with the theories and knowledge that theorists develop
• For example, people seem to know what they ate for breakfast even though they have faulty memories
• Inductivism
• It is an approach to logic whereby scientific laws are inferred from particular facts or observational evidence.
• for example, we observe many objects falling towards the ground when unsupported, and reason from this that other unsupported objects will also fall, then we are using induction
• Constructivism:
• ​The aim of constructivist research is to understand particular situations or phenomena.
• Rich data is gathered from which ideas can be formed
• For example, our direct experience of gravity makes our knowledge of it more valid than our indirect experience of black holes

The correct answer is 2030

Key Points

Sustainable Development Goals:

• The Sustainable Development Goals or Global Goals are a collection of 17 interlinked global goals designed to be a "blueprint to achieve a better and more sustainable future for all".
• The SDGs were set up in 2015 by the United Nations General Assembly and are intended to be achieved by 2030
• They are included in an UN-GA Resolution called the 2030 Agenda or what is colloquially known as Agenda 2030
• The SDGs were developed in the Post-2015 Development Agenda as the future global development framework to succeed the Millennium Development Goals which ended in 2015.

Additional Information

Sustainable Development Goals (SDG):

• To bring sustainable development to the mainstream United Nations (UN) launched the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development and SDGs.
• There are 17 goals and 169 targets specific targets to be achieved by 2030.
• Reaching the goals requires action on all fronts – governments, businesses, civil society and people everywhere all have a role to play.
• SDGs are not legally binding.
• NITI Aayog has released the second edition of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) India Index (SDG Index 2.0).
• The index documents the progress made by India’s States and UTs toward achieving the 2030 SDG targets.

The correct answer is Interpersonal Communication

As per Keith Davis Communication is the process of passing information and understanding from one person to another. Communication can be characterized as Formal, Informal, Inter-personal and Non-verbal communication

Important Points

 Interpersonal communication

• it is an exchange of information between two or more people.
• It is also an area of research that seeks to understand how humans use verbal and nonverbal cues to accomplish a number of personal and relational goals.
• A communication scenario in which two teachers are debating about the curriculum for the 21st century is an instance of this

Additional Information

• Group communication
• It is the act of sending and receiving messages to multiple members of a group
• Diagonal or crosswise communication 
• It takes place when people working at the same level interact with those working at a higher or lower level of organizational hierarchy and across the boundaries of their reporting relationships.
• Lateral communication 
• It involves communication across chains of command.
• It facilitates coordination among departments. In this, the sender and receiver(s) are at the same level in the hierarchy.
• It is also called Horizontal communication, which involves the flow of messages between individuals and groups on the same level of an organization.

The data that is pushed from a server to a client without client requests is called Push technology.

Key Points

• The technical word used to describe a server sending a message to the client without a client initiating a request to a server asking for a specific payload is commonly referred to as Push Request.
• It is contrasted with pull/get request, where the request for the transmission of information is initiated by the receiver or client.
• Push services are often based on information preferences expressed in advance. This is called a publish/subscribe model.
• A client "subscribes" to various information "channels" provided by a server; whenever new content is available on one of those channels, the server pushes that information out to the client.
• Synchronous conferencing and instant messaging are typical examples of push services. Chat messages and sometimes files are pushed to the user as soon as they are received by the messaging service.

Additional Information

• Pull technology refers to clients that make requests to servers. This is the traditional way to structure a client/server architecture.
• A web browser requesting a web page is an example of pull technology.
• ancient

The sage Gotama established Nyaya school. 

Key Points

• Nyāya origins can be traced back to old debate and reasoning traditions
• According to the Nyāya theory of causality, a cause is an unconditional and invariable antecedent of an effect.
• According to the Nyāya school, there are four legitimate modes of gaining knowledge: 
• Pratyakṣa (Perception)
• Anumāna (Inference):
• Upamāna(Comparison)
• Śabda (Testimony)
• Pratyakṣa (perception) is the most important concept in Nyāya epistemology. There are two sorts of perceptions: laukika (ordinary) and alaukika (exceptional) (extraordinary).
• Anumāna (inference) is one of the most important contributions of the Nyāya. It can be of two types: inference for oneself and inference for others.
• Śabda means relying on words and testimony of experts.
• Hiriyanna explains Śabda-pramanas as a concept that means the testimony of a reliable and trustworthy person (āptavākya).
• Upamāna is the Sanskrit word for analogy and comparison. Upamāna can be explained by a tourist who has never visited areas or islands with endemic wildlife populations.

