Official Paper

SSC Selection Post 2025 (Graduate Level) Official Paper (Held On: 29 Aug, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 60 minutes · with answers · free

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General Intelligence (25 questions)

1

In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Basalt : Deccan Plateau :: Granite : ?

  1. ((a))

    Indo-Gangetic Plain

  2. ((b))

    Himalayas

  3. ((c))

    Aravalli Hills

  4. ((d))

    Peninsular Plateau

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Indo-Gangetic Plain

2

In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

3:10::5:? 3 : 10 :: 5 : ?

  1. ((a))

    25

  2. ((b))

    20

  3. ((c))

    16

  4. ((d))

    15

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25

3

In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

34:21::43:? 34 : 21 :: 43 : ?

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    24

  3. ((c))

    21

  4. ((d))

    27

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12

4

In the following question, select the related letter from the given alternatives.

BDF : YWU :: GIK : ?

  1. ((a))

    SQO

  2. ((b))

    TRP

  3. ((c))

    XVT

  4. ((d))

    RPN

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

SQO

5

In the following question, select the related letter from the given alternatives.

LMOI : OHRD :: EUTX : ?

  1. ((a))

    HPVS

  2. ((b))

    IQWS

  3. ((c))

    IPVS

  4. ((d))

    HPWS

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

HPVS

6

Pick the different one based on Indian classical dance forms.

  1. ((a))

    Kathak

  2. ((b))

    Kuchipudi

  3. ((c))

    Bharatanatyam

  4. ((d))

    Kalbelia

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kathak

7

In the following question, select the relationship from the given alternatives.

Circuit : Electricity :: Vein : ?

  1. ((a))

    Blood

  2. ((b))

    Heart

  3. ((c))

    Nerve

  4. ((d))

    Oxygen

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Blood

8

Which of the following alternative will come at the place of question mark?

17: 64::26:?

  1. ((a))

    64

  2. ((b))

    62

  3. ((c))

    61

  4. ((d))

    60

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

64

9

Find the missing term: DMI, GNL, JOO, ?

  1. ((a))

    NTS

  2. ((b))

    OQR

  3. ((c))

    LPQ

  4. ((d))

    MPR

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

NTS

10

Which of the following alternative will come at the place of question mark?

5, 8, 13, 21, 34, ?

  1. ((a))

    54

  2. ((b))

    55

  3. ((c))

    56

  4. ((d))

    58

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

54

11

From the given alternatives, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the word DIAPHANOUS. Each letter may be used only as many times as it appears in the original word.

  1. ((a))

    SNAP

  2. ((b))

    PUSH

  3. ((c))

    SHOAD

  4. ((d))

    DISHES

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

SNAP

12

If \( @ = +, & = -, # = \div, % = \times \), then (8 (8 % 3) # 2 & 1 @ 4 = ?

  1. ((a))

    10

  2. ((b))

    15

  3. ((c))

    9

  4. ((d))

    12

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10

13

If PAPER is coded as 61, and PEN as 38, what is the code for PLANE?

  1. ((a))

    53

  2. ((b))

    60

  3. ((c))

    48

  4. ((d))

    52

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

53

14

Statement: "Students who regularly engage in reading outside the syllabus tend to perform better in problem-solving."

Conclusions:

I. Problem-solving ability is enhanced by reading beyond the syllabus.

II. Only students who read outside the syllabus excel academically.

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both follow

  4. ((d))

    Neither follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I follows

15

Center MH (27), Room 03: Roll numbers follow format 2703XX 2703XX .

Which of the following does not belong to this room based on roll number pattern?

  1. ((a))

    2703001

  2. ((b))

    2703023

  3. ((c))

    2703034

  4. ((d))

    2704015

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2703001

16

In UP (09), seat numbers must not repeat in the same room. Which set is valid?

  1. ((a))

    901002, 901002, 901023, 901023

  2. ((b))

    901005, 901023, 901011, 901023

  3. ((c))

    901111, 901112, 901113, 901114

  4. ((d))

    901021, 901031, 901021, 901041

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

901002, 901002, 901023, 901023

17

If A = square then add 3, B = halve then subtract 2, C = double then subtract 5, find: 4 A B C

  1. ((a))

    16

  2. ((b))

    12

  3. ((c))

    15

  4. ((d))

    10

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

16

18

Instruction: Determine which of the following judgments can be made.

