Territorial Army Official Paper II (Conducted on 31 Jul 2016) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is India and Nepal.

Key Points

• Kangchenjunga, also spelled Kanchenjunga, is the third highest mountain in the world.
• It rises with an elevation of 8,586 m.
• It is delimited in the west by the Tamur River, in the north by the Lhonak Chu and Jongsang La, and in the east by the Teesta River.
• It lies between Nepal and Sikkim, India, with three of the five peaks (Main, Central, and South) directly on the border.
• The remaining two (West and Kangbachen) in Nepal's Taplejung District.

Additional Information

• Major Mountain Peaks in India
• Nanda Devi
• ​Uttarakhand, 2^nd highest mountain in India and the highest entirely within the country
• Nokrek
• ​The highest point of the Garo Hills (Meghalaya)
• Guru Shikhar
• ​Mt. Abu, Rajasthan, highest point of the Aravalli Range
• Gorakhnath
• The highest peak of the Girnar mountain, Gujrat
• Dhupgarh
• ​The highest point of Satpura Range, Located in Pachmarhi, Madhya Pradesh (Highest of MP also)
• Mahendragiri
• Highest mountain peak of Orissa
• 2^nd highest of Eastern Ghats, next only to Jindhagada Peak, Andhra Pradesh
• Doddabetta
• The highest point in Tamil Nadu, near Udhagamandalam (Nilgiri Hills)
• Second highest peak in the Western Ghats only next to Anamudi

The correct answer is Razia Sultan.

Key Points

• Razia Sultana was the first and last woman Sultanate of India and ruled the court of Delhi from the end of 1236 to 1240.
• The only ever woman to do so, she defied all odds to occupy the throne, including overcoming conflicts over her gender and her slave ancestry.
• The fifth Mamluk dynasty ruler, history deems Razia Sultan as one of the very few female rulers in the history of Islamic civilizations across the world.
• During her reign, she ordered coins be minted with her title as “Pillar of Women, Queen of the Times, Sultan Razia, daughter of Shamsuddin Iltumish.”

Additional Information

• Chand Bibi
• Sultana Chand Bibi was an Indian Muslim ruler and warrior.
• She acted as the Regent of Bijapur Sultanate and Ahmednagar Sultanate in current day Maharashtra.
• Chand Bibi is best known for defending Ahmednagar against the Mughal forces of Emperor Akbar in 1595.
• Noor Jahan
• Nur Jahan (born Mehr-un-Nissa, 31 May 1577 – 18 December 1645 was the twentieth (and last) wife of the Mughal emperor Jahangir.
• She was a married woman when Prince Salim (the future Emperor Jahangir), Akbar's eldest son, fell in love with her.
• Nur Jahan was born Mehr-un-Nissa, the daughter of a Grand Vizier (Minister) who served under Akbar.
• Mumtaz Mahal
• Mumtaz Mahal was the Empress consort of the Mughal Empire from 19 January 1628 to 17 June 1631 as the chief consort of the Mughal emperor Shah Jahan.
• The Taj Mahal in Agra often cited as one of the Wonders of the World, was commissioned by her husband to act as her tomb.

The correct answer is 82 degrees 30’ E.

Key Points

• The standard meridian of India is 82°30'E.
• It passes through Mirzapur (Uttar Pradesh).
• The time of this meridian is taken as the standard time for the whole country.
• The standard meridian of India passes through the following states :
• Uttar Pradesh
• Madhya Pradesh
• Chhattisgarh
• Odisha
• Andhra Pradesh

Additional Information

• Standard meridian
• The Standard Meridian of India having the longitude 82°30’E, which passes through Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh is considered as the standard time for the whole country.
• Standard time is referred to as the synchronization of clocks within a certain geographical area to a single standard time, instead of using solar time or a locally chosen meridian (longitude) to establish a local mean time standard
• A standard meridian is established in every country so that it is the central longitude of the whole country and there is an equal time in all the country.

Important Points

• In India, we find a difference of about 1 hour and 45 minutes in the local times of Dwarka in Gujarat and Dibrugarh in Assam.

The correct answer is Troposphere.

Key Points

• Troposphere
• The troposphere is the lowest layer of the Earth's atmosphere.
• The air is very well mixed and the temperature decreases with altitude.
• The air in the troposphere is heated from the ground up.
• The surface of the Earth absorbs energy and heats up faster than the air does.

Additional Information

• The different layers of the atmosphere are listed below:
• Exosphere
• This is the upper limit of our atmosphere.
• It extends from the top of the thermosphere up to 10,000 km (6,200 mi).
• Thermosphere
• It starts just above the mesosphere and extends to 600 kilometres (372 miles) high.
• Aurora and satellites occur in this layer.
• Mesosphere
• It starts just above the stratosphere and extends to 85 kilometres (53 miles) high.
• Meteors burn up in this layer.
• Stratosphere
• It starts just above the troposphere and extends to 50 kilometres (31 miles) high.
• The ozone layer, which absorbs and scatters the solar ultraviolet radiation, is in this layer.
• Ionosphere
• It is an abundant layer of electrons and ionized atoms and molecules that stretches from about 48 kilometres.
• It is a critical link in the chain of Sun-Earth interactions.
• This region is what makes radio communications possible.

The correct answer is Raghuram Rajan.

Key Points

• Raghuram Rajan (04-09-2013 to 04-09-2016)
• He assumed charge as the 23^rd Governor of the Reserve Bank of India on September 4, 2013.
• Dr Y V Reddy (06-09-2003 to 05-09-2008)
• He assumed charge as the 21^st Governor of the Reserve Bank of India on 6 September 2003.
• D Subbarao (05-09-2008 to 04-09-13​)
• ​D Subbarao took over on September 5, 2008, as the 22^nd Governor of the Reserve Bank of India.
• Dr Bimal Jalan (22-11-1997 to 06-09-2003)
• Dr Bimal Jalan assumed charge as the 20^th Governor of the Reserve Bank of India on 22 November 1997.

​

Important Points

• The current Governor of RBI is Shri Shaktikanta Das.
• ​He assumed charge as the 25^th Governor of the Reserve Bank of India effective December 12, 2018.
• Immediately prior to his current assignment, he was acting as Member, 15^th Finance Commission, and G20 Sherpa of India.

The correct answer is Surface tension.

Key Points

• The surface of water tends to contract which is known as surface tension.
• In the case of water droplets, the surface tension attains minimum value when its shape is spherical.
• Hence, water droplets are spherical in shape.

Additional Information

• Viscosity:
• The viscosity of a fluid is a measure of its resistance to deformation at a given rate.
• For liquids, it corresponds to the informal concept of "thickness".
• For example, the syrup has a higher viscosity than water.
• Evaporation:
• Evaporation is a type of vaporization that occurs on the surface of a liquid as it changes into the gas phase.
• The surrounding gas must not be saturated with the evaporating substance.
• When the molecules of the liquid collide, they transfer energy to each other based on how they collide with each other.
• Air Friction:
• Air friction, or air drag, is an example of fluid friction.
• Unlike the standard model of surface friction, such friction forces are velocity dependent.

The correct answer is Forms lather with soap.

• Soft water can be easily identified by its characteristic of forming lather with soap.

Key Points

• Soft water feels slippery or slimy as if it does not rinse off.
• It can taste salty due to its prevalent sodium content.
• Soap and detergent will not lather up if used in too great a quantity.
• Soft water leaves no mineral deposits in the shower, bath, or on your dishes.
• Very soft water leaches metals such as lead and copper from pipes, plumbing fixtures, and solder, lending a metallic taste and odour to the water.

Additional Information

• Chemical Composition of Soft Water:
• Soft water contains 0 to 17.1 ppm (parts per million) of hard minerals.
• Due to the relative absence of hard minerals, soft water has high sodium content.
• Hard water is surface water that contains more than 50 mg/l of calcium carbonate.
• Soap is a sodium salt or potassium salt of fatty acids having cleansing action in the water.
• Vinegar and baking soda can be used for converting the hard water into soft water.

Important Points

• Soft water has numerous benefits, most of which come from removing or reducing the levels of hard minerals.
• Hard water produces dingy laundry, soap scum, scale, and water spots.
• Conversely, softer water reduces if not eliminates these problems.

The correct answer is Sulphur dioxide.

Key Points

• Acid rain is caused by a chemical reaction that begins when compounds like sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides are released into the air.
• These substances can rise very high into the atmosphere, where they mix and react with water, oxygen, and other chemicals to form more acidic pollutants, known as acid rain.
• Oxides of sulfur + water → Sulphuric acid
• Oxides of Nitrogen + water → Nitric acid

Additional Information

• The major sources of SO₂ and NO₂ in the atmosphere are:
• Burning of fossil fuels to generate electricity. 
• Two-thirds of SO₂ and one-fourth of NO₂ in the atmosphere come from electric power generators.
• Vehicles and heavy equipment.
• Manufacturing, oil refineries, and other industries
• Measuring Acid Rain
• Acidity and alkalinity are measured using a pH scale for which 7.0 is neutral.
• Acid rain usually has a pH between 4.2 and 4.4.

The correct answer is Centrifugation.

• The working principle of a washing machine is centrifugation.

