Official Paper

SSC Selection Post 2025 (Higher Secondary Level) Official Paper (Held On: 24 Jul, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 60 minutes · with answers · free

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General Intelligence (25 questions)

1

Debate is to Clarity as Conflict is to

  1. ((a))

    Resolution

  2. ((b))

    Chaos

  3. ((c))

    Compromise

  4. ((d))

    Tension

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Resolution

2

What comes next in the series - 11 : 121 :: 13 : ?

  1. ((a))

    141

  2. ((b))

    169

  3. ((c))

    157

  4. ((d))

    171

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

141

3

What comes next in the series - 13 : 2196 :: 9 : ?

  1. ((a))

    728

  2. ((b))

    729

  3. ((c))

    730

  4. ((d))

    727

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

728

4

Instruction: Apply the same letter transformation as in the first pair.

CAT : DBU :: DOG : ?

  1. ((a))

    EPH

  2. ((b))

    EOH

  3. ((c))

    EPG

  4. ((d))

    DOH

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

EPH

5

Direction: In each of the following questions, four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and the fourth one is different. Choose out the odd one.

  1. ((a))

    Utilitarianism

  2. ((b))

    Existentialism

  3. ((c))

    Rationalism

  4. ((d))

    Taxation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Utilitarianism

6

Direction: In each of the following questions, four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and the fourth one is different. Choose out the odd one.

  1. ((a))

    Interest

  2. ((b))

    Profit

  3. ((c))

    Discount

  4. ((d))

    Mass

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Interest

7

Which of the following is different? 121, 144, 169, 198

  1. ((a))

    121

  2. ((b))

    144

  3. ((c))

    169

  4. ((d))

    198

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

121

8

Choose the correct next step: Input, Process, Output, ________

  1. ((a))

    Feedback

  2. ((b))

    Compiler

  3. ((c))

    Code

  4. ((d))

    Error

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Feedback

9

Find the next number: 2, 3, 7, 16, 32, ?

  1. ((a))

    57

  2. ((b))

    50

  3. ((c))

    56

  4. ((d))

    60

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

57

10

Find the next set: AB, DE, GH, JK, ?

  1. ((a))

    LM

  2. ((b))

    MN

  3. ((c))

    NO

  4. ((d))

    OP

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

LM

11

A friend is upset over a poor exam score. What is the best initial response?

  1. ((a))

    "You'll do worse next time"

  2. ((b))

    "You should have studied more"

  3. ((c))

    "Want to talk about it?"

  4. ((d))

    "It's not a big deal"

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

"You'll do worse next time"

12

If a classmate frequently interrupts others during group work, what is the best emotional intelligence strategy?

  1. ((a))

    Ignore them

  2. ((b))

    Gently remind them about turn-taking

  3. ((c))

    Publicly confront them

  4. ((d))

    Avoid them completely

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ignore them

13

In a classroom debate, someone has an opposing opinion. How should you respond socially?

  1. ((a))

    Dismiss them

  2. ((b))

    Listen and respond logically

  3. ((c))

    Ignore their point

  4. ((d))

    Walk away

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dismiss them

14

Which of the following is an example of cause and effect reasoning?

  1. ((a))

    He failed because he didn't study

  2. ((b))

    She likes math and drawing

  3. ((c))

    He reads daily, so he is tall

  4. ((d))

    They met at the library

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

He failed because he didn't study

15

Statement: "Smartphones are responsible for reducing human attention span." Which of the following weakens this claim?

  1. ((a))

    Research shows attention spans were already falling pre-smartphone

  2. ((b))

    Smartphones improve learning

  3. ((c))

    People are addicted to screens

  4. ((d))

    Apps are distracting

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Research shows attention spans were already falling pre-smartphone

16

From the word DANGEROUS, which of the following is not a valid English word?

  1. ((a))

    UNDERGO

  2. ((b))

    GROUNDS

  3. ((c))

    DRAGON

  4. ((d))

    SUNRAGE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

UNDERGO

17

If in a certain code, CAT is written as DBU, how is DOG written?