Judgments: 1. Mango may be sweet. 2. Mango is definitely sour.

Statement: Some fruits are sweet. Mango is a fruit.

  1. ((a))

    Only 1

  2. ((b))

    Only 2

  3. ((c))

    Both 1 and 2

  4. ((d))

    Neither 1 nor 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only 1

19

If '+' means '×', '-' means '+', '×' means '÷', and '÷' means '-', then what is the value of: 18+3−6×2÷5 18 + 3 - 6 \times 2 \div 5 ?

  1. ((a))

    50

  2. ((b))

    56

  3. ((c))

    39

  4. ((d))

    52

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50

20

Choose the correct equation using: +=÷,−=+,×=−,÷=× + = \div, - = +, \times = -, \div = \times

  1. ((a))

    324+18−9×3=30 324 + 18 - 9 \times 3 = 30

  2. ((b))

    121−11×5+6=120 121 - 11 \times 5 + 6 = 120

  3. ((c))

    100÷10+5−2=202 100 \div 10 + 5 - 2 = 202

  4. ((d))

    225−15+10×2=260 225 - 15 + 10 \times 2 = 260

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

324+18−9×3=30 324 + 18 - 9 \times 3 = 30

21

A family consists of a grandfather, his wife, their two sons, each son's wife, and two children per son (1 boy, 1 girl). Find total male and female members.

  1. ((a))

    5 males, 5 females

  2. ((b))

    6 males, 6 females

  3. ((c))

    5 males, 7 females

  4. ((d))

    8 males, 4 females

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5 males, 5 females

22

The sum of ages of a mother and her son is 50 years. In five years, the mother will be three times as old as her son will be then. What is the son's current age?

  1. ((a))

    10 years

  2. ((b))

    12 years

  3. ((c))

    15 years

  4. ((d))

    8 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10 years

23

The combined age of two brothers is 34 years. Their ages multiply to 288. What are their ages?

  1. ((a))

    12 & 22 years

  2. ((b))

    14 & 20 years

  3. ((c))

    16 & 18 years

  4. ((d))

    15 & 19 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12 & 22 years

24

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully.

Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

All apples are tasty. No tasty thing is bitter.

Conclusions:

I. No apple is bitter.

II. Some tasty things are apples.

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II follows

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I follows

25

A train 180 m long passes a point in 12 s. Its speed is?

  1. ((a))

    45 km/h

  2. ((b))

    54 km/h

  3. ((c))

    60 km/h

  4. ((d))

    72 km/h

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

45 km/h

General Awareness (25 questions)

26

Ashoka's famous stone pillars were mainly carved from which rock?

  1. ((a))

    Marble

  2. ((b))

    Granite

  3. ((c))

    Sandstone

  4. ((d))

    Basalt

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Marble

27

Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options:

Assertion (A): Post-Mauryan Buddhist stupas show regional variations in form, such as cruciform bases and pyramidal superstructures.

Reason (R): Use of diverse local materials and building techniques led to the emergence of distinct stupa styles across regions.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

  3. ((c))

    A is true, but R is false

  4. ((d))

    Both A and R are false

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

28

Consider the following statements under FIDE chess rules:

  1. A pawn may be promoted to a queen upon reaching the 8th rank, even if the original queen is still on the board.
  2. Castling is allowed only if neither the king nor rook has moved, and the king doesn't pass through or into check.

Which of the above statement is/are Correct?

  1. ((a))

    Only 1 is Correct

  2. ((b))

    Only 2 is Correct

  3. ((c))

    1 and 2 both are Correct

  4. ((d))

    Neither 1 nor 2 are Correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only 1 is Correct

29

Which sport did Sheetal Devi win a Paralympic medal in at the Paris 2024 Paralympics?

  1. ((a))

    Shooting

  2. ((b))

    Archery

  3. ((c))

    Badminton

  4. ((d))

    Athletics

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Shooting

30

Consider the following statements:

Statement 1. Babur was of Mongol and Timurid descent and founded the Mughal Empire after defeating Ibrahim Lodi.

