Official Paper

Telangana Police SI Prelims 2022 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 180 minutes · with answers · free

Attempt as Timed Mock Test

Full Test (200 questions)

1

A person invested an amount of X at the rate of 18% simple interest per annum and an amount of Y at the rate of 12% simple interest per annum. He received an interest of ₹4,320/- at the end of the year. Had he interchanged the amounts invested, he would have received an interest of ₹4,680/-. Then |X-Y| =

  1. ((a))

    ₹9,500/-

  2. ((b))

    ₹8,000/-

  3. ((c))

    ₹7,500/-

  4. ((d))

    ₹6,000/-

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹9,500/-

2

The ratio of a principal and the total amount with r% simple interest rate on that principal after 1 year is a : b then value of r in terms of a, b is

  1. ((a))

    (b−aa)×100\left(\frac{b-a}{a}\right) \times 100

  2. ((b))

    (b−ab)×100\left(\frac{b-a}{b}\right) \times 100

  3. ((c))

    b−ab+a×100\frac{b-a}{b+a} \times 100

  4. ((d))

    b+ab−a×100\frac{b+a}{b-a} \times 100

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(b−aa)×100\left(\frac{b-a}{a}\right) \times 100

3

A person invested ₹18,000 at the rate of 20% compound interest per annum. Then the interest he gets after completing the duration of two years is

  1. ((a))

    ₹7,920

  2. ((b))

    ₹4,320

  3. ((c))

    ₹6,750

  4. ((d))

    ₹8,670

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹7,920

4

A building of initial value Rs. 31,25,000 depreciates in its value every year at the rate of 4% on its value at the beginning of the year. If Rs. x is the value of the building at the end of 3 years and Rs. y is the value of the land which appreciates at the rate of 5% compoundingly and the value of the land initially is Rs 32,00,000 then y - x =

  1. ((a))

    609700

  2. ((b))

    939600

  3. ((c))

    600000

  4. ((d))

    508900

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

609700

5

If Tn=Tn−1+Tn−2∀,n≥3 and T1=T2=1 then T1+T2+…+T10= ?\text{If } T_n = T_{n-1} + T_{n-2} \quad \forall, n \geq 3 \text{ and } T_1 = T_2 = 1 \text{ then } T_1 + T_2 + \ldots + T_{10} =\ ?

  1. ((a))

    T11+4\quad T_{11} + 4

  2. ((b))

    T12−1\quad T_{12} - 1

  3. ((c))

    T12+1\quad T_{12} + 1

  4. ((d))

    T9+T11\quad T_9 + T_{11}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

T11+4\quad T_{11} + 4

6

Certain amount 'x' is distributed to three persons A, B, C. A gets 25% share of x. Twice the difference of B and C is equal to the share of A. Then the ratio in which A, B, C get the amounts is

  1. ((a))

    26 : 72 : 59

  2. ((b))

    4 : 7 : 5

  3. ((c))

    8 : 13 : 9

  4. ((d))

    2 : 7 : 6

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

26 : 72 : 59

7

The averages of 3 different data D1, D2, D3, are 30, 40, 50 respectively. If the average of D1 and D2 together is 38 and that of D2 and D3 together is 42, then the average of the three data D1, D2 and D3 together is

  1. ((a))

    44.53

  2. ((b))

    42

  3. ((c))

    43.12

  4. ((d))

    40

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

44.53

8

In a police battalion of 600 police, the average height is 150 cm. Later it is discovered that for x policemen heights are copied wrongly as 160 cm instead of 190 cm. By taking the correct heights, the average is increased to 155 cm. Then x =

  1. ((a))

    120

  2. ((b))

    100

  3. ((c))

    180

  4. ((d))

    150

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

120

9

The marked price of a newly arrived article shows an increase of 15% on its cost price. Later this marked price was decreased by 20% as the article is outdated. If the cost price of the article is 1,200 then the profit or loss for the shopkeeper with the current selling price is

  1. ((a))

    5% loss

  2. ((b))

    8% loss

  3. ((c))

    10% gain

  4. ((d))

    7% gain

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5% loss

10

A sum of 5,600 is distributed among 12 people consisting of men, women and children. The ratio of the total amounts given to all men, all women and all children is 9:4:1. But the ratio of the amounts received by each man, woman and child is 3:2:1. Then the amount received by each women is

  1. ((a))

    ₹250

  2. ((b))

    ₹300

  3. ((c))

    ₹400

  4. ((d))

    ₹450

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹250

11

A shopkeeper sells his goods at 30% profit on cost price. Due to an error in weighing machine, it weighs 20% more than what it displays on its screen. Then the profit or loss he gets is

  1. ((a))

    8138 \frac{1}{3} % \text{ profit}

  2. ((b))

    10% Profit

  3. ((c))

    10% loss

  4. ((d))

    8138 \frac{1}{3} % \text{ loss}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8138 \frac{1}{3} % \text{ profit}

12

A Shopkeeper sells an article by offering 24% discount on the marked price and thereby gets a loss of 5%. If he does not offer the discount, then the gain/loss he gets is

  1. ((a))

    20% gain

  2. ((b))

    29% loss

  3. ((c))

    25% gain

  4. ((d))

    21% loss

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20% gain

13

A can complete a piece of work in 18 days and B can complete the same work in 12 days. Both begin the work together but after some days, B leaves the work. If A finishes the remaining work in 3 days, then the number of days B worked is

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    8

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5

14

14 men can do a work in 18 days. 15 women can do the same work in 24 days. If 14 men work for first 3 days and 10 women work after that for 3 days, then the ratio of the time taken by 7 men alone and the time taken by 5 women alone to complete the remaining work is 

  1. ((a))

    2:3

  2. ((b))

    3:4

  3. ((c))

    1:3

  4. ((d))

    1:2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2:3

15

A alone can do a piece of work in 10 days and B alone can do the same work in 15 days. A and B agreed to complete the work for ₹30,000. With the help of C, they completed the work in 5 days. Then the amount to be paid to C is 

  1. ((a))

    13\frac{1}{3} of the amount to be paid to B.

  2. ((b))

    Equal to the amount to be paid to B.

  3. ((c))

    12\frac{1}{2} of the amount to be paid to A.

  4. ((d))

    13\frac{1}{3} of the amount to be paid to A.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

13\frac{1}{3} of the amount to be paid to B.

16

If 221222\frac{1}{2}%% increase of a number is 98, then 221222\frac{1}{2} % decrease of that number is

  1. ((a))

    49

  2. ((b))

    53

  3. ((c))

    62

  4. ((d))

    45

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

49

17

A man started 10 minutes late from his home to his office. He travelled at a speed of 1141\frac{1}{4} times of his usual speed and reached his office in time. Then the time taken by the man to reach his office at his usual speed is (in minutes)

  1. ((a))

    50

  2. ((b))

    60

  3. ((c))

    45

  4. ((d))

    75

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50

18

Two persons P and Q started travelling towards each other at two places A and B respectively at 7 AM. The speeds of P and Q are in the ratio 4:5. Somewhere between A and B they met at C and spent some time together. From C at 8.07 AM P and Q started travelling towards B and A respectively. If P reaches B by 9.12 AM, the time they spent at C together is

  1. ((a))

    12 min

  2. ((b))

    15 min

  3. ((c))

    17 min

  4. ((d))

    20 min

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12 min

19

The time between 7 and 8 O'clock when the minute hand is 5 minutes behind the hour hand is

  1. ((a))

    3021130\frac{2}{11} min. past 7 O'clock

  2. ((b))

    3281132\frac{8}{11} min. past 7 O'clock

  3. ((c))

    4371143\frac{7}{11} min. past 7 O'clock

  4. ((d))

    3131131\frac{3}{11} min. past 7 O'clock

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3021130\frac{2}{11} min. past 7 O'clock

20

If m and n are the number of rotations of hour-hand and minute hand of a clock respectively in 72 hours, then n - m =

  1. ((a))

    66

  2. ((b))

    72

  3. ((c))

    24

  4. ((d))

    56

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

66

21

Three persons X, Y and Z are employed to do a piece of work. X and Y together completed 2125\frac{21}{25}part of the work. Y and Z together completed 825\frac{8}{25}part of the work. If all the 3 agreed to complete the work for ₹3,250, then the amount X receives more than that of Z is

  1. ((a))

    ₹2,210 

  2. ((b))

    ₹520 

  3. ((c))

    ₹1,690

  4. ((d))

    ₹1,170

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹2,210 

22

In 2022 August 15th is on Monday. Then the day of the week on which Republic day will be celebrated in the year 2024 is

  1. ((a))

    Tuesday

  2. ((b))

    Wednesday

  3. ((c))