  1. ((a))

    EPH

  2. ((b))

    CPH

  3. ((c))

    DPJ

  4. ((d))

    EPG

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

EPH

18

In a certain code, BALL = YZOO, what is CALL?

  1. ((a))

    XZOO

  2. ((b))

    XZPP

  3. ((c))

    YZPP

  4. ((d))

    WZOO

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

XZOO

19

If WATER is coded as 23-1-20-5-18, how is EARTH coded?

  1. ((a))

    5-1-18-20-8

  2. ((b))

    5-1-20-18-8

  3. ((c))

    8-20-18-1-5

  4. ((d))

    5-18-1-20-11

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5-1-18-20-8

20

If 3 ⊕ 2 = 5 and 4 ⊕ 3 = 7, what is 5 ⊕ 4?

  1. ((a))

    9

  2. ((b))

    8

  3. ((c))

    7

  4. ((d))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

9

21

If 3 ◊ 2 = 13 and 4 ◊ 3 = 25, find 5 ◊ 2.

  1. ((a))

    19

  2. ((b))

    29

  3. ((c))

    20

  4. ((d))

    30

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

19

22

If 7 # 2 = 5, 6 # 1 = 5, then what is 9 # 3?

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    6

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    7

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5

23

If 8 ⊕ 2 = 5 and 6 ⊕ 3 = 4.5, what is 10 ⊕ 5?

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    4.5

  3. ((c))

    7.5

  4. ((d))

    3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5

24

Choose the number that does not belong to the group.

  1. ((a))

    81

  2. ((b))

    243

  3. ((c))

    512

  4. ((d))

    729

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

81

25

Choose the missing element in the given series.

<br>

Gold, Silver, Copper, ?

  1. ((a))

    Platinum

  2. ((b))

    Brass

  3. ((c))

    Steel

  4. ((d))

    Bronze

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Platinum

General Awareness (25 questions)

26

What is the asteroid belt primarily composed of?

  1. ((a))

    Rocks and metals

  2. ((b))

    Gases and ice

  3. ((c))

    Liquid water

  4. ((d))

    Volcanic magma

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rocks and metals

27

Who is appointed as the 26th 'Chief Election Commissioner of India'?

  1. ((a))

    Gyanesh Kumar

  2. ((b))

    Rajiv Kumar

  3. ((c))

    Sushil Chandra

  4. ((d))

    Sunil Arora

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gyanesh Kumar

28

Which of the following statements correctly describes how unicellular organisms obtain their food?

  1. ((a))

    All unicellular organisms use a mouth-like structure for food intake

  2. ((b))

    Unicellular organisms like Amoeba use pseudopodia, while Paramecium uses cilia to direct food into a fixed spot

  3. ((c))

    Unicellular organisms such as Amoeba and Paramecium absorb food randomly from all over the cell surface.

  4. ((d))

    Unicellular organisms digest food externally before taking it into their bodies.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

All unicellular organisms use a mouth-like structure for food intake

29

Which government official announced the Ladli Behna Yojana?

  1. ((a))

    Prime Minister Narendra Modi

  2. ((b))

    Chief Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan

  3. ((c))

    Governor Mangubhai Patel

  4. ((d))

    Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Prime Minister Narendra Modi

30

How does the IMEC Alliance impact global supply chains?

  1. ((a))

    Disrupts existing supply chains

  2. ((b))

    Strengthens supply chain efficiency

  3. ((c))

    Limits trade to specific regions

  4. ((d))

    Reduces supply chain reliability

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Disrupts existing supply chains

31

How does the BRICS Vaccine R&D Center support vaccine affordability?

  1. ((a))

    By reducing production costs through joint research

  2. ((b))

    By limiting vaccine exports

  3. ((c))

    By increasing patent restrictions

  4. ((d))

    By focusing only on high-income countries

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

By reducing production costs through joint research

32

What is the ultimate goal of the BRICS Think Tank Council?

  1. ((a))

    To establish a common currency for BRICS nations

  2. ((b))

    To provide research-based insights for shaping BRICS Summit discussions and policies

  3. ((c))

    To regulate trade policies among BRICS countries

  4. ((d))

    To manage cultural exchanges among BRICS nations

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To establish a common currency for BRICS nations

33

How is the data for the Happiness Index collected?