Key Points

• Centrifugation is a separation process that uses the action of centrifugal force to promote accelerated settling of particles in a solid-liquid mixture.
• The washing machine consists of a centrifuge for this purpose.
• A washing machine by spinning at 800-1600 rpm helps soap and dirt it to leave the surface of the cloth via centrifugal force and into outlet pipes.
• Hence utilizing centrifugation to both clean and partially dry the clothes loaded in it.

Additional Information

• Gravity
• ​Gravity is always attractive, never repulsive (this is another way it is different from electrical and magnetic forces).
• Because the masses are at the top of the fraction, more mass creates more gravity force.
• This also means that more massive objects produce greater accelerations than less massive objects.
• Reverse Osmosis
• Reverse osmosis (RO) is a water purification process that uses a partially permeable membrane to remove ions, unwanted molecules, and larger particles from drinking water.
• Dialysis
• In medicine, dialysis is the process of removing excess water, solutes, and toxins from the blood in people whose kidneys can no longer perform these functions naturally.
• This is referred to as renal replacement therapy.
• The first successful dialysis was performed in 1943.

The correct answer is Adding Lime.

• Soil pH of acidic soil can be improved by adding Lime.

Key Points

• The pH of highly acidic soils can be raised by incorporating limestone into the soil.
• Hydrated lime works quicker, but over liming is more likely.
• pH is measured on a logarithmic scale from 1 to 14, with 7 being neutral.
• A soil with a pH of 4 has 10 times more acid than soil with a pH of 5 and 100 times more acid than soil with a pH of 6.

​

Additional Information

• Soil pH is a measure of the concentration of hydrogen ions in the soil solution.
• The lower the pH of the soil, the greater the acidity.
• pH should be maintained at above 5.5 in the topsoil and 4.8 in the subsurface.
• A well-maintained soil pH will maintain the value of the soil resource, maximize crop and pasture choice, and avoid production losses due to low pH.

The correct answer is Venus.

Key Points

• Planetary surface temperatures tend to get colder the farther a planet is from the Sun.
• Venus is the exception, as its proximity to the Sun and dense atmosphere make it our solar system's hottest planet.

Additional Information

• Venus is the second planet from the Sun and our closest planetary neighbour.

• Its thick atmosphere traps heat in a runaway greenhouse effect, making it the hottest planet in our solar system with surface temperatures hot enough to melt lead.

• The Solar System is about 4.6 billion years old.

• Jupiter is the largest planet in the Solar System.

• It is the fifth planet from the Sun.

• Jupiter is a gas giant, both because it is so large and made up of gas.

• Earth is a terrestrial planet.

• It is the third planet from the Sun.

• It is the only planet known to have life on it.

• The Earth formed around 4.5 billion years ago.

• Neptune has four rings which are hard to see from the Earth.

• It is seventeen times heavier than Earth and is a little bit heavier than Uranus.

• It was named after the Roman God of the Sea.

• There are many different types of objects found in the solar system: a star, planets, moons, dwarf planets, comets, asteroids, gas, and dust.

• 1 star (The Sun)

• 8 planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune)

• 5 dwarf planets (Pluto, Ceres, Haumea, Makemake, and Eris)

• 181 moons

• 566,000 asteroids

• 3,100 comets

The correct answer is Liver.

Key Points

• Liver
• The liver is one of the largest organs in the body and it is continuously producing bile.
• This yellowish-brown fluid aids chemical digestion by emulsifying fats in the duodenum.
• Bile flows out of the liver into the right and left hepatic ducts, into the common hepatic ducts, and toward the small intestine to help with digestion and the absorption of fats.

Additional Information

• The Gall Bladder
• The gall bladder is a green, pear-shaped sac about 10 cm long that stores and concentrates excess bile secreted by the liver.
• Bile is released by the gall bladder as needed into the small intestine.
• Pancreas
• The pancreas secretes pancreatic juice, a mix of digestive enzymes, water, buffers (bicarbonates), and electrolytes produced by acinar and epithelial cells.
• Pancreatic juice drains through the main pancreatic duct (duct of Wirsung) into the common bile duct and then into the small intestine.
• There it buffers stomach acids and breaks down protein, fats, and carbohydrates.
• Brain
• Brain, the mass of nerve tissue in the anterior end of an organism.
• The brain integrates sensory information and directs motor responses; in higher vertebrates, it is also the center of learning.
• The human brain weighs approximately 1.4 kg (3 pounds) and is made up of billions of cells called neurons.

Sodium is NOT correct.

• Most of the radioactive materials belong to the 6^th,7^th, and actinide periods of the modern periodic table.
• But the Sodium metal belongs to the 2^nd period of the modern periodic table.
• That's why Sodium is not a radioactive chemical compound and the correct answer to this question is option 4.

Key Points

• Radioactivity is a part of nature. Everything is made of atoms.
• Radioactive atoms are unstable; that is, they have too much energy.
• When radioactive atoms spontaneously release their extra energy, they are said to decay.
• All radioactive atoms decay eventually, though they do not all decay at the same rate.
• After releasing all their excess energy, the atoms become stable and are no longer radioactive.
• The time required for decay depends upon the type of atom.
• Examples of radioactive materials​
• Radioactive elements such as uranium, thorium, and plutonium, radium.

Important Points

• Sodium is a highly reactive metal and reacts vigorously with the oxygen, carbon dioxide, and moisture present in the air such that it may even cause a fire.
• To prevent this explosive reaction, Sodium is kept immersed in kerosene because Sodium doesn't react with kerosene.

The correct answer is Distance.

• A light-year is a unit of distance.
• It is the distance that light can travel in one year.
• Light moves at a velocity of about 300,000 kilometres (km) each second.
• So in one year, it can travel about 10 trillion km.

Key Points

SI base units

The correct answer is Just begins to go up.

• One feels heavier in a lift when the lift just begins to go up because :
• The body gains inertia from the position of rest and pushes up against gravity so here the weight becomes zero and our mass makes us feel heavier.

Key Points

• Lift is the force that directly opposes the weight of an aeroplane and holds the aeroplane in the air.
• Lift is generated by every part of the aeroplane, but most of the lift on a normal airliner is generated by the wings.
• Lift is a mechanical aerodynamic force produced by the motion of the aeroplane through the air.
• Because lift is a force, it is a vector quantity, having both a magnitude and a direction associated with it.
• Lift acts through the centre of pressure of the object and is directed perpendicular to the flow direction.
• Several factors affect the magnitude of the lift.

The correct answer is Mark Zuckerberg.

Key Points

The correct answer is Parsi New Year.

Key Points

• The Parsi new year, also known as Navroz, is celebrated to mark the beginning of the Iranian calendar.
• The tradition began some 3000 years ago and is observed by the Parsi community around the world.
• The day is also known as Jamshed-i-Nouroz after the Persian King, Jamshed, who introduced the Parsi calendar.
• Balban was the first who introduced the famous Persian Festival of Nauroz.

Additional Information

• Gudi Padwa and Ugadi
• These festivals are celebrated by the people in the Deccan region including Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Maharashtra.
• Cheti Chand
• Sindhis celebrate the new year as Cheti Chand.
• Navreh
• It is the lunar new year that is celebrated in Kashmir.
• Sajibu Cheiraoba
• It is a ritual festival of Meiteis which is observed on the first day of Manipur lunar month Shajibu, which falls in March/April every year.
• Chaitra Shukla Pratipada
• It marks the beginning of the new year of the Vikram Samvat also known as the Vedic calendar.

The correct answer is Lumbini.

Key Points

• Siddhartha Gautama, the Lord Buddha, was born in 563 B.C. in the famous gardens of Lumbini, which soon became a place of pilgrimage.
• Among the pilgrims was the Indian emperor Ashoka, who erected one of his commemorative pillars there.

Additional Information

• Buddhism in India
• Buddhism started in India over 2,600 years ago as a way of life that had the potential of transforming a person.
• It is one of the important religions of South and South-Eastern Asian countries.
• The religion is based upon the teachings, life experiences of its founder Siddhartha Gautam.
• He was born into the royal family of the Sakya clan who ruled from Kapilvastu, in Lumbini which is situated near the Indo-Nepal Border.
• At the age of 29, Gautama left home and rejected his life of riches and embraced a lifestyle of asceticism or extreme self-discipline.
• After 49 consecutive days of meditation, Gautama attained Bodhi (enlightenment) under a pipal tree at Bodhgaya a village in Bihar.
• Buddha gave his first sermon in the village of Sarnath, near the city of Benares in UP.
• This event is known as Dharma-Chakra-Pravartana (turning of the wheel of law).
• He died at the age of 80 in 483 BCE at a place called Kushinagara a town in UP.
• The event is known as Mahaparinibban.
• Four noble truths:
• Suffering (dukkha) is the essence of the world.
• Every suffering has a cause – Samudya.
• Suffering could be extinguished – Nirodha.
• It can be achieved by following the Atthanga Magga (Eight-Fold Path).

The correct answer is Medically re-examining a body that has been buried.

• The term Exhumation refers to medically re-examining a body that has been buried.
• Removal of a dead body from the grave after it has been buried.

