SSC MTS 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 18 Feb, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

Shortcut Trick

Apply VBODMAS priority: 'of' → division → multiplication → addition/subtraction.

Calculate: 16 of 2 = 32, 36 ÷ 6 = 6, and 25 × 2 = 50.

Simplified expression: 61 + 32 − 18 + 6 + 50 − 43.

Net result: (61 + 32 + 6 + 50) − (18 + 43) = 149 − 61 = 88.

∴ The correct answer is 88.

Alternate Method

Given: 61 + (16 of 2) − 18 + 36 ÷ 6 + 25 × 2 − 43

Formula Used: VBODMAS rule (Vinculum, Bracket, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction)

⇒ 61 + 32 − 18 + 36 ÷ 6 + 25 × 2 − 43

⇒ 61 + 32 − 18 + 6 + 25 × 2 − 43

⇒ 61 + 32 − 18 + 6 + 50 − 43

⇒ 93 − 18 + 6 + 50 − 43

⇒ 75 + 6 + 50 − 43

⇒ 81 + 50 − 43

⇒ 131 − 43

⇒ 88

∴ The correct answer is 88.

Additional Information

VBODMAS Rule

The rule defines the order of operations: Vinculum, Bracket, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction.

Priority of 'Of'

The 'of' operation is a type of multiplication that must be solved before division and standard multiplication.

Grouping Terms

To avoid errors in addition and subtraction, group all positive terms together and all negative terms together before the final calculation.

Given:

Total number of loans given by Bank B1 = 1800

All loans are of equal value.

Calculation:

According to the question,

Total loan amount disbursed by Bank B1 = 90 × 1,00,000

⇒ Total loan amount = Rs. 90,00,000

Value of each loan = Total loan amount ÷ Number of loans

⇒ Value of each loan = 90,00,000 ÷ 1800

⇒ Value of each loan = 90,000 ÷ 18

⇒ Value of each loan = 5000

∴ The correct answer is 5000.

Shortcut Trick

Assume a base average of 70 and calculate deviations.

Deviations: (99−70) + (75−70) + (52−70) + (97−70) + (34−70)

Net Deviation = 29 + 5 − 18 + 27 − 36 = 7

Average Deviation = 7 ÷ 5 = 1.4

Actual Average = 70 + 1.4 = 71.4

∴ The correct answer is 71.4.

Alternate Method

Given:

Marks in five subjects: 99, 75, 52, 97, 34.

Total number of subjects = 5.

Formula Used:

Average = (Sum of all observations) ÷ (Total number of observations)

Calculations:

⇒ Sum of marks = 99 + 75 + 52 + 97 + 34

⇒ Sum of marks = 357

⇒ Average = 357 ÷ 5

⇒ Average = 71.4

∴ The correct answer is 71.4.

Additional Information

Weighted Average

Used when different observations have different weights. Formula: Average = (w₁x₁ + w₂x₂ + ...) ÷ (w₁ + w₂ + ...)

Average of Arithmetic Progression

For a series with a constant common difference, the average is simply (First term + Last term) ÷ 2.

Change in Average

If every observation is increased or decreased by a constant value k, the new average also increases or decreases by k.

Shortcut Trick

Convert the fractions into decimal values for quick comparison:

17 ÷ 24 ≈ 0.708

(1) 13 ÷ 18 ≈ 0.722

(2) 5 ÷ 7 ≈ 0.714

(3) 7 ÷ 11 ≈ 0.636

(4) 11 ÷ 15 ≈ 0.733

∴ The correct answer is 7/11.

Alternate Method

Given: Reference fraction = 17/24

Compare using Cross-Multiplication Method (a/b < c/d if ad < bc):

⇒ Compare 17/24 and 13/18: 17 × 18 = 306 and 24 × 13 = 312. Since 306 < 312, 17/24 < 13/18.

⇒ Compare 17/24 and 5/7: 17 × 7 = 119 and 24 × 5 = 120. Since 119 < 120, 17/24 < 5/7.

⇒ Compare 17/24 and 7/11: 17 × 11 = 187 and 24 × 7 = 168. Since 187 > 168, 17/24 > 7/11.

⇒ Compare 17/24 and 11/15: 17 × 15 = 255 and 24 × 11 = 264. Since 255 < 264, 17/24 < 11/15.

∴ The correct answer is 7/11.

Additional Information

Cross Multiplication Rule

For two fractions a/b and c/d, if (a × d) < (b × c), then a/b < c/d. If (a × d) > (b × c), then a/b > c/d.

Decimal Method

Convert fractions to decimals by dividing the numerator by the denominator to compare their values directly.

Common Denominator Method

Find the LCM of denominators and convert all fractions to have this common denominator; the fraction with the smaller numerator is smaller.

Given:

The table shows the import (R1) and export (R2) of vehicles for five companies A, B, C, D, and E:

Formula Used:

Total Imports = Sum of imports (R1) of all companies

Total Imports = R1_A + R1_B + R1_C + R1_D + R1_E

Calculation:

According to the data provided in the table for imports (R1):

⇒ Import of Company A = 1000

⇒ Import of Company B = 2000

⇒ Import of Company C = 5000

⇒ Import of Company D = 3000

⇒ Import of Company E = 8000

Now, calculating the total imports:

⇒ Total Imports = 1000 + 2000 + 5000 + 3000 + 8000

⇒ Total Imports = 19000

∴ The correct answer is 19000.

Shortcut Trick

Simplify the denominator on the right side: √4900 = 70.

The equation becomes √x = 80 / 70 = 8 / 7.

Square both sides to find x: x = (8 / 7)² = 64 / 49.

∴ The correct answer is 64/49.

Alternate Method

Given: √x = 80 / √4900

Formula Used: (√a)² = a

⇒ √x = 80 / √(49 × 100)

⇒ √x = 80 / (7 × 10)

⇒ √x = 80 / 70

⇒ √x = 8 / 7

⇒ (√x)² = (8 / 7)²

⇒ x = 64 / 49

∴ The correct answer is 64/49.

Additional Information

Square Root of Large Numbers

To find √4900, simplify it as √(49 × 100) = 7 × 10 = 70. For numbers ending in double zeros, the square root ends in a single zero.

Squaring Property

If √x = k, then x = k². Squaring both sides is the standard algebraic method to remove a square root and isolate the variable.

Shortcut Trick

Identify the irrational part of the expansion (a + b)².

The term K√2 corresponds to the 2ab term in the identity (a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab.

Here, a = 6 and b = 7√2.

K√2 = 2 × 6 × 7√2 = 84√2.

Comparing the coefficients, we get K = 84.

∴ The correct answer is 84.

Alternate Method

Given: (6 + 7√2)² = 134 + K√2

Formula Used: (a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab

⇒ (6 + 7√2)² = (6)² + (7√2)² + 2 × 6 × 7√2

⇒ (6 + 7√2)² = 36 + (49 × 2) + 84√2

⇒ (6 + 7√2)² = 36 + 98 + 84√2

⇒ (6 + 7√2)² = 134 + 84√2

⇒ Comparing the result with the given expression: 134 + 84√2 = 134 + K√2

⇒ 84√2 = K√2

⇒ K = 84

∴ The correct answer is 84.

Additional Information

Square of a Binomial with Surds

When squaring an expression like (x + √y), the result is x² + y + 2x√y, where x² + y is the rational part and 2x√y is the irrational part.

Comparison of Coefficients

If a + b√n = c + d√n (where a, b, c, d are rational), then the rational parts must be equal (a = c) and the coefficients of the irrational parts must be equal (b = d).

Conjugate of a Surd

The conjugate of (a + √b) is (a − √b). Their product (a + √b)(a − √b) = a² − b is always a rational number.

Shortcut Trick

Divisibility rule for 8: Check only the last three digits of the number.

Last three digits of 4505 are 505.

Divide 505 by 8: 505 ÷ 8 = 63 with a remainder of 1.

The least number to be subtracted is the remainder itself.

∴ The correct answer is 1.

Alternate Method

Given: Number = 4505, Divisor = 8

Formula Used: Remainder = Dividend − (Divisor × Quotient)

⇒ Perform division of 4505 by 8:

⇒ 4505 ÷ 8 = 563 with a remainder.

⇒ 8 × 563 = 4504

⇒ Remainder = 4505 − 4504 = 1

⇒ To make the number divisible by 8, we must subtract the remainder from the original number.

∴ The correct answer is 1.

Additional Information

Divisibility by 8

A number is divisible by 8 if the number formed by its last three digits is divisible by 8 or if the last three digits are 000.

Divisibility by 4

A number is divisible by 4 if the number formed by its last two digits is divisible by 4.

Least Number to be Added

To find the least number to be added to make a number divisible, use the formula: (Divisor − Remainder).

Shortcut Trick

Apply the algebraic identity: 2(a² + b²) − (a + b)² = (a − b)².

Here, a = 425 and b = 375.

Result = (425 − 375)² = 50².

Result = 2500.

∴ The correct answer is 2500.

Alternate Method

Given: a = 425, b = 375

Formula Used: (a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab

⇒ 2(a² + b²) − (a + b)²

⇒ 2a² + 2b² − (a² + b² + 2ab)

⇒ 2a² + 2b² − a² − b² − 2ab

⇒ a² + b² − 2ab

⇒ (a − b)²

⇒ (425 − 375)²

⇒ 50² = 2500

∴ The correct answer is 2500.

Additional Information

Sum of Squares Identity

The expression 2(a² + b²) can be written as the sum of two squares: (a + b)² + (a − b)².

Difference of Squares

The identity a² − b² = (a − b)(a + b) is used to simplify products of sums and differences.

Square of a Binomial

(a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b² and (a − b)² = a² − 2ab + b² are fundamental algebraic expansions.

Shortcut Trick

For consecutive even numbers, the average is the middle term.

Average of 7 numbers = 4^th number = 12.

7^th number = 12 + (3 × 2) = 18.