Therefore, Pratyakṣa, Anumāna, Upamāna, Śabda are following pramanas that are accepted by the Nyāya School. 

Additional Information

• The Nyaya school of Hinduism is closer to the Vaisheshika school of Hinduism in terms of metaphysics than the others.
• In Indian philosophy,  Arthāpatti (Sanskrit: "the occurrence of a case") is the fifth of the five modes of knowing (pramana) via which one receives precise knowledge of the world.

The barrier to communication is anything that inhibits or disables communicators from delivering the message to a receiver. 

Key Points

• The intended message will frequently be disrupted and misinterpreted, resulting in misunderstanding and communication failure.
• There are five categories of barriers to effective communication: 
• Attitudinal Barriers
• Cultural Barriers
• Emotional Barriers
• Language Barriers
• Environment Barriers
• Language Barriers: language barrier is the lack of a common language that hinders two or more individuals from communicating verbally with each other.
• Emotional Barriers: The ease and comfort with which a person can speak are determined by their emotional IQ.
• Attitudinal Barriers: Attitudinal Barriers are discriminatory behaviors, perceptions, and assumptions that people with disabilities face.
• Cultural Barriers: A cultural barrier is a problem that arises from a misinterpretation of meaning due to cultural differences between the sender and the receiver.
• Environment Barriers: Environmental barriers frequently hinder or prevent a disabled person from fully participating in social, occupational, or recreational activities.

Therefore, culture, climate, curiosity are examples of barrier variables in communication. 

Additional Information

• Effective communication is the process of exchanging ideas & knowledge in such a way that the goal or intention is met to the best of one's ability.
• Speak clearly, maintain an even tone, and make eye contact you can enhance the effectiveness of communication.

Magnetic storage is frequently utilised in comparison to other storage technologies.

Key Points

• Magnetic data storage is one of the most extensively utilised methods of digital data storage.
• The magnetic surface is divided into very small sections, each with a magnetization that is relatively uniform.
• Magnetic storage is read-write allowing you to reuse the store space by removing older data.
• It stored data outside the computer for a long period of time.
• The main disadvantage of magnetic storage is the slowness with which data may be accessed.
• Magnetic storage for nonvolatile data storage in the form of an external hard drive.

​Therefore, Magnetic storage is an external hard drive with respect to the computer storage device.

Additional Information

• DVD stands for digital versatile disc and is a type of optical disc used for data storage and multimedia platforms. It was invented in 1995 and its storage capacity range from 4.7 GB to 17.08 gigabytes.
• Compact disc read-only memory or CD-ROM is a type of computer memory that is stored on a compact disc and read by optical means. In 1982, Japanese company Denon developed CD-ROM.
• A USB flash drive is a portable storage device with flash memory that is small enough to be carried. It was invented by Fujio Masuoka in the early 1980s.

The correct answer is A is true but R is false

Key Points

Assertion A: Active participation of all students in a classroom is an indicator of the teachers' communication skills.

Classroom Participation:

• Participation actively engages students with the subject matter, pushes them to create concepts, and forces them to show evidence for their claims.
• Put simply, it makes students work harder.
• It establishes and sustains an orderly environment in the classroom.
• It Increases meaningful academic learning and facilitates social and emotional growth.
• It Decreases negative behaviors and increases time spent academically engaged.

​Hence Assertion is correct

Reason R: Teachers should focus more on classroom management (as discipline matters) than instruction.