    Thursday

  4. ((d))

    Friday 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tuesday

23

A person P started a business with ₹5,00,000. After 3 months, another person Q joined P with ₹4,00,000 in the business. At the end of the year, out of the total profit Q received a total of ₹50,000 including 20% of the profit for managing the business. Then the amount P received is 

  1. ((a))

    ₹45,000 

  2. ((b))

    ₹55,000 

  3. ((c))

    ₹60,000 

  4. ((d))

    ₹50,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹45,000 

24

A, B, and C started a business with investments of ₹4,200, ₹8,400, ₹5,400 respectively. At the end of the year they got a profit of ₹6,000 and they reinvested their profits in the business. At the end of next year the ratio in which they get their profits is

  1. ((a))

    7:14:9

  2. ((b))

    8:11:17 

  3. ((c))

    23:54:69

  4. ((d))

    29:56:36 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7:14:9

25

A rectangular plot of dimensions 210 meters x 120 meters is divided into 4 equal parts by two roads each of width 12 meters running in the middle of it, one parallel to the length and the other parallel to the breadth. Then the area of each part is (in Sq. meters)

  1. ((a))

    10,692

  2. ((b))

    6,300 

  3. ((c))

    3,816 

  4. ((d))

    5,346

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10,692

26

For a square, the lengths of its side and diagonal are equal to the diameters of two unequal circles; The ratio of the areas of the smaller circle and larger circle is 

  1. ((a))

    2:3

  2. ((b))

    1:3

  3. ((c))

    1:2

  4. ((d))

    2:5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2:3

27

After 2022, the next immediate calendar year which will be same as 2022 is

  1. ((a))

    2032

  2. ((b))

    2033

  3. ((c))

    2026

  4. ((d))

    2028

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2032

28

A solid cone is melted and with that entire material a sphere is made having volume of 38,808 cm3.If the radius of the cone and sphere are equal, then height of the cone (in centimeters) is

  1. ((a))

    42

  2. ((b))

    25

  3. ((c))

    84

  4. ((d))

    36

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

42

29

Pipe A can fill a tank in 30 minutes and Pipe B can fill it in 45 minutes. But third Pipe C can empty a full tank in 15 minutes. A and B are kept open for 15 minutes in the beginning and then C is also opened. Since then the time required (in minutes) to empty the tank is

  1. ((a))

    15

  2. ((b))

    45

  3. ((c))

    75

  4. ((d))

    90

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15

30

Two inlet pipes A and B working together for 4 hours fill 72 units of water in a tank having capacity 160 units. If A alone can fill the tank in 20 hours, the time taken by B alone to fill the tank is 

  1. ((a))

    25 hours

  2. ((b))

    15hours

  3. ((c))

    21 hours

  4. ((d))

    16 hours

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25 hours

31

Two trains run on parallel tracks at 126 kmph and 108 kmph. When they are running in opposite directions they cross each other completely in 5 seconds and when they are running in the same direction a passenger sitting in the faster train sees that the other train passes completely in 30 seconds. Then the length of the faster train is (in meters)

  1. ((a))

    150

  2. ((b))

    200

  3. ((c))

    175

  4. ((d))

    225

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

150

32

A train of 450 meters long moving with a speed of 65 km/hr crosses a man travelling in some direction of the train in 27 seconds. Then the speed with which the man moving and his direction is

  1. ((a))

    15 kmph; Same direction

  2. ((b))

    15kmph; Opposite direction

  3. ((c))

    5 kmph;Same direction

  4. ((d))

    5 kmph; Opposite direction

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15 kmph; Same direction

33

Two cubes, each of volume 4,096 c.c., are joined to form a cuboid. Then the difference between the surface area of the cuboid and the total surface area of the two cubes is (in sq.cm)

  1. ((a))

    512

  2. ((b))

    256

  3. ((c))

    1,024

  4. ((d))

    1,536

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

512

34

In a mixture of acid and water, if 1 liter of water is added, then the new mixture contains 20% acid. When 1 liter of acid is added to the new mixture, the acid in the resulting mixture is  3313333\frac{1}{33}%. The percentage of acid in the original mixture is

  1. ((a))

    50

  2. ((b))

    ​​2212​​22\frac{1}{2}

  3. ((c))

    25

  4. ((d))

    ​​3712​​37\frac{1}{2}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50

35

The speed of a motor boat in still water is 50 kmph. If the motor boat travels 60 km against the stream in 1 hr 30 minutes, then the time taken by the boat to cover 100 km along the stream is (in minutes)

  1. ((a))

    130

  2. ((b))

    110

  3. ((c))

    135

  4. ((d))

    100

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

130

36

A motor boat travelled to a point B from A and returned to A. The speed of the stream is 3 km/hr. If distance between A and B is 2 km and total time taken for the round trip is 30 minutes, then speed of the motor boat in still water is:

  1. ((a))

    8 km/hr

  2. ((b))

    12 km/hr

  3. ((c))

    9 km/hr

  4. ((d))

    6 km/hr

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8 km/hr

37

In a race of 1200 meters, A can beat B by 120 meters and in a race of 800 meters B can beat C by 40 meters. In a race of 400 meters, by how many meters can A beat C?

  1. ((a))

    58

  2. ((b))

    42

  3. ((c))

    60

  4. ((d))

    54

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

58

38

In three different vessels A, B and C, syrup and water are mixed in the ratios 2:3, 3:5 and 5:7 respectively. If 15 liters of mixture is taken from A, 16 liters from B and x liters from C and mixed, the resulting mixture has syrup and water in the ratio 2:3. Find x=.

  1. ((a))

    24

  2. ((b))

    20

  3. ((c))

    18

  4. ((d))

    17

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

24

39

The present age of A is twice the age of B. 15 years ago, the age of A was thrice the age of B. Then 25 years ago, the age of A was:

  1. ((a))

    7 times the age of B

  2. ((b))

    6 times the age of B

  3. ((c))

    5 times the age of B

  4. ((d))

    4 times the age of B

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7 times the age of B

40

The ratio of ages of Ram and Rahim after 5 years from now is 11:10. The ratio of their ages 4 years ago was 8:7. The ratio of their present ages is:

  1. ((a))

    19:17

  2. ((b))

    1:1

  3. ((c))

    28:25

  4. ((d))

    21:25

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

19:17

41

The cost price of article B is 25% more than article A. Article A and B are marked up by 30% and 20% respectively. A is sold at 10% discount, B at 5% discount. If A’s selling price is ₹51 less than selling price of article B, then what is the cost price of B?

  1. ((a))

    ₹200

  2. ((b))

    ₹250

  3. ((c))

    ₹260

  4. ((d))

    ₹300

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹200

42

The cost price of an article is 64% of its marked price. If the article is sold at 12% discount on the marked price, then profit percent is:

  1. ((a))

    48

  2. ((b))

    28.5

  3. ((c))

    37.5

  4. ((d))

    25

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

48

43

In a 1 km race, A can give B a start of 100 m and C a start of 200 m. If B can give C a 20 m lead in a 200 m race, then time taken by B to run 200 m is:

  1. ((a))

    104\frac{10}{4}min

  2. ((b))

    14\frac{1}{4}min

  3. ((c))

    904\frac{90}{4}min

  4. ((d))

    254\frac{25}{4}min

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

104\frac{10}{4}min

44

A 25-digit number is such that its extreme digits are same and all other 23 digits are same but different from extreme digits. If that number is divisible by 11, then end digit can’t be:

  1. ((a))

    9

  2. ((b))

    8

  3. ((c))

    5

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

9

45

Let G be the GCD of three numbers 3,780, 3,465, and 3,003 and L be the LCM of 3,465 and 3,003. Then L33G\frac{L}{33G} =

  1. ((a))

    65

  2. ((b))

    780

  3. ((c))

    455

  4. ((d))

    429

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

65

46

If the sum of the fractions 121312\frac{1}{3},105610\frac{5}{6} is x and the sum of the fractions 7237\frac{2}{3},1471\frac{4}{7} is y. Then x - y =

  1. ((a))

    141414\frac{1}{4}

  2. ((b))

    13131413\frac{13}{14}

  3. ((c))

    13111413\frac{11}{14}

  4. ((d))

    1431414\frac{3}{14}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

141414\frac{1}{4}

47

If the digit in the unit’s place of the square of an integer is x, then the sum of all possible distinct values of x is:

  1. ((a))

    25

  2. ((b))

    27

  3. ((c))

    28

  4. ((d))

    32

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25

48

(−21973×−1253÷275123)+23=? \left( \sqrt[3]{-2197} \times \sqrt[3]{-125} \div \sqrt[3]{\frac{27}{512}} \right) + \frac{2}{3} = ?