The next 4 consecutive even numbers are 20, 22, 24, and 26.

Sum of new numbers = 20 + 22 + 24 + 26 = 92.

∴ The correct answer is 92.

Alternate Method

Given: Average of 7 consecutive even natural numbers = 12.

Formula: Sum = Average × Number of terms.

⇒ Let the 7 consecutive even numbers be n−6, n−4, n−2, n, n+2, n+4, n+6.

⇒ Sum = (n−6) + (n−4) + (n−2) + n + (n+2) + (n+4) + (n+6) = 7n.

⇒ Average = 7n ÷ 7 = n.

⇒ Since Average = 12, then n = 12.

⇒ The 7^th (largest) number in the original set = n + 6 = 12 + 6 = 18.

⇒ The next 4 consecutive even numbers are 20, 22, 24, and 26.

⇒ Sum of newly added numbers = 20 + 22 + 24 + 26 = 92.

∴ The correct answer is 92.

Additional Information

Average of Arithmetic Progression

For any series in Arithmetic Progression (like consecutive even/odd numbers), the average is (First term + Last term) ÷ 2.

Sum of First n Even Numbers

The sum of the first n even natural numbers is calculated using the formula n(n + 1).

Effect of Adding Consecutive Terms

If the next k consecutive even or odd numbers are added to a series, the new average of the entire set increases by k.

Shortcut Trick

Simplify 45/70 to 9/14 by dividing both by 5.

HCF of fractions = HCF of Numerators ÷ LCM of Denominators.

HCF of numerators (9, 27, 9) = 9.

LCM of denominators (14, 35, 14) = 70.

Result = 9/70.

∴ The correct answer is 9/70.

Alternate Method

Given: Fractions 9/14, 27/35, and 45/70.

Formula Used: HCF of Fractions = HCF(Numerators) ÷ LCM(Denominators).

⇒ Step 1: Simplify the given fractions to their lowest terms.

⇒ 45/70 = (45 ÷ 5) / (70 ÷ 5) = 9/14.

⇒ Step 2: Find the Highest Common Factor (HCF) of the numerators (9, 27, 9).

⇒ 9 = 3² | 27 = 3³ | 9 = 3².

⇒ HCF(9, 27, 9) = 3² = 9.

⇒ Step 3: Find the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of the denominators (14, 35, 14).

⇒ 14 = 2 × 7 | 35 = 5 × 7.

⇒ LCM(14, 35) = 2 × 5 × 7 = 70.

⇒ Step 4: Apply the formula.

⇒ HCF of fractions = 9/70.

∴ The correct answer is 9/70.

Additional Information

LCM of Fractions

To find the Least Common Multiple of fractions, use the formula: LCM = LCM of Numerators ÷ HCF of Denominators.

Simplest Form Requirement

Always convert fractions to their lowest terms (simplest form) before calculating HCF or LCM to ensure accuracy.

HCF and LCM Relation

For any two numbers a and b, the product of the numbers is equal to the product of their HCF and LCM: a × b = HCF × LCM.

Shortcut Trick

To find the maximum number of boys, calculate the HCF of 198 and 330.

HCF(198, 330) = 66 (since 198 = 66 × 3 and 330 = 66 × 5).

Number of chips each boy gets = Total chips ÷ HCF.

Chips per boy = 198 ÷ 66 = 3.

∴ The correct answer is 3.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total number of chips = 198

Total number of toffees = 330

Formula:

Maximum number of boys = HCF(Total Chips, Total Toffees)

Chips per boy = Total Chips ÷ Number of boys

Calculations:

⇒ Prime factorization of 198 = 2 × 3² × 11

⇒ Prime factorization of 330 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 11

⇒ HCF(198, 330) = 2 × 3 × 11 = 66

⇒ Maximum number of boys = 66

⇒ Number of chips each boy gets = 198 ÷ 66

⇒ Number of chips each boy gets = 3

∴ The correct answer is 3.

Additional Information

Highest Common Factor (HCF)

The HCF of two or more numbers is the largest number that divides each of them exactly without leaving a remainder.

Least Common Multiple (LCM)

The smallest positive integer that is a multiple of two or more numbers.

HCF and LCM Relation

For any two numbers a and b, the product of the numbers is equal to the product of their HCF and LCM: a × b = HCF(a, b) × LCM(a, b).

Shortcut Trick

Identify the geometric relationship: ∠ARP and ∠DSQ are Exterior Alternate Angles.

When two lines are parallel (AB ∥ CD), their exterior alternate angles are always equal.

∴ ∠DSQ = ∠ARP = 115°.

∴ The correct answer is 115.

Alternate Method

Given: AB ∥ CD and transversal PQ intersects them at R and S. ∠ARP = 115°.

⇒ ∠BRS = ∠ARP (Vertically opposite angles are equal)

⇒ ∠BRS = 115°

⇒ ∠DSQ = ∠BRS (Corresponding angles are equal for AB ∥ CD)

⇒ ∠DSQ = 115°

∴ The correct answer is 115.

Additional Information

Corresponding Angles

Angles in the same relative position at each intersection where a straight line crosses two parallel lines are equal.

Alternate Interior Angles

The pairs of angles on opposite sides of the transversal and between the two parallel lines are always equal.

Consecutive Interior Angles

The pairs of angles on one side of the transversal line and between the two parallel lines are supplementary (sum = 180°).

Given:

PQ = QR, PS = SR, ∠PSR = 150°.

Calculation:

⇒ In ΔPSQ and ΔRSQ: 

⇒ PQ = QR (Given)

⇒ PS = SR (Given)

⇒ QS = QS (Common side)

⇒ ∴ ΔPSQ ≅ ΔRSQ (By SSS congruence criterion)

⇒ Since triangles are congruent, their corresponding parts are equal (CPCT).

⇒ ∠PSQ = ∠RSQ

Let ∠RSQ = ∠PSQ = x.

⇒ The angles around point S add up to 360°.

⇒ ∠PSR + ∠PSQ + ∠RSQ = 360°

⇒ 150° + x + x = 360°

⇒ 2x = 360° − 150°

⇒ 2x = 210°

⇒ x = 105°

⇒ ∠RSQ = 105°

∴ The correct answer is 105°.

Shortcut Trick

Profit % = 40% = 2/5 (where 2 units = Profit and 5 units = CP)

Given: 2 units = Rs. 180

⇒ 1 unit = Rs. 90

Selling Price (SP) = CP + Profit = 5 + 2 = 7 units

⇒ SP = 7 × 90 = Rs. 630

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 630.

Alternate Method

Given: Profit = Rs. 180, Profit % = 40%

Formula Used: Profit % = (Profit / CP) × 100 | Selling Price (SP) = CP + Profit

⇒ Profit % = (Profit / CP) × 100

⇒ 40 = (180 / CP) × 100

⇒ CP = (180 × 100) / 40

⇒ CP = 18000 / 40 = Rs. 450

⇒ SP = CP + Profit

⇒ SP = 450 + 180 = Rs. 630

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 630.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Basics

Profit occurs when SP > CP, and Loss occurs when CP > SP. Profit = SP − CP and Loss = CP − SP.

Direct SP Formula

SP = CP × (100 + Profit%)/100. In this case, SP = CP × 140/100.

Marked Price and Discount

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP). SP = MP − Discount.

Shortcut Trick

40% of 900 = 0.4 × 900 = 360

50% less than 360 means half of 360.

Required number = 360 ÷ 2 = 180

∴ The correct answer is 180.

Alternate Method

Given:

Base number = 900

First percentage = 40%

Second percentage reduction = 50%

Formula Used:

Final Value = [Base × (P₁/100)] × [1 − (P₂/100)]

⇒ Step 1: Calculate 40% of 900

⇒ (40/100) × 900 = 360

⇒ Step 2: Calculate 50% less than 360

⇒ 360 − (50% of 360)

⇒ 360 − 180 = 180

∴ The correct answer is 180.

Additional Information

Percentage Decrease Formula

To find a value after x% decrease, multiply the original value by (100 − x)/100.

Successive Percentages

If a value is changed by a% and then by b%, the net effective change is [a + b + (ab/100)]%.

Fraction Equivalents

Common percentages: 50% = 1/2, 40% = 2/5, 25% = 1/4, 20% = 1/5.

Shortcut Trick

Total work capacity = 10 men × 30 days = 300 units.

Required work = 1/2 of 300 = 150 units.

Number of men = Required work ÷ Days = 150 ÷ 15 = 10 men.

∴ The correct answer is 10.

Alternate Method

Given:

M₁ = 10 men

D₁ = 30 days

W₁ = 1 (Full work)

D₂ = 15 days

W₂ = 1/2 (Half work)

Formula Used:

(M₁ × D₁) ÷ W₁ = (M₂ × D₂) ÷ W₂

Calculations:

⇒ (10 × 30) ÷ 1 = (M₂ × 15) ÷ (1/2)

⇒ 300 = M₂ × 15 × 2

⇒ 300 = M₂ × 30

⇒ M₂ = 300 ÷ 30

⇒ M₂ = 10

∴ The correct answer is 10.

Additional Information

Chain Rule Concept

The relationship between men, days, hours, and work is given by (M₁D₁H₁)/W₁ = (M₂D₂H₂)/W₂.

Direct and Inverse Proportion

Men and Days are inversely proportional (more men, fewer days), while Men and Work are directly proportional (more men, more work).

Efficiency Factor

If the efficiency (E) of workers is different, the formula becomes (M₁D₁E₁)/W₁ = (M₂D₂E₂)/W₂.