​

Additional Information

• Why the exhumation of Franco’s remains is to be done?
• After his death in 1975, Franco was buried at the Valle de los Caídos, a state mausoleum.
• It was built during his rule using forced labour and where 33,000 victims of the Spanish Civil War are buried.
• In the years since, as democracy grew stronger in Spain, calls to relocate the dictator’s remains to a less honorific place arose.
• 2018 - The Spanish parliament agreed to exhume Franco’s remains.
• But the government’s plans were impeded by protests from the former dictator’s family as well as by church authorities.
• 2019 - The Supreme Court’s decision has now cleared most obstacles in the government’s path, and the Catholic Church has agreed to abide by the ruling.
• What is the Spanish Civil War (1936-39)?
• It is known as the ‘Guerra Civil’ in Spanish.
• The conflict pitted Spain’s democratically elected Republican government against forces led by General Francisco Franco, who seized power in 1939 after three years of brutal warfare.

Important Points

• The Supreme Court of Spain recently ruled in favour of the government’s plan to exhume the remains of former dictator Francisco Franco.
• After he died in 1975, Spain transitioned from an authoritarian structure to a constitutional monarchy.

The correct answer is Hydrochloric acid.

Key Points

• Gastric juice is a unique combination of hydrochloric acid (HCl), lipase, and pepsin.
• Acidic gastric juice is found in all vertebrates, and its main function is to inactivate microorganisms.
• The pH of gastric acid is 1.5 to 3.5 in the human stomach lumen.

Additional Information

• Liver
• The liver is one of the largest organs in the body and it is continuously producing bile.
• This yellowish-brown fluid aids chemical digestion by emulsifying fats in the duodenum.
• Bile flows out of the liver into the right and left hepatic ducts, into the common hepatic ducts, and toward the small intestine to help with digestion and the absorption of fats
• The Gall Bladder
• The gall bladder is a green, pear-shaped sac about 10 cm long that stores and concentrates excess bile secreted by the liver.
• Bile is released by the gall bladder as needed into the small intestine.
• Pancreas
• The pancreas secretes pancreatic juice, a mix of digestive enzymes, water, buffers (bicarbonates), and electrolytes produced by acinar and epithelial cells.
• Pancreatic juice drains through the main pancreatic duct (duct of Wirsung) into the common bile duct and then into the small intestine.
• There it buffers stomach acids and breaks down protein, fats, and carbohydrates.
• Brain
• Brain, the mass of nerve tissue in the anterior end of an organism.
• The brain integrates sensory information and directs motor responses; in higher vertebrates, it is also the centre of learning.
• The human brain weighs approximately 1.4 kg (3 pounds) and is made up of billions of cells called neurons.

The correct answer is Arthritis.

Arthritis is caused by bacteria.

Important Points

Additional Information

• Protozoa Diseases:
• Amoebic dysentery by Entamoeba Histolytica Protozoa
• Kala Azar by Leishmania donovani Protozoa
• Malaria by Plasmodium parasite Protozoa
• Sleeping sickness by Trypanosoma Brucei Protozoa
• Bacteria Diseases:
• Cholera Vibrio - Cholerae Bacteria
• Leprosy - Mycobacterium Leprae Bacteria
• Plague - Yersinia pestis Bacteria
• Pneumonia - Streptococcus pneumonia Bacteria
• Tetanus - Clostridium tetani Bacteria
• Tuberculosis - Mycobacterium tuberculosis Bacteria
• Typhoid - Salmonella typhi Bacteria
• Whooping Cough - Bordetella pertussis Bacteria

The correct answer is Grafting.

Key Points

• Mango and guava are propagated through grafting.
• It is a horticulture technique where the living detached portion of the plant is used to regenerate the growth.
• One plant is selected for its roots and this is called the stock or rootstock.
• The other plant is selected for its stems, leaves, flowers, or fruits and is called the scion.
• The joining of scion and stalk is known as inosculation.
• The techniques are mostly used in the asexual mode of reproduction.

Additional Information

• Layering
• Layering has evolved as a common means of vegetative propagation of numerous species in natural environments.
• Layering is also utilized by horticulturists to propagate desirable plants.
• Natural layering typically occurs when a branch touches the ground, whereupon it produces adventitious roots.
• Tissue culture
• Tissue culture, a method of biological research in which fragments of tissue from an animal or plant are transferred to an artificial environment in which they can continue to survive and function.
• The cultured tissue may consist of a single cell, a population of cells, or a whole or part of an organ
• Stem Cutting
• A stem cutting is a plant stem including a tip (e.g. shoot, twig, sucker, ) or a portion of a stem without the apex that includes one or more nodes removed from a parent plant and capable of rooting.
• A stem cutting is used to grow a whole new plant, which is also known as cloning (because you are creating an exact copy.

The correct answer is Group Captain.

Key Points

Important Points

• The President of India is the Head of State of India, and the Commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed Forces.

The correct answer is Right to girl education.

Key Points

• As a young girl, Malala Yousafzai defied the Taliban in Pakistan and demanded that girls be allowed to receive an education.
• She was shot in the head by a Taliban gunman in 2012 but survived.
• In 2014, she became the youngest person to receive the Nobel Peace Prize.

Additional Information

Nobel Prizes and Laureates 2020

Important Points

• Nobel Prize award was first conferred in 1901.
• It is based on the fortune of Alfred Nobel who was a chemist, engineer, inventor, and entrepreneur.
• Nobel Prize is given at an international level which is administered by the Nobel Foundation in Stockholm, Sweden.
• It is awarded for outstanding contributions in several categories including chemistry, literature, peace, physics, physiology or medicine, and economic sciences.

The correct answer is J K Rowling.

Key Points

• J.K. Rowling first had the idea for Harry Potter while delayed on a train travelling from Manchester to London King's Cross in 1990.
• Over the next five years, she began to plan out the seven books of the series.

Additional Information

Famous Books and Authors

The correct answer is Lack of oxygen.

Key Points

• Low or depleted oxygen in a water body leads to 'dead zones '— regions where life cannot be sustained.
• In the ocean and freshwater environments, the term "hypoxia" refers to low or depleted oxygen in a water body.
• Early signs of hypoxia are anxiety, confusion, and restlessness; if hypoxia is not corrected, hypotension will develop.
• As hypoxia worsens, the patient's vital signs, activity tolerance, and level of consciousness will decrease.

Additional Information

• Memory loss is a symptom of Alzheimer's or other dementia.
• Alzheimer's is a brain disease that causes a slow decline in memory, thinking, and reasoning skills.
• Vitamin B-12 deficiency found mostly in older adults and vegetarians and can cause various signs and symptoms, including memory loss.
• Alzheimer's disease is a progressive disorder that causes brain cells to waste away (degenerate) and die.
• Alzheimer's disease is the cause of dementia is a continuous decline in thinking, behavioural, and social skills that disrupts a person's ability to function independently.
• Alzheimer's disease is thought to be caused by the abnormal build-up of proteins in and around brain cells.
• One of the proteins involved is called amyloid, deposits of which form plaques around brain cells.
• The other protein is called tau, deposits of which form tangles within brain cells.

The correct answer is India and China.

Key Points

• The McMahon Line defines a clear boundary line between India and China.
• This line was determined by Sir Henry McMahon, then Foreign Secretary in the Government of British India.
• The length of this line is 890 kilometers.
• The states and UT sharing borders with China are Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, and Ladakh.

Additional Information

• McMahon was a British Indian Army officer and administrator in the British Raj.
• He was the foreign secretary of the British-run Government of India and the chief negotiator of the Simla Accord.
• McMahon proposed the line in the Simla Accord to separate Tibet from India in the eastern sector.

Important Points

• The Radcliffe Line was the boundary demarcation line between the Indian and Pakistani portions of the Punjab and Bengal provinces of British India.
• The boundary demarcation line between India and Pakistan is known as the Radcliffe Line came into force on 17 August 1947.
• The boundary line is named after Sir Cyril Radcliffe the man who was responsible for drawing the lines of Partition to carve out the Muslim majority of Pakistan from India.

The correct answer is Controlled chain reaction.

• A nuclear reactor is a device in which nuclear reactions are generated, and the chain reaction is controlled to release a large amount of steady heat, thereby producing energy.

Key Points

• Nuclear fission is the process in which the nucleus of an atom is split, forming nuclei of lighter atoms and neutrons.
• The mass of these products is less than the original mass.
• Nuclear reactors are the heart of a nuclear power plant.
• They contain and control nuclear chain reactions that produce heat through a physical process called fission.
• Heat is used to make steam that spins a turbine to create electricity.

Additional Information

• With more than 450 commercial reactors worldwide, including 95 in the United States, nuclear power continues to be one of the largest sources of reliable carbon-free electricity available.
• Reactors use uranium for nuclear fuel.
• The uranium is processed into small ceramic pellets and stacked together into sealed metal tubes called fuel rods.
• Typically more than 200 of these rods are bundled together to form a fuel assembly.
• A reactor core is typically made up of a couple of hundred assemblies, depending on power level.
• The main job of a reactor is to house and control nuclear fission - a process where atoms split and release energy.
• All commercial nuclear reactors in the United States are light-water reactors.
• This means they use normal water as both a coolant and neutron moderator.

The correct answer is Calcutta (Kolkata).

