Territorial Army Official Paper II (Conducted on 25 Sep 2022) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Dubai (United Arab Emirates).

Key Points

Infinity Bridge:

• Iconic ‘Infinity Bridge’ in Dubai, United Arab Emirates has been formally opened to traffic for the first time on 16^th January 2022.
• Its design resembles a mathematical sign for infinity (∞).
• It represents the limitless, infinite goals of Dubai.
• It consists of six lanes in each direction and a combined 3-metre track for pedestrians and cyclists.
• It is 300 meters long and 22 meters wide.
• The bridge consists of six lanes and improves the link between Deira and Bur Dubai.
• It features a combined 3-meter track for pedestrians and cyclists.
• First announced in 2018, the Infinity Bridge is part of an Al Shindagha Corridor Project.
• Consisting of six lanes in each direction, the bridge has an arch shaped like the infinity symbol – which symbolizes Dubai’s unlimited ambitions.
• The bridge is capable of running 24,000 vehicles in both directions every hour.

The correct answer is Cholas.

Key Points

Cholas:

• The Cholas (8^th-12^th century AD) are remembered as one of the longest-ruling dynasties in the southern regions of India.
• The reign of the Cholas began in the 9^th century when they defeated the Pallavas to come into power.
• This rule stretched over for over five long centuries until the 13^th century.
• The medieval period was the era of absolute power and development for the Cholas. This is when kings like Aditya I and Parantaka I.
• From here Rajaraj Chola and Rajendra Chola further expanded the kingdom into the Tamil region. Later Kulothunga Chola took over Kalinga to establish a strong rule.
• This magnificence lasted until the arrival of the Pandyas in the early 13^th century.

Naval supremacy of Cholas:

• The Imperial Cholas not only had a succession of able rulers, but the kings were also experts at global diplomacy; and under them, the kingdom enjoyed a great deal of prosperity owing to skilful governance, and flourishing overseas commercial and naval activities.
• Besides armed conquests, Cholas were also experts at global political games, and their ambassadors were sent to China, Myanmar, and Malaysia, as part of diplomatic missions to win allies.
• Rajaraj I engaged in naval expeditions and emerged victorious in the West Coast, Sri Lanka and conquered the Maldives in the Indian Ocean.
• The military victory of Raja Raja I over Sri Lanka led to its northern and eastern portions coming under the direct control of the Chola authority.
• A famous venture of Rajendra was his naval expedition to Kadaram or Sri Vijaya(Indonesia). He annexed total Cylon(Sri lanka).

​

The correct answer is Warren Hastings.

Key Points

Warren Hastings:

• Warren Hastings (1732-1818) became the first Governor of the Presidency of Fort William (Bengal) in 1772 and the first Governor-General of Bengal in 1774 till he resigned in 1785.
• During his term, the First Anglo-Maratha war and the second Anglo-Mysore war were fought.
• The Regulating Act of 1773 was passed during his term.
• He supported Sir William Jones in the formation of the Asiatic Society of Bengal in 1785.
• Hastings11 that had been established by Robert Clive.
• For revenue collection, a Board of Revenue was set up at Calcutta.
• The judicial powers of the Zamindars were abolished and Civil and criminal courts were established.

Important Points

Regulating Act, 1773:

• This act permitted the company to retain its territorial possessions in India.
• It changed the post of Governor of Bengal to “Governor-General of Bengal”.
• Establishment of Supreme Court in Calcutta.
• For the first time, the British cabinet was given the right to exercise control over Indian affairs.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

BRICS:

• BRICS is an acronym for the grouping of the world’s leading emerging economies, namely Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa.
• In 2001, the British Economist Jim O’Neill coined the term BRIC to describe the four emerging economies of Brazil, Russia, India, and China.
• The grouping was formalised during the first meeting of BRIC Foreign Ministers in 2006.
• South Africa was invited to join BRIC in December 2010, after which the group adopted the acronym BRICS.
• During the Sixth BRICS Summit in Fortaleza (Brazil) in 2014, the leaders signed the Agreement establishing the New Development Bank (NDB - Shanghai, China).
• The BRICS brings together five of the largest developing countries of the world, representing 41% of the global population, 24% of the global GDP and 16% of the global trade.
• Iran has submitted an application to become a member in the group of emerging economies known as the BRICS.
• Iran’s membership in the BRICS group “would result in added values for both sides,” Iran’s Foreign Ministry spokesperson.
• Argentina had also applied to join the group.
• Argentina’s President Alberto Fernandez, has in recent days reiterated his desire for Argentina to join BRICS.

Hence both Iran and Argentina submitted an application to become a member of BRICS.

The correct answer is Sri Lanka.

Key Points

BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation):

• The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a regional multilateral organisation.
• Its members lie in the littoral and adjacent areas of the Bay of Bengal constituting a contiguous regional unity.
• Member countries: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Myanmar, and Thailand.
• BIMSTEC not only connects South and Southeast Asia, but also the ecologies of the Great Himalayas and the Bay of Bengal.
• It mainly aims to create an enabling environment for rapid economic development; accelerate social progress; and promote collaboration on matters of common interest in the region.

5^th BIMSTEC:

• Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi on 30 March 2022, attends the 5^th BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) Summit hosted in virtual mode by Sri Lanka.
• The theme of the summit was “Towards a Resilient Region, Prosperous Economies, Healthy People”.
• He also witnessed the signing of three BIMSTEC agreements in various fields.
• The Summit also saw considerable progress being achieved in the BIMSTEC connectivity agenda with the adoption of the ‘Master Plan for Transport Connectivity’ by Leaders which lays out a guidance framework for connectivity-related activities in the region in the future.

Additional Information

The genesis of BIMSTEC:

• This sub-regional organization came into being in 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration.
• Initially, it was formed with four Member States with the acronym ‘BIST-EC’ (Bangladesh, India, Sri-Lanka and Thailand Economic Cooperation).
• It became renamed ‘BIMST-EC’ in 1997, following the inclusion of Myanmar.
• With the admission of Nepal and Bhutan in 2004, the name of the grouping was changed to Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC).

The correct answer is Digestive system.

Key Points

Bariatric surgery:

• Bariatric surgery is an operation that helps lose weight by making changes to the digestive system.
• Bariatric surgery does not involve the removal of fatty tissues from the body.
• It is a procedure that reduces the size of the stomach with a gastric band or removes a portion of the stomach that results in the interruption of the digestive system and therefore, restricts the amount of food a patient can eat.
• Ever since the country’s first bariatric procedure in 1999, the number of surgeries now approximates 15,000 per year, when the requirement is for almost four lakh.
• Bariatric and metabolic surgeries are procedures that are effective in treating obesity and associated co-morbid conditions.
• In 2019, bariatric and metabolic surgery was included in health insurance by the Insurance and Regulatory Development Authority of India for treating obesity.

The correct answer is Kishore Kumar.

Key Points

‘Knight of Legion’:

• It was created by Napoleon Bonaparte in 1802.
• It is conferred by the French Republic for outstanding service to France, regardless of the nationality of the recipients, and the President of France is the Grand Master of the Order of the Legion of Honour.
• The Legion of Honor is the highest decoration in France and is divided into five degrees: Chevalier (Knight), Officier (Officer), Commandeur (Commander), Grand Officier (Grand Officer) and Grand Croix (Grand Cross).

​Indians who received Legion of Honor:

• Hence, option 2 is correct.

The correct answer is Exfoliation.

Key Points

Chemical weathering:

• Chemical weathering is the process of chemical decomposition of rocks and soil.
• Chemical weathering involves the rock interacting with chemicals to alter the rock's composition.
• A cluster of weathering processes namely solution, carbonation, hydration, oxidation, and reduction.
• These processes act on rocks to decompose, dissolve or moderate them to a fine clastic state through chemical reactions by oxygen, surface/ soil water, and other acids.
• Water and air along with heat must be present to speed up all chemical reactions.

Additional Information

Exfoliation:

• Over time, sheets of rock break away from the exposed rocks along the fractures, a process known as exfoliation. Hence, option 4 is correct.
• Exfoliation due to pressure release is also known as “sheeting“.
• Temperature changes can also contribute to mechanical weathering in a process called thermal stress.
• The surface layers of the rocks tend to expand more than the rock at depth, and this leads to the peeling off of the surface layers (exfoliation).

The correct answer is Gulmarg.

Key Points

• HAWS (High Altitude Warfare School), is located at Gulmarg in the state of Jammu and Kashmir.
• It was established in 1948.
• It is one of the leading colleges in Defence Services.
• The soldiers posted in Siachen Glacier and other High Altitude Areas are trained in HAWS.
• The School was initially set up at Gulmarg, as a Formation Sickly School.
• The training imparted consisted mainly of skiing techniques, mountain lore, and patrolling on skis.
• On 8 April 1962, the School was designated a Category A Training Establishment and renamed High Altitude Warfare School (HAWS).
• The training instills confidence and stamina, besides defrosting the fear of the unknown. The men are taught to integrate with the environment so that they can guard the Himalayan frontiers effectively.