Shortcut Trick

Efficiency ratio of X : Y : Z = 1/15 : 1/20 : 1/30 = 4 : 3 : 2

Wages are shared in efficiency ratio: X (4 units) = 6000

1 unit = 1500

Total wages of Y and Z = (3 + 2) = 5 units

Total wages = 5 × 1500 = 7500

∴ The correct answer is 7500.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by X = 15 days

Time taken by Y = 20 days

Time taken by Z = 30 days

Wage of X = 6000

Formula Used:

Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time

Wage ∝ Efficiency (when time worked is same for all)

Calculations:

⇒ Total Work = LCM of 15, 20, 30 = 60 units

⇒ Efficiency of X = 60 ÷ 15 = 4 units/day

⇒ Efficiency of Y = 60 ÷ 20 = 3 units/day

⇒ Efficiency of Z = 60 ÷ 30 = 2 units/day

⇒ Ratio of wages = Efficiency ratio = 4 : 3 : 2

⇒ Let wages of X, Y, Z be 4k, 3k, and 2k respectively.

⇒ Given, 4k = 6000

⇒ k = 6000 ÷ 4 = 1500

⇒ Total wages of Y and Z = 3k + 2k = 5k

⇒ Total wages of Y and Z = 5 × 1500 = 7500

∴ The correct answer is 7500.

Additional Information

Work and Wages Rule

Wages are always distributed in the ratio of the work done by each person. If they work for the same duration, the wage ratio is equal to the efficiency ratio.

Efficiency and Time

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete a task. Efficiency = 1 ÷ Time.

Pipes and Cisterns Analogy

This concept is identical to pipes filling a tank, where the rate of filling (efficiency) determines the contribution of each pipe to the total volume.

Shortcut Trick

Relative Speed in opposite direction = (Sum of Lengths) ÷ Time

Relative Speed = (200 + 400) ÷ 30 = 600 ÷ 30 = 20 m/s

Speed of Train B = Relative Speed − Speed of Train A

Speed of Train B = 20 − 15 = 5 m/s

∴ The correct answer is 5 m/s.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of Train A (L_A) = 200 m

Length of Train B (L_B) = 400 m

Speed of Train A (S_A) = 15 m/s

Time taken to cross each other (t) = 30 s

Formula Used:

Relative Speed (Opposite Direction) = (L_A + L_B) ÷ Time

⇒ Total distance to be covered = L_A + L_B

⇒ Total distance = 200 + 400 = 600 m

⇒ Relative Speed = S_A + S_B (since they move in opposite directions)

⇒ S_A + S_B = Total Distance ÷ Time

⇒ 15 + S_B = 600 ÷ 30

⇒ 15 + S_B = 20

⇒ S_B = 20 − 15

⇒ S_B = 5 m/s

∴ The correct answer is 5 m/s.

Additional Information

Relative Speed in Same Direction

When two objects move in the same direction, their relative speed is the difference of their speeds: S_rel = S₁ − S₂.

Crossing a Stationary Object

When a train crosses a pole or a person, the distance covered is equal to the length of the train. If it crosses a platform, distance = length of train + length of platform.

Unit Conversion

To convert speed from km/h to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert from m/s to km/h, multiply by 18/5.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Boat Speed (B) to Stream Speed (S) = (Downstream + Upstream) : (Downstream − Upstream)

Given Downstream (D) = 9 and Upstream (U) = 4

B : S = (9 + 4) : (9 − 4)

B : S = 13 : 5

∴ The correct answer is 13:5.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of Downstream Speed (D) : Upstream Speed (U) = 9 : 4

Formula Used:

Speed of boat in still water (B) = (D + U) ÷ 2

Speed of stream (S) = (D − U) ÷ 2

⇒ Let Downstream speed = 9x and Upstream speed = 4x ⇒ Speed of boat in still water (B) = (9x + 4x) ÷ 2 = 13x ÷ 2 ⇒ Speed of stream (S) = (9x − 4x) ÷ 2 = 5x ÷ 2 ⇒ Ratio of B : S = (13x ÷ 2) : (5x ÷ 2) ⇒ B : S = 13 : 5

∴ The correct answer is 13:5.

Additional Information

Downstream and Upstream Speed

Downstream speed is the sum of boat speed and stream speed (B + S), while upstream speed is the difference (B − S).

Still Water Speed Calculation

The speed of the boat in still water is the arithmetic mean of the downstream and upstream speeds: B = (D + U) ÷ 2.

Stream Speed Calculation

The speed of the stream is half the difference between the downstream and upstream speeds: S = (D − U) ÷ 2.

Logic followed here is: The positional value of 1st letter of every word is decreased by -5 and 2nd letter is decreased by -6 to get the next term.

∴ According the logic followed WR will replace the (?) mark.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is: The positional value of 1st letter of every word is decreased by (-2) and 2nd letter is decreased by in series (3,4,5,6,7,8,9).

 

∴ According to the logic followed here RM will replace the (?) mark.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Logic followed here is: 1st letter in the cluster is decreased by (-4) and 2nd letter is shifted to the opposite letter in the alphabetical series.

For

PT : LG:

LY : HB :

Similarly, HA is related to :

Therefore, the missing letter cluster is DZ.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Logic followed here is:

The positional values of the first letters in each pair follow:

First pair  →  -6, +19

Second pair →  -2, +13

For

(IP, CJ, VC) →

For the first letters (I, C, V):

Pattern: 9 - 6 = 3 (C); 3 + 19 = 22 (V)

For the second letters (P, J, C):

Pattern: 16 - 6 = 10 (J); 10 - 7 = 3 (C)

(GR, AL, TE) →

For the first letters (G, A, T):

Pattern: 7 - 6 = 1 (A); 1 + 19 = 20 (T)

For the second letters (R, L, E):

Pattern: 18 - 6 = 12 (L); 12 - 7 = 5 (E)

 

Similarly, check (KM, EG, XZ):

For the first letters (K, E, X):

Pattern: 11 - 6 = 5 (E); 5 + 19 = 24 (X)

For the second letters (M, G, Z):

Pattern: 13 - 6 = 7 (G); 7 + 19 = 26 (Z)

Therefore, the group that follows the same pattern is (KM, EG, XZ).

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

November has 30 days.

1 November 2025 is a Saturday.

So, the calendar will be:

Number of Thursdays = 4

Number of Fridays = 4

Number of Sundays = 5

Sum = 4 + 4 + 5 = 13

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

For two years to have the same calendar:

Both years must be either leap years or non-leap years.

The total odd days between them must be 0.

2007 is a non-leap year.

Now count odd days from 2007 onward:

After 2012, the calendar repeats for the next non-leap year.

So,

2007 + 11 years = 2018

Therefore, the calendar of 2018 is the same as 2007.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4 (2018).

The logic followed here is:

Every shapes inside the first box is shifting downward to get the the next figure in the cluster.

∴ Figure in Option 1 will replace the (?) mark.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

The first pair of numbers and the last pair of numbers are reversed and the middle number remains the same to get the next cluster.

∴ The figure in Option 4 will replace the (?) mark.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Logic followed here is:

Logic: The first letter is shifted by +2, the second letter is shifted by +4, and the number is decreased by 60.

AK160 is coded as CO100 →

EU120 is coded as CQ180 →

 

Similarly, let’s find the cluster related to BP140:

Therefore, the required cluster is DT180.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Logic followed here is:

Logic: Each letter is shifted by +2 in the alphabetical sequence and the number is transformed as:

(Number)² - 1

AMR10 is coded as CPM99 →

BKP13 is coded as DNK168 →

 

Similarly, let’s find the cluster for RTW25:

Therefore, the required cluster is TWR624.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Logic followed here is: The letters of the word are shifted by specific values (+1, +2, -1, -4) based on their positions to obtain the code.

For

DUDS is coded as EWCO →

 

SLUM is coded as TNTI →

 

The pattern observed is: The letters are shifted by +1, +2, -1, -4.

Similarly, let's find the code for MUCH:

 

Therefore, the code for 'MUCH' is NWBD.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given Codes:

'create brings girls cares' → 'nlg tmf nkf khk'

'every girls fear above' → 'nmh tmf toj wip'

'blood fear cover roads' → 'qnd ifl zhd wip'

Common word between first and second sentence:

'girls'

Common code between first and second code:

tmf

Therefore, the code for 'girls' is tmf.

Common word between second and third sentence:

'fear'

Common code between second and third code:

wip

Therefore, the code for 'fear' is wip.

Thus,

'girls fear' → tmf wip

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Logic followed here is.

Each term contains two letters followed by a number.

The first letters move backward by 3 positions, the second letters move backward by 5 positions, and the numbers increase by 94.

Analysis of the First Letter:

Pattern: 26 - 3 = 23, 23 - 3 = 20, 20 - 3 = 17, 17 - 3 = 14, 14 - 3 = 11

The first letters follow the correct pattern.

Analysis of the Second Letter:

Pattern: 18 + 5 = 23, 23 + 5 = 28 → 2 (B), 2 + 5 = 7, 7 + 5 = 12, 12 + 5 = 17

The second letters also follow the correct pattern.

Analysis of the Numerical Part:

150 + 94 = 244

244 + 94 = 338

338 + 94 = 432

432 + 94 = 526

526 + 94 = 620

But the last term is given as 621.

So, the correct term should be KQ620 instead of JR621.

Therefore, the wrong term in the series is JR621.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Logic followed here is: All the letters are shifted by (+5) to their positional value to get the next letter in the cluster and the (+108) is added in the number to get the next one.

∴ According to the logic followed CDI432 will replace the (?)mark.

 Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Formula used:

Angle between hour hand and minute hand

= |30H − 5.5M|

Here,

H = 5

Required angle = 130°

So,

|30 × 5 − 5.5M| = 130

|150 − 5.5M| = 130

150 − 5.5M = 130

5.5M = 20

M = 20 ÷ 5.5

M ≈ 3.63 minutes

≈ 4 minutes

Therefore, the required time is approximately 5:04 PM.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

At 11:30 AM, the clock is 5 minutes fast.

At 11:30 PM, the clock is 11 minutes fast.

Increase in error in 12 hours:

11 − 5 = 6 minutes

So, the clock gains:

6 minutes in 12 hours

Therefore, to gain 5 minutes:

Time taken =

$[ \frac{12 \times 5}{6} = 10 \text{ hours} ]$

So, 10 hours before 11:30 AM, the clock was correct.