Statement 2. Babur was overthrown by Sher Shah and later succeeded by his grandson Akbar.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

  1. ((a))

    Only 1

  2. ((b))

    Only 2

  3. ((c))

    Both 1 and 2

  4. ((d))

    Neither 1 nor 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only 1

31

Match the Indian Paralympic athletes with their medal, event, and Games:

 

AthleteMedal, Event & Games
A) Joginder Singh Bedi1) Gold, Javelin Athens 2004
B) Devendra Jhajharia2) Silver, Shot Put Stoke/New York 1984
C) Rajinder Singh Rahelu3) Bronze, Powerlifting 56kg, Athens 2004
D) Bhimrao Kesarkar4) Silver, Javelin Stoke/New York 1984
  1. ((a))

    A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

  2. ((b))

    A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

  3. ((c))

    A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

  4. ((d))

    A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

32

Which Indian government body was appointed as the overall Project Development Consultant (PDC) for the Port and Inland Water Transport (IWT) component of the Kaladan project?

  1. ((a))

    India Ports Global Private Limited (IPGPL)

  2. ((b))

    Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust

  3. ((c))

    Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI)

  4. ((d))

    Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

India Ports Global Private Limited (IPGPL)

33

Examine the statements below and select the most appropriate option.
Assertion (A): India and Chile's signing of the CEPA Terms of Reference in May 2025 signified a strategic move beyond the underperforming Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA).
Reason (R): The April 2024 Joint Study Group recommended a broader CEPA to boost cooperation in digital services, critical minerals, and MSMEs.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

  3. ((c))

    A is false, but R is true

  4. ((d))

    A is true, but R is false

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

34

Read the following two statements carefully and choose the correct option:

Statement 1: India experienced a negative population growth rate between 1911 and 1921.

Statement 2: The influenza epidemic of 1918-19 caused widespread deaths during that period.

  1. ((a))

    Only 1

  2. ((b))

    Only 2

  3. ((c))

    Both 1 and 2 are correct

  4. ((d))

    Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only 1

35

What is the primary role of the INSAT-3DS satellite launched under the GSLV-F14 mission?

  1. ((a))

    To monitor India's defense satellite communication network.

  2. ((b))

    To provide direct-to-home broadcasting services across rural India.

  3. ((c))

    To enhance meteorological observations and aid in weather forecasting.

  4. ((d))

    To serve as a backup for interplanetary deep-space communications.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To monitor India's defense satellite communication network.

36

Which of the following industries consumes the highest share of manganese in India?

  1. ((a))

    Photography

  2. ((b))

    Metallurgical

  3. ((c))

    Match

  4. ((d))

    Leather

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Photography

37

Read the following statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option:

Assertion (A): The Reusable Launch Vehicle - Technology Demonstrator (RLV-TD) program by ISRO is a cornerstone for India's future reusable space access capabilities.

Reason (R): RLV-TD missions are specifically designed to test crucial technologies like hypersonic flight, autonomous landing systems, and the structural resilience of a winged re-entry vehicle.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

  3. ((c))

    A is true, but R is false

  4. ((d))

    A is false, but R is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

38

Read the following statements about plant hormones:

  1. Auxins promote apical dominance.
  2. Cytokinins promote senescence.
  3. Ethylene accelerates fruit ripening.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. ((a))

    Only 1 and 2 are correct

  2. ((b))

    Only 1 and 3 are correct

  3. ((c))

    Only 2 and 3 are correct

  4. ((d))

    1, 2 and 3 all are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only 1 and 2 are correct

39

If the half-life of a radioactive substance is 10 days, then the time taken for 75% of the original sample to decay is:

  1. ((a))

    5 days

  2. ((b))

    10 days

  3. ((c))

    20 days

  4. ((d))

    30 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5 days

40

Under Bharatiya Nagarik suraksha Samhita(BNSS), every police station must maintain what digital register?

  1. ((a))

    Crime Index

  2. ((b))

    Crime Registry

  3. ((c))

    E-FIR log

  4. ((d))

    Daily Case Register

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Crime Index

41

Under SMAM, what percentage grant is provided to FPOs for Kisan Drone demonstrations?