Classroom Management  Versus Instruction:

• Classroom Management is a term teachers use to describe the process of ensuring that classroom lessons run smoothly without disruptive behavior from students compromising the delivery of instruction.
• High-quality academic instruction has consistently proven to be an effective classroom for technique minimizing disruptions by reducing problem behavior and promoting student engagement.
• Some researchers have found that teachers using the lowest (< 33rd percentile) amounts of active supervision, engagement, and feedback have students that are 27% more likely to be off-task and 67% more likely to be disruptive (Gage, Scott, et.al, 2018).
• For example, Posting a “Do Not Disturb” sign on your classroom door during important activities such as tests or exercises that require a great deal of concentration would be a better option than spending your energy on scolding why they are not concentrating

Hence Reason is false.

Thus we conclude that A is true but R is false

The Correct Answer is A-II, B -III, C -I, D -IV

Key Points

Hence the correct matching code is A-II, B -III, C -I, D -IV

The correct answer is EEPROM

Non-volatile memory is a memory that retains its values even when power is removed. For example, non-volatile memory can store controller program code for devices, such as hard disk drives (HDD) and disk tapes. Other types of non-volatile memory (NVM) are commonly used to save data in USB storage, solid-state drives (SSD), or devices such as memory cards and smartphones, etc.

Important Points

EEPROM

• It is a type of read-only memory that can be erased and reprogrammed repeatedly, up to 10000 times.
• It is also known as Flash EEPROM as it is similar to flash memory. It is erased and reprogrammed electrically without using ultraviolet light.
• It is used for storing a small amount of data in computer and electronic systems and devices such as circuit boards.
• The BIOS of a computer is stored in this memory.

Additional Information

• Hard Disc drive or HDD
• it is an electro-mechanical storage device, which is an abbreviation of Hard Disk Drive. It uses magnetic storage for storing and retrieving digital data. It is a non-volatile storage device.
• RAM
• It stands for Random Access Memory, is a hardware device generally located on the motherboard of a computer and acts as an internal memory of the CPU. RAM is a volatile memory, which means it does not store data or instructions permanently.
• Tape Drive:
• ​A device that stores computer data on magnetic tape is known as a tape drive.
• A tape drive provides sequential access storage, unlike a hard disk drive, which provides direct access storage

The correct answer is Fallacy of Composition

There are two types of fallacies-Formal and informal. A formal fallacy is a flaw in the structure of a deductive argument that renders the argument invalid, while an informal fallacy originates in an error in reasoning other than an improper logical form.

Important Points

The fallacy of composition

• It is an informal fallacy that arises when one infers that something is true of the whole from the fact that it is true of some part of the whole.
• It means treating a distributed characteristic as if it were collective
• Examples:
• "This tire is made of rubber, therefore the vehicle of which it is a part is also made of rubber."
• Since all humans are mortal, the human race must someday come to an end".

Additional Information

• The fallacy of converse accident
• It is an informal fallacy that can occur in a statistical syllogism when a rule that applies only to an exceptional case is wrongly applied to all cases in general
• For example, because patients with certain illnesses are permitted to use marijuana, marijuana use should be legal for everyone
• A fallacy of division
• It is an informal fallacy that occurs when one reasons that something that is true for a whole must also be true of all or some of its parts.
• An example: The second grade in Jefferson elementary eats a lot of ice cream.
• The fallacy of amphiboly
• It happens when someone uses grammar or punctuation in a way that a statement could be interpreted as having more than one meaning, so it is unclear what is really meant.
• For example: “The governor says, 'Save soap and waste paper. ' So soap is more valuable than paper.

Given:

Cost price of the item = ₹11900

Discount = 16%

Profit = 20%

Formula used:

S.P. = (100 + Profit%)/100 × C.P.

M.P. = 100/(100 - Discount%) × S.P.

Where, C.P. = Cost price

S.P. = Selling price

M.P. = Market price

Calculation: 

The selling price of the item = (100 + 20)/100 × 11900

= 120/100 × 11900

= 6/5 × 11900

= ₹14280

The market price = 100/(100 - 16) × 14280

= 100/84 × 14280

= 25/21 × 14280

= ₹17000

∴ The marked price of the item is ₹17000.