• The Calcutta High Court is the oldest High Court in India.
• It has jurisdiction over the state of West Bengal and the Union Territory of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Key Points

• The high courts of India are the principal civil courts of original jurisdiction in each state and union territory.
• However, a high court exercises its original civil and criminal jurisdiction only if the subordinate courts are not authorized by law to try such matters for lack of pecuniary, territorial jurisdiction.

Additional Information

• At present, there are 25 High Courts in India, three having charge over more than one State.
• Amongst the Union Territories Delhi has a High Court of its own.
• Each High Court shall consist of a Chief Justice and other such judges appointed by the President of India.
• Guwahati High Court has the largest number of benches.
• The principal seat of the Guwahati High Court is at Guwahati in Assam.
• The court has 3 outlying benches.
• The President appoints the Chief Justice of a High Court on the advice of the Chief Justice of Supreme Court and the Governor of the concerned State.
• The President determines the strength of the Judges of a High Court.

Important Points

• The Supreme Court of India is the supreme judicial body of the government of India and the highest court of India under the constitution.
• It is the most senior constitutional court and has the power of judicial review.

The correct answer is Reconstruction and development.

• World Bank is an international financial institution that provides loans and grants to the governments of low and middle-income countries for the purpose of pursuing capital projects.
• The World Bank's most recently stated goal is the reduction of poverty.

Key Points

• The World Bank is the largest public development institution in the world, lending around US$ 25 billion a year to developing countries.
• The main purposes of the Bank, as outlined in Article One of its Articles of Agreement, are:
• “to assist in the reconstruction and development of territories of members by facilitating the investment of capital for productive purposes”
• “to promote the long-range balanced growth of international trade and the maintenance of equilibrium in balances of payments by encouraging international investment.
• Thereby assisting in raising productivity, the standard of living and conditions of labour in their territories”.

Additional Information

• Harry Dexter White and John Maynard Keynes were the founders of the World Bank.
• It is headquartered in Washington D.C., USA.
• Ajay Banga is the President of the World Bank$.

The correct answer is Chandragupta Maurya.

• Chandragupta Maurya founded the Maurya Empire in 322 BCE when he conquered the kingdom of Magadha and the northwestern Macedonian satrapies.
• Maurya Empire was founded in 322 BCE by Chandragupta Maurya, who had overthrown the Nanda Dynasty and rapidly expanded his power westward across central and western India in order to take advantage of the disruptions of local powers in the wake of the withdrawal by Alexander the Great‘s armies.

Key Points

• According to legend, the teacher Chanakya convinced his disciple, Chandragupta Maurya, to conquer the kingdom of Magadha (the Nanda Empire) when he was insulted by its king Dhana Nanda.
• Chandragupta Maurya expanded the Maurya Empire north and west as he conquered the Macedonian Satrapies and won the Seleucid-Mauryan war.

Additional Information

• According to several legends, Chanakya travelled to Magadha, a kingdom that was large and militarily powerful and feared by its neighbours but was insulted by its king Dhana Nanda, of the Nanda Dynasty.
• Chanakya swore revenge and vowed to destroy the Nanda Empire.
• Maurya devised a strategy to invade Pataliputra, the capital of the Nanda Empire.
• A battle was announced and the Magadhan army was drawn from the city to a distant battlefield in order to engage Maurya’s forces.

The correct answer is Clouds prevent the escape of heat from the ground.

• The cloudy skies are like a blanket and the warmer air on the ground with us tries to leave and the clouds stop it from leaving.
• Warmer air will always try to move up and it cannot do so because of the clouds.
• That's why you might notice that cloudy nights are warmer than clear nights.

Key Points

• Cloudy nights are warmer compared to clear cloudless nights because clouds reflect back the heat given off by the earth.
• At night cloud cover has the opposite effect.
• If skies are clear, the heat emitted from the earth's surface freely escapes into space, resulting in colder temperatures.
• However, if clouds are present, some of the heat emitted from the earth's surface is trapped by the clouds and reemitted back towards the earth.
• If skies are clear, more heat reaches the ground leading to warmer temperatures.

Additional Information

• On cloudy days, clouds reflect the sun's light into space, keeping much of the energy away from the surface and leading to cooler temperatures.
• The airborne water molecules are called water vapor.
• When the molecules are bouncing around in the atmosphere, they don't normally stick together.
• Clouds on Earth form when warm air rises and its pressure is reduced.
• The air expands and cools, and clouds form as the temperature drops below the dew point.
• When it is cloudy, the clouds absorb (hold) some of the heat so it can't escape. Clouds also reflect some of the heat back towards the earth.
• Sometimes it gets even warmer on cloudy days because of advection.
• Advection is the movement of heat, cold, and moisture when air moves (when there is wind).

Concept:

The formation of a rainbow involves several optical phenomena: refraction, reflection, and dispersion.

• Refraction: This is the bending of light when it passes from one medium to another in this case, from air into water. The degree of bending, or refraction, depends on the angle at which the light hits the water droplet and on the wavelengths of the light.
• Reflection: After the light has been refracted and has entered the water droplet, it then encounters the inside surface of the droplet, where it is reflected.
• Dispersion: This is the process where white light (like sunlight) is separated into its various component colors (red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo, and violet). This happens because light of different wavelengths is refracted by different amounts when it enters the water droplet

Concept:

• Rainbow is a spectrum of seven colors— VIBGYOR.
• When sunlight strikes a collection of raindrops in the atmosphere, each of these processes occurs.
• As light enters a raindrop, it slows and is refracted. Then it's reflected off the inside surface of the raindrop.
• As the light exits the droplet, it speeds up and is refracted again.
• During these instances of refraction, the light is dispersed into its constituent colors.
• Each color of light exits the droplet at a slightly different angle, creating a spread of colors.
• Because this process is happening simultaneously in countless droplets, we see a circular arc of colors - a rainbow.

Additional Information

• The order of colors in a rainbow is determined by the degree to which different wavelengths of light are refracted. Red light is refracted less than violet light, so red appears on the outer part of the rainbow, and violet appears on the inner part.
• Not all of the sunlight entering a droplet participates in forming the rainbow. A significant portion of the light exits the droplet in different directions, either due to refraction or because the light was not incident at the appropriate angle for rainbow formation.

Secondary rainbows, which appear outside the primary rainbow and have the order of the colors reversed, are caused by light that is reflected twice within the droplets. These are less bright than the primary rainbows because, with each reflection, more light is lost from the droplet.

Mistake Points 

• The term "total internal reflection" mentioned in option 4 usually refers to a phenomenon where all light is reflected back into the medium from which it came, with none of the light refracting into the second medium.
• While there is an internal reflection within water droplets during rainbow formation, it's not total internal reflection because some of the light refracts out of the droplets.
• This is why option 4 might be considered less accurate or complete than option 2.

The correct answer is Sodium azide.

• The driver-side airbag is a container containing about 50 grams of sodium azide.
• The passenger side container holds about 200 grams of sodium azide.
• Because vehicles change speed so quickly in an accident, airbags must inflate rapidly to reduce the risk of the occupant hitting the vehicle's interior.

Key Points

• The propellant used in most airbags is a combination of sodium azide (NaN₃) and potassium nitrate (KNO₃).
• When these two chemical compounds react, they burn rapidly and produce the nitrogen gas that fills the bag.

Additional Information

• Airbags are passive safety features designed to mitigate or prevent injuries among drivers and passengers in the event of a crash.
• Airbags provide added protection to seatbelts.
• For example, in higher-speed crashes, a seatbelt alone may not prevent a driver’s head from hitting the steering column.
• The deployment of an airbag protects the head and upper body of the driver and reduces some of the force exerted on the driver by the seatbelt.
• Airbags are useful whenever you experience a sudden reduction in speed.
• Airbag systems are composed of three basic parts: the bag itself, the inflator unit, and the crash sensor. The bag and inflator are contained together in the airbag module.
• Most often, the sensor is located in the passenger compartment of a vehicle and towards the front, so if a crash occurs it is quickly detected.

The correct answer is a and b

Key Points

• A banana contains 34.8 g of carbohydrates, compared to less than half of that amount in an apple (15.7 g). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Bananas hold very little protein and almost no fat.
• The carbs in green, unripe bananas consist mostly of starch and resistant starch, but as the banana ripens, the starch turns into sugar (glucose, fructose, and sucrose).
• Summary Bananas are rich in fiber, antioxidants, and several nutrients. Hence, statement 2 is correct
• Spinach is an excellent source of vitamin K, vitamin A (in the form of carotenoids), manganese, folate, protein(8%), copper, vitamin B2, vitamin B6, vitamin E, calcium, and vitamin C. Hence, statement 3 is NOT correct
• Peas are a rich source of protein than Potatoes. Hence, statement 4 is NOT correct

The correct answer is Urobilin or Urochrome.

• The yellow colour of the urine is due to the presence of pigment urochrome.

Key Points

• Normal urine colour ranges from pale yellow to deep amber
• Pigments and other compounds in certain foods and medications can change your urine colour.

Additional Information

• During summer when the surrounding temperature is high, we lose water in the form of sweat.
• Hence kidneys retain water for maintaining the fluidity of the blood and less urine is formed.
• But during winter, the surrounding temperature will be very low.
• There will not be any sweating, no evaporation losses.
• Moreover, to keep the body temperature constant, the blood capillaries in the skin get constricted and the blood pressure is increased.
• The result is that our body gets warmed up.
• In order to maintain the blood pressure normal, the excess water along with the wastes is excreted mostly in the form of urine.
• This is the reason for more urine output and frequent urination under very cool conditions and in winter.