  1. ((a))

    Through satellite images

  2. ((b))

    By measuring GDP only

  3. ((c))

    Through self-reported surveys

  4. ((d))

    By analyzing internet usage.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Through satellite images

34

Who is eligible for the Ladli Behna Yojana?

  1. ((a))

    Women above 21 years of age

  2. ((b))

    Women below 18 years of age

  3. ((c))

    Women belonging to urban households

  4. ((d))

    Women employed in government jobs

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Women above 21 years of age

35

Pongal is primarily celebrated in which Indian state?

  1. ((a))

    Andhra Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Tamil Nadu

  3. ((c))

    Karnataka

  4. ((d))

    Kerala

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Andhra Pradesh

36

Which Indian author wrote the novel Midnight's Children, which won the Booker Prize?

  1. ((a))

    Vikram Seth

  2. ((b))

    Ruskin Bond

  3. ((c))

    Salman Rushdie

  4. ((d))

    Kiran Desai

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vikram Seth

37

Which fort is an example of Rajput military architecture?

  1. ((a))

    Red Fort

  2. ((b))

    Agra Fort

  3. ((c))

    Chittorgarh Fort

  4. ((d))

    Golkonda Fort

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Red Fort

38

Which statement best explains Newton's Third Law of Motion?

  1. ((a))

    Force = mass × acceleration

  2. ((b))

    Energy cannot be created or destroyed

  3. ((c))

    For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction

  4. ((d))

    The acceleration is inversely proportional to mass

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Force = mass × acceleration

39

What is the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) Index published by NITI Aayog?

  1. ((a))

    A measure of foreign trade performance

  2. ((b))

    A ranking of states based on progress toward SDGs

  3. ((c))

    A list of public sector enterprises

  4. ((d))

    A report on monetary policy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A measure of foreign trade performance

40

What was the primary purpose for which the Goods & Services Tax (GST) Act enacted?

  1. ((a))

    To act as a new direct tax

  2. ((b))

    To levy more duties on luxury goods

  3. ((c))

    To ensure uniform tax across states

  4. ((d))

    To differentiate between goods & services in taxation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To act as a new direct tax

41

What is the primary sector of the Indian economy mainly concerned with?

  1. ((a))

    Manufacturing

  2. ((b))

    Mining

  3. ((c))

    Agriculture

  4. ((d))

    Banking

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Manufacturing

42

Which region in India has the highest population density due to fertile soil and abundant water resources?

  1. ((a))

    Thar Desert

  2. ((b))

    Indo-Gangetic Plain

  3. ((c))

    Western Ghats

  4. ((d))

    Himalayan Region

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Thar Desert

43

According to a legend in Mahabharata, Lord Krishna blessed this state with prosperity and white elephants inhabited this area in ancient time. Name the state known as the 'Land of White Elephants'

  1. ((a))

    Assam

  2. ((b))

    Tripura

  3. ((c))

    Meghalaya

  4. ((d))

    Manipur

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Assam

44

The Mimamsa school of philosophy is primarily concerned with which aspect of the Vedas?

  1. ((a))

    Rituals and Dharma

  2. ((b))

    Meditation and Yoga

  3. ((c))

    Logic and Debate

  4. ((d))

    Atomic theory

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rituals and Dharma

45

The Gandhara art style is primarily associated with which religion?

  1. ((a))

    Hinduism

  2. ((b))

    Buddhism

  3. ((c))

    Jainism

  4. ((d))

    Zoroastrianism

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hinduism

46

Which article of the Constitution abolishes 'Untouchability'?

  1. ((a))

    Article 14

  2. ((b))

    Article 17

  3. ((c))

    Article 19

  4. ((d))

    Article 21

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 14

47

Which Schedule of the Constitution contains the distribution of powers between Union and States?

  1. ((a))

    Sixth Schedule

  2. ((b))

    Seventh Schedule

  3. ((c))

    Eighth Schedule

  4. ((d))

    Tenth Schedule

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sixth Schedule

48

How many players are there in a standard Kabaddi team on the field?