  1. ((a))

    40%

  2. ((b))

    50%

  3. ((c))

    75%

  4. ((d))

    100%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

40%

42

Fill in the Blank:

Ghoomar means ______ in Rajasthani.

  1. ((a))

    Jump

  2. ((b))

    Twirl

  3. ((c))

    Sing

  4. ((d))

    Celebrate

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jump

43

What is the primary purpose of the 2024 Environmental Performance Index (EPI)?

  1. ((a))

    To evaluate GDP growth across developing nations

  2. ((b))

    To offer a global ranking of environmental NGOs

  3. ((c))

    To rank countries on environmental and climate performance

  4. ((d))

    To list the most polluted cities across continents

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To evaluate GDP growth across developing nations

44

Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options:

Assertion (A): A country with high Human Development Index may still have high multidimensional poverty.

Reason (R): Human Development Index is an average and doesn't capture intra-country inequalities.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

  3. ((c))

    A is true, but R is false.

  4. ((d))

    A is false, but R is true.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

45

Read the following two statements carefully and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A): In barter exchange, double coincidence of wants enhances transactional efficiency.

Reason (R): Double coincidence of wants is done away with by money.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

  3. ((c))

    A is true, but R is false.

  4. ((d))

    A is false, but R is true.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

46

Nationalization of major banks occurred in which year?

  1. ((a))

    1965

  2. ((b))

    1969

  3. ((c))

    1971

  4. ((d))

    1980

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1965

47

Which of the following statements about the textile industry in India is correct?

  1. ((a))

    It is dependent on foreign raw materials.

  2. ((b))

    It is not involved in foreign exchange earnings.

  3. ((c))

    It plays a key role in industrial output and jobs.

  4. ((d))

    It only manufactures low-value goods.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It is dependent on foreign raw materials.

48

Consider the following statements regarding the GIB (Great Indian Bustard):

  1. It is listed as Critically Endangered under the IUCN Red List.
  2. It is found in the grasslands of Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Rajasthan.
  3. The species is protected under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
  1. ((a))

    Only 1 and 2 are correct

  2. ((b))

    Only 2 and 3 are correct

  3. ((c))

    Only 1 and 3 are correct

  4. ((d))

    All 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only 1 and 2 are correct

49

Large-scale solar power projects often face challenges related to land acquisition and environmental impact. Which geographical factor is most critical in minimizing these issues while maximizing energy output for a grid-connected utility-scale solar farm?

  1. ((a))

    Location within seismically active zones for geothermal integration.

  2. ((b))

    Availability of flat, arid, and sparsely populated land with high insolation.

  3. ((c))

    Proximity to major urban centers for consumption.

  4. ((d))

    Abundance of water resources for panel cleaning.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Location within seismically active zones for geothermal integration.

50

Consider these facts about prominent solar system bodies:

  1. Jupiter's Great Red Spot is a persistent anticyclonic storm.
  2. Mars has two small, irregularly shaped moons.

Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. ((a))

    Statement 1 only

  2. ((b))

    Statement 2 only

  3. ((c))

    Both 1 and 2

  4. ((d))

    Neither 1 nor 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Statement 1 only

Quantitative Aptitude (25 questions)

51

What is the smallest number that, when divided by 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7 leaves remainder 1?

  1. ((a))

    421

  2. ((b))

    841

  3. ((c))

    800

  4. ((d))

    211

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

421

52

Find the value of 0.1+0.11+0.111 0.1 + 0.11 + 0.111

  1. ((a))

    0.321

  2. ((b))

    0.331

  3. ((c))

    0.312

  4. ((d))

    0.313

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.321

53

If 2x+3y=50 2x + 3y = 50 and x,y∈N x, y \in N , then what is the value of x x for which y y is minimum?

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    22

  3. ((c))

    24

  4. ((d))

    26

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20

54

A milkman mixes water in pure blends milk and offers the mixture for sale at the original cost price of milk. If he mixes 0.75 liters of water in every 5.25 liters of milk and sells the entire mixture at the price of pure milk, what is his profit percentage?

  1. ((a))

    12.5%

  2. ((b))

    14.28%

  3. ((c))

    16.66%

  4. ((d))

    17.64%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12.5%

55

Rs. x x is invested at 14% simple interest and Rs. 2x 2x at 7% compound interest per annum for 2 years. If the difference between the CI and SI is ₹392, what is the value of x x ?