11:30 AM − 10 hours = 1:30 AM

Therefore, the clock showed the correct time at 1:30 AM.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Logic followed in the figure series: 

The figure is rotating 45° clockwise in every next figure and the number of lines inside the figure is increasing by 1 in every next figure.

∴ Figure in Option 2 will replace the (?) mark.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is :

The circle inside the box is flipping in every next figure towards right and the triangle is shifting anti-clockwise to the corners.

∴ Figure in Option 1 will replace the (?) mark.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Shortcut Trick

Age difference always remains constant regardless of time.

3 years ago, difference in ratio units = 22 − 17 = 5 units.

Given difference = 10 years ⇒ 5 units = 10 years.

1 unit = 2 years.

B's age 3 years ago = 17 × 2 = 34 years.

B's present age = 34 + 3 = 37 years.

∴ The correct answer is 37 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

Difference between present ages of A and B = 10 years.

Ratio of ages of A and B (3 years ago) = 22 : 17.

Formula Used:

Age difference = Constant throughout life.

Age after n years = Past age + n.

Calculations:

⇒ Let the ages of A and B 3 years ago be 22x and 17x respectively.

⇒ Difference in their ages = 22x − 17x = 5x.

⇒ Since the age difference is always constant, 5x = 10.

⇒ x = 10 ÷ 5 = 2.

⇒ B's age 3 years ago = 17x = 17 × 2 = 34 years.

⇒ B's present age = 34 + 3 = 37 years.

∴ The correct answer is 37 years.

Additional Information

Constant Age Difference

The difference between the ages of two individuals never changes with time. If A is 10 years older than B today, A will always be 10 years older than B.

Ratio Scaling

When a ratio a : b is given, the actual values can be represented as ax and bx, where x is the common scaling factor.

Time Shifts

To find the age 'n' years ago, subtract 'n' from the present age. To find the age 'n' years hence, add 'n' to the present age.

Shortcut Trick

Son's age after 3 years = 32 → Present age = 29 years.

Son's age 8 years ago = 29 − 8 = 21 years.

Father's age 10 years ago = 2 × 21 = 42 years.

Father's present age = 42 + 10 = 52 years.

Sum of present ages = 52 + 29 = 81 years.

∴ The correct answer is 81 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

Son's age after 3 years = 32 years

Father's age (10 years ago) = 2 × Son's age (8 years ago)

Calculations:

Let the present age of the Father be F and the Son be S.

⇒ Son's age after 3 years: S + 3 = 32

⇒ S = 32 − 3 = 29 years

⇒ Son's age 8 years ago = S − 8 = 29 − 8 = 21 years

⇒ Father's age 10 years ago = 2 × (Son's age 8 years ago)

⇒ F − 10 = 2 × 21

⇒ F − 10 = 42

⇒ F = 42 + 10 = 52 years

⇒ Sum of present ages = F + S = 52 + 29 = 81 years

∴ The correct answer is 81 years.

Additional Information

Constant Age Difference

The numerical difference between the ages of two people always remains constant, regardless of the time elapsed.

Ratio of Ages

If the ratio of ages is given for two different time periods, the change in the number of ratio units must be proportional to the actual number of years passed.

Average Age

If the average age of n people is A, then after k years, their average age will be A + k.

The correct answer is Fourth.

Key Points

• The Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-1974) was the plan that immediately followed the period of Annual Plans (1966-1969).
• The period between 1966 and 1969 is famously known as the Plan Holiday. This was a significant gap in the long-term five-year planning cycle of India.
• The Third Five-Year Plan (1961-1966) was considered a failure due to multiple crises, including the Sino-Indian War in 1962 and the Indo-Pakistani War in 1965, which drained the nation's financial resources.
• A severe drought in 1965-66 led to a massive food grain shortage and high inflation, making it impossible for the government to commit to a new five-year plan immediately.
• Consequently, the government implemented three Annual Plans between 1966 and 1969 to stabilize the economy before launching the Fourth Plan in April 1969.

Additional Information

• Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961): This plan was based on the P.C. Mahalanobis Model and focused primarily on rapid industrialization and the development of heavy industries like steel and capital goods.
• Sixth Five-Year Plan (1980-1985): This plan marked the beginning of economic liberalization in India. It focused on poverty eradication (Garibi Hatao) and achieving technological self-reliance.
• Seventh Five-Year Plan (1985-1990): Led by Rajiv Gandhi, this plan emphasized Food, Work, and Productivity. It aimed at increasing industrial productivity and the use of modern technology.
• First Five-Year Plan (1951-1956): Based on the Harrod-Domar model, it focused on the agricultural sector to address the food crisis following Independence and the Partition.

Important Points

• The Fourth Five-Year Plan was based on the Gadgil Strategy and aimed at Growth with Stability and the Progressive Achievement of Self-Reliance.
• A major milestone during this plan was the Nationalization of 14 major commercial banks on 19 July 1969, which aimed to expand credit to the agricultural and rural sectors.
• The Green Revolution reached its peak during this period, significantly increasing the production of High-Yielding Variety (HYV) crops and making India self-sufficient in food grains.
• India conducted its first peaceful nuclear test, code-named Smiling Buddha, at Pokhran in 1974, towards the end of this plan period.
• The Indo-Pak War of 1971 and the subsequent creation of Bangladesh occurred during this plan, leading to a massive influx of refugees that strained the Indian economy.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• The First Five-Year Plan of India was launched for the period 1951 to 1956 under the leadership of the first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru. It was a crucial period as the nation was recovering from the aftermath of independence and partition.
• Influx of Refugees: Following the Partition of India in 1947, the country faced a massive humanitarian crisis. Millions of people migrated across the borders, leading to a huge influx of refugees who needed immediate rehabilitation, housing, and employment. This placed a significant strain on the country's limited resources and administrative machinery. Hence, statement I is correct.
• Severe Food Shortage: At the dawn of independence, India was grappling with a severe food shortage. The partition resulted in some of the most fertile and well-irrigated lands (located in West Punjab and East Bengal) going to Pakistan, while India retained a larger population to feed. This led to a high dependency on food imports and necessitated an urgent focus on increasing domestic production. Hence, statement II is correct.
• To tackle these immediate crises, the First Five-Year Plan prioritized agriculture, irrigation, and power projects. It was based on the Harrod-Domar model, which emphasized that economic growth depends on the level of savings and the capital-output ratio.
• The plan was successful in addressing these issues, as the food grain production increased significantly by the end of the plan period, and the refugee rehabilitation process was well underway.

Additional Information

• Architect of the Plan: While the plan was presented by Jawaharlal Nehru, a young economist named K.N. Raj is often considered the main architect of the draft.
• Target vs. Achievement: The plan set a target Growth Rate of 2.1% per annum. However, the actual growth achieved was 3.6%, making it a highly successful initiative.
• Major Projects: During this period, several multipurpose river valley projects were started, such as the Bhakra-Nangal Dam, Hirakud Dam, and the Damodar Valley Corporation, to boost irrigation and electricity generation.
• Community Development: The Community Development Programme was launched in 1952 to bring about an overall transformation in the socio-economic life of the rural population.
• Economic Indicators: By the end of the plan in 1956, the National Income had increased by 18% and the Per Capita Income had risen by 11%.

Important Points

• Education: Five Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) were established by the end of the plan period to promote technical education. The University Grants Commission (UGC) was also set up in 1953.
• Health: The World Health Organization (WHO), along with the Indian government, addressed children's health and reduced infant mortality, contributing to a rise in life expectancy.
• Land Reforms: The plan initiated significant land reforms to abolish the Zamindari system, aiming to provide social justice to the actual tillers of the soil.
• Price Stability: One of the major achievements of the plan was the control of inflation and the stabilization of the economy, which had been volatile due to World War II and the Partition.

The correct answer is Eka Sarana Nama Dharma.

Key Points

• Srimanta Shankardeva (born 1449 – died 1568) was a 15th-16th century polymath, saint-scholar, poet, and social-religious reformer who spearheaded the Bhakti movement in Assam.
• The devotional philosophy promoted by him is known as Eka Sarana Nama Dharma. This philosophy is based on the worship of a single supreme deity, Lord Krishna (or Vishnu), through the chanting of his name (Nama).
• The term Eka Sarana literally means taking shelter in one. It emphasizes total surrender to Krishna and rejects complex Vedic rituals, sacrifices, and idol worship, making it a revolutionary monotheistic movement of its time.
• Shankardeva used various cultural mediums to spread his teachings, including Borgeets (devotional songs), Ankiya Naat (one-act plays), and the establishment of Sattras (monasteries) and Namghars (prayer houses).
• The movement was highly egalitarian, as it aimed to create a society free from Caste-based discrimination, allowing people from all social backgrounds to participate in congregational prayers.

Additional Information

• Dvaita Vedanta (Option 1): This school of philosophy was founded by Madhvacharya in the 13th century. It posits a strict dualism between the supreme soul (Paramatman) and the individual soul (Jivatman), stating they are eternally distinct.
• Advaita Vedanta (Option 2): Promoted by Adi Shankara in the 8th century, this philosophy teaches non-dualism (Monism), where the individual soul is considered identical to the ultimate reality, Brahman.
• Achintya Bheda Abheda (Option 3): This is a sub-school of Vaishnavism founded by Chaitanya Mahaprabhu in Bengal. It describes the relationship between the creator and creation as being simultaneously identical and different in an inconceivable way.
• Sattriya Dance: One of the most significant cultural contributions of Shankardeva, this dance form originated in the Sattras and was recognized as one of the eight classical dances of India by the Sangeet Natak Akademi in the year 2000.
• Brajavali Language: Shankardeva created this unique literary language, which is a blend of Assamese, Maithili, and Braj Bhasha, to write his devotional plays and songs.