  1. ((a))

    9

  2. ((b))

    7

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

9

49

The Arjuna Award is given for excellence in which field?

  1. ((a))

    Literature

  2. ((b))

    Science

  3. ((c))

    Sports

  4. ((d))

    Music

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Literature

50

Which Article of the Indian Constitution guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws?

  1. ((a))

    Article 14

  2. ((b))

    Article 19

  3. ((c))

    Article 21

  4. ((d))

    Article 32

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 14

Quantitative Aptitude (25 questions)

51

The parallel sides of a trapezium differ by 4 cm. Its height is 8 cm and the area is 192 cm2. What are the lengths of the parallel sides?

  1. ((a))

    20 cm and 24 cm

  2. ((b))

    21 cm and 25 cm

  3. ((c))

    22 cm and 26 cm

  4. ((d))

    23 cm and 27 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20 cm and 24 cm

52

A right prism has a trapezium-shaped base with parallel sides 6 cm and 10 cm, height of trapezium 5 cm, and prism height 15 cm. Find the volume.

  1. ((a))

    800 cm3

  2. ((b))

    1200 cm3

  3. ((c))

    600 cm3

  4. ((d))

    350 cm3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

800 cm3

53

If the lateral surface area of a right circular cylinder is 440 cm2 and radius is 5 cm, find the height.

  1. ((a))

    12 cm

  2. ((b))

    15 cm

  3. ((c))

    14 cm

  4. ((d))

    21 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12 cm

54

A cylinder is melted and recast into 8 smaller cylinders of the same height. If the original radius was 6 cm and height 10 cm, find the radius of each small one?

  1. ((a))

    3 cm

  2. ((b))

    2.5 cm

  3. ((c))

    2.7 cm

  4. ((d))

    2.12 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3 cm

55

Two circles touch each other externally at P.  AB is a direct common tangent to the two circles, A and B are points of contact and ∠PAB = 22°. The measure of ∠ABP is:

  1. ((a))

    72°

  2. ((b))

    68°

  3. ((c))

    70°

  4. ((d))

    44°

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

72°

56

Consider the following two statements, labeled Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Evaluate them and choose the appropriate answer from the given options.

Assertion (A): Two non-intersecting and non-touching circles have four common tangents.

Reason (R): Two direct and two transverse tangents can be drawn between such circles.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

  3. ((c))

    A is true, but R is false

  4. ((d))

    A is false, but R is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

57

If x=11\sqrt{x} = 11, what is the value of x+xx + \sqrt{x}?

  1. ((a))

    121

  2. ((b))

    132

  3. ((c))

    122

  4. ((d))

    133

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

121

58

Which of the following is a perfect square of an even number?

  1. ((a))

    81

  2. ((b))

    144

  3. ((c))

    121

  4. ((d))

    169

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

81

59

Two numbers 63527 and 60784 are divided by a certain three-digit number and leave the same remainder. What is the sum of digits of the divisor?

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    3

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6

60

Which of the following sets is a proper subset of rational numbers?

  1. ((a))

    Irrational number

  2. ((b))

    Natural number

  3. ((c))

    Real number

  4. ((d))

    Imaginary numbers

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Irrational number

61

Match the sets in Column I with their correct descriptions in Column II:

Column IColumn II
A. Rational numbers ()1. Closed under multiplication but not subtraction
B. Whole numbers (W)2. All terminating and recurring decimals
C. Prime numbers (P)3. Include zero and natural numbers
D. Irrational numbers ()4. Non-repeating, non-terminating decimals
  1. ((a))

    A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

  2. ((b))

    A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

  3. ((c))

    A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1

  4. ((d))

    A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

62

A scholarship fund of ₹1200 is to be distributed between two students, A and B, in a ratio 5:3. However, after allocating ₹200 to administrative charges, the remaining amount is first increased by 10% as a bonus before the final division. What amount will student A receive?

  1. ((a))

    ₹675

  2. ((b))

    ₹687.5

  3. ((c))

    ₹750

  4. ((d))

    ₹700

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹675

63

Average score of a batsman in 10 innings is 32. How many runs must he score in the 11th innings to raise his average to 34?