  1. ((a))

    174

  2. ((b))

    1313\sqrt[3]{131}

  3. ((c))

    73\frac{7}{3}

  4. ((d))

    123312\sqrt[3]{3}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

174

49

If x is an integer satisfying the equation 9x2/3 + 9x-2/3 = 82 then √(12 + 2√x):

  1. ((a))

    1+11 1 + \sqrt{11}

  2. ((b))

    3+33 + \sqrt{3}

  3. ((c))

    3+5\sqrt{3} + \sqrt{5}

  4. ((d))

    2+82 + \sqrt{8}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1+11 1 + \sqrt{11}

50

The set of all perfect numbers and twin primes among the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 6 , 7 , 8 , 9 is:

  1. ((a))

    {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 9}

  2. ((b))

    {1,3, 4, 5, 7, 9}

  3. ((c))

    {3, 4, 5, 7, 9}

  4. ((d))

    {3, 5, 6, 7}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 9}

51

Identify the Venn diagram which best represents the relation between triangles, equilateral triangles, right-angled triangles, and isosceles triangles.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

52

A ranks 13th from the top and B ranks 17th from the bottom in a class. If the rank of C is 5 ranks below A and 5 ranks above B, then the number of students in the class is:

  1. ((a))

    39

  2. ((b))

    29

  3. ((c))

    19

  4. ((d))

    30

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

39

53

In the following diagram, if triangle represents Cricket players, circle represents Football players, rectangle represents Hockey players and rhombus represents Tennis players, then the difference between the number of players who can play all the games except Hockey and the number of players who can play all the four games is equal to:

  1. ((a))

    Number of players who can play all the games except Tennis

  2. ((b))

    Number of players who can play only Tennis

  3. ((c))

    Number of players who can play only Hockey

  4. ((d))

    Number of players who can play all the games except Football

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Number of players who can play all the games except Tennis

54

A, B, C, D, E, F are sitting around a circular table in a park. A and F are facing the centre of the table and the remaining are facing the direction opposite to the centre. D is sitting second to the left of B, F is sitting second to the right of A. There is only one person between B and C. Then the person sitting to the immediate right of F is:

  1. ((a))

    D

  2. ((b))

    A

  3. ((c))

    B

  4. ((d))

    C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

D

55

5 persons A, B, C, D, E are sitting at the corners of a square-shaped garden and one is at the center. A is adjacent to C. B, E, D are not on a line. A and D are equidistant from C. A, E, D are not on a line. Then the persons sitting at the corners are:

  1. ((a))

    A, C, D, E

  2. ((b))

    A, B, C, D

  3. ((c))

    B, C, D, E

  4. ((d))

    B, A, D, E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A, C, D, E

56

A goes 500 meters straight from his house. He turns to his left and walks 1 km. He then goes 112\frac{1}{2} km after turning to his right to reach his office. If his office is located in North-East direction from his house, then the direction in which A started moving initially from his house and the shortest distance from his house to his office is:

  1. ((a))

    South-East, 2.8 km

  2. ((b))

    North, 2.8 km

  3. ((c))

    East, √5 km

  4. ((d))

    West, √5 km

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

South-East, 2.8 km

57

6 students S₁, S₂, S₃, S₄, S₅, S₆ wrote an entrance exam. Sum of all marks is 1000. S₃ got more marks than S₄ but less than S₂. S₆ got the least marks. 400 is the highest, 60 is the least marks among these six students. The position of the having the the highest marks is ranked 1st and the student with least marks is ranked 6th. If S₁ got 400 marks, and S₅ is 2nd from last, the average of the last 3 students is 95. Then the total marks of S2 and S₃ is:

  1. ((a))

    225

  2. ((b))

    185

  3. ((c))

    315

  4. ((d))

    200

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

225

58

Each statement is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. Decide which of the arguments is a strong argument and which is a weak argument.

Statement: Should there be blended learning in education system?

Arguments:

I. Yes. This method allows students to work at their own pace, ensuring that they fully understand new concepts.

II. No. Possession of electronic gadgets in classroom and access to social media diverts most of the students from the actual concepts and lessons.

  1. ((a))

    Only I is strong.

  2. ((b))

    Only II is strong.

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II are strong.

  4. ((d))

    Both I and II are weak.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I is strong.

59

Each statement is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. Decide which of the arguments is a strong argument and which is a weak argument.

Statement: Should there be high level of violence in films in the name of entertainment?

Arguments:

I. No. Exposure to high level of violence causes behavioural changes in human attitude particularly in children and youth there by developing criminal thoughts in mind.

II. Yes. When it is crucial for the story, producers have no other other.

  1. ((a))

    Only I is strong.

  2. ((b))

    Only II is strong.

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II are strong.

  4. ((d))

    Both I and II are weak.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I is strong.

60

A Person facing West moves 30 meters towards West and then moves a distance of 80 meters North and later moves 30 meters towards West again. The distance of its final position from the starting point is

  1. ((a))

    90 m

  2. ((b))

    85 m

  3. ((c))

    100 m

  4. ((d))

    105 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

90 m

61

In this question, a statement which is to be taken as true is given and it is followed by two assumptions numbered I & II. Decide which of the assumption (s) is (are) implicit of the statement.

Statement: An instruction on the hall ticket for a competitive examination is "Every candidate has to be in the examination hall before the examination commences. Not even a late by 1 min is allowed."

Assumptions: I. If not mentioned in hall ticket, candidates may come to the exam at any time as per their wish. II. In a competitive examination, every candidate should be given equal chance of writing the exam so as to filter the meritorious students.

  1. ((a))

    Only assumption I is implicit.

  2. ((b))

    Only assumption II is implicit.

  3. ((c))

    Both assumptions I & II are implicit.

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II is implicit.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only assumption I is implicit.

62

In this question, a statement which is to be taken as true is given and it is followed by two assumptions numbered I & II. Decide which of the assumption (s) is (are) implicit of the statement.

Statement: The national education policy brings major changes in the education system.

Assumptions: I. Present education system is not supporting the needs of the nation.

II. Present education system is teacher centric.

  1. ((a))

    Only assumption I is implicit.

  2. ((b))

    Only assumption II is implicit.

  3. ((c))

    Both I & II are implicit.

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II is implicit.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only assumption I is implicit.

63

Directions: In this question a statement is given followed by two conclusions that can be derived from the statement either directly or indirectly or may not be derived. Which conclusion (s) follow (s) from the statement?

Statement: One of the prime ministers of India said, "Wastage of anything is crime. Wastage of food is also crime."

Conclusions: I. The issue of food wastage is of high importance to fight hunger, raise income and improve food security in India. 

II. Food wastage is morally wrong because there are many people who are hungry simply because they have no food

  1. ((a))

    only I follows.

  2. ((b))

    only II follows.

  3. ((c))

    Both I & II follow.

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II follows.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

only I follows.

64

Directions: In this question a statement is given followed by two conclusions that can be derived from the statement either directly or indirectly or may not be derived. Which conclusion (s) follow (s) from the statement?

Statement: Marriages are made in heaven.

Conclusions: I. It is a divine power that ultimately decides who should marry whom.

II. Marriages are made in heaven before the couple even meet on earth.

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows.

  2. ((b))

    Only II follows.

  3. ((c))

    Both I & II follow

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I follows.

65

Directions: Decide whether the data provided in the two statements given under the question is sufficient to answer the question or not. Given option

Is the product xy an irrational number?

Statements:

I. x is an irrational number.

II. y is an irrational number.

  1. ((a))

    if the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question;

  2. ((b))

    if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question;

  3. ((c))

    if the data in both the statements I & II together is sufficient to answer the question;

  4. ((d))

    if the data in both the statements I & II together is not sufficient to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

if the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question;

66

Directions: Decide whether the data provided in the two statements given under the question is sufficient to answer the question or not. Given option

Wha is the perimeter of the circle?

I. The centre (0,0) of the circle is at a distance of 5 units from the point P (3,4)

II. The images of P with respect to both x-axis and y-axis lie on the circle

  1. ((a))

     if the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question;

  2. ((b))

    if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question;

  3. ((c))

     if the data in both the statements I & II together is sufficient to answer the question;

  4. ((d))

    if the data in both the statements I & II together is not sufficient to answer the question.

    What is the perimeter of the circle?

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

 if the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question;

67

Directions: Consider the following information and answer the question given below For the selection of a manager in a company, the following are the conditions to be satisfied.

A Candidate

(a) must be a graduate with a minimum of 60% marks

(b) as on 1 July 2022, must have less than 30 years

(c) must have at least 50% marks in X class

(d) must have a diploma/degree/P.G degree in management

(e) must have minimum 1 year work experience.