The correct answer is Recycling.

• Recycling is the best way to get rid of non-biodegradable waste.
• Burying will not have any effect on the non-biodegradable wastes.

Additional Information

• Non-biodegradable waste is that type of waste product is which is not completely decomposed by any process or any living organism. Examples are plastic, polythene.
• Burning them releases carbon monoxide which is toxic, so burning cannot be used.
• Recycling is the best process of waste management by which we can reuse these wastes.
• Biodegradable waste includes any organic matter in waste that can be broken down into carbon dioxide, water, methane, or simple organic molecules by micro-organisms and other living things by composting, aerobic digestion, anaerobic digestion, or similar processes.

Important Points

• Waste management also includes some inorganic materials which can be decomposed by bacteria. Such materials include gypsum and its products such as plasterboard and other simple organic sulfates which can decompose to yield hydrogen sulfide in anaerobic landfill conditions.
• A Non-Biodegradable material can be defined as a kind of substance that cannot be broken down by natural organisms and acts as a source of pollution. Unlike biodegradable wastes, non-biodegradable cannot be easily handled. Non-biodegradable wastes are those that cannot be decomposed or dissolved by natural agents.
• An example of Non-Biodegradable material is Metals, Electronic components, Medical waste, Glass, Most Plastics etc.

The correct answer is Mosquito bite.

• Transmission of Zika virus is primarily transmitted by the bite of an infected mosquito from the Aedes genus, mainly Aedes aegypti, in tropical and subtropical regions.

Key Points

• The first recorded outbreak of Zika virus disease was reported from the Island of Yap (Federated States of Micronesia) in 2007.
• This was followed by a large outbreak of Zika virus infection in French Polynesia in 2013 and other countries and territories in the Pacific.
• In March 2015, Brazil reported a large outbreak of rash illness, soon identified as Zika virus infection, and in July 2015, found to be associated with Guillain-Barré syndrome.

Additional Information

• Zika virus is primarily transmitted by the bite of an infected mosquito from the Aedes genus, mainly Aedes aegypti, in tropical and subtropical regions.
• Aedes mosquitoes usually bite during the day, peaking during early morning and late afternoon/evening.
• This is the same mosquito that transmits dengue, chikungunya and yellow fever.
• The incubation period (the time from exposure to symptoms) of Zika virus disease is estimated to be 3–14 days.
• The majority of people infected with Zika virus do not develop symptoms.
• Symptoms are generally mild including fever, rash, conjunctivitis, muscle and joint pain, malaise, and headache, and usually last for 2–7 days.

Important Points

• Zika virus is also transmitted from mother to fetus during pregnancy, through sexual contact, transfusion of blood and blood products, and organ transplantation.
• There is no treatment available for Zika virus infection or its associated diseases.
• Pregnant women living in areas with Zika transmission or who develop symptoms of Zika virus infection should seek medical attention for laboratory testing and other clinical care.

The correct answer is Pakistan.

• Star batsman Virat Kohli became the first-ever Indian cricketer to score a hundred in this ICC World Cup fixture against Pakistan.
• He reached the milestone with a single off Shahid Afridi in the 42^nd over.

Key Points

• Virat Kohli is an Indian cricketer and the former captain of the Indian national team.
• A right-handed top-order batsman, Kohli is regarded as one of the best contemporary batsmen in the world.
• He plays for Royal Challengers Bangalore in the Indian Premier League (IPL) and has been the team's captain since 2013.

Additional Information

• Kohli was appointed the vice-captain of the ODI team in 2012 and handed over the Test captaincy following Mahendra Singh Dhoni's Test retirement in 2014.
• In early 2017, he became the limited-overs captain as well after Dhoni stepped down from the position. In ODIs, Kohli has the second-highest number of centuries and the highest number of centuries in run-chases in the world.
• He holds the world record for being the fastest batsman to 8,000, 9,000, 10,000, and 11,000 runs in ODI cricket, reaching the milestones in 175, 194, 205, and 222 innings respectively.

The correct answer is 4 February.

• World Cancer Day, organized by the Union for International Cancer Control (UICC) and celebrated each year on 4 February, is an opportunity to rally the international community to end the injustice of preventable suffering from cancer.

Key Points

• World Cancer Day 2021 is led by the theme “I Am and I Will”, an empowering call for the personal commitment that represents the power of our actions taken now to reduce the growing impact of cancer.

Additional Information

• World Cancer Day is an international day marked on February 4 to raise awareness of cancer and to encourage its prevention, detection, and treatment.
• World Cancer Day is led by the Union for International Cancer Control (UICC) to support the goals of the World Cancer Declaration, written in 2008.
• The primary goal of World Cancer Day is:
• to significantly reduce illness and death caused by cancer and is an opportunity to rally the international community to end the injustice of preventable suffering from cancer.
• The day is observed by the United Nations.

The correct answer is Rusting of Iron.

Key Points

• The five conditions of chemical change: 
• colour change
• the formation of a precipitate
• formation of a gas
• odour change
• temperature change.
• Examples of chemical change are:- 
• Burning wood, Souring milk, Mixing acid and base, Digesting food, Rusting of iron.

Additional Information

• A chemical change is a change of materials into another, new materials with different properties and one or more than one new substances are formed.
• It results when a substance combines with another to form a new substance (synthesis or either decomposes to form more substances).
• Chemical changes occur when a substance combines with another to form a new substance, called chemical synthesis or, alternatively, chemical decomposition into two or more different substances.
• These processes are called chemical reactions and, in general, are not reversible except by further chemical reactions.
• Some reactions produce heat and are called exothermic reactions and others may require heat to enable the reaction to occur, which are called endothermic reactions.
• Chemists categorize chemical changes into three main classes: inorganic chemical changes, organic chemical changes and biochemical changes.

The correct answer is All of these.

• The early Vedic period was therefore characterized by women's glorious role in education.
• In early Vedic family affairs, women who enjoyed both their autonomy and their role as wives were considered to be Ardhangini (better half) and Sahadharmini (equal partner).
• They attended Sabha and Samiti.
• They did not practice the Purdah system.

Key Points

• Women, in the Vedic era, so excelled in the sphere of education that even the deity of learning was conceived of as a female popularly known as ‘Saraswati’.
• Girls were allowed to enter into the Gurukulas along with boys.
• There are also instances of female Rishis, such as Ghost, Kakhivati Surya Savitri, Indrani, Shradha Kamayani, Yami Shachi, Poulomi, Urvashi, etc.
• Marriage in the Vedic Period was considered a social and religious duty and united the couple on an equal footing.
• The couple prayed that their love and friendship should not break down.
• The Vedic literature also contained that the Kshatriya girls were allowed to settle marriages in accordance with their own wishes.
• This was done through the custom of ‘Swayavara’ or self-choice.
• This is an indicator of their dignified status in the Vedic society.
• The concept of ‘dan’ or gift was prevalent in the Vedic period. But the practice of dowry was unknown.
• The wife held an honourable position in the household.
• She enjoyed the freedom of movement and was not confined to the house only.
• In religious performances, the wife occupied a prominent position.
• Even the performance of certain ceremonies was invalid without the wife.
• The term ‘Dampati’ was frequently used in the Vedic texts.
• The term meant “two joint owners of the household.”

Important Points

• Pardah or purdah is a religious and social practice of female seclusion prevalent among some Muslim and Hindu communities.
• It takes two forms: physical segregation of the sexes and the requirement that women cover their bodies so as to cover their skin and conceal their form.

The correct answer is March 1919.

Key PointsThe Rowlatt Act was passed by the British government to increase their grip on power over the common folk.

• This law was passed in March 1919 by the Imperial Legislative Council which gave them the power to arrest any person without any trial.
• To abolish this act, Gandhi and the other leaders called for a Hartal (suspension of work) to show Indians’ objection to this rule.

The Jallianwala Bagh massacre or the Amritsar Massacre took place when many villagers gathered in the park for the celebration of  Baisakhi.

• The gatherers wanted to also peacefully protest the arrest and deportation of two national leaders, Satyapal and Saifuddin Kitchlew.
• It was officially known as the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act, of 1919.

Additional Information

• The act was passed despite unanimous opposition from the Indian members of the council, all of whom resigned in protest.
• These included Mohammed Ali Jinnah, Madan Mohan Malviya, and Mazhar Ul Haq.
• In response to this act, a nationwide hartal was called by Gandhiji on 6^th April.
• This was called the Rowlatt Satyagraha.
• The movement was cancelled by Gandhiji when it was marred by rioting in some provinces, particularly in Punjab where the situation was grim.
• The British government’s primary intention was to repress the growing nationalist movement in the country.
• The British were also afraid of a Ghadarite revolution in Punjab and the rest of the country.
• Two popular Congress leaders Satya Pal and Saifuddin Kitchlew were arrested.
• The protest was very intense when the act came into effect and the army was called in Punjab to tackle the situation.

The correct answer is Worship of nature and Yajnas.

• The religion of “early Vedic Aryans” was primarily the “worship of nature and Yajnas”.