Important Points

• Kirtan Ghosha: This is the most revered religious text of the Eka Sarana Nama Dharma, consisting of a collection of poetical works by Shankardeva that are meant for community singing.
• Namghars: These are unique prayer houses established by Shankardeva that serve as the center for religious, social, and cultural activities in Assamese villages, fostering community harmony.
• Madhavdeva: He was the primary disciple of Shankardeva and authored the Naam Ghosha, which is another foundational text of the Neo-Vaishnavite faith in Assam.
• The Bhagavata Purana serves as the primary scriptural authority for this dharma, and Shankardeva translated several of its sections into the local language to make them accessible to the common people.

The correct answer is They crush and grind the food into smaller particles

Key Points

• The primary role of teeth in the digestive system is mechanical digestion. They physically break down large pieces of food into smaller particles through the process of mastication (chewing).
• By crushing and grinding food, teeth increase the surface area of the food, which allows digestive enzymes in the saliva and stomach to work more efficiently.
• Secreting enzymes is not a function of teeth; this is done by various glands such as the salivary glands, stomach lining, and pancreas.
• Saliva production is the responsibility of the salivary glands (parotid, submandibular, and sublingual), not the teeth.
• Nutrient absorption occurs primarily in the small intestine, where the lining is specialized to transport nutrients into the bloodstream.

Additional Information

• Humans have four main types of teeth: Incisors for cutting, Canines for tearing, and Premolars and Molars for grinding and crushing.
• The outermost layer of the tooth is called enamel, which is the hardest substance in the human body and protects the tooth from wear and tear.
• The human dental formula for permanent teeth is 2:1:2:3, representing the number of incisors, canines, premolars, and molars in one quadrant of the mouth.
• Mechanical digestion begins in the mouth with the teeth and tongue, while chemical digestion begins simultaneously as salivary amylase starts breaking down carbohydrates.

The correct answer is mitochondria

Key Points

• The process of cellular respiration begins in the cytoplasm, where a six-carbon glucose molecule is broken down into two three-carbon molecules called pyruvate. This step is known as glycolysis.
• In the presence of oxygen (aerobic respiration), the pyruvate enters the mitochondria.
• Inside the mitochondria, the breakdown of pyruvate takes place to give carbon dioxide, water, and a large amount of energy in the form of ATP.
• The cytoplasm is only responsible for the initial anaerobic stage (glycolysis), while the mitochondria are the primary sites for the oxygen-dependent stages like the Krebs cycle and the Electron Transport Chain.
• Lysosomes are known as the 'suicidal bags' of the cell as they contain digestive enzymes to break down waste, and the cell membrane is the outer covering that regulates the movement of substances in and out of the cell.

Additional Information

• Mitochondria are often referred to as the Powerhouse of the cell because they generate the energy currency, ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate).
• In the absence of oxygen (anaerobic respiration), pyruvate is converted into ethanol and carbon dioxide in yeast (fermentation), or into lactic acid in human muscle cells during vigorous exercise.
• Aerobic respiration in the mitochondria produces significantly more energy (up to 38 ATP molecules) compared to anaerobic respiration (only 2 ATP molecules).
• The mitochondria possess their own DNA and ribosomes, allowing them to produce some of their own proteins.

The correct answer is Rig Veda.

Key Points

• The Rig Veda is the oldest of the four Vedas and the earliest literary record of the Indo-Aryan civilization, composed roughly between 1500 BCE and 1200 BCE. It is in this ancient text that the river Sarasvatī is mentioned for the first time.
• In the Rig Veda, the Sarasvatī is described as a mighty, perennial river flowing from the Himalayan mountains to the Samudra (ocean or large water body). It was the most sacred river for the Vedic people during the Early Vedic Period.
• The river is lauded with titles such as Naditama (the best of all rivers), Ambitama (the best of all mothers), and Devitama (the best of all goddesses). These descriptions highlight its central role in the life and spirituality of the Aryans.
• The Nadi Stuti Sukta (Hymn of Praise of Rivers) found in the 10th Mandala of the Rig Veda explicitly mentions the Sarasvatī along with other major rivers like the Sindhu (Indus), Ganga, and Yamuna.
• While the other Vedas like Sam Veda, Yajur Veda, and Atharva Veda also contain references to the river, they were composed during the Later Vedic Period (c. 1000–600 BCE), making the Rig Veda the primary and first source of its mention.

Additional Information

• Sam Veda: This is known as the Veda of Melodies. It consists of 1,549 verses, most of which are taken from the Rig Veda and set to music for chanting during Soma sacrifices. It does not provide the first geographical mention of rivers.
• Yajur Veda: Known as the Veda of Rituals, it contains prose mantras and formulas for performing sacrifices. It is divided into two parts: Shukla Yajur Veda (White) and Krishna Yajur Veda (Black). It was composed after the Rig Veda.
• Atharva Veda: This is the Veda of Magical Formulas and charms. It deals with healing, protection from evil spirits, and daily life rituals. It is the youngest of the four Vedas and reflects a different socio-cultural stage than the Rig Veda.
• Geographical Identity: Modern scholars and geologists often identify the Sarasvatī with the Ghaggar-Hakra river system that flows through Haryana, Rajasthan, and Punjab. Scientific evidence suggests it was a major river that dried up due to tectonic shifts and climate changes around 1900 BCE.
• Sapta Sindhu: The Rig Veda describes the Land of Seven Rivers (Sapta Sindhu), which included the Indus, Vitasta (Jhelum), Asikni (Chenab), Parushni (Ravi), Vipasa (Beas), Sutudri (Sutlej), and the Sarasvatī.

Important Points

• The Sarasvatī is mentioned approximately 50 times throughout the Rig Veda, appearing more frequently than the Ganga or Yamuna in the earliest layers of the text.
• By the time of the Brahmanas and Puranas (later texts), the river is described as disappearing at a place called Vinasana, which marks the transition from a physical river to a mythical or subterranean one.
• In later Hinduism, Sarasvatī evolved from a river goddess into the Goddess of Knowledge, music, art, and wisdom, often depicted holding a Veena and a book.
• The Prayag Raj (Allahabad) confluence is traditionally believed to be the meeting point of the Ganga, Yamuna, and the invisible Sarasvatī, known as the Triveni Sangam.

The correct answer is Nagaland.

Key Points

• Khupielilie is a traditional folk dance belonging to the northeastern state of Nagaland. It is a cultural expression deeply rooted in the heritage of the Angami Naga tribe.
• This dance is specifically performed by women, showcasing their grace, coordination, and rhythmic movements. It serves as a medium to celebrate femininity and community bonding.
• The dance is primarily associated with the Sekrenyi festival, which is the premier festival of the Angami people. It is celebrated to mark the purification of the soul and the body. Hence, the statement identifying Nagaland as the origin is correct.
• Other states mentioned in the options have different iconic dance forms: Karnataka is famous for Yakshagana and Dollu Kunitha; Kerala is the land of Kathakali and Mohiniyattam; and Himachal Pradesh is known for the Nati dance. None of these states feature Khupielilie as a native folk dance.

Additional Information

• Nagaland, known as the 'Land of Festivals', is home to 16 major tribes, each with its own unique customs, language, and attire. The state was inaugurated as the 16th state of India on 1st December 1963.
• The Sekrenyi festival, also known as Phousanyi, occurs in the month of February (specifically starting on the 25th day of the Angami month of Kezei). It lasts for 10 days and involves various rituals like 'Kizie' and 'Thekra Hie'.
• The Angami tribe is one of the most populous tribes in Nagaland, residing mainly in the Kohima and Dimapur districts. They are globally recognized for their terrace cultivation techniques and the Stone Pulling ceremony.
• Apart from Khupielilie, other significant folk dances of Nagaland include the Zeliang dance, Butterfly dance, Monyu Ashu, and the War Dance, which often mimics the movements of warriors.
• The Hornbill Festival, held annually from 1st to 10th December at the Naga Heritage Village in Kisama, is the most famous event where all tribes gather to perform their traditional dances, including those of the Angami.

Important Points

• The costumes worn during the Khupielilie dance are vibrant and symbolic. Women wear traditional mekhelas (wraparound skirts) and shawls adorned with intricate patterns that signify their tribal identity and social status.
• Jewelry plays a vital role in the performance attire, featuring necklaces made of carnelian beads, conch shells, and brass ornaments. These items are often passed down through generations as heirlooms.
• The musical accompaniment for such folk dances often involves the Tati, a popular single-stringed musical instrument used by the Angami and Chakhesang Nagas to sing traditional folk songs.
• The preservation of these dances is crucial for the Naga people as they transition into modernity, ensuring that the oral traditions and cultural history of the North East remain vibrant and documented.

The correct answer is Lakshadweep.

Key Points

• The Lava dance is a traditional and highly rhythmic folk dance that originated in the Union Territory of Lakshadweep, specifically on the Minicoy Island.
• It is a performance strictly reserved for male members of the community, who display great coordination and stamina through their movements. Hence, the correct answer is Lakshadweep.
• The dancers wear traditional attire consisting of a multi-colored silk wrap (thube), a white headgear (rumal), and a waistband, which enhances the visual vibrancy of the performance.
• The dance is performed to the beat of drums (Dhol) and traditional songs. It typically begins at a slow tempo and gradually increases in speed, culminating in a fast-paced and energetic finale.
• Lava is usually performed during festive occasions such as Eid-ul-Fitr and Eid-ul-Adha, as well as during National Day celebrations, reflecting the rich cultural identity of the islanders.
• Chandigarh is incorrect because it is a planned city in North India that primarily follows Punjabi and Haryanvi cultural traditions, such as Bhangra and Giddha.
• Ladakh is incorrect as its traditional folk dances include the Cham Dance (mask dance) and Jabro, which are rooted in Tibetan-Buddhist culture.
• Andaman and Nicobar is incorrect because its indigenous tribes, like the Nicobarese, perform the Nicobari dance, which is distinct in style and performed during the Pig Festival.