The correct answer is India and Bharat.

Key Points

Article 1 of the Indian Consitution:

• Articles 1 to 4 under Part-I of the Constitution deal with the Union and its territory.
• Article 1 describes India, that is, Bharat as a ‘Union of States’ rather than a ‘Federation of States’.
• This provision deals with two things: one, the name of the country; and two, the type of polity.
• There was no unanimity in the Constituent Assembly with regard to the name of the country.
• Some members suggested the traditional name (Bharat), while others advocated the modern name (India).
• Hence, the Constituent Assembly had to adopt a mix of both (‘India, that is, Bharat’).
• Secondly, the country is described as a ‘Union’ although its Constitution is federal in structure.
• According to Article 1, the territory of India can be classified into three categories:
• Territories of the states
• Union territories
• Territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any time.

The correct answer is Animation file.

Key Points

‘MOV’ extension:

• MOV is an extension of the movie (video) and animation file.
• A MOV file is one of the most common video file types, often storing a movie, TV show, short video clip, or home movie.
• It is saved in the QuickTime File Format (QTFF), a multimedia container format developed by Apple.
• Video editors commonly save video as MOV files due to their support for high-quality video.
• These MOV files are also embedded with cross-compatibility support, which means the video content of a .mov file can be viewed with digital video players designed for Mac platforms and Windows-based systems.
• An MOV video can hold many different video formats and multimedia i.e. audio, video, and text in the same file on different tracks.

MOV vs MP4:

The correct answer is Ombudsman of Scandinavia.

Key Points

Lokpal and Lokayukta:

• The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013 provided for the establishment of Lokpal for the Union and Lokayukta for States.
• These institutions are statutory bodies without any constitutional status.
• They perform the function of an "ombudsman” and inquire into allegations of corruption against certain public functionaries and for related matters.
• The earliest democratic institution created in the world for the redressal of citizens’ grievances is the Scandinavian institution of the Ombudsman.
• In 1809, the institution of the ombudsman was inaugurated officially in Sweden.
• ‘Ombud’ is a Swedish term and refers to a person who acts as the representative or spokesman of another person.
• The Swedish Ombudsman is appointed by the Parliament for a term of four years.
• He can be removed only by the Parliament on grounds of its loss of confidence in him.
• He submits his annual report to the Parliament and hence, is also known as ‘Parliamentary Ombudsman.’
• But he is independent of the Parliament (legislature) as well as the executive and judiciary.
• In the 20^th century, Ombudsman as an institution developed and grew most significantly after the Second World War.
• New Zealand and Norway adopted this system in the year 1962 and it proved to be of great significance in spreading the concept of the ombudsman.
• In 1967, on the recommendations of the Whyatt Report of 1961, Great Britain adopted the institution of the ombudsman and became the first large nation in the democratic world to have such a system.
• In India, the concept of a constitutional ombudsman was first proposed by the then-law minister Ashok Kumar Sen in parliament in the early 1960s.
• The term Lokpal and Lokayukta were coined by Dr. L. M. Singhvi.
• M.C. Setalvad suggested the idea of establishing an Ombudsman at the All India Lawyers’ Conference in 1962.

The correct answer is Hotstar.

Key Points

OTT-based platform:

• OTT, or over-the-top platforms, are audio and video hosting and streaming services which started out as content hosting platforms, but soon branched out into the production and release of short movies, feature films, documentaries and web series themselves.
• These platforms offer a range of content and use artificial intelligence to suggest to users the content they are likely to view based on their past viewership on the platform.
• Most OTT platforms generally offer some content for free and charge a monthly subscription fee for premium content which is generally unavailable elsewhere.
• Premium content is usually produced and marketed by the OTT platform themselves, in association with established production houses which historically have made feature films.
• Examples: Netflix, Disney+ Hotstar, Hulu, Amazon Prime Video, Hulu, Peacock, CuriosityStream, Pluto TV, and so many more.
• Hence, option 2 is correct.

​Social Media:

• These are the websites and applications that enable users to create and share content or to participate in social networking.
• The term social media refers to a computer-based technology that facilitates the sharing of ideas, thoughts, and information through virtual networks and communities.
• Examples: Facebook, Twitter, WhatsApp etc. Hence, options 1, 3 and 4 are not correct.

The correct answer is Justice M Hidayatullah.

Key Points

President of India:

• If the office falls vacant by resignation, removal, death or otherwise, then an election to fill the vacancy should be held within six months from the date of the occurrence of such a vacancy.
• When a vacancy occurs in the office of the President due to his resignation, removal, death or otherwise, the Vice-President acts as the President until a new President is elected.
• In case the office of Vice-President is vacant, the Chief Justice of India (or if his office is also vacant, the seniormost judge of the Supreme Court available) acts as the President or discharges the functions of the President.
• For example, when President Dr Zakir Hussain died in May 1969, the then Vice-President, V.V. Giri was acting as the President.
• Soon after V.V. Giri resigned to contest the election of the President.
• Then the Chief Justice of India, M. Hidayatullah worked as the officiating President from 20 July 1969 to 24 August 1969.

Important Points

​Justice M Hidayatullah:

• He was the 11^th Chief Justice of India.
• Justice Hidayatullah was sworn in as the Acting President of India on 20^th July 1969 and served in that capacity till late V.V. Giri was sworn in as the duly elected President of the Republic.
• After his retirement as the Chief Justice of India, he was unanimously elected as the Vice President of India as a result of a consensus amongst different political parties and occupied that high office with distinction from 1979 to 1984.

The correct answer is USA.

Key Points

Dual citizenship:

• Federal states like USA and Switzerland adopted the system of double citizenship.
• In the USA, each person is not only a citizen of the USA but also of the particular state to which he belongs.
• Thus, he owes allegiance to both and enjoys dual sets of rights–one set conferred by the national government and another by the state government.
• This system creates the problem of discrimination, that is, a state may discriminate in favour of its citizens in matters like the right to vote, right to hold public offices, right to practice professions and so on.
• This problem is avoided in the system of single citizenship prevalent in India.
• Though the Indian Constitution is federal and envisages a dual polity (Centre and states), it provides for only a single citizenship, that is, Indian citizenship.
• The citizens in India owe allegiance only to the Union.

Important Points

• Part II of the Constitution of India (Articles 5 - 11) deals with the Citizenship of India.
• Indian citizenship can be acquired in five ways, they are:
• Citizenship by Birth
• Citizenship by Descent
• Citizenship by Registration
• Citizenship by Naturalisation
• Citizenship by incorporation of Territory

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

Election of President:

• The Indian President is elected through an electoral college system, wherein the votes are cast by national and State-level lawmakers.
• The elections are conducted and overseen by the Election Commission (EC) of India.
• The electoral college is made up of all the elected members of the Upper and Lower Houses of Parliament (Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha MPs), and the elected Members of the Legislative Assemblies of States and Union Territories (MLAs).
• The President’s election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and the voting is by secret ballot.
• Hence, the election of the President is indirect.
• This system ensures that the successful candidate is returned by the absolute majority of votes.
• A candidate, in order to be declared elected to the office of President, must secure a fixed quota of votes.
• Each member of the electoral college is given only one ballot paper.
• The voter, while casting his vote, is required to indicate his preferences by marking 1, 2, 3, 4, etc. against the names of candidates.
• This means that the voter can indicate as many preferences as there are candidates in the fray.

The correct answer is Brahmaputra.

Key Points

Brahmaputra:

• The Brahmaputra river also called Yarlung Tsangpo or Tsangpo-Brahmaputra is a transboundary river in Asia.
• It is the sixth-longest river in Asia, at 2,900 km (1,800 mi).
• It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and flows eastward for more than 2,900 km before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
• The Brahmaputra is a necessary transportation and irrigation artery for the countries it passes through, including India, Bangladesh, and Tibet.
• The river has a wide variety of wildlife, including several endangered species.
• The Brahmaputra River rises in the Himalayas’ Kailash ranges in the north, at an elevation of 5,150 meters, just south of the Konggyu Tsho lake.
• The Brahmaputra River basin covers the Indian states of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, West Bengal, Meghalaya, Nagaland, and Sikkim.
• The Brahmaputra enters India through Arunachal Pradesh as the Siang or Dihang river.
• After joining its tributaries, Lohit and the Dibang river, known as the Brahmaputra.
• After entering Bangladesh, the Brahmaputra river is known as the Jamuna river, and it is joined by the Ganga river, known as the Padma river in Bangladesh. And finally, the river Brahmaputra empties its water into the Bay of Bengal.
• North Bank Tributaries:
• Subansiri, Siang, Kameng, Dhansiri, Manas, Sankosh, Jiadhal, Pagladiya, Champamati.
• South Bank Tributaries:
• ​​Noa Dehing, Buridehing, Debang, Dikhow​, Kopili.

The correct answer is Crimea.