Key Points

• The Vedic Aryans believed in simple religion and they are very religious.
• They worshipped the forces of nature such as the “Sun, the Fire, the Wind, the Dawn, the Water, the Rain God Indra, and Earth”.

Additional Information

• The religious life of the Aryans was simple and plain.
• They worshipped various manifestations of nature such as the sun, the moon, the sky, the Dawn, the thunder, the wind, and the Air.
• Vedic hymns were composed in praise of nature.
• Rigveda mentions that thirty-three gods and goddesses were worshipped by the Aryans.
• After the decline of the Indus Valley Civilization, another glorious civilization flourished in India.
• The people who were responsible for the evolution of this civilization called themselves Aryas or Aryans.
• Arya’ literally means the man of ‘noble character’, and the “free-born”.
• They belonged to the group of people known as Indo-Europeans.
• They entered India from the north-west.
• These lustrous natural phenomena inspired the Vedic Aryans to worship nature with awe and reverence.
• Therefore, the gods worshipped by the Aryans were generally the personified powers of nature.
• These Gods were classified into three categories corresponding to three orders having eleven Gods in each.
• Thus, the total number was thirty - three.
• Vedic religion had attached profound importance to the Doctrine of Karma or Action.
• In other words, a good soul who performed good deeds was rewarded whereas the evil soul l was punished for evil deeds.
• So the concept of heaven and hell dominated the Aryan's religious belief.

The correct answer is Civil Disobedience.

• Salt March marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
• The Civil Disobedience Movement was one of the most significant movements launched by Mahatma Gandhi in the course of India's freedom struggle.
• By 1930, the Congress Party had declared that Poorna Swarajya or complete independence was to be the sole aim of the freedom struggle.

Key Points

• The observance of Independence Day in 1930 was followed by the launching of the Civil Disobedience Movement under the leadership of Gandhi.
• It began with the famous Dandi March of Gandhi.
• On 12 March 1930, Gandhi left the Sabarmati Ashram at Ahmadabad on foot with 78 other members of the Ashram for Dandi, a village on the western sea-coast of India, at a distance of about 385 km from Ahmadabad.
• They reached Dandi on 6 April 1930. There, Gandhi broke the salt law.
• It was illegal for anyone to make salt as it was a government monopoly.
• Gandhi defied the government by picking up a handful of salt which had been formed by the evaporation of the sea.
• The defiance of the salt law was followed by the spread of the Civil Disobedience Movement all over the country.
• Making of salt spread throughout the country in the first phase of the civil disobedience movement, it became a symbol of the people’s defiance of the government.

Additional Information

• At the Karachi session of the congress, an important resolution of fundamental rights and economic policy was passed. It laid down the policy of the nationalist movement on social and economic problems facing the country.
• It mentioned the fundamental rights which would be guaranteed to the people irrespective of caste and religion, and it favoured the nationalization of certain industries, the promotion of Indian industries, and schemes for the welfare of workers and peasants.
• This resolution showed the growing influence of the ideals of socialism on the nationalist movement.
• Besides Gandhi, who was the sole representative of the congress, there were other Indians who participated in this conference.
• They included Indian princes, Hindu, Muslim, and Sikh communal leaders.
• These leaders played into the hands of the British.
• The princes were mainly interested in preserving their position as rulers.
• The communal leaders had been selected by the British government to attend the conference.
• They claimed to the representatives of their respective communities and not the country, though their influences within their communities were also limited.
• Gandhi alone as the representative of the congress represented the whole country.

The correct answer is Novak Jokovic.

• Novak Djokovic defeated Andy Murray in the final, 3–6, 6–1, 6–2, 6–4 to capture his first French Open Men's Singles tennis title at the 2016 French Open.

Key Points

• Djokovic completed a career Grand Slam and achieved a non-calendar year Grand Slam with this title, becoming the first man since Rod Laver in 1969 to hold all four major titles at once and the first man in history to do so on three different surfaces.

Important Points

• Rafael Nadal is a professional tennis player from Spain.
• Rafael Nadal won the men’s 2020 French open title.
• He defeated Novak Djokovic in the final.
• It was his fourth French Open title in a row.
• He won men’s 2020 French open singles continuously in 2017, 2018, 2019, and 2020.
• Rafael Nadal has won the most french open titles with 13 titles.
• He also won the US Open men's singles in 2019.

Additional Information

• French Open is the premier clay court tennis championship tournament in the world.
• Poland's Iga swiątek won women’s 2020 French Open title.
• Novak Djokovic is a professional tennis player from Serbia.
• He is the winner of the men’s 2020 Australian Open title.
• Roger Federer is a professional tennis player from Switzerland.
• Andy Murray is a professional tennis player from Scotland.

The correct answer is Isreal.

• MOSSAD:
• It is one of the main entities in the Israeli Intelligence Community, along with Aman (military intelligence) and Shin Bet (internal security).
• Mossad is responsible for intelligence collection, covert operations, and counter-terrorism. Mossad is separate from Israel's democratic institutions.

Key Points

• Mossad, Mossad also spelt Mosad, in full Mossad Merkazi le-Modiin ule-Tafkidim Meyuhadim, (Hebrew: “Central Institute for Intelligence and Special Operations”), one of the three major intelligence organizations of Israel, along with Aman (military intelligence) and Shin Bet (internal security).
• The Mossad is concerned with foreign intelligence gathering, intelligence analysis, and covert operations.
• Formally established in December 1949 as the Institute for Co-ordination, the Mossad was the successor to the intelligence arm of the Haganah (the Jewish military force in Palestine during the British mandate period).

Additional Information

• Agency executive: Yossi Cohen, Director
• Founder: David Ben-Gurion
• Founded: 13 December 1949
• Headquarters: Tel Aviv-Yafo, Israel

Important Points

• Reuven Shiloah, who had been involved in special operations and secret diplomacy during the pre-state period, served as the first director.
• Bureaucratic conflicts hampered the new agency in its early day.
• It took more than a year for the agency to become operational, and it suffered an early embarrassment in 1951 when an Israeli spy ring in Baghdad was exposed and intelligence officers were arrested.

The correct answer is CRPF.

• To cope with such eventualities the first Mahila Bn in CRPF, the 88 (M) Bn was created in 1986 with HQR in Delhi.

Key Points

• CRPF is the only Para Military Force in the Country which has 06 Mahila (Ladies) Battalions.
• After its training in March 1987, 88 (M) Bn won laurels for its work assisting the Meerut riots and later with the IPKF in Srilanka.
• ln addition each RAF battalion has a Mahila (Ladies) component consisting of 106 personnel.

Additional Information

• The Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) has its origin on 27^th July 1939 at Neemuch as the Crown Representative’s Police.
• “Crown Representative’s Police” was raised as a sequel to the political ferment and the Prajamandal agitation in the princely states of India.
• Following the Madras resolution of All India Congress Committee in 1936, and the ever-growing desire of the Crown Representative to help the vast majority of the native States, to preserve law and order, as a part of the imperial policy in the East.
• The primary task of the force was to help the princely States to preserve “Law and Order”.
• The force was also utilized for guarding the German and Italian detenues, tackling the Hur menace in 1942, anti-dacoity operations in Central India, etc.
• The force first presented colours on 19^th March 1950 by Sardar Patel.

The correct answer is 100 KM from the earth.

• Earth's atmosphere is a mixture of gases that surrounds our home planet.
• Besides providing us with something to breathe, the atmosphere helps make life on Earth possible in several ways.
• It shields us from most of the harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation coming from the Sun, warms the surface of our planet by about 33° C (59° F) via the greenhouse effect, and largely prevents extreme differences between daytime and nighttime temperatures.

Key Points

• The atmosphere grows thinner (less dense and lower in pressure) as one moves upward from Earth's surface.
• It gradually gives way to the vacuum of outer space.
• There is no precise "top" of the atmosphere.
• Air becomes so thin at altitudes between 100 and 120 km (62-75 miles) up that for many purposes that range of heights can be considered the boundary between the atmosphere and space.
• However, there are very thin but measurable traces of atmospheric gases hundreds of kilometres/miles above Earth's surface.

Additional Information

• There are several different regions or layers in the atmosphere.
• Each has characteristic temperatures, pressures, and phenomena.
• We live in the troposphere, the lowest layer, where most clouds are found and almost all weather occurs.
• Some jet aircraft fly in the next higher layer, the stratosphere, which contains the jet streams and the ozone layer.
• Higher still are the mesosphere, thermosphere, and exosphere.

The correct answer is Siachin Glacier.

• Operation Meghdoot is the codename for the Indian Armed Forces' operation to seize control of the Siachen Glacier in Kashmir, precipitating the Siachen conflict.

Key Points

• Operation Meghdoot was in support of the Indian Army and paramilitary forces in Northern Ladakh.
• It helps to secure control of the heights predominating the Siachin glacier.
• It also referred to as the world's third pole and potentially a dangerous flashpoint on the disputed Northern borders.