Additional Information

• Lakshadweep: It is the smallest Union Territory of India, comprising 36 islands in the Arabian Sea. It was established as a Union Territory in the year 1956. The capital of Lakshadweep is Kavaratti.
• Other Dances of Lakshadweep: Apart from Lava, the region is famous for Kolkali and Parichakali. Kolkali is performed with wooden sticks, while Parichakali is a martial dance involving shields and swords made of wood.
• Chandigarh: Known as the City Beautiful, it was designed by the French architect Le Corbusier. It serves as the joint capital of Punjab and Haryana. The culture here is a blend of modern urban life and traditional North Indian folk arts.
• Ladakh: Often called the Land of High Passes, it became a Union Territory on 31st October 2019. The Cham Dance is its most famous religious dance, performed by Buddhist monks wearing colorful masks and robes in monasteries like Hemis.
• Andaman and Nicobar Islands: Located in the Bay of Bengal, these islands are home to ancient tribes. The Nicobari dance is a major traditional dance where performers move in a line or circle, holding each other by the waist, usually during the Ossuary Feast.

Important Points

• The Minicoy Island, where the Lava dance is most prominent, has a culture that is distinct from the rest of Lakshadweep and shares linguistic and social ties with the Maldives.
• The movements in Lava are often interpreted as a representation of the sea waves or the swaying of coconut palms, which are central to the islanders' environment.
• Lakshadweep has a very high literacy rate, exceeding 91% according to the 2011 Census, making it one of the most educationally advanced regions in India.
• The Union Territory is also known for its coral reefs, marine life, and coconut-based economy, which deeply influence its folk traditions and lifestyle.

The correct answer is Arunachal Pradesh.

Key Points

• Namdapha National Park is located in the Changlang district of the northeastern state of Arunachal Pradesh. It is situated near the international border between India and Myanmar. Hence, the option Arunachal Pradesh is correct.
• It was established as a Wildlife Sanctuary in 1972 and was later declared a National Park and a Tiger Reserve in the year 1983.
• The park covers a massive area of approximately 1,985.23 square kilometers, making it the fourth largest national park in India after Hemis National Park, Desert National Park, and Gangotri National Park.
• It is globally famous for being the only park in the world that provides a habitat for four big cat species: the Tiger (Panthera tigris), Leopard (Panthera pardus), Snow Leopard (Uncia uncia), and Clouded Leopard (Neofelis nebulosa).
• Assam is incorrect because it is home to other famous parks like Kaziranga National Park and Manas National Park, but not Namdapha. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Karnataka is incorrect as it is known for protected areas such as Bandipur National Park and Nagarhole National Park. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Kerala is incorrect because it hosts parks like Periyar National Park and Silent Valley National Park. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Biodiversity Hotspot: The park is located within the Indo-Burma biodiversity hotspot and features a wide range of altitudinal variations, from 200 meters to 4,571 meters at Dapha Bum.
• Flora: The vegetation is incredibly diverse, ranging from Tropical Evergreen forests and Moist Deciduous forests to Sub-tropical forests, Temperate forests, and Alpine meadows at higher elevations. It is home to rare species like the Blue Vanda orchid and Sapria himalayana.
• Fauna: Apart from big cats, the park is the only known habitat for the critically endangered Namdapha Flying Squirrel (Biswamoyopterus biswasi), which is endemic to this region. It also hosts the Hoolock Gibbon, the only ape found in India.
• Other Protected Areas in Arunachal Pradesh: The state also houses the Mouling National Park, Pakhui (Pakke) Tiger Reserve, and Kamlang Wildlife Sanctuary.
• Cultural Significance: Several indigenous tribes such as the Lisu, Chakma, and Tangsa live in the vicinity of the park, contributing to the cultural richness of the region.

Important Points

• UNESCO Status: Namdapha National Park has been on the Tentative List of UNESCO World Heritage Sites since 2006 due to its exceptional biodiversity and unique ecosystems.
• Climate: The climate of the park varies significantly with altitude, experiencing sub-tropical conditions in the valleys and arctic conditions in the high mountain peaks. The area receives heavy rainfall during the South-West Monsoon from June to September.
• Avifauna: The park is a paradise for birdwatchers, with over 425 bird species recorded, including the Great Indian Hornbill, Wreathed Hornbill, and the rare White-bellied Heron.
• River System: The Noa-Dihing River, which is a tributary of the Brahmaputra, flows through the park from east to west, providing a vital water source for the diverse ecosystem.
• Conservation Efforts: The park is managed under the Project Tiger initiative of the Government of India, focusing on the protection of the tiger population and its vast habitat.

The correct answer is Chhattisgarh.

Key Points

• The Madai Festival is a world-famous tribal festival celebrated with great fervor in the Indian state of Chhattisgarh. It is primarily observed by the Gond community and other sub-tribes of the Bastar region.
• The festival is celebrated during the months of December to March. It is a unique traveling festival that moves from one village to another, starting in Bastar and concluding in the Kanker and Dantewada districts.
• The primary purpose of the festival is to worship the local deity, Goddess Kesharpal Kesharpalin Devi. Tribal people from various regions gather to seek her blessings for a prosperous year and a healthy harvest.
• A significant feature of the Madai Festival is the procession of local deities, where idols are brought from different villages to a central location, accompanied by traditional music played on instruments like the Mohari and Tudbudi.
• The festival serves as a major socio-cultural gathering where tribal people engage in traditional folk dances such as Saila, Karma, and Sua. It also acts as a massive market (mela) for the exchange of local forest produce and handicrafts.

Additional Information

• Chhattisgarh: Known as the Rice Bowl of India, this state was carved out of Madhya Pradesh on 1 November 2000. It is home to diverse festivals like Bastar Dussehra, which is the longest festival in the world lasting for 75 days, and Hareli, the harvest festival celebrated in the month of Shravan.
• Haryana: This northern state is famous for the Surajkund International Crafts Mela held annually in February at Faridabad. Other notable festivals include Gugga Naumi and the Pinjore Heritage Festival, which showcase the agrarian culture of the state.
• Goa: A coastal state known for its Portuguese influence, it celebrates the Goa Carnival in February and the Shigmo Festival, which is the Konkani version of Holi. Goa is also famous for the Feast of St. Francis Xavier held in December.
• Gujarat: This western state is globally recognized for Navratri, where Garba and Dandiya Raas are performed for nine nights. It also hosts the International Kite Festival (Uttarayan) on 14 January every year and the Rann Utsav in the Kutch region.

Important Points

• The Gond Tribe, the primary organizers of the Madai Festival, is one of the largest tribal groups in India, with a significant population in Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, and Maharashtra.
• The Narayanpur Madai is considered the most famous among all the Madai celebrations in the state, attracting thousands of tourists and devotees every year in the month of February.
• During the festival, a sacred pole made of wood is worshipped, and goats are often sacrificed as part of the traditional rituals to appease the deities and ensure the protection of the village from evil spirits.
• The festival highlights the primitive culture of India, where the bond between nature, spirits, and humans is celebrated through ancient rituals that have remained unchanged for centuries.

The correct answer is Behdienkhlam.

Key Points

• Behdienkhlam is the most significant and popular religious festival of the Jaintia people, also known as the Pnars, in the state of Meghalaya. Hence, the correct answer is Behdienkhlam.
• The festival is celebrated annually in the month of July, following the sowing season, primarily in the town of Jowai, which serves as the headquarters of the West Jaintia Hills district.
• The term Behdienkhlam is derived from the local words Beh (to drive away), Dien (wood or stick), and Khlam (plague or pestilence), which together signify the ritual of 'driving away the plague' or 'driving away the demon of cholera'.
• The primary objective of this celebration is to invoke the blessings of God (U Blei Wa Booh Wa Thoo) for a bountiful harvest and to protect the community from diseases and evil spirits.
• A central feature of the festival is the creation of Rots, which are tall, decorative, and colorful structures made of bamboo and paper, which are eventually immersed in the sacred pool called Aitnar.

Additional Information

• Kang Festival: This is a major Hindu religious celebration in Manipur, observed by the Meitei community. It is a version of the Rath Yatra where the deities are pulled in a chariot called Kang during the month of June or July. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Bumchu Festival: This unique festival is celebrated at the Tashiding Monastery in West Sikkim. It involves the opening of a vessel containing holy water, the level of which is used to predict the prosperity or misfortune of the state for the upcoming year. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Chaitrual: This refers to traditional festivities in Mizoram, often associated with the harvest and agricultural cycles. Mizoram is more famously known for its Kut festivals like Chapchar Kut and Pawl Kut. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Meghalaya, often called the 'Abode of Clouds', is inhabited by three major tribes: the Khasi, the Garo, and the Jaintia, each having their own distinct cultural heritage and festivals.

Important Points

• The Behdienkhlam festival lasts for four days and involves various rituals, including the symbolic act of beating the roofs of houses with bamboo poles to drive away evil forces.
• A highlight of the concluding day is a traditional game called Dad-lawakor, which is played with a wooden log in a muddy field; it is believed that the winning side will enjoy a superior harvest.
• The Jaintia community, like other tribes in Meghalaya, follows a matrilineal social structure where the family lineage and inheritance are traced through the mother.
• Other prominent festivals in Meghalaya include the Nongkrem Dance and Shad Suk Mynsiem of the Khasi tribe, and the Wangala Festival (also known as the 100 Drums Festival) of the Garo tribe.

The correct answer is 1839.

Key Points

• Maharaja Ranjit Singh, the founder and the most powerful ruler of the Sikh Empire, died on 27 June 1839. He breathed his last in Lahore, which was the capital of his sovereign state. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• His death at the age of 58 was primarily due to failing health; he had suffered from multiple paralytic strokes starting from 1835, which eventually led to his demise in 1839.
• The year 1842 is incorrect as it falls during the reign of his successors, specifically during the period of the First Anglo-Afghan War, which concluded that year.
• The year 1845 is incorrect because it marks the beginning of the First Anglo-Sikh War, which occurred six years after the Maharaja's death due to the political instability that followed his passing.
• The year 1851 is incorrect as by this time, the Sikh Empire had already been annexed by the British East India Company in 1849 following the Second Anglo-Sikh War.