Key Points

Crimea:

• The annexation of Crimea by the Russian Federation took place in 2014 in the aftermath of the Ukrainian Revolution.
• Crimea was internationally recognized as a part of Ukraine before Russia illegally occupied it.
• A referendum was held in Crimea in which majority of people expressed their will to become a part of the Russian Federation.
• The authenticity of this referendum was largely questioned by the international community.
• Crimea is located at a strategic location surrounded by the sea on three sides of its border.
• This allows Crimea to have proper connectivity with the rest of the world.
• The Russian mainland has no access to the open sea on the southwest side of their continent. Thus gaining hegemony over Crimea would enable the Russian government to have access to the Mediterranean Sea throughout the year.

Important Points

• Looking at the importance of the Crimean peninsula, Moscow has opened a bridge connecting Crimea to Russia over the Strait of Kerch.
• Russia always wanted to have firm control over Crimea and wanted to gain this territory to undo the mistake of 1954.
• In 1954, Crimea was transferred to Ukraine by the then-Soviet Premier Nikita Khrushchev.
• Prior to 2014 when Russia was outed from the grouping, it was called G8. Russia’s removal made it the G7.
• Russian control over Crimea changed the balance of power in favour of Russia and provided them with the tactical ground to carry out their exercise.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

South China Sea:

• The South China Sea is an arm of the western Pacific Ocean in Southeast Asia.
• It is south of China, east & south of Vietnam, west of the Philippines, and north of the island of Borneo.
• It is connected by Taiwan Strait with the East China Sea and by Luzon Strait with the Philippine Sea.
• Bordering states & territories (clockwise from north):
• The People’s Republic of China, the Republic of China (Taiwan), the Philippines, Malaysia, Brunei, Indonesia, Singapore, and Vietnam.
• This sea holds tremendous strategic importance for its location as it is the connecting link between the Indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean (Strait of Malacca).
• According to the United Nations Conference on Trade And Development (UNCTAD), one-third of global shipping passes through it, carrying trillions of trade which makes it a significant geopolitical water body.
• China lays claim to nearly all of the South China Sea, including the Paracel Islands.
• However, Taiwan, Philippines, Brunei, Malaysia, and Vietnam also claim parts of the region, believed to hold valuable oil and gas deposits. Hence, option 4 is correct.

​

The correct answer is Cabinet Secretary.

Key Points

Cabinet Secretary:

• The Cabinet Secretary is the top-most executive official and senior-most civil servant of the Government of India.
• The cabinet secretariat is under the direct charge of the prime minister.
• The administrative head of the secretariat is the cabinet secretary who is also the ex-officio chairman of the civil services board.
• She/he ranks eleventh on the Indian order of precedence.
• She/he facilitates the smooth transaction of business in Ministries/ Departments of the Government.
• In 2019 All India Services (Death-Cum-Retirement-Benefits) Rules, 1958, was amended by Government to provide an extension.
• According to All India Services (Death-Cum-Retirement-Benefits) Rules, 1958, the government can give an extension in service to a cabinet secretary provided the total tenure does not exceed four years.
• As per the modified rules, the **central government may give an extension in service for a further period not exceeding three months, beyond the period of four years to a cabinet secretary.**​

Additional Information 

Attorney General:

• The Attorney General (AG) of India is a part of the Union Executive.
• He is the highest law officer in the country.
• Article 76 of the Constitution provides for the office of AG of India.
• He is appointed by the President on the advice of the government.

The correct answer is Diet.

Key Points

• The Japanese legislature is known as the 'National Diet'.
• The members are directly elected by the people.
• The capital of Japan is Tokyo, its official language is Japanese.

Additional Information 

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

Rajya Sabha:

• The Upper House of the Parliament, Rajya Sabha or Council of States was constituted on 3^rd April 1952 and the first session was held on 13^th May 1952.  Since then, it has contributed to the welfare and progress of the country in many ways.
• Rajya Sabha has its own distinctive features and reflects the federal character of the constitution and protects the rights of States.
• The origin of the Rajya Sabha or the Second Chamber can be traced to the Montague-Chelmsford Report of 1918.
• The Rajya Sabha is called the permanent House of Parliament as it is never fully dissolved.
• Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and also called a ‘continuing chamber.’ Unlike Lok Sabha which usually runs for 5 years and the fresh elections are taken up, Rajya Sabha has no specific tenure and it keeps on running.
• Every second year, one-third of its members retire. For the vacant seats, fresh elections take place. However, nominations are taken up at the beginning of the third year.
• Representation of the People Act, 1951 authorizes the President to make provisions to govern the order of retirement of the members of the Rajya Sabha.
• The Rajya Sabha provides representation to the States. Therefore, any matter that affects the States must be referred to it for its consent and approval.
• Representation of States in Rajya Sabha:
• Members are elected by the elected members of state legislative assemblies.
• Election Principle used – Proportional Representation by means of Single Transferable Vote.
• The population of the state is a factor that decides the **representation of states in Rajya Sabha.**​

Additional Information

• ​Total Strength of Rajya Sabha: 250
• Total Nominated Members by President in Rajyasabha: 12

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

Zero hour:

• Zero Hour is an Indian parliamentary innovation. It is not mentioned in the parliamentary rules book.
• Under this, MPs can raise matters without any prior notice.
• The zero hour starts immediately after the question hour and lasts until the agenda for the day (i.e. the regular business of the House) is taken up.
• In other words, the time gap between the question hour and the agenda is known as zero hours. Hence, option 4 is correct.
• As it starts around 12 noon, this period is euphemistically termed as `Zero Hour'.
• For raising matters during the ‘Zero Hour’ in Lok Sabha, Members give notice between 8.30 a.m. and  9.00 a.m. every day to the Speaker stating clearly the subject that they consider important and wish to raise in the House.
• It is, of course, for the Speaker to allow or not to allow for raising such matters in the House.
• The term `Zero Hour' is not formally recognised in our parliamentary procedure.
• At present, twenty matters per day as per their priority in the ballot are allowed to be raised during "Zero Hour".
• The order in which the matters will be raised is decided by the Speaker at his/her discretion.
• In the first phase, 5 matters of urgent national and international importance, as decided by the Chair, are taken up after Question Hour and laying of papers, etc.
• In the second phase, the remaining admitted matters of urgent public importance are taken up after 6.00 P.M. or at the end of the regular business of the House.
• However, since there is no provision in the rules regarding ‘Zero Hour’, hence there is no maximum limit on the number of matters that can be raised on any given day.

The correct answer is Casting Vote.

Key Points

Speaker of Lok Sabha:

• The Lok Sabha, which is the highest legislative body in the country, chooses its Speaker who presides over the day-to-day functioning of the House.
• Electing the Speaker of the House is one of the first acts of the newly constituted House.
• The office of the Speaker is a Constitutional Office.
• The Speaker is guided by the constitutional provisions and the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.
• The Speaker is placed very high in the Warrant of Precedence in the country i.e. at rank 6.

​Casting Vote:

• The speaker does not vote in the first instance but in the case of a tie; when the House is divided equally on any question, the Speaker is entitled to vote.
• Such a vote is called a Casting Vote, and its purpose is to resolve a deadlock. Hence, option 1 is correct.

Powers of the Speaker:

• He/she doesn’t vote in the first instance.
• But he/she can exercise a casting vote in the case of a tie.
• The Speaker presides over a joint sitting of the two houses of Parliament. The President summons a joint sitting to resolve a deadlock between the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha on the matters of a bill.
• He/she can allow for a ‘secret’ sitting of the House at the request of the Leader of the House.
• He/she decides whether the bill is a money bill or not, and his/her decision on this matter is final.

The correct answer is India and USA.

Key Points

Judicial review:

• It is a type of court proceeding in which a judge reviews the lawfulness of a decision or action made by a public body.
• In other words, judicial reviews are a challenge to the way in which a decision has been made, rather than the rights and wrongs of the conclusion reached.
• It is the power exerted by the courts of a country to examine the actions of the legislatures, and executive and administrative arms of government and to ensure that such actions conform to the provisions of the nation’s Constitution.
• Judicial review has two important functions, like, legitimizing government action and protecting the constitution against any undue encroachment by the gov­ernment.
• The concept of judicial review has been borrowed from the constitution of the USA. Hence, option 4 is correct.
• In the Indian Constitution, the power of judicial review with regard to the Supreme Court is stated in Articles 32 and 136 and in Articles 226 and 227 with respect to the High court.
• Judicial review is considered a basic structure of the constitution (Indira Gandhi vs Raj Narain Case 1975).
• Although judicial review had been relatively uncommon before World War II, by the early 21^st century more than 100 countries had specifically incorporated judicial review into their constitutions.

The correct answer is Kazakhstan.