  1. ((a))

    54

  2. ((b))

    60

  3. ((c))

    56

  4. ((d))

    50

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

54

64

Average of 11 numbers is 45. Average of first 5 is 42 and last 5 is 46. Find the 6th number.

  1. ((a))

    55

  2. ((b))

    44

  3. ((c))

    43

  4. ((d))

    47

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

55

65

A man's salary is increased by 40% and then decreased by 30%. What is the net effect on his salary?

  1. ((a))

    2% decrease

  2. ((b))

    2% increase

  3. ((c))

    5% decrease

  4. ((d))

    5% increase

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2% decrease

66

A bookstore buys 2,000 books for ₹180 each. They offer a "Buy 4, Get 1 Free" scheme but sell at the marked price of ₹225 per book. What is their effective profit percentage per book sold (after adjusting for the free books)?

  1. ((a))

    0%

  2. ((b))

    0.2

  3. ((c))

    0.4

  4. ((d))

    0.37

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0%

67

16 men can complete a work in 15 days. How many men are required to complete the same work in 10 days?

  1. ((a))

    20 men

  2. ((b))

    22 men

  3. ((c))

    24 men

  4. ((d))

    25 men

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20 men

68

A can do a work in 15 days, B in 20 days, and C in 30 days. They all start the work together but C leaves after 5 days. How many more days will A and B take to complete the remaining work?

  1. ((a))

    2 days, 3 hours, 20 minutes

  2. ((b))

    2 days, 3 hours, 26 minutes

  3. ((c))

    2 days, 4 hours, 15 minutes

  4. ((d))

    2 days, 2 hours, 45 minutes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2 days, 3 hours, 20 minutes

69

A train 150 meters long crosses another train of length 100 meters running in the opposite direction in 12 seconds. If the speed of the first train is 60 km/h, estimate the speed of the second train.

  1. ((a))

    12 km/h

  2. ((b))

    15 km/h

  3. ((c))

    18 km/h

  4. ((d))

    20 km/h

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12 km/h

70

A person lent ₹2,000 at 6% per annum simple interest and ₹3,000 at 5% per annum simple interest. Find his total interest after 3 years.

  1. ((a))

    ₹780

  2. ((b))

    ₹800

  3. ((c))

    ₹810

  4. ((d))

    ₹820

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹780

71

If sin2θ = 1−cos⁡2θ2\frac{1 - \cos2θ }{2}, what is the value of sin4θ in terms of cos2θ?

  1. ((a))

    (1−cos⁡2θ)2/4 (1 - \cos 2\theta)^2 / 4

  2. ((b))

    1−cos⁡2θ 1 - \cos 2\theta

  3. ((c))

    1−2cos⁡2θ+cos⁡22θ/4 1 - 2\cos 2\theta + \cos^2 2\theta / 4

  4. ((d))

    1−cos⁡22θ/2 1 - \cos^2 2\theta / 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(1−cos⁡2θ)2/4 (1 - \cos 2\theta)^2 / 4

72

Two observers stand 100 meters apart and observe the top of a tower. The angles of elevation are 30° and 45°. Find the height of the tower (assuming both observers are on the same side of the tower).

  1. ((a))

    1003 100\sqrt{3} m

  2. ((b))

    100(3−1) 100(\sqrt{3} - 1) m

  3. ((c))

    50(3+1) 50(\sqrt{3} + 1) m

  4. ((d))

    1002 100\sqrt{2} m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1003 100\sqrt{3} m

73

If, x + y = 7 and xy = 10 then the value of x2 + y2 is:

  1. ((a))

    29

  2. ((b))

    49

  3. ((c))

    59

  4. ((d))

    69

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

29

74

A man takes a loan of ₹15,000 from a bank at 8% compound interest per annum, compounded annually. Find the total amount he has to pay after 2 years.

  1. ((a))

    ₹17,480

  2. ((b))

    ₹17,496

  3. ((c))

    ₹16,800

  4. ((d))

    ₹17,520

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹17,480

75

A shopkeeper buys an article for ₹450. He marks up its price by 20%. He then offers a discount of 10% on the marked price to a customer. What is the profit percentage the shopkeeper makes on this transaction?