Additional Information

• Early Life: He was born as Buddh Singh on 13 November 1780 in Gujranwala. He was the son of Maha Singh, the leader of the Sukerchakia Misl. He survived smallpox in his infancy but lost sight in his left eye.
• Unification of Punjab: He was crowned the Maharaja of Punjab on 12 April 1801. He is credited with uniting the fractured Sikh Misls into a unified empire that stretched from the Khyber Pass to the Sutlej River and from Kashmir to Mithankot.
• Military Excellence: He established the Khalsa Army and modernized it using European warfare techniques. He employed French and Italian generals like Jean-Baptiste Ventura and Jean-Claude Allard to train his elite Fauj-i-Khas.
• Diplomacy and Treaties: To maintain peace with the rising British power, he signed the Treaty of Amritsar in 1809 with Lord Minto (represented by Charles Metcalfe), which established the Sutlej River as the boundary between the two powers.
• Secular Governance: Despite being a devout Sikh, his administration was secular. His Prime Minister, Dhian Singh Dogra, was a Hindu, and his Foreign Minister, Fakir Azizuddin, was a Muslim.
• Cultural Legacy: He is famously known for donating gold to cover the Harmandir Sahib in Amritsar, giving it the name Golden Temple. He also held the Koh-i-Noor diamond, which he acquired from Shah Shuja Durrani in 1813.

Important Points

• Succession Struggles: After his death in 1839, the empire faced a series of rapid successions and assassinations. His son Kharak Singh succeeded him but died in 1840. This was followed by the short reigns of Sher Singh and finally Maharaja Duleep Singh.
• British Annexation: The lack of strong leadership after 1839 allowed the British East India Company to intervene. Following the Treaty of Lahore (1846) and the Second Anglo-Sikh War, Lord Dalhousie annexed Punjab in March 1849.
• Administrative Divisions: The empire was divided into four main provinces for better administration: Lahore, Multan, Peshawar, and Kashmir, each headed by a governor known as a Nazim.

The correct answer is 24

Key Points

• A geo-stationary satellite is an earth-orbiting satellite placed at an altitude of approximately 35,800 kilometers (22,236 miles) directly over the equator.
• The period of revolution of a geo-stationary satellite is exactly equal to the rotational period of the Earth, which is approximately 24 hours.
• Because the satellite rotates in the same direction as the Earth (from west to east) and has the same period, it appears to be stationary at a fixed position in the sky to an observer on the ground.
• The synchronization with the Earth's rotation is what allows ground-based satellite dishes to remain pointed at a single position without moving.

Additional Information

• The orbit in which these satellites reside is known as the Geostationary Orbit (GEO) or the Clarke Orbit, named after the writer Arthur C. Clarke who popularized the concept.
• These satellites are primarily used for telecommunication, satellite television (DTH), and weather forecasting because they provide continuous coverage over a specific area.
• To provide global coverage (excluding the extreme polar regions), a minimum of three geo-stationary satellites are required.
• The precise sidereal period of the Earth's rotation is 23 hours, 56 minutes, and 4 seconds, which is the exact time these satellites take to complete one orbit.

The correct answer is Law of inertia

Key Points

• Newton's First Law of Motion states that an object will continue to be in a state of rest or in a state of uniform motion along a straight line unless acted upon by an external unbalanced force.
• This law is also known as the Law of Inertia because it describes the inherent property of an object to resist any change in its state of motion.
• Inertia is the tendency of objects to keep doing what they are doing. If an object is at rest, it wants to stay at rest; if it is moving, it wants to keep moving at the same speed and in the same direction.
• Law of acceleration refers to Newton's Second Law, which states that the force acting on an object is equal to the mass of that object times its acceleration (F = ma).
• Law of action and reaction refers to Newton's Third Law, which states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
• Law of momentum is closely related to the Second Law, as force is defined as the rate of change of linear momentum.

Additional Information

• The concept of inertia was first formulated by Galileo Galilei for horizontal motion on Earth and was later generalized by Sir Isaac Newton.
• Mass is a quantitative measure of inertia. The more mass an object has, the greater its inertia and the harder it is to change its state of motion.
• Newton's laws were first published in his seminal work titled Philosophiæ Naturalis Principia Mathematica in 1687.
• There are three types of inertia: Inertia of rest, Inertia of motion, and Inertia of direction.

The correct answer is Chandrayaan-I

Key Points

• Chandrayaan-I was India's first mission to the Moon, launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) in October 2008.
• It is globally credited for the groundbreaking discovery of water molecules (H2O) and hydroxyl (OH) on the lunar surface, which fundamentally changed the scientific understanding of the Moon.
• The discovery was made using the Moon Mineralogy Mapper (M3), an instrument provided by NASA that was carried aboard the Chandrayaan-I spacecraft.
• This finding revived international interest in lunar exploration, as it suggested that the Moon was not a completely dry desert and could potentially support future human habitation or serve as a refueling station.
• Chandrayaan-II and Chandrayaan-III were subsequent missions designed to build on this legacy by attempting soft landings and exploring the Lunar South Pole in greater detail.
• Aditya L-1 is India's first space-based mission to study the Sun and is not related to the search for water on the Moon.

Additional Information

• The PSLV-C11 rocket was used to launch Chandrayaan-I from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota.
• The mission also included the Moon Impact Probe (MIP), which was intentionally crashed into the lunar surface near the Shackleton Crater to analyze the thin lunar atmosphere.
• India became the fourth country to reach the lunar surface (via the impact probe) after the Soviet Union, the United States, and Japan.
• On August 23, 2023, India's Chandrayaan-III successfully performed a soft landing near the Lunar South Pole, making India the first nation to reach that specific region.

The correct answer is Large drums.

Key Points

• In the cultural context of Uttar Pradesh, specifically the Braj region, the word Bumb refers to Large drums. These are massive kettle drums that serve as the primary percussion instrument for the Rasiya folk tradition. Hence, option 4 is correct.
• The term Bumb does not refer to Mini guitars. Traditional folk music of this region relies on percussion and wind instruments rather than western-style string instruments like guitars. Hence, option 1 is incorrect.
• While the Flute (Bansuri) is iconic to the Braj area due to its association with Lord Krishna, the specific term Bumb is reserved for the drum, not Soft flutes. Hence, option 2 is incorrect.
• Heavy cymbals, known locally as Manjira or Jhanj, are often played alongside the Bumb, but they are distinct instruments. The Bumb specifically denotes the giant drum. Hence, option 3 is incorrect.
• The performance is popularly known as Bumb-Rasiya. It is a vibrant combination of high-energy drumming on the Bumb and the soulful singing of Rasiya songs, which are usually performed during the Holi festival in districts like Mathura, Agra, Firozabad, and Hathras.
• The Bumb drum is constructed using a large iron or wooden tub-like frame, over which buffalo hide is stretched and secured. Because of its immense size, it is played by two men using thick sticks to produce a deep, resonant sound that can be heard across several villages.

Additional Information

• Rasiya Folk Songs: The term Rasiya is derived from the word Ras, which means nectar or emotion. These songs are dedicated to the divine love between Radha and Lord Krishna. They are characterized by their erotic yet devotional themes (Shringara Rasa).
• Regional Significance: The Braj region is the heartland of this art form. It encompasses the area where Lord Krishna is believed to have spent his childhood. The songs often describe the Leelas (divine acts) of Krishna in Vrindavan and Gokul.
• Festival Association: Bumb-Rasiya is most prominent during the month of Phalguna (February-March). It is a staple of the Lathmar Holi celebrations in Barsana and Nandgaon, where the thunderous beats of the Bumb energize the crowds.
• Musical Structure: While the Bumb provides the rhythm, the melody is supported by instruments like the Dholak, Harmonium, Alghoza, and Khadtal. The singing usually involves a lead singer followed by a chorus of villagers.
• Social Function: Historically, these performances served as a means of community bonding and entertainment for farmers and laborers after the Rabi crop harvest. It remains a powerful symbol of the folk identity of Western Uttar Pradesh.

Important Points

• The Bumb drum is also known as Nagada in some contexts, but the specific Braj variant used for Rasiya is significantly larger than standard ceremonial drums.
• The Rasiya tradition has evolved over centuries, with its roots found in the Bhakti Movement of the 15th and 16th centuries, influenced by poets like Surdas and Nanddas.
• In 2019 and subsequent years, the Government of Uttar Pradesh has made significant efforts to promote Bumb-Rasiya through cultural festivals and state-sponsored fairs to preserve the dying oral traditions of the rural hinterlands.
• The Bumb is not just a musical instrument but is often treated with religious reverence, sometimes being decorated with vermilion and garlands before a major performance during Holi.

The correct answer is Concentration

Key Points

• Concentration refers to the amount of solute that is dissolved in a specific volume of solvent or a total volume of solution. It indicates how 'crowded' the solute particles are within the mixture.
• A solute is the substance being dissolved (like sugar or salt), and the solvent is the substance doing the dissolving (like water).
• Dilution is the opposite of concentration; it is the process of reducing the concentration of a solute by adding more solvent to the solution.
• Saturation is a state where a solution has dissolved the maximum amount of solute possible at a given temperature. Any further solute added will not dissolve and will settle at the bottom.
• Diffusion is the movement of particles from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration until they are spread evenly.

Additional Information

• Concentration can be expressed in several ways, such as Mass by Mass percentage, Mass by Volume percentage, Molarity, and Molality.
• The Mass Percentage of a solution is calculated as: (Mass of solute / Mass of solution) × 100.
• In a homogeneous mixture, the concentration is uniform throughout the entire volume of the solution.
• Molarity is one of the most common units of concentration used in chemistry, defined as the number of moles of solute per liter of solution.