Key Points

Uranium:

• Uranium occurs naturally in low concentrations in soil, rock, and water.
• It is a hard, dense, malleable, ductile, silver-white, radioactive metal.
• Uranium metal has a very high density.
• When finely divided, it can react with cold water. In the air it is coated by uranium oxide, tarnishing rapidly.
• It can form solids solutions and intermetallic compounds with many metals.
• The main use of uranium in the civilian sector is to fuel commercial nuclear power plants for the generation of nuclear energy.
• This requires uranium to be enriched with the uranium-235 isotope and the chain reaction to be controlled so that the energy is released in a more manageable way.
• About two-thirds of the world's production of uranium from mines is from Kazakhstan, Canada, and Australia.
• Olympic Dam and the Ranger mine in Southern Australia are important mines in Australia.
• High-grade deposits are only found in the Athabasca Basin region of Canada.
• Cigar Lake and the McArthur River basin in Canada are other important uranium mining sites.
• The Chu-Sarysu basin in central Kazakhstan alone accounts for over half of the country’s known uranium resources.

​Uranium Production in 2021:

• Hence, option 4 is correct.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

Territorial Army (India):

• On 9 October 1949, the modern Indian Territorial Army (TA) was inaugurated by the Governor-General of India, C Rajagopalachari.
• The TA is the second line of defence in India after the regular army.
• The motto of the Territorial Army of India is 'Savdhani Va Shoorta' (Vigilance and Valour). Hence, option 3 is correct.

Additional Information

• The TA is meant for people who are already gainfully employed elsewhere to serve in the army.
• Its role is to relieve the regular Indian Army of static duties and also to help with civil administration during natural calamities and maintain essential services during emergencies.
• It also provides units to the regular army on a need-basis.
• Currently, there are approximately 40,000 first-line troops and 160,000 second-line troops in the TA.
• The Territorial Army also has 10 Ecological Battalions working for the restoration of the environment in the country by carrying out afforestation in rugged and inhospitable terrain, reviving wetlands, restoring water bodies and contributing to the Clean Ganga project.
• Any male Indian citizen between the ages of 18 and 42 can apply and enter into the TA service provided they clear the written test, interview, medical examination, and the necessary training.
• There are two systems of training**: the Urban System and the Provincial System.**​

The correct answer is Prime Minister of India.

Key Points

National Development Council of India:

• National Development Council (NDC) or the Rashtriya Vikas Parishad is the apex body for decision-making and deliberations on development matters in India presided over by the Prime Minister. Hence, option 2 is correct.
• National Development Council was set up on August 6, 1952, to
• Strengthen and mobilize the effort and resources of the nation in support of the Plan,
• Promote common economic policies in all vital spheres, and
• Ensure the balanced and rapid development of all parts of the country.
• The National Development Council is one of the key organizations of the planning system in India.
• It symbolizes the federal approach to planning and is the instrument for ensuring that the planning system adopts a truly national perspective.
• The secretary of the Planning Commission is also the secretary of the NDC.
• Administrative assistance is also provided by the Planning Commission.
• In addition, the Council has been appointing committees from time to time for a detailed examination of certain problems.
• The Prime Minister is the Chairman of the Council and the Secretary to the Commission acts as its Secretary the Commission furnishes the Council with administrative and other assistance.
• The Council ordinarily meets twice a year.

Appointment and Composition of NDC:

• Indian Prime Minister
• All the Union Cabinet Ministers
• Chief Ministers of all States or their substitutes
• Representatives of the union territories and
• The members of the NITI Aayog (erstwhile planning commission).

The correct answer is Western Ghats.

Key Points

Biodiversity hotspots:

• Biodiversity hotspots are regions with high species richness and a high degree of endemism.
• The British biologist Norman Myers coined the term “biodiversity hotspot” in 1988 as a biogeographic region characterized both by exceptional levels of plant endemism and by serious levels of habitat loss.
• Conservation International (CI) adopted Myers’ hotspots and in 1996, the organization made the decision to undertake a reassessment of the hotspots concept.
• According to CI, to qualify as a hotspot a region must meet two strict criteria:
• It must contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants (> 0.5% of the world’s total) as endemics – which is to say, it must have a high percentage of plant life found no where else on the planet. A hotspot, in other words, is irreplaceable.
• It has to have lost at least 70% of its original habitat. (It must have 30% or less of its original natural vegetation). In other words, it must be threatened.

Important Points 

Biodiversity hotspots in India:

• Himalaya: Includes the entire Indian Himalayan region (and that falling in Pakistan, Tibet, Nepal, Bhutan, China, and Myanmar).
• Indo-Burma: Includes entire North-eastern India, except Assam and Andaman group of Islands (and Myanmar, Thailand, Vietnam, Laos, Cambodia, and southern China)
• Western Ghats and Sri Lanka: Includes the entire Western Ghats (and Sri Lanka). Hence, option 1 is correct.
• Sundalands: Includes Nicobar group of Islands (and Indonesia, Malaysia, Singapore, Brunei, and Philippines).

The correct answer is Water.

Key Points

Abiotic Factors:

• Abiotic factors refer to all the non-living, i.e. chemical and physical factors present in the atmosphere, hydrosphere, and lithosphere.
• Water, Sunlight, air, precipitation, minerals, and soil are some examples of abiotic factors.
• These factors have a significant impact on the survival and reproduction of species in an ecosystem.
• For instance, without an adequate amount of sunlight, autotrophic organisms may not be able to survive.
• When these organisms eventually die, it will create a shortage of food for primary consumers.
• This effect cascades up the food chain, affecting every organism. Consequently, it leads to an imbalance in the ecosystem.

Renewable resource:

• Renewable energy is energy that is produced from natural processes and continuously replenished.
• A few examples of renewable energy are sunlight, water, wind, tides, geothermal heat, and biomass. Hence, option 3 is correct.
• The energy that is provided by renewable energy resources is used in 5 important areas such as air and water cooling/heating, electricity generation, the rural sector, and transportation.
• The existence of renewable energy resources is spread over a wide geographical area in comparison to conventional energy resources which are often concentrated in a limited number of countries like oil and gas are mostly concentrated in Middle East countries.
• The use of renewable energy resources in energy generation is resulting in less pollution and has a significant effect on economic benefits and energy security.

The correct answer is NABARD.

Key Points

National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD):

• NABARD is a development bank focussing primarily on the rural sector of the country.
• It is the apex banking institution to provide finance for Agriculture and rural development.
• Its headquarter is located in Mumbai.
• It is responsible for the development of small industries, cottage industries, and any other such village or rural projects.
• It is a statutory body established in 1982 under Parliamentary act-National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Act, 1981.
• NABARD’s initiatives are aimed at building an empowered and financially inclusive rural India through specific goal-oriented departments which can be categorized broadly into three heads: Financial, Developmental, and Supervision.
• It is the nodal agency for implementing the ‘Rural Infrastructure Development Fund Programs’. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• It provides refinance support for building rural infrastructure.
• It prepares district-level credit plans to guide and motivate the banking industry in achieving these targets.
• It supervises Cooperative Banks and Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and helps them develop sound banking practices and integrate them into the CBS (Core Banking Solution) platform.
• It is involved in designing the Union government’s development schemes and their implementation.
• It provides training to handicraft artisans and helps them in developing a marketing platform for selling these articles.

The correct answer is 2005.

Key Points

National Rural Health Mission (NRHM):

• The National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) was launched by the then Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh on 12^th April 2005, to provide accessible, affordable and quality health care to the rural population, especially the vulnerable groups. Hence, option 3 is correct.
• The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare oversees the functionality of the National Health Mission which includes the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) and the National Urban Health Mission (NUHM).
• The essence of NRHM is a health delivery system that functions independently, is community-owned, and decentralized.
• The mission also aims to deliver constant support to those who contribute to the social determinants of health.
• The basic objectives to implement NRHM are:
• Reduction in infant mortality rate and maternal mortality rate
• Ensuring population stabilization
• Prevention and control of communicable and non-communicable diseases
• Upgrading AYUSH(Ayurvedic Yoga Unani Siddh and Homoeopath) for the promotion of a healthy lifestyle.
• A special focus has been given to the Empowered Action Group (EAG) States.
• The States of North-East, J&K, and Himachal Pradesh are also considered.
• Major initiatives under NRHM:
• ​The Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHA)
• Rogi Kalyan Samiti (Patient Welfare Committee)/Hospital Management Society
• The United Grants to Sub-Centres
• Health Care Service Delivery
• Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram

The correct answer is Full Immunization.

Key Points

Mission Indradhanush:

• The immunization Programme in India was introduced in 1978 as the ‘Expanded Programme of Immunization’ (EPI) by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India.
• In 1985, the programme was modified as the ‘Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) to be implemented in a phased manner to cover all districts in the country by 1989-90 with one of the largest health programmes in the world.
• To strengthen and re-energize the programme and achieve full immunization coverage for all children and pregnant women at a rapid pace, the Government of India launched “Mission Indradhanush” in December 2014.
• It was launched to fully immunize more than 89 lakh children who are either unvaccinated or partially vaccinated under Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP). Hence, option 4 is correct.
• It provides vaccination against 12 Vaccine-Preventable Diseases (VPD) i.e. diphtheria, Whooping cough, tetanus, polio, tuberculosis, hepatitis B, meningitis and pneumonia, Haemophilus influenza type B infections, Japanese encephalitis (JE), rotavirus vaccine, pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and measles-rubella (MR).
• However, vaccination against Japanese Encephalitis and Haemophilus influenza type B is being provided in selected districts of the country.
• Mission Indradhansuh was also identified as one of the flagship schemes under Gram Swaraj Abhiyan and Extended Gram Swaraj Abhiyan.