  1. ((a))

    28

  2. ((b))

    8

  3. ((c))

    37

  4. ((d))

    23

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

28

English Language (25 questions)

76

Spot the part of the sentence that contains an error.
If there is no error, choose D.

A. She must have left
B. the office early yesterday
C. because she looks very tired today.
D. No error

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

77

The children played on the river ____.

  1. ((a))

    bank

  2. ((b))

    punk

  3. ((c))

    bench

  4. ((d))

    brink

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

bank

78

Pick the correctly spelled word referring to detailed scrutiny.

  1. ((a))

    Examination

  2. ((b))

    Examinetion

  3. ((c))

    Exemanation

  4. ((d))

    Exemineition

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Examination

79

Find the word that is spelled correctly and refers to cultural refinement.

  1. ((a))

    Sophistication

  2. ((b))

    Sophestication

  3. ((c))

    Sofistication

  4. ((d))

    Sofhestication

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sophistication

80

Find the part of the sentence that contains an error:

The novel which had remained unpublished for decades (1)/ was discovered by chance in a locked drawer (2)/ and were later translated into multiple languages (3)/ by a well-known critic. (4)

  1. ((a))

    The novel which had remained unpublished for decades (1)

  2. ((b))

    was discovered by chance in a locked drawer (2)

  3. ((c))

    and were later translated into multiple languages (3)

  4. ((d))

    by a well-known critic (4)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The novel which had remained unpublished for decades (1)

81

Choose the most suitable option to fill the blank part of the sentence. If the sentence is already correct, select 'No substitution required'.
Hardly had the scientist presented his theory when critics called it ___ absurd theory of the decade.

  1. ((a))

    the more

  2. ((b))

    the most

  3. ((c))

    most

  4. ((d))

    the guests have arrived

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

the more

82

Change the following from active to passive:

We are preparing a detailed report on environmental hazards.

  1. ((a))

    A detailed report on environmental hazards is being prepared by us.

  2. ((b))

    We have prepared a detailed report on environmental hazards.

  3. ((c))

    The report was prepared on environmental hazards by us.

  4. ((d))

    A detailed report on environmental hazards has been prepared by us.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A detailed report on environmental hazards is being prepared by us.

83

Change the following from active to passive:

They have adopted multiple strategies to enhance learning outcomes in rural schools.

  1. ((a))

    Multiple strategies have been adopted to enhance learning outcomes in rural schools.

  2. ((b))

    Multiple strategies are being adopted by them for better learning outcomes.

  3. ((c))

    Multiple strategies were adopted by them.

  4. ((d))

    Multiple strategies are adopted by them to improve learning.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Multiple strategies have been adopted to enhance learning outcomes in rural schools.

84

Arrange the parts to form a correct sentence:
P: the students
Q: organized a campaign
R: on plastic pollution
S: last week at school

  1. ((a))

    PQRS

  2. ((b))

    QPSR

  3. ((c))

    QRPS

  4. ((d))

    PRSQ

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

PQRS

85

Arrange the parts to form a correct sentence:
P: several schools
Q: participated
R: across Delhi
S: in the awareness drive

  1. ((a))

    RPSQ

  2. ((b))

    PRSQ

  3. ((c))

    PQSR

  4. ((d))

    QPSR

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

RPSQ

86

Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure:

The house had been painted by the workers before the rain started.

  1. ((a))

    The workers had painted the house before the rain started.

  2. ((b))

    The workers painted the house before the rain started.

  3. ((c))

    The house was painted before the rain started.

  4. ((d))

    The workers have painted the house before the rain started.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The workers had painted the house before the rain started.

87

Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure:

The new policy will be implemented by the administration next month.

  1. ((a))

    The administration will implement the new policy next month.

  2. ((b))

    The administration is implementing the new policy.

  3. ((c))

    The new policy was implemented by the administration.

  4. ((d))

    The new policy has been implemented.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The administration will implement the new policy next month.

88

A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech.

She said, "I will help you with your homework."