In case a Candidate satisfies all the above conditions, except

I.(e) above, he must have 60% and above at X class and P.G degree in management

II. (a) above, he must have minimum 2 years of work experience.

If any information is not known, then such case will be referred to CEO.

Mr. X was born on 15th August 1995, and has graduation and P.G degree in management. He has 1121\frac{1}{2}years of work experience. During his academic career from X standard he got 75%

marks. Then Mr. X

  1. ((a))

    Can be recruited as manager

  2. ((b))

    Can not be recruited since only one condition is not satisfied

  3. ((c))

    Can not be recruited because he does not have minimum 2 years work experience

  4. ((d))

    Will be referred to CEO

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Can be recruited as manager

68

Directions: Consider the following information and answer the question given below

For the selection of a manager in a company, the following are the conditions to be satisfied. A Candidate

I. (a) must be a graduate with a minimum of 60% marks (b) as on 1st July 2022, must have less than 30 years (c) must have at least 50% marks in X class (d) must have a diploma / degree / P.G degree in management (e) must have minimum 1 year work experience. II. In case a Candidate satisfies all the above conditions, except (a) above, he must have 60% and above at X class and P.G degree in management. (b) above, he must have minimum 2 years of work experience. If any information is not known, then such case will be referred to CEO.

Mr. Y was a 1st class student throughout his academic career and completed his 25th birthday on 2nd September 2017. Prior to applying for this post of manager, he worked as assistant manager from 1st July 2018 to 3rd August 2019. He had a diploma in management from IIM. Then Mr. Y

  1. ((a))

    Can be appointed as manager

  2. ((b))

    Can not be appointed as he is above 30 years of age

  3. ((c))

    Can not be appointed as he does not have 2 years work experience

  4. ((d))

    Can be referred to CEO

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Can be appointed as manager

69

Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below. There is a family of 8 members A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H. D is the grand-son of F. G is the son-in-law of C. F is the mother of B. A is the wife of B. H is the daughter of C and mother of D. E is the daughter of A.

Who is the father of D?

  1. ((a))

    C

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    D

  4. ((d))

    G

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

C

70

Assertion (A) : Antibiotics do not treat the Corona infection.

Reason (R) : Corona is a virus; not a bacteria.

Choose the correct option from the following:

  1. ((a))

    (A) is true, (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. ((b))

    (A) is true, (R) is true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

  3. ((c))

    (A) is true but (R) is False

  4. ((d))

    (A) is False but (R) is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A) is true, (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

71

Six persons P₁, P₂, P₃, P₄, P₅ and P₆ live on each floor in a building having six floors numbered from bottom to top. P₃ lives in a floor immediately below the floor of P₁. P₅ lives in the floor immediately below the floor of P₄. Three people live between the floors of P₆ and P₅. P₂ does not live in the top most floor. P₁ does not show interest to live on any floor below the floor of P₄. P₅ and P₆ live on the even numbered floors. Then the persons P₁ and P2 respectively live in the floors.

  1. ((a))

    5 & 1

  2. ((b))

    3 & 5

  3. ((c))

    2 & 5

  4. ((d))

    4 & 5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5 & 1

72

Read the statements and mark the correct answer.

Statement I: The prices of petrol products have increased substantially during the past few months in India.

Statement II: The prices of many goods in India are increasing now-a-days.

These statements may have a cause and effect relationship or may have independent causes or be the effects of independent causes.

  1. ((a))

    I is cause and II is effect

  2. ((b))

    II is cause and I is effect

  3. ((c))

    I, II are effects of independent causes

  4. ((d))

    I, II are causes of independent effects

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I is cause and II is effect

73

If the English alphabet is coded with numbers from 1 to 26 starting from the last letter to the first letter. A meaningful word is hidden in the codes given in the following options. That code is

  1. ((a))

    8-18-22-14-11-15

  2. ((b))

    11-12-13-23-2-26

  3. ((c))

    8-7-9-14-22-26

  4. ((d))

    8-18-14-11-15-22

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8-18-22-14-11-15

74

Assertion (A) : Now-a-days, knee pain is a common complaint. Knee replacement is a boon for such sufferers.

Reason (R) : Necessity is the mother of invention.

Choose the correct option from the following:

  1. ((a))

    (A) is true, (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. ((b))

    (A) is true, (R) is true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

  3. ((c))

    (A) is true but (R) is False

  4. ((d))

    (A) is False but (R) is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A) is true, (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

75

In a code language, 'Mathematics improves Reasoning' is coded as 'du mu vu'; 'Reasoning improves logical thinking' is coded as 'vu lu du ya' and 'Logical thinking improves common sense' is coded as 'ma ya du lu ta' then in the same code language 'Mathematics improves logical thinking' is coded as

  1. ((a))

    vu lu mu ya

  2. ((b))

    ta ya mu lu

  3. ((c))

    du mu ya lu

  4. ((d))

    mu ya du vu

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

vu lu mu ya

76

In a certain code "Write exam well" is written as "lm rs ok", "All is well" is written as "ek jp pm", "Exam is easy" is written as "rs jp wk". Then using this code "All write exam well" is written as

  1. ((a))

    ek rs jp pm

  2. ((b))

    ek rs lm pm

  3. ((c))

    wk jp rs pm

  4. ((d))

    ek rs jp wk

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ek rs jp pm

77

Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

CX, FU, ____, LO

  1. ((a))

    HS

  2. ((b))

    JR

  3. ((c))

    IQ

  4. ((d))

    IR

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

HS

78

The letters of the English alphabet are coded as follows: kth letter of the alphabet is coded as

(i) (k+17)th letter when 1 ≤ k ≤ 9

(ii) (k-1)th letter when 10 ≤ k ≤ 18

(iii) (k-18)th letter when 19 ≤ k ≤ 26

For decoding reverse process is used. The word that is coded as GAURD is

  1. ((a))

    YRCQU

  2. ((b))

    YSDAV

  3. ((c))

    XRDPV

  4. ((d))

    YSDNA

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

YRCQU

79

What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following alpha-numeric series?

B3E, C5G, E7K, G11M, ?

  1. ((a))

    M15Q

  2. ((b))

    K13O

  3. ((c))

    K13Q

  4. ((d))

    K15S

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

M15Q

80

Choose the correct option which contains the letters that are to be placed in order in the blank spaces to have a complete series.

Z _ T _ N K H _ B

  1. ((a))

    X, R, E

  2. ((b))

    W, R, E

  3. ((c))

    W, Q, E

  4. ((d))

    X, Q, E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

X, R, E

81

Pointing to a man in the photograph, A said, "His daughter's mother is the daughter-in-law of my father". How is A related to the man?

  1. ((a))

    Sister-in-law

  2. ((b))

    Brother-in-law

  3. ((c))

    Spouse

  4. ((d))

    Sibling

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sister-in-law

82

A is only daughter of B, C is husband of B, D is father of C and E is wife of D, then A is related to E as

  1. ((a))

    Grand Son

  2. ((b))

    Daughter-in-law

  3. ((c))

    Uncle

  4. ((d))

    Grand Daughter

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Grand Son

83

If 'B' means '÷', 'D' means '×', 'Q' means '+' and 'R' means '-' then 23Q19R24B2D3=

  1. ((a))

    22

  2. ((b))

    6

  3. ((c))

    12

  4. ((d))

    17

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

22

84

The symbols used to represent  </,\ {<}\llap{/,}, ≠, >/,{>}\llap{/,}, >, < and = are respectively A, B, C, D and F. Consider the statements PAQ, QFR and SER. The correct implications from given statements are

  1. ((a))

    PDS, RCP

  2. ((b))

    PES, RBF

  3. ((c))

    RBQ, PFS

  4. ((d))

    PAS, PCR

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

PDS, RCP

85

A series of fractions that follow a definite pattern is given below. Fill the blank space by the correct answer from the given 4 options to complete the series without breaking the pattern.

12,85,2710,6417\frac{1}{2},\frac{8}{5},\frac{27}{10},\frac{64}{17}____21637\frac{216}{37}

  1. ((a))

    12526 \frac{125}{26}

  2. ((b))

    8123\frac{81}{23}

  3. ((c))

    1253\frac{125}{3}

  4. ((d))

    12136\frac{121}{36}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12526 \frac{125}{26}

86

Choose a term which bears the same relationship with the third term as the first two terms bear.

Stag : Hind :: Ram : ?

  1. ((a))

    Ewe

  2. ((b))

    Hart

  3. ((c))

    Earl

  4. ((d))

    Heifer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ewe

87

Choose a term which bears the same relationship with the third term as the first two terms bear.