A moderating variable is a type of variable that affects the relationship between a dependent variable and an independent variable.

 Key Points

Statement I: A moderating variable is a second independent variable that is included because it is believed to have a significant contingent effect on the original independent variable and dependent variable relationship.

• In research, variables are any characteristics that can take on different values, such as height, age, temperature, or test scores.
• Researchers often manipulate or measure independent and dependent variables in studies to test cause-and-effect relationships.
• The term moderating variable refers to a variable that can strengthen, diminish, negate, or otherwise alter the association between independent and dependent variables.
• Moderating variables are said to be second independent variables that act on the dependent variable as interactions with other independent variables
• In the case of each such interaction, a moderating variable can be said to either weaken or strengthen the relationship if it adds or substracts a contribution.

Hence Statement I is true.

Statement II:  An extraneous variable may conceivably affect a given relationship between the independent variable and the dependent variable.

• In an experiment, an extraneous variable is any variable that the researcher is not investigating that can potentially affect the outcomes of the research study.
• If left uncontrolled, extraneous variables can lead to inaccurate conclusions about the relationship between independent and dependent variables.
• Extraneous variables can threaten the internal validity of the study by providing alternative explanations for the results.

Hence Statement II is also true.

Therefore both statements I and II are correct.

Given:

There are two statements given in the question.

Formula used:

For compound interest, A = P (1 + r/100)ⁿ

Where, A = Total amount

P = Principal amount

r = rate of interest

n = time (in years)

Calculation:

The product of all the digits on the dial of a telephone = 0 × 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × 5 × 6 × 7 × 8 × 9 = 0

Then, the product of all the digits on the dial of a telephone is not 15840.

Hence, the statement I is false.

Now, Total amount (A) = Rs. 10000

Rate of interest (r) = 10%

Time (n) = 3 years

Total amount = 10000 (1 + 10/100)³

= 10000 × (11/10)³

= 10000 × 11/10 × 11/10 × 11/10

= 13310

Then, at a 10% interest rate, Rs. 10000 will become Rs. 13310 in 3 years, when interest is compounded annually.

Hence, the statement II is true.

Therefore, Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

The Dispatch is a comprehensive instructional publication that maintains a unique place in Indian education history.

Key Points

• Charles Wood was president of the English East India Company's Board of Control.
• In 1854, he sent a despatch to Lord Dalhousie then Governor-General of India.
• It was laid down to set the groundwork for the modern educational system.
• According to Wood's dispatch, In primary schools, vernacular languages should become the medium of instruction.
• He also advised in the despatch that anglo-vernacular be used in high schools and that English be used for college-level education.
• As a result, Wood's Despatch is regarded as India's "Magna Carta" of English Education.

Therefore, Wood's Despatch is termed the Magna Carta of English Education in India.

Additional Information

• In 1835, British politician Thomas Babington Macaulay delivered his 'Minute on Indian Education,' in which he argued that Indian 'natives' ought to be educated in English.
• Wardha's education scheme was put forward by the all-India National Educational Conference held in 1854.
• Mountstuart Elphinstone's minutes laid down the current higher education system which emphasised the importance of creating schools to teach English and European sciences.

The correct answer is A-III , B -II, C -IV, D -I

Key Points

Hence the correct matching code is A -III , B -II , C -IV , D -I

Given:

The given fractions are 8/9, 9/11, 2/3, 7/9, and 7/11

Calculation:

Take the LCM of the denominator of all given fractions. There are three numbers 9, 11, and 3.

Prime factors of 9 = 3 × 3

Prime factors of 11 = 11

Prime factors of 3 = 3

LCM of 9, 11, and 3 = 3 × 3 × 11 = 99

Multiplying each fraction by 99, we will get,

(8/9) × 99 = 88

(9/11) × 99 = 81

(2/3) × 99 = 66

(7/9) × 99 = 77

(7/11) × 99 = 63

Decreasing order is 88, 81, 77, 66, and 63.

Therefore, the correct decreasing sequence is A > B > D > C > E