The correct answer is Corporate industry.

Key Points

Commercial paper:

• Commercial paper is an unsecured, short-period debt tool issued by a Corporate company, usually for finance and inventories and temporary liabilities. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• The maturities in this paper do not last longer than 270 days.
• These papers are like a promissory note allotted at a huge cost and exchangeable between the All-India Financial Institutions (FIs) and Primary Dealers (PDs).
• Most of the commercial paper investors are from the banking sector, individuals, corporate and incorporated companies, Non-Resident Indians (NRIs), Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs), etc.
• However, FII can only invest according to the limit outlined by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
• In India, commercial paper is a short-term unsecured promissory note issued by the Primary Dealers (PDs) and the All-India Financial Institutions (FIs) for a short period of 90 days to 364 days.
• On 27^th March 1989, commercial paper in India was introduced by RBI in the Indian money market.
• It was initially recommended by Vaghul Working Group.
• The issuer guarantees the buyer to pay a fixed amount in the future in terms of liquid cash and no assets.
• A company can directly issue the paper to investors, or it can be done through banks/dealer banks.
• It is subscribed at a discount rate and can be issued in an interest-bearing application.

The correct answer is Share market.

Key Points

Inside trading:

• Insider trading refers to the practice of purchasing or selling a publicly-traded company’s securities while in possession of material information that is not yet public information.
• Material information refers to any and all information that may result in a substantial impact on the decision of an investor regarding whether to buy or sell the security.
• It basically refers to the buying, selling, or trading of shares or other securities (such as bonds or stock options) of a listed company using unpublished price-sensitive information (UPSI) that can affect the stock price that has not been disclosed yet.
• Eg. A government employee acts upon his knowledge about a new regulation to be passed which will benefit a sugar-exporting firm and buys its shares before the regulation becomes public knowledge.
• Insider trading hurts the integrity of capital markets.

​Unpublished price-sensitive information (UPSI):

• UPSI refers to a piece of exclusive information related to a firm’s stock prices, quarterly results, acquisition deals, mergers or any kind of sensitive activities that have not been shared with the public at large.
• When insiders are able to access the UPSI, they illegally conduct trade dealings for personal gain.

‘Insider’:

• SEBI regulations define an ‘insider’ as someone who is a connected person or has access to UPSI.
• A connected person can be anyone who during the six months preceding the insider trade has been associated with the company in some way.
• This could be a company director or employee or their close relatives, or a legal counsel or banker to the company, or even an official of the stock exchanges or trustees or employees of an asset management company who interacted with the company.

The correct answer is 111.

Key Points 

Earth's circumference:

• Earth's circumference is the distance around Earth.
• Measured around the Equator, it is 40,075.017 km (24,901.461 mi).
• Measured around the poles, the circumference is 40,007.863 km (24,859.734 mi).

​Latitudes:

• Latitude is the angular distance of a point on the earth’s surface, measured in degrees from the centre of the earth.
• As the earth is slightly flattened at the poles, the linear distance of a degree of latitude at the pole is a little longer than that at the equator.
• For example at the equator (0°) it is 68.704 miles, at 45° it is 69.054 miles and at the poles, it is 69.407 miles.
• The average is taken as 69 miles (111km).
• 1 mile = 1.607 km.
• ​The distance between two parallel latitudes is 111km. This is the distance of 1 degree of the latitudes. Hence, option 2 is correct.
• All the latitudes are parallel to the Equator.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

Tectonic Plates:

• A tectonic plate (also called a lithospheric plate) is a massive, irregularly-shaped slab of solid rock, generally composed of both continental and oceanic lithosphere.
• A tectonic plate may be a continental plate or an oceanic plate, depending on which of the two occupies the larger portion of the plate.

The Major and Minor Plates: The Earth’s lithosphere is divided into seven major and some minor plates.

• Young Fold Mountain ridges, oceanic trenches, and/or transform faults surround the major plates. These include:
• The Antarctic (and the surrounding oceanic) plate. Hence, option 4 is correct.
• The North American plate (with the western Atlantic floor separated from the South American plate along the Caribbean islands)
• The South American plate (with the western Atlantic floor separated from the North American plate along the Caribbean islands)
• The Pacific plate
• The India-Australia-New Zealand plate
• Africa with the eastern Atlantic floor plate
• Eurasia and the adjacent oceanic plate
• Some important minor plates include:
• Cocos plate: Between Central America and the Pacific plate
• Nazca plate: Between South America and the Pacific plate
• Arabian plate: Mostly the Saudi Arabian landmass
• Philippine plate: Between the Asiatic and Pacific plate
• Caroline plate: Between the Philippine and Indian plates (North of New Guinea)
• Fuji plate: North-east of Australia
• Juan De Fuca plate: South-East of North American Plate. Hence, options 1, 2 and 3 are not correct.

The correct answer is Urals.

Key Points

Ural Mountains:

• It extends from the Kara Sea to the Kazakh Steppe along the border of Kazakhstan.
• Geographically this range marks the northern part of the border between Europe and Asia. Hence, option 3 is correct.
• They are formed due to the Continent-Continent collision of supercontinent Laurussia with the young and weak continent of Kazakhstania.
• Mt. Narodnaya is the highest peak of this range.
• Since the 18^th century, the mountains have been a major mineral base of Russia.
• The Urals also are part of a highly developed industrial complex closely tied to the mineral-rich Siberian region and are the home of peoples with roots reaching deep into history.
• The rivers flowing down from the Urals drain into either the Arctic Ocean or the Caspian Sea.
• The northern side of the mountain range receives cool, rainy weather, while the southern side is a hot desert.
• The western side of the mountain range receives warm continental winds, while the eastern side is much cooler and drier.

The correct answer is Rivers.

Key Points

Oceanic salinity

• Salt in the ocean comes from two sources: runoff from the land (i.e. Rivers) and openings in the seafloor.
• Rocks on land are the major source of salts dissolved in seawater.
• Rainwater that falls on land is slightly acidic, so it erodes rocks. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• This releases ions that are carried away to streams and rivers that eventually feed into the ocean.
• Many of the dissolved ions are used by organisms in the ocean and are removed from the water. Others are not removed, so their concentrations increase over time.
• Another source of salts in the ocean is hydrothermal fluids, which come from vents in the seafloor.
• Two of the most prevalent ions in seawater are **chloride and sodium. **Together, they make up around 85% of all dissolved ions in the ocean.
• The concentration of salt in seawater (salinity) varies with temperature, evaporation, and precipitation.

The correct answer is 2012.

Key Points

Kyoto Protocol:

• It is an international treaty to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
• Kyoto Protocol applies to 6 greenhouse gases; carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, hydrofluorocarbons, perfluorocarbons, and sulfur hexafluoride.
• It is an extension of the 1992 UNFCCC.
• It was adopted in Kyoto, Japan on 11 December 1997.
• Kyoto Protocol came into force on 16 February 2005.
• 84 countries are signatories of the Kyoto Protocol.
• 192 countries are parties to the Kyoto Protocol.
• It is legally binding
• Only members of the UNFCCC can become parties to the Kyoto Protocol.
• The first commitment period of the Kyoto Protocol started in 2008 ended in 2012. Hence, option 3 is correct.
• After this, an amendment i.e. changes was carried out to the Kyoto Protocol.
• This amendment talks about emission reduction targets for the second commitment period.
• The 2^nd commitment period ranges from 2012-2020.
• The targets for the first commitment period of the Kyoto Protocol cover emissions of the six main greenhouse gases, namely:
• Carbon dioxide
• Methane
• Nitrous oxide
• Hydrofluorocarbons
• Perfluorocarbons
• Sulphur hexafluoride

The correct answer is Light Year.

Key Points

Light Year:

• It is the distance that a light photon travels in the vacuum in one Julian year.
• A light-year is a unit of distance.
• The value of one light-year is constant.
• The term light-year is often used in astrophysics to measure the distance between two astronomical objects. Hence, option 4 is correct.
• Light travels at a velocity of about 300,000 kilometres (km) per second.
• It can travel about 10 trillion km.
• More precisely, one light-year is equal to 9,500,000,000,000 kilometres.
• One light-year, ly = 9.4607 × 10¹² km
• 1 light-year in miles = 5.88 × 10¹² miles
• 1 light-year in the Astronomical unit = 63241 au.
• The Sun is at a distance of 149.6 million kilometres away from earth.
• The same distance, when expressed in terms of the light-year approximates 15.54795 × 10^-6 light years.

The correct answer is Tungsten.