  1. ((a))

    ₹30000

  2. ((b))

    ₹40000

  3. ((c))

    ₹50000

  4. ((d))

    ₹60000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹30000

56

The average marks of 30 students are 72. The top 5 students scored an average of 86 marks, while the last 5 students averaged 54.

What is the average of the remaining 20 students?

  1. ((a))

    72

  2. ((b))

    73

  3. ((c))

    83

  4. ((d))

    84

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

72

57

There are four consecutive odd numbers, denoted as x1,x2,x3, x_1, x_2, x_3, and x4, x_4, and three consecutive even numbers, represented by y1,y2, y_1, y_2, and y3. y_3. The average of the odd numbers is six less than the average of the even numbers. Additionally, the total of the three even numbers is 16 less than the total of the four odd numbers. What is the average of x1,x2,x3, x_1, x_2, x_3, and x4 x_4 ?

  1. ((a))

    32

  2. ((b))

    34

  3. ((c))

    36

  4. ((d))

    38

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

32

58

Mr. A invested ₹15,500 in stocks and ₹20,500 in mutual funds. If the uninvested amount is 40% of his total savings, what was his total savings?

  1. ((a))

    ₹50,000

  2. ((b))

    ₹55,000

  3. ((c))

    ₹60,000

  4. ((d))

    ₹62,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹50,000

59

The table below displays the student's scores from their first and second semester exams across four subjects in a particular year."

 

Subjects1st Semester2nd SemesterMaximum Marks
English404550
Maths7080100
Science354050
History5565100
<br> <br>

What is the student's approximate cumulative percentage of marks for the entire year?

  1. ((a))

    68%

  2. ((b))

    70%

  3. ((c))

    72%

  4. ((d))

    75%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

68%

60

A person sells 50 chairs for ₹10,000, suffering a loss of 15%. Estimate how many chairs should he sell for ₹9000 to make a profit of 10%?

  1. ((a))

    34

  2. ((b))

    35

  3. ((c))

    36

  4. ((d))

    37

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

34

61

A 40-liter mixture contains juice and water in the ratio 5:3 5:3 . How much water (in liters) must be added to this mixture to change the ratio of juice to water to 2:3 2:3 ?

  1. ((a))

    15.5 litres

  2. ((b))

    22.5 litres

  3. ((c))

    25 litres

  4. ((d))

    30 litres

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15.5 litres

62

A and B together finish work in 10 days. B and C in 12 days. A and C in 15 days. How many days will C take to do the work alone?

  1. ((a))

    40 days

  2. ((b))

    20 days

  3. ((c))

    15 days

  4. ((d))

    18 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

40 days

63

A bus starts from City A at 1:00 PM, and travels towards City B at a speed of 50 km/h. A car starts from City B at 2:30 PM and travels towards City A at a speed of 80 km/h. If the distance between City A and City B is 450 km, at what time will they cross each other?

  1. ((a))

    5:00 PM

  2. ((b))

    5:23 PM

  3. ((c))

    6:00 PM

  4. ((d))

    6:30 PM

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5:00 PM

64

Two runners, P and Q, start running from the same point on a circular track of 800 meters. They run in the same direction with speeds of 12 km/h and 9 km/h, respectively. If they run for 4 hours, how many times will they cross each other?

  1. ((a))

    12 times

  2. ((b))

    15 times

  3. ((c))

    18 times

  4. ((d))

    20 times

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12 times

65

If (3x+2x−4)=10 (3x + \frac{2}{x} - 4) = 10 , then what is the value of (9x2+4x2+24) (9x^2 + \frac{4}{x^2} + 24) ?

  1. ((a))

    214

  2. ((b))

    208

  3. ((c))

    256

  4. ((d))

    218

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

214

66

If x+1x=2 x + \frac{1}{x} = \sqrt{2} , determine the value of x6+1x6 x^6 + \frac{1}{x^6}

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    0

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

67

From a point A on the ground, the angle of elevation to the top of a tower is 45°. After walking 40 meters toward the tower along the same straight line to a new point B, the angle of elevation becomes 60°. Find the approximate height of the tower and the distance from point A to the base of the tower.