OPQ : PRT :: FGH : ?

  1. ((a))

    GIR

  2. ((b))

    GIL

  3. ((c))

    GIK

  4. ((d))

    EDC

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

GIR

88

Select the related number from the given alternatives.

444 : 21 :: 964 : ?

  1. ((a))

    31

  2. ((b))

    41

  3. ((c))

    24

  4. ((d))

    29

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

31

89

Four pairs of words are given in the options below in which three pairs are alike in a certain way and one is odd (different). Choose the odd pair.

  1. ((a))

    Short : long

  2. ((b))

    Light : Heavy

  3. ((c))

    Crime : Blame

  4. ((d))

    Poor : Rich

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Short : long

90

Among the given numbers 131, 151, 161, 181, 191, one is different from the others in one way. It is:

  1. ((a))

    131

  2. ((b))

    181

  3. ((c))

    161

  4. ((d))

    191

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

131

91

Choose the odd one out of the four options given below.

  1. ((a))

    V21T

  2. ((b))

    N15L

  3. ((c))

    I8G

  4. ((d))

    E4C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

V21T

92

Choose the odd one out of the four options given below.

  1. ((a))

    Earth

  2. ((b))

    Water

  3. ((c))

    Fire

  4. ((d))

    Environment

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Earth

93

Choose the correct option whose group numbers follow the same pattern as that of the pattern in two groups of numbers given in the question.

11 : 121 : 110 :: 15 : 225 : 210 ::

  1. ((a))

    9:81:70

  2. ((b))

    19:361:342

  3. ((c))

    17:288:272

  4. ((d))

    16:225:239

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

9:81:70

94

If a cuboid of length 81 cm, breadth 27 cm, and height 9 cm is cut into 729 smaller identical cubes, then the length of the edge of each smaller cube is:

  1. ((a))

    1 cm

  2. ((b))

    3 cm

  3. ((c))

    9 cm

  4. ((d))

    27 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 cm

95

A solid cube of 4-inch edges has been painted with red, green, and yellow colors such that each color appears on a pair of opposite faces. It has been cut into one-inch cubes. The number of small one-inch cubes that have only one face painted with red color is:

  1. ((a))

    16

  2. ((b))

    24

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    32

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

16

96

Select the pair from the options that has a relationship similar to that in the pair labelled (A).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

97

All the faces of a cube are labeled with I, II, III, IV, V, VI, one on each. The 3 positions of a cube are shown below. The face opposite to the face containing I contains:

  1. ((a))

    VI

  2. ((b))

    IV

  3. ((c))

    II

  4. ((d))

    V

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

VI

98

Figure (A) is given below. One part of this figure is missing. Choose the missing part from the given four options.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

99

The total number of squares in the figure given below is:

  1. ((a))

    32

  2. ((b))

    42

  3. ((c))

    35

  4. ((d))

    45

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

32

100

In the question figure, assume a mirror is placed on the line MN, then the option among the answer figure that shows the correct image is:

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

101

___ is expected to host the summit meeting of Shanghai Cooperation Organization in 2023.

  1. ((a))

    China

  2. ((b))

    India

  3. ((c))

    Kazakhstan

  4. ((d))

    Russia

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

China

102

The Election commission has announced polls for ___ Rajya sabha seats that fell vacant between June and August 2022.

  1. ((a))

    47

  2. ((b))

    52

  3. ((c))

    57

  4. ((d))

    62

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

47

103

___ measures output in sectors like electricity, mining, and manufacturing.

  1. ((a))

    Gross domestic product

  2. ((b))

    Index of industrial production

  3. ((c))

    Current account balance

  4. ((d))

    Fiscal surplus / deficit

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gross domestic product

104

As the American automobile company Ford exits India, its manufacturing unit in Gujarat has been taken over by ___.

  1. ((a))

    Mahindra

  2. ((b))

    Suzuki

  3. ((c))

    Tata

  4. ((d))

    Hyundai

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mahindra

105

Recently, the International Labour Organization (ILO) directed that there should be no barriers to people with different sexual orientations. They should be described as:_______

  1. ((a))

    LGTBIPQ Peoples

  2. ((b))

    Hijras

  3. ((c))

    Gay People

  4. ((d))

    Trans genders

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

LGTBIPQ Peoples

106

The Indian army plans to create an integrated battle group combining strike formation on northern border and ___.

  1. ((a))

    Hold formation on western border

  2. ((b))

    Push formation on northern border

  3. ((c))

    Hold formation on northern border

  4. ((d))

    Strike formation on western border

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hold formation on western border

107

The Southwest monsoon sets in first in ___ state.

  1. ((a))

    Tamil Nadu

  2. ((b))

    Kerala

  3. ((c))

    Karnataka

  4. ((d))

    Maharashtra

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tamil Nadu

108

The Supreme Court of India suspended ___ covering sedition.

  1. ((a))

    Section 120(B) of IPC

  2. ((b))

    Section 124(A) of IPC

  3. ((c))

    Section 128 of IPC

  4. ((d))

    Section 132 of IPC

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Section 120(B) of IPC

109

TSRTC filed a ___ case against Rapido organization over an advertisement.

  1. ((a))

    Defamation

  2. ((b))

    Copyright

  3. ((c))

    Cheating

  4. ((d))

    Conspiracy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Defamation

110

Russia has overtaken which country to become India’s second biggest supplier of oil?(2022)

  1. ((a))

    Qatar

  2. ((b))

    Iran

  3. ((c))

    Saudi Arabia

  4. ((d))

    Ukraine

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Qatar

111

Which country became the 4th new member of the New Development Bank in 2021?

  1. ((a))

    Bangladesh

  2. ((b))

    Myanmar

  3. ((c))

    Uruguay

  4. ((d))

    Egypt

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bangladesh

112

The Human Development Index is an indication of ___

  1. ((a))

    Income, Health, Education

  2. ((b))

    Income, Health, Trade

  3. ((c))

    Health, Education, Nutrition

  4. ((d))

    Income, Health, Imports

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Income, Health, Education

113

Cyclone Asani, which formed in the month of May 2022, affected ___ state.

  1. ((a))

    Andhra Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Tamil Nadu

  3. ((c))

    Kerala

  4. ((d))

    Karnataka

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Andhra Pradesh

114

All the countries of ___ continent are members of G-77.

  1. ((a))

    Africa

  2. ((b))

    Asia

  3. ((c))

    Europe

  4. ((d))

    South America

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Africa

115

Thomson Reuters is ___

  1. ((a))

    Canada based

  2. ((b))

    UK based

  3. ((c))

    USA based

  4. ((d))

    Australia based

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Canada based

116

The Kruger National Park is in ___

  1. ((a))

    Greece

  2. ((b))

    Russia

  3. ((c))

    South Africa

  4. ((d))

    Singapore

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Greece

117

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:

List - I (Kingdom)List - II (Rulers)
a) Vatsa(i) Udayana
b) Avanti(ii) Prasenajit
c) Kosala(iii) Sishupala
d) Chedi(iv) Pradyota
  1. ((a))

    (a) - (i) , (b) - (ii) , (c) - (iii) , (d) - (iv)

  2. ((b))

    (a) - (i) , (b) - (ii) , (c) - (iv) , (d) - (iii)

  3. ((c))

    (a) - (ii) , (b) - (iii) , (c) - (iv) , (d) - (i)

  4. ((d))

    (a) - (iv) , (b) - (ii) , (c) - (iii) , (d) - (i)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(a) - (i) , (b) - (ii) , (c) - (iii) , (d) - (iv)

118

What is the expansion of NASA?

  1. ((a))

    National Agency of Space Administration

  2. ((b))

    National Aeronautics and Space Administration

  3. ((c))

    National Air and Space Agency

  4. ((d))

    Navigational, Aeronautical & Space Agency

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

National Agency of Space Administration

119

Which one of the following statements is not correct about Ashoka and Mauryas?

  1. ((a))

    Dhamma-Mahamatras were a new cadre of officials created by Ashoka to spread Dhamma all over the empire.

  2. ((b))

    According to Mauryan sources, Pradeshika, Rajuka, and Yukta were important officers at the district level.

  3. ((c))

    Pativedaka and Pulasani were responsible for maintenance of Treasury and accounts.

  4. ((d))

    According to Dipavamsa and Mahavamsa, Ashoka killed 99 of his brothers and succeeded to the throne.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dhamma-Mahamatras were a new cadre of officials created by Ashoka to spread Dhamma all over the empire.

120

Who among the following composed the Mandasor Inscription?

  1. ((a))

    Vatsabhatti

  2. ((b))

    Chitradatta

  3. ((c))

    Parnadatta

  4. ((d))

    Chakra Palita

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vatsabhatti

121

Which one of the following statements is not correct about Jainism?