Key Points

Tungsten:

• Tungsten, also known as wolfram, along with Cr and Mo, belongs to group 6 of the periodic table.
• The element has an atomic number of 74 and an atomic mass of 184.
• The filament of a bulb is made up of tungsten.
• The filament, also known as the coiled coil, is normally made of fine wire coils to increase the bulb's light output.
• Tungsten can become white hot and emit white light for a long time.
• Reasons, why tungsten is used for making filament of the electric bulb, are as follows-
• Tungsten is a Metal that has a high melting point.
• Due to high resistivity, it does not burn at room temperature and the bulb glows at high temperatures.
• Higher tensile strength.
• lowest vapour pressure.

Important Points

Applications of Tungsten:

• Tungsten is an economically important metal, being widely used in light-bulb filaments, electron and television tubes, abrasives, and special alloys such as steel tools.
• Tungsten carbide is of great importance to metal works, in the mining and petroleum industries.
• Contamination from these sources is therefore possible in industrial and urban areas.
• Anything higher than trace amounts of Tungsten in solution is generally considered to be toxic.

The correct answer is Fatty tissue.

Key Points

Fatty tissue/Adipose tissue:

• Adipose tissue, body fat, or simply fat is a loose connective tissue composed mostly of adipocytes.
• Adipose tissue is made up of adipocytes that are embedded in a structural mesh of collagen fibers.
• Adipose tissue is a type of loose connective tissue located mainly beneath the skin.
• The adipose tissue can be found under our skin (subcutaneous tissue), around our organs (visceral fat), in bone marrow (marrow fat), and in breast tissues.
• The cells of this tissue are specialized to store fats.
• Adipose tissue is oval and filled with fat droplets.
• The excess nutrients which are not used immediately are converted into fats and are stored in this tissue.
• Adipose tissue helps in maintaining body temperature.
• It acts as an insulator. It reduces the loss of fat from the body, that is, it regulates body temperature. Hence, option 3 is correct.
• Recently, the adipose tissue has been acknowledged as an endocrine gland because it produces hormones, such as oestrogen, leptin, resistin, and cytokines.
• Adipose tissue is also associated with the release of pro-inflammatory markers called adipokines in the development of metabolic syndromes, such as type-2 diabetes, atherosclerosis, and cardiovascular diseases.
• The adipocytes can be classified into three different cell types based on their function, origin, and location.
• The three types are white, beige, and brown adipocytes.

The correct answer is Cholera.

Key Points

Cholera:

• It is a life-threatening infectious disease and a public health hazard.
• Cholera is an acute, diarrheal illness caused by infection of the intestine with the bacterium Vibrio cholerae. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• The infection is often mild or without symptoms, but sometimes can be severe.
• A person may get cholera by drinking water or eating food contaminated with the cholera bacterium.
• The disease can spread rapidly in areas with inadequate treatment of sewage and drinking water.
• Currently, there are three WHO pre-qualified oral cholera vaccines (OCV), Dukoral, Shanchol, and Euvichol-Plus.
• All three vaccines require two doses for full protection.
• Symptoms:
• Profuse watery diarrhoea
• Vomiting
• Leg cramps

Important Points

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

• The world's highest ground-based telescopic observatory is located at Leh in India.
• The Indian Astronomical Observatory (IAO), is located in Hanle near Leh in Ladakh, India.
• It is operated by the Indian Institute of Astrophysics, Bangalore.
• It is India's first dark-sky preserve.
• The Hanle site is deemed to be excellent for visible, infrared, and submillimeter observations throughout the year.
• The Observatory has several active telescopes.
• These are the 2.01 meter optical-infrared Himalayan Chandra Telescope (HCT), a High Altitude Gamma Ray Telescope (HAGAR).
• The HCT is remotely operated from Bangalore by the Centre for Research and Education in Science and Technology (CREST) using a dedicated satellite link.

The correct answer is Sonal Man Singh.

Key Points

Sonal Man Singh:

• Sonal Mansingh (born 30 April 1944) is an Indian classical dancer and Guru Bharatanatyam and Odissi dancing style.
• She has been nominated by the President of India to become a Member of the parliament, Rajya Sabha.
• She is the youngest recipient of Padma Bhushan in 1992 and Padma Vibhushan in 2003.
• She was the second woman dancer in India to receive such an honour after Balasaraswati.

Additional Information

• Other Awards:
• ​Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 1987
• Kalidas Samman of Madhya Pradesh government, in 2006
• Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowship in 2018.
• Lifetime Achievement Award,  2019
• To mark the completion of her 40 years in dancing in 2002, noted Hindi film director, Prakash Jha made a documentary film on her, titled Sonal, which also won the National Film Award for Best Non-Feature Film for the year.
• Books written by Sonal Mansingh:
• ​Classical Dances
• Draupadi
• Devpriya
• The Penguin Book of Indian Dance

Important Points

The correct answer is Hague.

Key Points

International Court Justice (ICJ):

• ICJ was established in 1945 by the United Nations charter and started working in April 1946.
• It is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations, situated at the Peace Palace in The Hague (Netherlands). Hence, option 2 is correct.
• Unlike the six principal organs of the United Nations, it is the only one not located in New York (USA).
• It settles legal disputes between States and gives advisory opinions in accordance with international law, on legal questions referred to it by authorized United Nations organs and specialized agencies.
• It has 193 state parties and the current President is Joan E. Donoghue.
• The Court is composed of 15 judges, who are elected for terms of office of nine years by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council. These organs vote simultaneously but separately.
• ICJ is assisted by a Registry, its administrative organ. Its official languages are **English and French.**​

Important Points

Additional Information

Indian Judges at the ICJ

• Judge Dalveer Bhandari: Member of the Court since 27 April 2012
• Raghunandan Swarup Pathak: 1989-1991
• Nagendra Singh: 1973-1988
• Sir Benegal Rau: 1952-1953

The correct answer is Arunima Sinha.

Key Points

Arunima Sinha:

• India's Arunima Sinha became the world's first female amputee to climb Mount Everest in 2013.
• The 30-year-old has now become the first female amputee to climb Mount Vinson, the highest peak in Antarctica.
• Apart from Everest, Arunima has also scaled Mount Kilimanjaro in Africa, Elbrus in Europe, Kosciuszko in Australia, Aconcagua in Argentina, and Carstensz Pyramid (Puncak Jaya) in Indonesia before this.
• Arunima, a former national level volleyball player turned mountaineer.
• Arunima, who is from Ambedkar Nagar in Uttar Pradesh lost one of her legs in a horrific incident when she was thrown off the moving Padmawati Express train for resisting a chain-snatching attempt by hooligans in 2011.
• It was after this incident that she decided to become a mountaineer and scale the highest peaks in the world.
• In 2015 Arunima was conferred the Padma Shri, the fourth highest civilian honour in India.
• In the same year, she also received the Tenzing Norgay National Adventure award.

The correct answer is Cycling.

Key Points

Cycling:

• Cycle sport is a competitive physical activity using bicycles.
• There are several categories of bicycle racing including road bicycle racing, cyclo-cross, mountain bike racing, track cycling, BMX, and cycle speedway.
• Non-racing cycling sports include artistic cycling, cycle polo, freestyle BMX, and mountain bike trials.
• Bicycle racing is recognized as an Olympic sport.

Velodrome:

• A velodrome is an arena for track cycling.
• Modern velodromes feature steeply banked oval tracks, consisting of two 180-degree circular bends connected by two straights.
• The straights transition to the circular turn through a moderate easement curve.
• The first velodromes were constructed during the late 1870s, the oldest of which is Preston Park Velodrome, Brighton, United Kingdom, built-in 1877 by the British Army.
• Indoor velodromes were also common, particularly in the late 19^th and early 20^th centuries.

The correct answer is South Korea.

Key Points

• South Korea became the first Asian country to join in North Atlantic Treaty Organization Cooperative Cyber Defence Centre of Excellence.
• South Korea’s National Intelligence Service (NIS) has joined as a contributing participant in the NATO Cooperative Cyber Defence Centre of Excellence.
• Now, the total NATO CCDCOE has 32 countries as its official members which include 27 NATO member countries and 5 five non-NATO states as contributing participants.
• South Korea has participated in the Locked Shields 2022, the largest and most complex annual international live-fire cyber defence exercise in the world.
• It has been participating two years in a row since 2020.
• South Korea joining the CCDCOE **would help it counter the cybersecurity threat perception due to North Korea.**​
• Cooperative Cyber Defence Centre of Excellence was a cyber defence hub founded in Estonia, in 2008 and is focused on cyber-security research, training, and exercises.

Additional Information 

North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO):

• North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) is a military alliance established by the North Atlantic Treaty (also called the Washington Treaty) of April 1949, by the United States, Canada, and several Western European nations to provide collective security against the Soviet Union.
• There are currently 32 member states.
• Headquarters: Brussels, Belgium.
• Headquarters of Allied Command Operations: Mons, Belgium.

Important Points

The correct answer is: compensating 

Key Points

• Let's look at the meaning of the given words
• Countervailing: To compensate for
• Compensating: To be equivalent to
• Argumentative: Having a tendency to disagree or argue
• Crying: Calling for notice
• Complaining: To express grief, pain or discontent
• ​Here, the word that is most similar in meaning to 'Countervailing' is 'Compensating'.
• Thus, option 2 is correct.