  1. ((a))

    95 m

  2. ((b))

    90 m

  3. ((c))

    88 m

  4. ((d))

    92 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

95 m

68

Find the radius of a hemisphere whose volume is numerically equal to its total surface area.

  1. ((a))

    4.5 units

  2. ((b))

    2.8 units

  3. ((c))

    3.2 units

  4. ((d))

    1.4 units

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4.5 units

69

Two solid hemispheres of radii RR and 2R2R are melted to form a sphere and a cone. The cone has the same radius as the new sphere, and its height is twice the sphere's radius. Find the radius of the newly formed sphere.

  1. ((a))

    33×r\sqrt[3]{3} \times r

  2. ((b))

    53×r\sqrt[3]{5} \times r

  3. ((c))

    73×r\sqrt[3]{7} \times r

  4. ((d))

    113×r\sqrt[3]{11} \times r

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

33×r\sqrt[3]{3} \times r

70

A company produces wooden signs shaped like regular octagons of side 20 cm. If wood costs ₹5/cm2 ₹5/\text{cm}^2 and design costs ₹200 per piece, what is the total cost per sign?

  1. ((a))

    ₹9856

  2. ((b))

    ₹8564

  3. ((c))

    ₹1,500

  4. ((d))

    ₹1,620

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹9856

71

A circular garden is divided into 4 equal parts. If the total area is 314 m2 \text{m}^2 , what is the central angle of one part and its area?

  1. ((a))

    60∘,78.5 m2 60^\circ, 78.5 \text{ m}^2

  2. ((b))

    90∘,78.5 m2 90^\circ, 78.5 \text{ m}^2

  3. ((c))

    120∘,75 m2 120^\circ, 75 \text{ m}^2

  4. ((d))

    90∘,80 m2 90^\circ, 80 \text{ m}^2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

60∘,78.5 m2 60^\circ, 78.5 \text{ m}^2

72

A running track is comprised of a rectangular shape with semicircles at each of its shorter ends. The combined area of the two semicircles is 50% of the area of the central rectangular section. What is the approximate ratio of the length of the rectangular section to its width? (Use π≈3.14\pi \approx 3.14)

  1. ((a))

    1 : 1

  2. ((b))

    1.57 : 1

  3. ((c))

    2 : 1

  4. ((d))

    3.14 : 1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 : 1

73

A sector having a radius of 9 cm and has a central angle of 60°. What is the area of the sector?

  1. ((a))

    27π2 cm2 \frac{27\pi}{2} \text{ cm}^2

  2. ((b))

    14.5π cm2 14.5\pi \text{ cm}^2

  3. ((c))

    82.4 cm2 82.4 \text{ cm}^2

  4. ((d))

    80π6 cm2 \frac{80\pi}{6} \text{ cm}^2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

27π2 cm2 \frac{27\pi}{2} \text{ cm}^2

74

Two lines are perpendicular if their slopes multiply to:

  1. ((a))

    0

  2. ((b))

    1

  3. ((c))

    -1

  4. ((d))

    ∞\infty

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0

75

Choose the incorrect relation from the following:

I. 6+2=5+3\sqrt{6} + \sqrt{2} = \sqrt{5} + \sqrt{3}

II. 6+2<5+3\sqrt{6} + \sqrt{2} < \sqrt{5} + \sqrt{3}

III. 6+2>5+3\sqrt{6} + \sqrt{2} > \sqrt{5} + \sqrt{3}

  1. ((a))

    I

  2. ((b))

    I and III

  3. ((c))

    II

  4. ((d))

    II and III

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I

English Language (25 questions)

"The idea that space and time form a four-dimensional continuum was first suggested by Hermann Minkowski as a natural consequence of Einstein's Special Theory of Relativity. In this framework, time is not an independent, absolute entity, as Newton had assumed, but rather interwoven with the three spatial dimensions into a single fabric known as space-time. Events occur at points in this space-time, and their separation is governed not by traditional Euclidean distance but by the relativistic interval, which remains invariant under changes of reference frame. This deep connection between space and time implies that the passage of time is not universal but relative: what one observer perceives as simultaneous may differ for another observer in relative motion.