  1. ((a))

    According to Jaina tradition, at the time of Mahabharata war, Jaina order led by Neminatha, who is recognized as the twenty-second Tirthankara.

  2. ((b))

    Jaina monks were found on the banks of Sindhu river at the time of Alexander’s invasion of India.

  3. ((c))

    The famous Gomateshwara statue was erected at Sravanabelgola by Chamundaraya, the king of Gangas in the 11th century.

  4. ((d))

    Mahaveera preached in the mixed dialect called Ardha-Magadi, and his teachings were classified into twelve books called ‘Srutangas’.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

According to Jaina tradition, at the time of Mahabharata war, Jaina order led by Neminatha, who is recognized as the twenty-second Tirthankara.

122

Assertion (A): Balban could not raise the numerical strength of the army to the level which it reached later at the time of Allauddin Khilji.

Reason (R): Balban insisted upon high birth as an essential qualification for appointments to higher civil and military posts.

Choose the correct option from the following:

  1. ((a))

    (A) is true, (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. ((b))

    (A) is true, (R) is true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

  3. ((c))

    (A) is true but (R) is false

  4. ((d))

    (A) is false but (R) is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A) is true, (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

123

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer.

List - I (Texts)List - II (Authors)
(a) Kumarapalacharita(i) Chandbardai
(b) Vikaramankadevacharitra(ii) Kalhana
(c) Rajatarangini(iii) Bilhana
(d) Pruthviraj Raso(iv) Hemachandra
  1. ((a))

    (a) - (i) , (b) - (ii) , (c) - (iii) , (d) - (iv)

  2. ((b))

    (a) - (ii) , (b) - (i) , (c) - (iv) , (d) - (iii)

  3. ((c))

    (a) - (iv) , (b) - (iii) , (c) - (ii) , (d) - (i)

  4. ((d))

    (a) - (iii) , (b) - (iv) , (c) - (ii) , (d) - (i)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(a) - (i) , (b) - (ii) , (c) - (iii) , (d) - (iv)

124

Match the following:

List - I (Dynasties)List - II (Kingdoms)
(a) Nizam Shahis(i) Bidar
(b) Imad Shahis(ii) Golkonda
(c) Adil Shahis(iii) Berar
(d) Qutub Shahis(iv) Ahmednagar
(e) Barid Shahis(v) Bijapur
  1. ((a))

    (a) - (iii) , (b) - (i) , (c) - (iv) , (d) - (ii) , (e) - (v)

  2. ((b))

    (a) - (i) , (b) - (iii) , (c) - (iv) , (d) - (ii) , (e) - (v)

  3. ((c))

    (a) - (v) , (b) - (iv) , (c) - (iii) , (d) - (ii) , (e) - (i)

  4. ((d))

    (a) - (iv) , (b) - (iii) , (c) - (v) , (d) - (ii) , (e) - (i)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(a) - (iii) , (b) - (i) , (c) - (iv) , (d) - (ii) , (e) - (v)

125

Which one of the following statements is not correct about Bahamani Kingdom?

  1. ((a))

    Bahamani Sultanate was founded by Allauddin Hasan Bahaman Shah in the year 1327 A.D.

  2. ((b))

    Among all the Bahamani rulers, Shihab-uddin-Mahmud’s was the longest rule.

  3. ((c))

    Mahmud Gawan was appointed as Prime Minister of Bahamani Kingdom at the time of Muhammad Shah III.

  4. ((d))

    Kalamullah Shah was the last ruler of Bahamani Kingdom.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bahamani Sultanate was founded by Allauddin Hasan Bahaman Shah in the year 1327 A.D.

126

Name the Afghan who played an important role in forming Rajput confederacy against Babur at the Battle of Khanwa in 1527.

  1. ((a))

    Alam Khan of Kalpi

  2. ((b))

    Hasan Khan Mewati

  3. ((c))

    Nizam Khan of Bayana

  4. ((d))

    Tatar Khan Sarangkhan of Gwalior

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Alam Khan of Kalpi

127

Which one of the following statements is not correct about Shivaji Coronation Ceremony?

  1. ((a))

    It was conducted by ‘Vishweshwar’, a Pundit from Benaras.

  2. ((b))

    Balam Bhatta was a family priest of Shivaji.

  3. ((c))

    On 10th June 1674, Shivaji re-married his four surviving wives according to Kshatriya rites.

  4. ((d))

    Shivaji was obliged to undergo a second coronation ceremony on the suggestion of a well-known tantric priest, Nishchal Puri Goswami.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It was conducted by ‘Vishweshwar’, a Pundit from Benaras.

128

Arrange the following Bhakti leaders according to their year of Birth.

(a) Sant Tukaram

(b) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu

(c) Guru Nanak

(d) Kabir

  1. ((a))

    (a) (b) (c) (d)

  2. ((b))

    (b) (d) (c) (a)

  3. ((c))

    (c) (a) (d) (b)

  4. ((d))

    (d) (c) (b) (a)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(a) (b) (c) (d)

129

Which one of the following statements is not correct about Raja Ram Mohan Roy?

  1. ((a))

    He condemned the idol worship and Brahmanical rituals.

  2. ((b))

    He propagated Monotheism and stated that religion and divine worship were personal matters of an individual and unjustly controlled by priests.

  3. ((c))

    To support his arguments, he depended upon Vedic and Puranic Literature.

  4. ((d))

    He wrote a pamphlet ‘Anusthan’ prescribing the mode of worship to be followed in the Samaj.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

He condemned the idol worship and Brahmanical rituals.

130

Which one of the following statements is not correct about Portuguese presence in India?

  1. ((a))

    In 1498, Vasco-da-Gama reached Calicut on the Malabar coast where he was received cordially by the Hindu Raja Zamorin.

  2. ((b))

    Francisco de Almeida, the first governor of the Portuguese in India, followed a policy known as Blue Water Policy.

  3. ((c))

    Portuguese conquered Goa from Mysore rulers in 1510 and made it their capital.

  4. ((d))

    Alfonso de Albuquerque was the second Governor of Portuguese in India who tried to introduce reforms in the Hindu society by legally abolishing Sati.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

In 1498, Vasco-da-Gama reached Calicut on the Malabar coast where he was received cordially by the Hindu Raja Zamorin.

131

Arrange the following Political Associations chronologically based on their inception.

(a) Indian Association

(b) Poona Sarvajanik Sabha

(c) Madras Mahajana Sabha

(d) Bombay Presidency Association

  1. ((a))

    (a) (b) (c) (d)

  2. ((b))

    (b) (a) (c) (d)

  3. ((c))

    (c) (d) (b) (a)

  4. ((d))

    (d) (c) (a) (b)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(a) (b) (c) (d)

132

Who among the following is not associated with defense of the ‘Indian National Army’ prisoners in the Year 1945–46?

  1. ((a))

    Bhulabhai Desai

  2. ((b))

    Jawaharlal Nehru

  3. ((c))

    Mahadev Desai

  4. ((d))

    Asaf Ali

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bhulabhai Desai

133

Arrange the following important events chronologically based on the Muslim separatist politics.

(1) Deliverance Day

(2) Lucknow Pact

(3) Direct Action Day

(4) Establishment of ‘All India Muslim League

  1. ((a))

    (d) (a) (b) (c)

  2. ((b))

    (d) (b) (a) (c)

  3. ((c))

    (d) (b) (c) (a)

  4. ((d))

    (d) (c) (b) (a)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(d) (a) (b) (c)

134

Which one of the following opinions on the nature of 1857 Mutiny is not correct?

  1. ((a))

    John Seeley: “The Revolt of 1857 was a wholly unpatriotic and selfish sepoy mutiny with no native leadership and no popular support.”

  2. ((b))

    James Outram & W. Tayler: “The outbreak of 1857 mutiny as a result of Hindu-Muslim conspiracy.”

  3. ((c))

    R.C. Majumdar: “1857 Sepoy mutiny was not a war of Independence. There is nothing in the conduct or behaviour of the sepoys which would justify us in the belief or assumption, that they were inspired by love for their country or fought against the British with the definite idea of freeing their motherland.”

  4. ((d))

    William Darlymple: “It is a conflict between civilization and Barbarism.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

John Seeley: “The Revolt of 1857 was a wholly unpatriotic and selfish sepoy mutiny with no native leadership and no popular support.”