​The correct word is: Compensating** 

Additional Information

• Let's look at some of the synonyms of 'Countervailing'
• ​Counteract, equal, match etc.
• Let's look at some of the antonyms of 'Countervailing'​
• ​Approve, validate, permit etc.

The correct answer is: Harmless

Key Points

• Let's look at the meaning of the given words
• ​Innocuous: Producing no injury
• Harmless: Free from harm, liability, or loss
• Abominable: Causing disgust or hatred
• Harmful: Likely to be damaging
• Useless: Having or being of no use
• ​Here, word that is most similar in meaning to 'Innocuous' is 'Harmless'.
• Thus, option 2 is correct.

​The correct word is: Harmless

Additional Information

• Let's look at some of the synonyms of 'Innocuous'
• ​Anodyne, benign, innocent etc.
• Let's look at some of the antonyms of 'Innocuous'
• ​Adverse, bad, baneful etc.

The correct answer is: Clarify

Key Points

• Let's look at the meaning of the given words
• ​Elucidate: To give a clarifying explanation
• Clarify: To make understandable
• Calculate: To solve or probe the meaning of
• Summarize: To tell in or reduce to a summary
• Update: To bring up to date
• ​Here, word that is most similar in meaning to Elucidate is Clarify.
• Thus, option 1 is correct.

​The correct word is: Clarify

Additional Information

• Let's look at the synonyms of 'Elucidate'
• ​Construe, demonstrate, clear up etc.
• Let's look at the antonyms of 'Elucidate'​
• ​Obscure, confuse, befog etc.

The correct answer is: Enraged

Key Points

• Let's look at the meaning of the given words
• Incensed: To arouse the extreme anger
• Enraged: To fill with anger
• Enthused: Feeling enthusiasm
• Inflamed: To excite to excessive or uncontrollable action or feeling
• Excited: Having a heightened state of energy
• Here, the word that is most similar in meaning to Incensed is Enraged.
• Thus, option 2 is correct here.

​The correct word is: Enraged

Additional Information

• Let's look at some synonyms of 'incensed'
• Anger, infuriate, madden etc.
• Let's look at some antonyms of 'incensed'
• ​Delight, gratify, please etc.

The correct answer is: Generous

Key Points

• Let's look at the meaning of the given words
• Munificent: Characterized by great liberality
• Generous: Liberal in giving
• Well to do: Having more than adequate financial resources
• Respectable: Decent or correct in character or behavior
• Learned: Having acquired much knowledge through studies.
• Here, the word that is most similar in meaning to munificent is generous.
• Thus, option 2 is correct here.

​The correct word is: Generous

Additional Information

• Let's look at some of the synonyms of 'Munificent'
• Freehearted, fulsome, liberal etc.
• Let's look at some of the antonyms of 'Munificent'
• ​Illiberal, penurious, costive etc.

The correct answer is: Careful

Key Points

• Let's look at the meaning of the given words
• Slapdash: Done too hurriedly and carelessly
• Careful: Marked by wary caution or attentive concern
• Violent: Use of harmful or destructive physical force
• Pervasive: Spreading through every part of something
• Scarce: Deficient in quantity or number
• Here, the word that is opposite in meaning to slapdash is careful.
• Thus, option 1 is correct.

​The correct word is: Careful

Additional Information

• Let's look at some synonyms of slapdash
• ​Haphazard, slipshod, aimless etc.
• ​ Let's look at some antonyms of slapdash
• ​Organized, regular, orderly etc.

The correct answer is: Polite

Key Points

• Let's look at the meaning of the given words
• Acerbic: Sharply or bitingly critical, sarcastic, or ironic in temper, mood or tone
• Polite: Marked by a lack of roughness or crudities
• The accused: Charged with an offense
• Unpleasant: Not amiable or agreeable
• Improbable: Unlikely to be true or to occur
• Here, the word that is opposite in meaning to 'Acerbic' is polite.
• Thus, option 2 is correct.

​The correct word is: Polite

Additional Information

• Let's look at the synonyms of Acerbic
• Acidic, caustic, mordant etc.
• Let's look at the antonyms of Acerbic
• ​Merry, amusing, good-natured etc.

The correct answer is: Accept

Key Points

• Let's look at the meaning of the given words
• Repudiate: To refuse to accept
• Accept: To receive something willingly
• Prefer: To like better or best
• Unite: To put together to form a single unit
• Explain: To make known
• Here, the word that is opposite in meaning to 'Repudiate' is 'Accept'
• Thus, option 4 is correct

​The correct word is: Accept

Additional Information

• Let's look at some synonyms of 'Repudiate'
• ​Decline, disapprove, refuse etc.
• ​ Let's look at some antonyms of 'Repudiate'
• ​Acknowledge, admit, confirm etc.

The correct answer is: Disagreement

Key Points

• Let's look at the meanings of the given word
• Assent: To agree to or approve of something
• Disagreement: The state of being at variance.
• Breakdown: To cause to fall or collapse by breaking or shattering
• Misunderstand: To fail to understand or to interpret correctly
• Dispatch: To send off or away with promptness or speed
• Here, the word that is opposite in meaning to 'Assent' is 'Disagreement'
• Thus, option 4 is correct here.

The correct word is: Disagreement

Additional Information

• Let's look at some synonyms of 'Assent'
• Consent, agree, accede etc.
• Let's look at some antonyms of 'Assent'
• ​Dissent, reject, deny etc.

The correct answer is: Harmony

Key Points

• Let's look at the meanings of the given words
• ​Rancour: Bitter deep seated ill will
• Harmony: Internal calm
• Animosity: A strong feeling of dislike or hatred
• Devotion: An act of dedicating something to a cause or activity
• Enmity: Positive, active and typically mutual hatred or ill will
• ​Here, the word that is opposite in meaning to 'Rancor' is 'Harmony'
• Thus, option 2 is correct

​The correct word is: Harmony

Additional Information

• Let's look at the synonyms of 'Rancor'
• Animus, antagonism, antipathy etc.
• Let's look at the antonyms of 'Rancor'
• ​Amity, civility, hospitality etc.

The correct answer is: 1 only

Key Points

• Here, we can find the true statements by eliminating the options which are not mentioned in the passage or by understanding the statements that are mentioned in the passage.
• Statement 1 is present in the passage. It can be referred from the lines:  All the bats I have seen fly fairly high, keeping near the ceiling; but this particular bat flies in low, like a dive bomber, zooming in and out of chair legs and under tables.
• Statement 2 is incorrect as the bat flies in low.
• Statement 3 is incorrect as it is not mentioned in the passage that the bat has lost its direction while passing between the person's legs.
• Statement 4 is incorrect as it is nowhere described in the passage that the bat tries to entertain the author.
• Thus, only statement 1 is true. Option 1 is correct

​The correct answer is: The tiny bat flew in low like a dive bomber.

The correct answer is: To eat the moths around the lamps.

Key Points

• It is clearly mentioned in the passage that the bat entered the room to eat the moths around the lamps.
• It can be referred from the lines: His object in entering the house is to snap up the moths that cluster around the lamps.
• Thus, option 2 is correct.

The correct answer is option 2: To eat the moths around the lamps.

The correct answer is: Unable to give the correct explanation for its behavior.

Key Points

• Here, in the passage, it is mentioned that the tiny bat is different from other bats.
• It flies low, even between the author's legs.
• Thus, the author is confused by its behavior.
• It can be referred from the lines: Once he passed straight between my legs. Has his radar gone wrong, I wondered, or is he just plain crazy?
• Thus, option 4 is correct here.

​The correct answer is option 4, Unable to give the correct explanation for its behavior.**

The correct answer is: The bat has peculiar qualities.

Key Points

• In the passage it is mentioned that the tiny bat is different from other bats.
• This difference makes it an "interesting visitor".
• It flies low, unlike the other bats.
• Thus, option 3 becomes correct here.

​The correct answer is option 3, The bat has peculiar qualities.

The correct answer is: My nocturnal visitor.

Key Points

• Here, the bat visits the author at night.
• Nocturnal means Occurring in the night.
• Thus, the bat is a visitor that is visiting the author at night.
• This would perfectly suite the passage as the title.
• Hence, option 3 is correct.

The correct answer is option 3, My nocturnal visitor.

Additional Information

• Here, option 1 would be incorrect as it doesn't specifically mention anything about the visitor. It just says someone visiting the author, which seems incomplete.
• Option 2 is incorrect as there are no mysteries mentioned in the passage.
• Option 4 is incorrect as the visitor is not just a fun character.
• So, option 3 becomes correct here.

The correct answer is: RPSQ 

Key Points

• Here, we have to form a meaningful sentence by rearranging the jumbled parts.
• Since the starting part of the sentence is already given, it becomes easy to find the rest of the sentence.
• The first part to be formed must mention about 'Physical training'
• Thus, R must be the first part as it mentions about what does 'physical training' do.
• The next part will be P, as it mentions about the betterment of 'physical training'.
• Third part must be S, as it mentions the people on which the impact will be.
• The last part will be Q.
• Thus, option 1 is correct.