Additional Information

• Its genesis lies in the partition of India and the ensuing wars between India and Pakistan over Kashmir.
• At the end of the UN-brokered ceasefire in 1949, India and Pakistan agreed on a ceasefire line (CFL) in undivided Kashmir as per the Karachi Agreement of 1949.
• The easternmost stretch of the ceasefire line was not demarcated beyond a point called NJ9842 since it was inhospitable and uninhabited.
• It simply said that from NJ9842, the line would run “thence north to the glaciers” - the Siachen glacier, the Rimo, and the Baltoro.
• The operation was entrusted to one of the Kumaon Battalions, supported by Ladakh Scouts. The initial assault was led by Maj (later Col) RS Sandhu, VrC.
• This military operation was unique because it was the first assault launched on the world’s highest battlefield.
• During the operation, Indian troops landed on Bilafond La on Saltoro ridge, west of Siachen glacier, on Friday, April 13, 1984. It was a Baishakhi day.
• The operation resulted in Indian troops gaining control of the entire Siachen glacier, giving India a strategic advantage and also maintaining the status quo.
• Siachen not only gives India the opportunity to test the mettle of its own troops but also useful for R&D in various military disciplines.
• With occupying Siachen, India prides on sustaining its dominance on the world’s highest battlefield, however, has paid a heavy price for it in the form of human costs.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. 'vainly tries to concentrate on imaginary situations'

Key Points

• The whole passage is based on imaginary situations through which the character is trying to sleep.
• Hence from this, we can conclude that in order to cure his insomnia the write is 'Vainly tries to concentrate on imaginary situations.'

The correct answer is '3' i.e. 'Wordsworth's poetry'

Key Points

• In the second line of the passage, the name has been mentioned 'Borrow's malice'.
• But before that 'Lavengro' the name has been mentioned it is a poem which is written by 'George Borrow' and the word 'malice' means 'the desire to do harm'
• Hence, from the line 'who finds that a volume of Wordsworth’s poems is the only sure soporific, but that was Borrow’s Malice.' we can conclude that Borrow's malice is directed at 'Wordsworth's poems' which is created by the author for the character.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. 'Unrealistic'

Key Points

• In the first line of the passage, it is written that 'In Lavengro there is an impossible character'
• Let's check out the meaning of the words-
• ​Unrealistic- having a wrong idea of what is likely to happen or of what you can really do; not based on facts.
• Imaginary- Something that is imaginary is created by and exists only in the mind.
• Hence, in the given passage the character is not 'imaginary' he is 'unrealistic'
• So the correct answer is 'Option 2'

The correct answer is 'is an avid reader of poetry'

Key Points

• In the second line of the passage, the word insomnia is given which means 'habitual sleeplessness' it means the person is insomniac and in the phrase, it is written that 'who finds that a volume of Wordsworth’s poems is the only sure soporific' in the line 'soporific' means 'inducing drowsiness and sleep' hence from this line we can say to get sleep the Wordsworth's poems is the only tool to get the sleep.
• Hence, we can say that 'He is an avid reader of poetry.'

The correct answer is '3' i.e. artificial ways of inducing sleep are ineffective.

Key Points

• In the very first line of the passage, it is written that 'The artificial ways of inducing sleep are legion, and are only alike in their ineffectuality'.
• Hence, from this line, we can say that the author is pointing out that 'artificial ways of inducing sleep are ineffective.'
• 'Ineffectuality' is a noun which means 'not producing a desired result'

The correct answer is '2' i.e. expert

Key Points

• Let's see the meaning of the given words-
• Connoisseur→ An expert judge in matters of taste.
• Swindler→ Use deception to deprive money or possession.
• Informant→ A person who gives information to others.
• Fugitive→ A person who has escaped from captivity.
• Hence, from the meaning of the given words, we can clearly say that 'expert' is the synonym of the given word.

The correct answer is 'Order' 

Key Points

The meaning of the given 'Injunction' is 'A judicial order.'

• The meaning of the other options are
• Coincidence→ A remarkable concurrence of events.

So the correct answer is 'Order'

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

• The word "sardonic" means grimly mocking or cynical. (व्यंग्यपूर्ण)
• Example: He gave her a sardonic smile after she made a mistake.
• "Mocking" refers to making fun of someone or something in a cruel way; derisive. (उपहासपूर्ण)
• Example: Her mocking tone made it clear that she didn't believe his story.
• Hence, we can infer that "sardonic" is similar in meaning to "mocking".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Carelessly dressed (लापरवाही से कपड़े पहने हुए): Wearing clothes in a way that shows a lack of care.
• Example: He appeared at the meeting carelessly dressed, which did not make a good impression.
• Threatening (धमकी देना): Having a hostile or deliberately frightening quality or manner.
• Example: His threatening behavior made everyone in the room uncomfortable.
• Flirty (छेड़खानी करना): Behaving in a way that shows a playful sexual attraction to someone.
• Example: She gave him a flirty smile as she walked past.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. 'Impressively direct'

Key Points

The meaning of the given word 'Incisive' is 'Intelligently analytical or concise.'

• Let's see the meanings of the other words
• ​Incisive→ Quick and direct.
• Kind→ A class or people or things having similar characteristics.
• Urgent→ Requiring immediate action or attention.
• Doubtful→ Uncertain
• So according to the meaning of the given word, the correct answer is 'Impressively direct'

The correct answer is '2' i.e. 'weaken'

Key Points

The meaning of the given word 'Debilitate' is 'make very weak and infirm'

• Let's see the meaning of the given words
• ​Attack→Take aggressive actions.
• Weaken→ Make or become weak.
• Destroy→ Put an end to the existence of.
• Kill→ Put an end to or cause the death of.
• So the nearest synonym according to the meaning is 'Weaken'

The correct answer is '1' i.e. 'Hopeful'

Key Points

Let's see the meanings of the given words-

• Sanguine→ Cheerfully optimistic. (हर्षित आशावादी।)
• Clever→ Quick to understand and learn. (समझने और सीखने में तेज।)
• Hopeful→ Feeling or inspiring hope. (भावना या प्रेरक आशा।)
• Modest→ Unassuming in the estimation of one's abilities. (किसी की क्षमताओं के आकलन में निश्छल।)

Clearly, from the meaning of the given word we can say that 'Hopeful' is the correct answer.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. 'Forecast'

Key Points

Let's see the meaning of the given words

• Prognosis→ A forecast especially of the likely course.
• Preface→ An introduction to a book, typically stating a subject.
• Forecast→ Predict or estimate.
• Suffer→ Experience or subjected to.
• Weakness→ Stating of being weak.

Hence, from the meaning of the given word in the question we can say that the nearest synonym is 'Forecast'

The correct answer is option '3' i.e. Difficult

Key Points

• Let's see the meanings of the given words-
• Onerous→ It is an adjective that means 'involving a great deal of effort.'
• Effortless→ It is an adjective that means 'requiring no effort.'
• Difficult→ Needing much effort or skill to accomplish.
• Easy→ Achieved without great efforts.
• So according to the meaning of the given words 'Difficult' is the nearest synonym of the given word.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. 'Perfidy'

Key Points

• Let's see the meanings of the given words-
• Perfidy→ Deceitfulness and untrustworthiness.
• Treachery→ Betrayal of trust
• Conceit→ Excessive pride in oneself.
• Pride→ A feeling of deep pleasure or satisfaction.
• Deceit→ A action or practice of deceiving.
• So according to the meanings of the given words, the nearest synonym is 'Treachery'

The correct answer is 'Inborn' 

Key Points

• "Innate" is an adjective that refers to a quality, characteristic, or ability that a person or other living being is born with; it's part of their very nature from birth onward. 
• For example: "Her innate sense of rhythm makes her a fantastic dancer."
• Inborn refers to something that a being has from the time they were born, which is essentially identical to "innate".
• Example: "Her inborn talent for music was recognized at a young age."
• From the above information it is clear that both the words "Inborn" and "Innate" are synonyms to each other.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1". 

Additional Information

• Unique: This refers to being the only one of its kind. While something innate is often unique to the individual, "unique" doesn't necessarily align with "innate" as it doesn't denote a characteristic as being present from birth.
• Example: "Every human has a unique fingerprint."
• Imported: This involves bringing goods or services into a country from abroad for the purpose of selling. It differs from "innate" as it implies an external origin.
• Example: "The store sold imported wines from France."
• Essential: This pertains to the fundamental nature of something, which might align in some contexts with "innate", but in other cases, essential qualities may not be inborn, so it isn't always a synonym.
• Example: "Water is essential for life."