135

Tropical monsoon forests are normally:

  1. ((a))

    Evergreen forests

  2. ((b))

    Deciduous forests

  3. ((c))

    Temperate forests

  4. ((d))

    Mangrove forests

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Evergreen forests

136

The predominant vegetation of hot deserts is:

  1. ((a))

    Xerophytes

  2. ((b))

    Mosophytes

  3. ((c))

    Hygrophytes

  4. ((d))

    Hydrophytes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Xerophytes

137

The hot & dry wind which originates in Sahara is:

  1. ((a))

    Sirocco

  2. ((b))

    Leveche

  3. ((c))

    Chili

  4. ((d))

    Loo

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sirocco

138

The Mediterranean lands are also known as:

  1. ((a))

    Orchard lands

  2. ((b))

    Dry grass lands

  3. ((c))

    Evergreen lands

  4. ((d))

    Nomadic lands

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Orchard lands

139

The planet that takes 88 days to make one revolution of the sun is:

  1. ((a))

    Jupiter

  2. ((b))

    Mars

  3. ((c))

    Mercury

  4. ((d))

    Saturn

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jupiter

140

Which one of the following is the source region for the formation of air masses?

  1. ((a))

    The Himalayas

  2. ((b))

    The Equatorial forest

  3. ((c))

    The Deccan plateau

  4. ((d))

    The Siberian plain

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Himalayas

141

Sub-tropical high pressure belts are also referred as:

  1. ((a))

    Doldrums

  2. ((b))

    Wind convergence

  3. ((c))

    Horse latitudes

  4. ((d))

    Frontal rains

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Doldrums

142

Which is the largest Physiographic division of India?

  1. ((a))

    Greater Himalayas

  2. ((b))

    Greater Northern plains

  3. ((c))

    Greater Indian plateau

  4. ((d))

    The Coastal plains

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Greater Himalayas

143

In India, Multi Mode Transport System (MMTS) was started on the:

  1. ((a))

    9th July 2003

  2. ((b))

    9th August 2003

  3. ((c))

    9th September 2003

  4. ((d))

    9th October 2003

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

9th July 2003

144

Karewa Soil is known for the cultivation of:

  1. ((a))

    Citrus Fruits

  2. ((b))

    Floriculture

  3. ((c))

    Coarse grains

  4. ((d))

    Saffron

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Citrus Fruits

145

Namchik Coal Mine is situated on:

  1. ((a))

    Meghalaya

  2. ((b))

    Assam

  3. ((c))

    Arunachal Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Tripura

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Meghalaya

146

The Konkan Railway transportation was started on:

  1. ((a))

    15th August 1996

  2. ((b))

    15th August 1997

  3. ((c))

    15th August 1998

  4. ((d))

    15th August 1999

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15th August 1996

147

The boundary between India and Pakistan is an example of:

  1. ((a))

    Superimposed boundary

  2. ((b))

    Subsequent boundary

  3. ((c))

    Antecedent boundary

  4. ((d))

    Relict boundary

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Superimposed boundary

148

Which one of the following is the most urbanized state in India?

  1. ((a))

    Punjab

  2. ((b))

    Gujarat

  3. ((c))

    Karnataka

  4. ((d))

    Tamil Nadu

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Punjab

149

Centre for Arid Zone Research Institute is located at

  1. ((a))

    Bangalore

  2. ((b))

    Ranchi

  3. ((c))

    Jodhpur

  4. ((d))

    Jaipur

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bangalore

150

Which one of the following state has the lowest Human Development Index ?

  1. ((a))

    Bihar

  2. ((b))

    Haryana

  3. ((c))

    Himachal Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Punjab

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bihar

151

Which part of the Constitution deals with Amendments?

  1. ((a))

    XXI

  2. ((b))

    XXII

  3. ((c))

    XX

  4. ((d))

    IX

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

XXI

152

Equal justice and free legal aid are parts of

  1. ((a))

    Directive Principles of State Policy

  2. ((b))

    Fundamental Rights

  3. ((c))

    Fundamental Duties

  4. ((d))

    Citizenship

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Directive Principles of State Policy

153

Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

Pass                       State/UT

(1) Lanak la              Ladakh

(2) Bomdila              Uttarakhand

(3) Manapass          Uttarakhand

(4) Shipkila              Himachal Pradesh

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

154

"The citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of livelihood" was mentioned in

  1. ((a))

    Directive Principles of State Policy

  2. ((b))

    Centre-State Relations

  3. ((c))

    Federal Policy

  4. ((d))

    Fundamental Duties

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Directive Principles of State Policy

155

Parliament means

  1. ((a))

    The Lok Sabha

  2. ((b))

    The Rajya Sabha

  3. ((c))

    The President

  4. ((d))

    All the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Lok Sabha

156

A body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village comprised within the area of panchayat at the village level" is called

  1. ((a))

    District

  2. ((b))

    Gram Sabha

  3. ((c))

    Panchayat Area

  4. ((d))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

District

157

In the format of Party competition, which model is currently working in India ?

  1. ((a))

    One Party dominance

  2. ((b))

    Bipolar competition

  3. ((c))

    Two-plus competition

  4. ((d))

    Multiparty competition

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One Party dominance

158

The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such a manner as the state may, by law, determine" is part of

  1. ((a))

    Right to Equality

  2. ((b))

    Right against Exploitation

  3. ((c))

    Right to Freedom of Religion

  4. ((d))

    Right to Freedom

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Right to Equality

159

Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana" is part of

  1. ((a))

    Ministry of Rural Development

  2. ((b))

    Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

  3. ((c))

    Ministry of Communication

  4. ((d))

    Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ministry of Rural Development

160

During which five-year plan was phase of heavy industrialization initiated ?

  1. ((a))

    Second Five-Year Plan

  2. ((b))

    First Five-Year Plan

  3. ((c))

    Third Five-Year Plan

  4. ((d))

    Sixth Five-Year Plan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Second Five-Year Plan

161

Which sector does contribute the most to Indian Economy?

  1. ((a))

    Service sector

  2. ((b))

    Manufacturing sector

  3. ((c))

    Agricultural sector

  4. ((d))

    Small Scale Industrial sector

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Service sector

162

Which type of unemployment has the marginal productivity of the workers is zero?

  1. ((a))

    Seasonal unemployment.

  2. ((b))

    Involuntary unemployment.

  3. ((c))

    Disguised unemployment.

  4. ((d))

    Structural unemployment.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Seasonal unemployment.

163

Identify the Non-Constitutional Body.

  1. ((a))

    National Human Rights Commission

  2. ((b))

    Election Commission of India

  3. ((c))

    National Commission for SCs

  4. ((d))

    National Commission for STs

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

National Human Rights Commission

164

What is meant by Monetary Policy ?

  1. ((a))

    The process by which the Parliament controls the money supply

  2. ((b))

    The process by which Central Bank of a country controls the supply of Money

  3. ((c))

    The process by which IMF controls the Money supply

  4. ((d))

    The process by which World Bank controls the money supply

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The process by which the Parliament controls the money supply

165

If the Balance of Payments of a country is adverse, then which institution will help that country?

  1. ((a))

    World Bank

  2. ((b))

    WTO

  3. ((c))

    IMF

  4. ((d))

    Asian Development Bank

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

World Bank

166

Which of the following are called the Twins of Bretton Woods?

  1. ((a))

    IMF & IBRD

  2. ((b))

    IMF & WTO

  3. ((c))

    IBRD & WHO

  4. ((d))

    ADB & WHO

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

IMF & IBRD

167

Who was the founder of 'Hyderabad Protection Samithi'?

  1. ((a))

    Boorgula Narsing Rao

  2. ((b))

    Hayagreevachari

  3. ((c))

    Ramachary

  4. ((d))

    Mandumula Narsinga Rao

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Boorgula Narsing Rao

168

The Gentle men's agreement at Delhi was signed on:

  1. ((a))

    16th February, 1956

  2. ((b))

    18th February, 1956

  3. ((c))

    19th February, 1956

  4. ((d))

    20th February, 1956

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

16th February, 1956

169

When was the first Industrial Policy of India launched ?

  1. ((a))

    1956

  2. ((b))

    1948

  3. ((c))

    1951 

  4. ((d))

    1965

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1956

170

Who organized democratic Telangana conference in December, 1997 in the banner of 'All India People Resistance Forum'?

  1. ((a))

    Marrichenna Reddy

  2. ((b))

    K. Jaya Shankar

  3. ((c))

    Kaloji Narayan Rao

  4. ((d))

    Veda Kumar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Marrichenna Reddy

171

Identify the commission appointed by Telugu Desham government in June, 2001

  1. ((a))

    Bhargava Commission

  2. ((b))

    J.M. Girglani Commission

  3. ((c))

    Non-Mulki Protection Commission

  4. ((d))

    Telangana Mulki Commission

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bhargava Commission

172

What is the historical importance of the day 27th April, 2001 in the Final phase of Telangana Movement ?