The correct sentence is: Physical training can shape well the character of young boys and girls who are going to be responsible citizens.

Important Points

• It is important to read the jumbled parts carefully and to join them in sequence to form a meaningful sentence.
• We can also get the sentence by checking the options given.

The correct answer is: PSRQ

Key Points

• Here, we have to form a meaningful sentence by rearranging the jumbled parts.
• Since the starting part of the sentence is already given, it becomes easy to find the rest of the sentence.
• The first part will be P, as it mentions the intention of the old lady, i.e. to sell her precious table.
• The second part will be S, as it mentions the special features of the table.
• The third part is R, as it tells about to whom she must sell it to.
• The last part is Q, describing the peculiarities of the buyer of the table.
• Thus, option 4 is correct.

The correct sentence is: The old lady wanted to sell her precious table with gold coated legs and glossy surface to someone having the capacity to pay a huge amount as its price.

Important Points

• It is important to read the jumbled parts carefully and to join them in sequence to form a meaningful sentence.
• We can also get the sentence by checking the options given.

The correct answer is: QPSR

Key Points 

• The rearranged sentence would be: Not knowing how to cross the broken bridge, they decided to wade through the river.
• The sentence starts with "Not knowing how," indicating their lack of knowledge.
• "To cross the broken bridge" follows, expressing the action they are uncertain about.
• Next, "they decided" comes after the phrase, indicating the decision they will take.
• Finally, "to wade through the river" is placed at the end, indicating their decision.

The correct sentence is: Not knowing how to cross the broken bridge they decided to wade through the river.

Important Points 

• It is important to read the jumbled parts carefully and to join them in sequence to form a meaningful sentence.
• We can also get the sentence by checking the options given.

Mistake Points 

Sequence SRPQ ​cannot be the correct answer because "They decided to wade through the river, not knowing how to cross the broken bridge." this structure is not meaningful or logical.

The correct sequence is 4) QPSR: "Not knowing how to cross the broken bridge, they decided to wade through the river." It gives the cause first, then explains the effect.

The correct answer is: QRPS

Key Points

• Here, we have to form a meaningful sentence by rearranging the jumbled parts.
• Since the starting part of the sentence is already given, it becomes easy to find the rest of the sentence.
• Here, Q will be the first part as it starts with a plural verb 'believe' which succeeds the given plural noun.
• R will be the second part, as it mentions what the educationalists believe, which start with noun 'young children'.
• Third part will be P, as it further mentions the noun young children.
• Last part is S.
• Option 3 is correct here.

The correct sentence is: Some educationists believe that young children should not be exposed to too much television viewing.

Important Points

• It is important to read the jumbled parts carefully and to join them in sequence to form a meaningful sentence.
• We can also get the sentence by checking the options given.

The correct answer is "c".

Key Points

• The sentence "Everybody, it must be admitted, has their ups and downs" contains an error in part (c) regarding agreement in number between the pronoun and the antecedent.
• The antecedent "everybody" is an indefinite pronoun that is always singular, even though it seems to refer to more than one person.
• Therefore, the correct pronoun to refer to "everybody" should also be singular.
• The correct sentence should be: "Everybody, it must be admitted, has his or her ups and downs."
• Hence, the correct answer will be Option 3.

Mistake Points

• Please note that in recent years, it has become more accepted in informal and even some formal writing to use "their" as a singular pronoun, especially as a way to avoid gendered language.
• However, for strict grammatical purposes and in formal writing, it's still often recommended to use "his or her."

The correct answer is: a

Key Points

• Here, part 'a' has an error. In 'a', we don't say 'God sake', rather we say 'God's sake'.
• It is used as an exclamation of anger, surprise, or impatience**.**
• It is also used to add force to a question or request.
• In God's sake, the sake belongs to God, so God should be in the possessive form, i.e. God's.
• Thus, the error lies in part a.

The correct sentence is: Oh for God's sake leave me alone and go away from here.

The correct answer is: c

Key Points

• Here, in part c, we shouldn't use 'that' to refer to the 'noun' mentioned in part a.
• 'That' is used as a 'pronoun' to refer to 'My neighbor Deepak', which is incorrect.
• As to mention about a person's characteristic again in the sentence, we must use 'who' or 'whom'.
• Here, we must use 'who' as it gives additional information about the subject 'My neighbor Deepak'.
• Thus, part c contains an error.

The correct sentence is: My neighbor Deepak is a person who will help anyone.

Additional Information

• 'Who' is used as a pronoun and functions as a subject.
• We must use 'who' when the word or subject is performing the action.

The correct answer is: c

Key Points

• Here, the error lies in part c.
• In part c, "back" is incorrect Omit it.
• When we are conveying something then, we don't have to use the word "back" hence, we need to omit it.
• Example- Please convey my wishes to your daughter

The correct sentence is: Please convey my best wishes to your parents 

Additional Information

• There is a phrase 'back at you' which means:
• Same to you, ditto, likewise, etc.

The correct answer is: d

Key Points

• Here, the sentence contains no errors.
• In part a, 'No news' contains no grammatical errors.
• In part b, the usage of 'is' is correct as news is always singular.
• Part c is also grammatically correct.
• Thus, it becomes clear that the sentence has no errors.

The correct sentence is: No news is good news.

The correct answer is: form

Key Points

• In the sentence given, the underlined part must be substituted by 'form'.
• The article 'a' plays a major role in the above sentence as it determines this substitution.
• Here, the article 'a' in the sentence not only mentions just one train but also every train that arrives.
• Thus, 'have formed' changes to 'form', since the tense changes to simple present to convey the general idea of people forming a queue.
• Also, since 'passengers' is a plural noun, a plural verb follows it.
• Hence, option 3 is correct.

The correct sentence is: The passengers form queue at the booking counter much before a train arrives.

The correct answer is: have been waiting

Key Points

• Here, the underlined part must be substituted by 'have been waiting'.
• Since the villagers continue to wait for hours, and are still waiting, the tense of the sentence must be in present perfect continuous.
• Thus, it must be in the format of have been + verb + ing.
• Also, since 'villagers' is a plural noun, 'have' will follow.
• Hence, option 1 is correct here.

The correct sentence is: The poor villagers have been waiting in bitter cold for more than four hours now.

The correct answer is: No improvement

Key Points

• Here, the given sentence has no grammatical error.
• The second clause of the sentence 'she intends to be one too' is grammatically correct.
• The tense is simple present and singular noun follows singular verb here.
• Thus, it needs no improvement.
• Option 4 is correct here.

The correct answer is: Her sister is a nurse and she intends to be one too.

Additional Information

• The meaning of intend is to have in mind as a purpose or goal.

The correct answer is: such men

Key Points

• "Who" functions as a subject, while "whom" functions as an object.
• Use who when the word is performing the action. Use whom when it is receiving the action.
• Which is used for objects, not living beings.
• Example- Those who haven't passed the will not be able to take part in the programme.

Correct sentence - Those who wear extravagant dresses are often foolish by nature.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is: even if she had 

Key Points

• Here, the sentence is a conditional sentence, i.e. it shows a condition.
• Conditional sentences are also called 'if clauses'.
• It contains the word 'if'.
• So, we have to change the sentence by adding 'if' without changing any other words.
• Thus, option 1 is correct here.

The correct sentence is: Even if she had taken a taxi, she would have been late.

Additional Information

• In conditional sentences, the impact of the main clause is conditional on the dependent clause.

The correct answer is: reduce

Key Points

• Reduce: To diminish in size, amount, extent or number.
• Example: The store decided to reduce the prices of its winter clothing to clear out inventory before spring.
• Here, the correct word to be used is 'reduce'.
• For, shortening a particular quantity (size, amount, number etc.) of any entity, we usually use the word 'reduce'.
• Example: Please reduce the TV volume.
• Thus, option 4 is correct.

The correct sentence is: These trousers are too long, reduce the length please.

Additional Information Let's look at the meaning of the words

• Diminish: To make less or cause to appear less
• Example: The new mayor hopes to diminish crime rates by implementing community policing strategies.
• Lessen: To shrink in size, number, or degree.
• Example: Regular exercise and a healthy diet can lessen the risk of heart disease.
• Curtail: To make less by cutting off.
• Example: Due to budget constraints, the library had to curtail its hours of operation.

The correct answer is: To be honest

Key Points

• Here, the speaker is specifying his/her opinion about the film.
• The speaker must convey his/her honest opinion about the film.
• We can say 'to be honest' before or after a statement to indicate that we are telling the truth about our own opinions or feelings.
• Using 'being honest' here will be inappropriate as it is not used as a comment clause.
• 'To be fair' is used to add something after someone has said something.
• We don't normally say 'in honesty', rather we say 'in all honesty'.
• Thus, it becomes clear that 'to be honest' is the most appropriate word.
• Hence, option 1 is correct.

​The correct sentence is: “What did you think of the film?” “To be honest I didn’t like it very much.”

The correct answer is: There is no objection to his joining the party