The correct answer is 'Annulled'

Key Points

• Let's see the meanings of the given words-
• Ratified→ Give formal consent to; make it officially valid. (को औपचारिक सहमति दें; इसे आधिकारिक रूप से मान्य करें)
• Annulled→ Abolish, or declare invalid. (समाप्त करें, या अमान्य घोषित करें)
• Unsettled→ make someone anxious or uneasy. (किसी को चिंतित या असहज करना)
• destroyed→ Put an end to the existence. (अस्तित्व को खत्म करो)
• Option 2 is incorrectly written It should be Set aside hence option 2 is incorrect.
• So the correct answer is 'Annulled'

The correct answer is 'Ruffled'

Key Points

• Let's see the meanings of the given words-
• Serene→ Calm, Peaceful and untroubled.
• Ruffled→ make or become disarranged.
• Clear→ Easy to perceive or understand.
• Tranquil→ To appease.
• So according to the meanings of the given words, the correct antonym is 'Ruffled'

The correct answer is 'Depressed'

Key Points

• Let's see the meanings of the given words-
• Depressed→ Cause to feel utterly dispirited or dejected.
• Elated→ Make ecstatically happy.
• Exasperated→ Irritate intensely.
• Anxious→ Experiencing worry, nervousness, or unease.
• Jubilant→ Happy or triumphant.
• So according to the meaning of the given words, the correct antonym is 'Depressed'

The correct answer is 'Malignant'

Key Points

• Let's see the meaning of the given words-
• Benign→ Genial and Kind.
• Infectious→ Liable to be transmitted through the environment.
• Malignant→ Evil and Malevolent
• Contagious→ spread by direct or indirect contact of disease.
• Encapsulated→ Express concisely or succinctly.
• So the correct antonym according to the meaning is 'Malignant'

The correct answer is 'Happiness'

Key Points

• Let's see the meaning of the given words-
• Indignation→ Annoyance provoked by what is perceived as unfair treatment.
• Orderliness→ Neatly and methodically
• Anger→ A strong feeling of annoyance.
• Happiness→ A state of being happy.
• Displeasure→ A feeling of annoyance or disapproval.
• So according to the meaning of the given words the correct antonym is 'Happiness'

The correct answer is 'Breed'

Key Points

• Let's see the meaning of the given words-
• Brood→ A family of young animals.
• Breed→ Cause to produce an offspring (an animal) when it is a noun it means 'a distinctive stock of animals'
• Stood→ Be in or rise to an upright position. (it is a past participle form of 'Stand')
• Steed→ A horse.
• According to grammar, we need a noun here because before the blank there is an adjective 'excellent' hence in the options there is only one noun which is 'Breed' so it is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'Affects'

Key Points

• Let's see the meaning of the given words-
• Effects→ A change which is a result or consequence. It is a noun.
• Rejects→ Dismiss as inadequate or faulty. It is a verb.
• Affects→ It is a verb that means 'have an effect or make a difference to.'
• According to grammar, we need a verb here for the subject which is a gerund 'smoking' so the correct word is 'Affect' as it fits contextually and grammatically.

The correct answer is 'blot'.

Key Points

• The term "blot" generally signifies a stain or a spot.
• The phrase "a blot on his/her character" is often used when someone's action or behavior has tarnished their own reputation or degraded their character.
• It depicts a negative impact on a person's character, often due to a mistake, misstep, or wrong action they have done.
• Examples
• His criminal record was a blot on his otherwise impeccable character.
• The fraud charges were a significant blot on the politician's reputation.
• Therefore, based on the above given points, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Sentence  - This is a  blot on his character.

The correct answer is 'Adorned'

Key Points

• Let's see the meaning of the given words-
• Encased→ It is a verb that means 'enclose or cover in a case or close-fitting surround.'
• Adorned→ It is a verb that means 'make more attractive or decorate.'
• Endowed→ It is a verb that means 'give or bequeath an income or property to.'
• Enticed→ It is a verb that means 'Attract by offering pleasure or advantage'
• According to grammar, we need a verb hence according to the context 'Adorned' is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'Bondage'

Key Points

• Let's see the meaning of the given words-
• Bondage→ The state of being a slave or feudal serf. It is a verb.
• Pilferage →It is a noun that means 'to steal'
• Arrangement → the action, process, or result of something.
• Agreement→ It is a noun that means 'harmony in opinion'
• So the correct answer according to the meaning and context is 'Bondage'

The correct answer is '2' i.e. error lies in this part of the sentence.

Key Points

In part 2 of the sentence, the usage of 'on' is incorrect instead use 'over'

• According to grammar, 'over' is a preposition which is used to show the meaning 'on the subject of'
• Whereas 'Quarrel' is a noun but in the given sentence it acts as a verb which means 'to have an angry disagreement with someone'
• Whenever we have a quarrel with a person use the preposition 'with' and whenever we have quarreled over an issue use the preposition 'over'
• Let's see some examples-
• She quarreled with everyone in the village.
• They had a bitter quarrel over an issue.

So the correct sentence→ Children often quarrel over petty issues.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. error lies in this part of the sentence.

Key Points

In part 2 of the sentence, the usage of 'on' is incorrect Omit 'On'

• In the given sentence, 'Emphasizes' is a verb which is used for the subject of the sentence which is 'teacher' that's why it is written in the singular sense.
• Also, remember that 'Emphasise' is the transitive verb which means we have to add the object after this verb.
• In the given sentence, the object of the verb is 'the need'
• Let's see an example-
• It's been emphasized that no major policy changes can be expected

So the correct sentence is→ My mathematics teacher often emphasizes the need for a lot of practice.

Confusion Points

• Whenever emphasize is used as a noun we can the preposition on/upon.
• Let's see the example-
• Increased emphasis is now being placed on corporate image. (In this sentence emphasis is a noun)

The correct answer is '3' i.e. error lies in the third part of the sentence

Key Points

In the third part of the sentence, the usage of 'for' is incorrect instead, use 'to'

• 'Aversion' is a noun that means a strong dislike or disinclination to do something' with this noun always use a preposition 'to'
• Let's see an example-
• I felt an instant aversion to his parents.

So the correct sentence is→ Our laxity in duty increases with our aversion to work.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. error lies in the third part of the sentence.

Key Points

In part 3 the usage of 'since' is incorrect Instead use 'since then'

• 'Since then' is an idiom which means 'within that time' in the given sentence it acts as an adverb.
• Let's see an example-
• The company started as a small local business 10 years ago and has grown a lot since then.

So the correct sentence→ For nearly half a century he lived in that village, sharing the joys and sorrows of the people there but later he left the village and has not been heard of since then.

​

Confusion Points

• In part 3 of the sentence, we have used 'the present perfect tense' always remember that 'whenever since then' is used for a time reference use the present perfect tense with it.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. error lies in part 1 of the sentence.

Key Points

In part 1 of the sentence, the usage of 'for' is incorrect instead use 'of'

• 'Accused' is a verb which means 'If you accuse someone of doing something wrong or dishonest, you say or tell them that you believe that they did it.'
• With this verb always use the preposition 'of'
• Let's see an example-
• Her assistant was accused of theft and fraud by the police.

So the correct sentence is→ He was accused of murder but the court found him not guilty and acquitted him.

The correct answer is 'A narrow escape'

Key Points

The meaning of the given idiom 'A close shave' is→ "a situation in which you come very close to a dangerous situation" 

• Let's see an example-
• I had a close shave this morning - some idiot almost knocked me off my bike.

The correct answer is 'Restless'

Key Points

The meaning of the given idiom 'All agog' is → Amazed or impressed or Excited, in high spirits; in eager expectation.

• The nearest meaning of the given idiom is → 'Restless' which means 'involving constant activity in eager expectation.'
• Let's see an example-
• The audience was all agog as the speaker recounted tales of his experience as a stunt car driver.

The correct answer is 'Secret enemy'

Key Points

The meaning of the given idiom is→ a treacherous person, especially one who feigns friendship.

• So the correct answer is 'Secret enemy' which is option 2.
• Let's see an example-
• ​He's just a snake in the grass and a guy you can't trust.

The correct answer is 'To be afraid'

Key Points

The meaning of the given idiom 'to get cold feet' is → If you get cold feet about something, you become nervous or frightened about it because you think it will fail.

• So the nearest meaning is option 2 i.e. 'to be afraid'
• Let's see an example-
• ​The Government is getting cold feet about the reforms.

The correct answer is 'to keep on talking'

Key Points

The meaning of the given idiom 'Harp on' is→ If you say that someone harps on a subject, or harps on about it, you mean that they keep on talking about it in a way that other people find annoying.

• So the correct answer is 'keep on talking'
• Let's see an example-
• ​Jones harps on this theme more than on any other.

The correct answer is 'Anecdote'

Key Points

• Let's see the meaning of the given words-
• Anecdote→ A short entertaining story about a real incident or person.
• Antidote → A Medicine taken to counteract a particular poison.
• Tale→ A fictitious or true story.
• Allegory→ A story, poem, or picture which can be interpreted to reveal a hidden meaning.
• So according to the meaning 'Anecdote' is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'Polygamy'

Key Points

• Let's see the meanings of the given words-
• Monogamy→ the practice of being married to only one person.
• Bigamy→ the practice of being married to two persons.
• Polygamy→ The practice or custom of having more than one wife or husband at the same time.
• Matrimony→ The state or ceremony of being married.
• Hence, according to the meaning of the given options, the most appropriate is 'Polygamy'

The correct answer is 'Antipathy'

Key Points

• Let's see the meaning of the given words-
• Hatred→ Intense dislike
• Antipathy→ Deep-seated feeling of aversion.
• Animosity→ Strong hostility (acts of warfare)
• So according to the meaning, the nearest is 'Antipathy' which also means 'Strong and settled dislike between two persons.'

The correct answer is 'Hymn'

Key Points

• Let's see the meanings of the given words-
• Ballad→ A poem or song narrating a popular story in short stanzas.
• Lyrics→ A lyric poem or verse.
• Ode→ A lyric poem typically in the form of an address.
• Hymn→ A religious song of praise typically a Christian song.
• So the correct answer is 'Hymn' because it is the exact meaning which is written in the question.