  1. ((a))

    Formation of Telangana Elites Forum

  2. ((b))

    Foundation Telangana Jana Sabha

  3. ((c))

    'Bongiri' Declaration

  4. ((d))

    Foundation of Telangana Rastriya Samithi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Formation of Telangana Elites Forum

173

'Nizam Subjects League' was founded by few educated elites of Hyderabad state in the year.

  1. ((a))

    1929

  2. ((b))

    1930

  3. ((c))

    1932

  4. ((d))

    1934

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1929

174

Who was the 'Home Minister of India' on the historic occasion of signing of 'Gentlemen's Agreement' by Andhra & Telangana leaders in1956?

  1. ((a))

    Sardar Patel

  2. ((b))

    Govind Vallabh Pant

  3. ((c))

    Morarji Desai

  4. ((d))

    Moulana Abdul Kalam Azad

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sardar Patel

175

How many seats were won by 'Telangana Prajasamithi' in the 1971 General Elections in Andhra Pradesh ?

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    11

  3. ((c))

    14

  4. ((d))

    10

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12

176

Who was the editor of 'Imroz' a popular paper in Hyderabad State during the period of Osman Ali Khan ?

  1. ((a))

    Md. Arif Khan

  2. ((b))

    Md. Iqbal

  3. ((c))

    Shoebullah Khan

  4. ((d))

    Raza Ali Khan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Md. Arif Khan

177

Arrange the following events related to Telangana Movement in Chronological order:

(a) Telangana Vidrohadinam

(b) Bhuvanagiri Declaration

(c) Namaste Telangana daily was launched

(d) Sagaraharam

  1. ((a))

    a, c, d, b

  2. ((b))

    b, c, d, a

  3. ((c))

    a, b, c, d

  4. ((d))

    d, b, a, c

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

a, c, d, b

178

Who described the post of Deputy Chief Minister as 'sixth finger to a hand'?

  1. ((a))

    M. Chenna Reddy

  2. ((b))

    Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy

  3. ((c))

    B. Ramakrishna Reddy

  4. ((d))

    K. Brahmananda Reddy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

M. Chenna Reddy

179

Identify the leader from Andhra region who was not a member, who signed on the 'Gentlemen's Agreement' in 1956

  1. ((a))

    Damodaram Sanjeevaiah

  2. ((b))

    N. Sanjeeva Reddy

  3. ((c))

    Gouthu Lachanna

  4. ((d))

    B. Gopal Reddy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Damodaram Sanjeevaiah

180

Justice 'Srikrishna Committee' submitted its report to UPA government on

  1. ((a))

    30th Dec, 2010

  2. ((b))

    3rd Feb, 2010

  3. ((c))

    31st Dec, 2011

  4. ((d))

    23rd Dec, 2009

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30th Dec, 2010

181

Arrange the following events connected with the Second phase of Telangana Movement in chronological order:

(a) Appointment of Justice Sri Krishna Committee

(b) Rail Bandh

(c) Million March

(d) Submission of resignation to Chief Minister post by N. Kiran Kumar Reddy

  1. ((a))

    a, b, c, d

  2. ((b))

    b, d, c, a

  3. ((c))

    d, b, c, a

  4. ((d))

    b, c, a, d

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

a, b, c, d

182

The students of Telangana conducted 'Telangana Vidyarthi Garjana' in Osmania University, on

  1. ((a))

    14th June, 2013

  2. ((b))

    3rd January, 2010

  3. ((c))

    3rd January, 2012

  4. ((d))

    10th April, 2011

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

14th June, 2013

183

Identify the person who brought the illegal appointment of non-locals in Kothagudem thermal power station for the first-time into public?

  1. ((a))

    A. Ramadas

  2. ((b))

    A. Ravindranath

  3. ((c))

    Sree Ramadas

  4. ((d))

    I. Kiran Nath

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A. Ramadas

184

What is the impact of "Climate Change" on troposphere ?

  1. ((a))

    Increased CO₂ levels increases C₃ plants productivity

  2. ((b))

    Increased CO₂ levels increases C₄ plants productivity

  3. ((c))

    Precipitation increases throughout the earth

  4. ((d))

    Temperature decreases throughout the earth

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increased CO₂ levels increases C₃ plants productivity

185

Which of the following radio active elements is used to make nuclear fission reaction ?

  1. ((a))

    Thorium

  2. ((b))

    Uranium

  3. ((c))

    Barium

  4. ((d))

    Actinium

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Thorium

186

Satellite communication uses the following electro magnetic waves

  1. ((a))

    Visible Light

  2. ((b))

    X - Rays

  3. ((c))

    Micro Waves

  4. ((d))

    Radio Waves

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Visible Light

187

What is the code name used for first Indian nuclear test ?

  1. ((a))

    Chargi

  2. ((b))

    Pokhran

  3. ((c))

    Smiling Buddha

  4. ((d))

    Pinaka

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chargi

188

Speed of internet is measured in

  1. ((a))

    GHZ

  2. ((b))

    GB

  3. ((c))

    Dpi

  4. ((d))

    GBPS

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

GHZ

189

The common components of photo chemical smog are

  1. ((a))

    Ozone and SO₂

  2. ((b))

    NO₂ and SO₂

  3. ((c))

    Formaldehyde and PAN

  4. ((d))

    Ozone, Formaldehyde and PAN

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ozone and SO₂

190

The first patent was issued on a human gene sequence is located on which chromosome and what kind of health risk is caused due to its mutation ?

  1. ((a))

    4 and Huntingtin

  2. ((b))

    23 and Hemophilia

  3. ((c))

    7 and Cystic fibrosis

  4. ((d))

    17 and Cancer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4 and Huntingtin

191

What is the reason for increasing sea level in some coastal areas ?

  1. ((a))

    Decrease of CO₂ in Troposphere

  2. ((b))

    Increase of O₃ layer in stratosphere

  3. ((c))

    CH₄ trapped beneath frozen soil of Alaska

  4. ((d))

    Afforestation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Decrease of CO₂ in Troposphere

192

Which of the following plant has high levels of Protein and rich in thiamin in its seeds ?

  1. ((a))

    Brassica rapa

  2. ((b))

    Arachis hypogaea

  3. ((c))

    Linum usitatissimum

  4. ((d))

    Pennisetum glaucum

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Brassica rapa

193

The main reason of ozone layer depletion is due to the release of

  1. ((a))

    CO from vehicles

  2. ((b))

    SO₂ from fuels

  3. ((c))

    Chloro Fluoro Carbon compounds

  4. ((d))

    Methane gas in atmosphere

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CO from vehicles

194

What is the function of a modem ?

  1. ((a))

    Encryption and decryption

  2. ((b))

    Voice to data conversion and data to voice conversion

  3. ((c))

    Convert from analog signals to digital and from digital to analog singlas

  4. ((d))

    Check for virus

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Encryption and decryption

195

A Kind of injury or damage that results in the damage of premature death of all the near by cells in a tissue or an organ through autolysis is known as

  1. ((a))

    Neurosis

  2. ((b))

    Necrosis

  3. ((c))

    Apoptosis

  4. ((d))

    Cellular senescence

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Neurosis

196

Arrange the following events of "biogeny theory" in a sequence.

A. Formation of coacervates

B. Aerobic organisms came to existence

C. Heterotrophic organisms began to form

D. Mycoplasmas are first formed cells

  1. ((a))

    A, D, C, B

  2. ((b))

    A, C, D, B

  3. ((c))

    B, A, C, D

  4. ((d))

    A, B, C, D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A, D, C, B

197

In fiber optic communication the source of Light used is

  1. ((a))

    Light Emitting Diode (LED)

  2. ((b))

    Compact Fluorescent Lamp (CFL)

  3. ((c))

    Diode

  4. ((d))

    Semi conductor laser

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Light Emitting Diode (LED)

198

The size of quantum nano dots is around

  1. ((a))

    300 nm

  2. ((b))

    200 nm

  3. ((c))

    100 nm

  4. ((d))

    10 nm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

300 nm

199

Data scientists require the following skills.

  1. ((a))

    Data visualization only

  2. ((b))

    Machine learning only

  3. ((c))

    Statistics only

  4. ((d))

    All the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Data visualization only

200

Increasing blood clotting time is due to the deficiency of which of the following vitamin?

  1. ((a))

    Vitamin K

  2. ((b))

    Vitamin B₁

  3. ((c))

    Vitamin A

  4. ((d))

    Vitamin C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vitamin K

Attempt this paper under real exam conditions

Timed interface, section switching, instant scoring, and question-by-question analytics — free.

Start Timed Attempt