This concept becomes even more profound when we introduce gravity, as formulated in Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity. Gravity is no longer thought of as a force in the Newtonian sense but rather as the curvature of space-time caused by the presence of mass and energy. Objects moving within this curved space-time follow geodesics—the natural paths dictated by the warping of space and time itself. This leads to the astonishing prediction that time runs differently in regions of varying gravitational potential: near a massive body, such as a black hole, time slows relative to an observer in free space. This effect, known as gravitational time dilation, has been confirmed through precise experiments, such as the observation that clocks aboard satellites tick slightly faster than those on Earth's surface due to weaker gravity."

76

Which of the following best describes the grammatical structure of the sentence:

"This deep connection between space and time implies that the passage of time is not universal but relative:"?

  1. ((a))

    Compound sentence

  2. ((b))

    Complex sentence

  3. ((c))

    Simple sentence

  4. ((d))

    Compound-complex sentence

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Compound sentence

77

What is the closest meaning of "geodesics" in the context of the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Straightest possible paths in curved space-time

  2. ((b))

    Gravitational waves moving through space

  3. ((c))

    Circular orbits caused by gravitational pull

  4. ((d))

    Fixed points of measurement in space-time

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Straightest possible paths in curved space-time

78

In the sentence "Gravity is no longer thought of as a force in the Newtonian sense but rather as the curvature of space-time...", what does the word "curvature" most likely refer to?

  1. ((a))

    Folding of physical objects

  2. ((b))

    Bending of the path of planets only

  3. ((c))

    Warping of the structure of space and time

  4. ((d))

    Deformation of gravitational fields by energy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Folding of physical objects

79

Which of the following is incorrectly spelled?

  1. ((a))

    Obsolesence

  2. ((b))

    Scrumptious

  3. ((c))

    Vanquish

  4. ((d))

    Capitulation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Obsolesence

80

Fill in the blank with the correctly spelt word.

The king's ________ reign led to widespread unrest among the people.

  1. ((a))

    despotick

  2. ((b))

    desppotic

  3. ((c))

    despotic

  4. ((d))

    disspotic

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

despotick

81

Choose the correct active form of the given sentence.

<br>

Admission was refused to Sheetal by the school.

  1. ((a))

    Sheetal was refused admission by the school.

  2. ((b))

    The school refused admission to Sheetal.

  3. ((c))

    Sheetal will be refused admission by the school.

  4. ((d))

    The school has been refusing admission to Sheetal.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sheetal was refused admission by the school.

82

Fill in the blank with the appropriate adverb.

The policy was implemented ________, without prior public consultation.

  1. ((a))

    arbitrarily

  2. ((b))

    intuitively

  3. ((c))

    pragmatically

  4. ((d))

    sequentially

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

arbitrarily

83

Fill in the blank with the appropriate article.

The committee deliberated extensively over whether ______ increase in tuition fees was justifiable given the prevailing economic climate.

  1. ((a))

    a

  2. ((b))

    an

  3. ((c))

    the

  4. ((d))

    no article

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

a

84

Choose the one that correctly represents the sentence in direct speech.

<br>

Adit explained that he hadn't had the time to prepare his speech the day before.

  1. ((a))

    Adit said, "I haven't had the time to prepare my speech the day before."

  2. ((b))

    Adit said, "I didn't have the time to prepare my speech yesterday."

  3. ((c))

    Adit said, "I didn't have the time to prepare my speech the day before."

  4. ((d))

    Adit said, "I hadn't had the time to prepare my speech yesterday."

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Adit said, "I haven't had the time to prepare my speech the day before."

85

Which of the following is the correct indirect speech conversion of the given sentence?

<br>

Purna said, "Bravo! I have passed the entrance test."

  1. ((a))

    Purna happily announced that she have had passed the entrance test.

  2. ((b))

    Purna joyfully exclaimed that she had passed the entrance test.

  3. ((c))

    Purna expressed with excitement that she had passed the entrance test.

  4. ((d))

    Purna said with joy that she had passed the entrance test.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Purna happily announced that she have had passed the entrance test.

86

Choose the option that best expresses the same sentence in indirect speech.

<br>

I said to him, "Does your sister know French?"

  1. ((a))

    I asked him whether his sister knows French.