  1. ((a))

    She said that she will help me.

  2. ((b))

    She said that she would help me with my homework.

  3. ((c))

    She said she will be helping with homework.

  4. ((d))

    She said she would helping my homework.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

She said that she will help me.

89

A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech.

<br>

The doctor said, "Take the medicine after meals."

  1. ((a))

    The doctor advised to take the medicine after meals.

  2. ((b))

    The doctor said to take medicine after dinner.

  3. ((c))

    The doctor asked me to take the tablet.

  4. ((d))

    The doctor requested take pills after meals.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The doctor advised to take the medicine after meals.

90

A sentence is provided in indirect speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding direct speech.

He said that he was feeling unwell.

  1. ((a))

    He said, "I am feeling unwell."

  2. ((b))

    He said, "I will feel unwell."

  3. ((c))

    He said, "I have felt unwell."

  4. ((d))

    He said, "I felt unwell."

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

He said, "I am feeling unwell."

91

A sentence is provided in indirect speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding direct speech.

<br>

He asked me if I had completed the assignment.

  1. ((a))

    He said, "Have you completed the assignment?"

  2. ((b))

    He ordered, "Did you completed the assignment?"

  3. ((c))

    He said, "Have I completed the assignment?"

  4. ((d))

    He asked, "Had I completed the assignment?"

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

He said, "Have you completed the assignment?"

92

Arrange the parts to form a correct sentence:
P: the minister
Q: gave a briefing
R: on key reforms
S: to the media

  1. ((a))

    PRSQ

  2. ((b))

    PQSR

  3. ((c))

    QRPS

  4. ((d))

    SPRQ

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

PRSQ

93

Arrange the following parts to form a coherent and meaningful paragraph:
A. The magician pulled out his wand.
B. The children gathered around and the music began.
C. A dove appeared from the hat.
D. The magician came on stage.

  1. ((a))

    B → D → A → C

  2. ((b))

    D → B → A → C

  3. ((c))

    B → A → D → C

  4. ((d))

    A → D → B → C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

B → D → A → C

94

Arrange the parts to form a correct sentence:
(1) He read the first few lines.
(2) He opened the envelope.
(3) His eyes widened in shock.
(4) He took out the letter.

  1. ((a))

    1 → 2 → 3 → 4

  2. ((b))

    2 → 4 → 1 → 3

  3. ((c))

    2 → 1 → 4 → 3

  4. ((d))

    4 → 2 → 1 → 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 → 2 → 3 → 4

95

Arrange the parts to form a correct sentence:
(1) The countdown ended.
(2) The rocket launched.
(3) It soared into the sky.
(4) Everyone watched in silence.

  1. ((a))

    3-1-4-2

  2. ((b))

    3-2-1-4

  3. ((c))

    1-2-3-4

  4. ((d))

    3-1-2-4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3-1-4-2

96

Fill in the blank with an appropriate adverb.

Mohan is ________ shy. He cannot communicate with people freely.

  1. ((a))

    truly

  2. ((b))

    moderately

  3. ((c))

    rather

  4. ((d))

    naturally

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

truly

97

Select the correct Synonym of 'PERNICIOUS'.

  1. ((a))

    Harmless

  2. ((b))

    Deadly

  3. ((c))

    Temporary

  4. ((d))

    Noisy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Harmless

98

Choose the correct meaning of Idiom "Throw down the gauntlet"

  1. ((a))

    Show fear in public

  2. ((b))

    Make peace

  3. ((c))

    Challenge someone boldly

  4. ((d))

    Avoid confrontation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Show fear in public

99

Choose the correct meaning of Idiom "Hoist with one's own petard".

  1. ((a))

    Succeed through betrayal

  2. ((b))

    Fall victim to one's own plan

  3. ((c))

    Win by surprise

  4. ((d))

    Escape punishment cleverly

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Succeed through betrayal

100

Choose the correct one word substitution for: "A belief that the universe and all existence are divine"

  1. ((a))

    Pantheism

  2. ((b))

    Polytheism

  3. ((c))

    Mysticism

  4. ((d))

    Agnosticism

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pantheism

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