  2. ((b))

    I asked him whether his sister knew French.

  3. ((c))

    I told him whether his sister knew French.

  4. ((d))

    I said to him whether his sister knows French.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I asked him whether his sister knows French.

87

Choose the correct active voice form from the given options.

<br>

The laptop may not be bought by her.

  1. ((a))

    She may not buy the laptop.

  2. ((b))

    She might not buy the laptop.

  3. ((c))

    She should not have bought the laptop.

  4. ((d))

    She may not have bought the laptop.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

She may not buy the laptop.

88

Rearrange the parts of the sentence in the correct order.

Ancient mythologies
P. while adapting to contemporary interpretations and themes
Q. influencing modern literature, cinema, and philosophy
R. preserving cultural traditions through oral storytelling
S. have transcended time and geographical boundaries,

  1. ((a))

    PRSQ

  2. ((b))

    QRPS

  3. ((c))

    RPQS

  4. ((d))

    SQRP

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

PRSQ

89

What does the idiom "to keep the wolf away from the door" mean?

  1. ((a))

    To avoid financial hardship

  2. ((b))

    To escape from a dangerous situation

  3. ((c))

    To protect oneself from enemies

  4. ((d))

    To stay away from risky opportunities

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To avoid financial hardship

90

Improve the sentence by selecting the correct form of tense from the options.

She said that she ______ the report before the deadline.

  1. ((a))

    will complete

  2. ((b))

    has completed

  3. ((c))

    had completed

  4. ((d))

    completes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

will complete

91

Improve the sentence by selecting the appropriate tense of the underlined word.

<br>

He work for an hour when I found him sleeping on the couch.

  1. ((a))

    had worked

  2. ((b))

    has worked

  3. ((c))

    will have worked

  4. ((d))

    was working

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

had worked

92

Read the sentence below and choose the meaning of the idiom that best fits the context:

"Mr. Smith: There's a little time before lunch. I think I'm going to lie down for a while and catch forty winks."

What does the idiom "catch forty winks" mean in this context?

  1. ((a))

    Eat a quick snack.

  2. ((b))

    Take a short nap.

  3. ((c))

    Go for a walk.

  4. ((d))

    Daydream while lying down.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Eat a quick snack.

93

Identify the error in the sentence.

Of the three runners, he was the faster.

  1. ((a))

    faster

  2. ((b))

    was

  3. ((c))

    runners

  4. ((d))

    three

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

faster

94

Choose the correct one-word substitution for the sentence below.

"In his extreme old age when he behaves like a fool, people often lose patience with him."

  1. ((a))

    Superannuation

  2. ((b))

    Dotage

  3. ((c))

    Senescence

  4. ((d))

    Imbecility

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Superannuation

95

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. INTRANSIGENT

  1. ((a))

    Unyielding

  2. ((b))

    Independent

  3. ((c))

    Stubborn

  4. ((d))

    Objective

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Unyielding

96

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. PREFUNCTORY

  1. ((a))

    Cursory

  2. ((b))

    Meticulous

  3. ((c))

    Earnest

  4. ((d))

    Elaborate

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cursory

97

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Lucid

  1. ((a))

    Clear

  2. ((b))

    Confusing

  3. ((c))

    Bright

  4. ((d))

    Fluent

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Clear

98

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

Impervious

  1. ((a))

    Impregnable

  2. ((b))

    Permeable

  3. ((c))

    Durable

  4. ((d))

    Impassive

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Impregnable

99

Change the following from active to passive:

The director was supposed to have finalized the script revisions before principal photography commenced.

  1. ((a))

    The script revisions were supposed to have finalized by the director before principal photography commenced.

  2. ((b))

    The script revisions were supposed to have been finalized by the director before principal photography commenced.

  3. ((c))

    The script revisions were being supposed to have been finalized by the director before principal photography commenced.

  4. ((d))

    The script revisions were supposed to being finalized by the director before principal photography commenced.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The script revisions were supposed to have finalized by the director before principal photography commenced.

100

Which of the following is the correct spelling of the word?

  1. ((a))

    Easthetic

  2. ((b))

    Aesthetic

  3. ((c))

    Aesthatic

  4. ((d))

    Aesthettic

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Easthetic

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