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• Tuticorin Port, which was officially renamed as the V.O. Chidambaranar Port Trust in 2011, is one of the 13 major ports in India. It is located in the Thoothukudi district of Tamil Nadu. Hence, the option Tamil Nadu is correct.
• The port is situated on the Coromandel Coast of the Bay of Bengal, specifically within the Gulf of Mannar. It serves as an all-weather artificial deep-sea port.
• The port was declared a Major Port on 11 July 1974. It is the second-largest port in Tamil Nadu after Chennai Port and is a significant hub for container trade in South India.
• The other options provided are incorrect because:
• Kerala: Its primary major port is the Cochin Port (Kochi), which is a natural harbor.
• Goa: The major port in this state is Mormugao Port, primarily known for iron ore exports.
• Maharashtra: This state houses the Mumbai Port and the Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT), which is the largest container port in India.

Additional Information

• Tamil Nadu is unique in India for having three major ports: Chennai Port, Kamarajar Port (Ennore), and V.O. Chidambaranar Port (Tuticorin). This highlights the state's strategic importance in maritime trade.
• The V.O. Chidambaranar Port is named after the legendary freedom fighter V.O. Chidambaram Pillai, who launched the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company in 1906 to challenge the British monopoly in shipping.
• The port primarily handles commodities such as coal (for thermal power plants), fertilizers, rock phosphate, petroleum products, and edible oils. It acts as a gateway for the exim trade of the hinterland comprising southern Tamil Nadu and parts of Kerala.
• In terms of infrastructure, the port features a deep draft that allows it to handle large Panamax and Post-Panamax vessels, making it a vital link in the international sea route.
• The Sagar Mala Project, a flagship program of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, aims to modernize these ports and promote port-led development across the 7,517 km coastline of India.

Important Points

• Geographical Significance: The port's location in the Gulf of Mannar provides it with natural protection from storms and cyclones, ensuring operational efficiency throughout the year.
• Economic Impact: It contributes significantly to the industrial growth of the Madurai-Thoothukudi Industrial Corridor. The port handles over 30 million tonnes of cargo annually as per recent data.
• Environmental Initiatives: The V.O. Chidambaranar Port is striving to become a Green Port by implementing solar power projects and wind energy systems to meet its energy requirements sustainably.
• Historical Context: Tuticorin has been a center for pearl fishery for centuries, earning it the nickname Pearl City. The development of the modern port has transformed this ancient trading post into a global maritime hub.

The correct answer is Tertiary.

Key Points

• The Tertiary sector, also known as the service sector, involves the provision of services to businesses as well as final consumers. It does not produce tangible goods but facilitates the distribution and consumption of products.
• When a fruit or vegetable vendor sells farm produce to a household, they are performing the function of Retail Trade. Trade, transport, and commerce are fundamental activities classified under the Tertiary sector. Hence, the correct answer is Tertiary.
• The Primary sector involves activities that directly exploit natural resources, such as Agriculture, Fishing, Mining, and Forestry. While the fruit itself is a product of the primary sector, the act of selling it in a market is a service. Hence, the statement regarding the Primary sector is incorrect.
• The Secondary sector includes activities where natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing or industrial processing. Since the vendor is selling the produce in its raw form without industrial transformation, it does not fall under this sector. Hence, the statement regarding the Secondary sector is incorrect.
• The Quinary sector is a specialized sub-division of the tertiary sector that includes the highest levels of decision-making in an economy. This involves top government officials, CEOs, and research scientists. Selling vegetables is a routine commercial activity and not a high-level policy-making function. Hence, the statement regarding the Quinary sector is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Primary Sector: This is often called the Agriculture and Allied sector. It provides the base for all other products that we subsequently make. In India, this sector is the largest employer, providing livelihoods to nearly 45% of the population, though its contribution to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is approximately 18-20%.
• Secondary Sector: Known as the Industrial sector, it adds value to raw materials by converting them into finished goods. It includes Manufacturing, Construction, Electricity, Gas, and Water Supply. This sector is crucial for the economic development of a nation as it creates infrastructure and mass employment.
• Tertiary Sector: This sector has emerged as the largest producing sector in India, replacing the primary sector in terms of GDP contribution. It includes Banking, Insurance, Education, Healthcare, Tourism, and Information Technology (IT). It accounts for over 50% of India's GDP.
• Quaternary Sector: This is the Knowledge Sector of the economy. It involves intellectual activities such as Research and Development (R&D), Financial Planning, Consultancy, and Information Generation. It is a more specialized part of the service sector.
• Quinary Sector: This sector focuses on the creation, re-arrangement, and interpretation of new and existing ideas. It includes high-level decision-makers in government, universities, healthcare, and science.

Important Points

• Sectoral Interdependence: No sector operates in isolation. For example, a farmer in the Primary sector needs a tractor from the Secondary sector and a loan from a bank in the Tertiary sector to produce and sell crops.
• Economic Transition: Historically, developing nations like India move from being Agrarian economies (Primary-led) to Industrial economies (Secondary-led) and finally to Service economies (Tertiary-led). However, India has seen a unique trend of leapfrogging directly from agriculture to services.
• Data Collection: In India, the National Statistical Office (NSO), under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), is responsible for classifying economic activities and calculating the National Income and GDP based on these sectors.
• Employment vs. GDP: While the Tertiary sector contributes the most to India's GDP, it does not employ as many people as the Primary sector, leading to a situation of disguised unemployment in agriculture.

The correct answer is Reserve Bank of India.

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the sole custodian and manager of the foreign exchange reserves in India. It is responsible for maintaining the external value of the Indian Rupee and ensuring the smooth conduct of international trade and payments.
• The legal framework for the custody of these reserves is provided by the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. Specifically, the Act mandates the bank to manage the Forex to ensure monetary stability. Hence, the correct answer is Reserve Bank of India.
• The Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999, which replaced the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) of 1973, empowers the RBI to regulate and manage foreign exchange transactions and reserves in a more liberalized economic environment.
• The Ministry of Finance (Option 2) oversees the fiscal policy, taxation, and the Union Budget, but it does not hold the reserves. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The Ministry of Foreign Affairs (Option 1) manages India’s external relations and diplomacy, while the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (Option 3) focuses on the administration of the Companies Act, 2013 and other corporate laws. Neither of these institutions acts as a custodian of financial reserves. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are incorrect.

Additional Information

• Components of India’s Forex Reserves: The reserves are composed of four distinct elements: Foreign Currency Assets (FCA), Gold, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs), and the Reserve Tranche Position (RTP) in the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
• Foreign Currency Assets (FCA): This is the largest part of the reserves. It includes the value of non-US currencies like the Euro, Pound Sterling, and Japanese Yen held in the reserves, though they are usually expressed in US Dollar terms. These assets are invested in multi-currency and multi-market portfolios.
• Special Drawing Rights (SDR): Created by the IMF in 1969, the SDR is an international reserve asset. It is not a currency but a potential claim on the freely usable currencies of IMF members.
• Reserve Tranche Position (RTP): This is a portion of the quota of currency that each member country contributes to the IMF. It can be utilized by the country for its own purposes without a service fee or economic reform conditions.

Important Points

• Objectives of Reserve Management: The RBI manages the reserves with the primary objectives of safety, liquidity, and yield. Safety and liquidity are prioritized over returns to ensure the country can meet its external obligations even during global financial volatility.
• Section 40 of RBI Act: This specific section requires the Central Government to fix the exchange rate, and the RBI is obligated to buy and sell foreign exchange at that rate to maintain stability.
• Weekly Reporting: The RBI releases the data regarding the status of Foreign Exchange Reserves every Friday in its Weekly Statistical Supplement (WSS).
• Historical Significance: India’s management of reserves became a critical focus after the 1991 Balance of Payments (BoP) crisis. Since then, the RBI has maintained a robust level of reserves to act as a buffer against external shocks and speculative pressures.

The correct answer is Gun Island.

Key Points

• Gun Island is a novel authored by Amitav Ghosh, published in June 2019. The book is a contemporary story that deals with pressing global issues such as climate change and human migration, while intertwining them with Bengali folklore and mythology. The narrative follows the protagonist, Deen Datta, a rare book dealer, on a journey from Kolkata to the Sundarbans and eventually to Venice.
• War Talk is a collection of essays written by Arundhati Roy, published in 2003. It focuses on themes of globalization, imperialism, and the war on terror. Therefore, it is not authored by Amitav Ghosh. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Selection Day is a novel by Aravind Adiga, published in 2016. The story revolves around cricket and the lives of two brothers in Mumbai who are pushed by their father to become stars in the sport. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Midnight's Children is one of the most famous works of Salman Rushdie, published in 1981. It deals with India's transition from British colonialism to independence and the partition of India. It won the Booker Prize in 1981. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
• The correct book among the options authored by Amitav Ghosh is Gun Island, which highlights his recurring interest in the environment and historical connections. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information

• Amitav Ghosh was born on 11 July 1956 in Kolkata, West Bengal. He is a prolific Indian writer known for his work in English fiction and non-fiction. In 2018, he was honored with the 54th Jnanpith Award, making him the first English-language writer to receive India's highest literary honor.
• His notable literary contributions include The Shadow Lines (1988), which won the Sahitya Akademi Award, and The Glass Palace (2000), which explores the history of Burma (now Myanmar), India, and Malaya.
• Ghosh is well-known for his Ibis Trilogy, which consists of Sea of Poppies (2008), River of Smoke (2011), and Flood of Fire (2015). This trilogy is set against the backdrop of the Opium Wars of the 19th century and involves a diverse cast of characters traveling across the Indian Ocean.
• In addition to fiction, he has written significant non-fiction works like The Great Derangement: Climate Change and the Unthinkable (2016) and The Nutmeg's Curse: Parables for a Planet in Crisis (2021), both of which examine the geopolitical and historical roots of the climate crisis.
• He was awarded the Padma Shri by the Government of India in 2007 for his distinguished service in the field of literature and education. His works are often characterized by complex narrative structures and a deep focus on post-colonialism and identity.

The correct answer is Lala Lajpat Rai.

Key Points

• The book 'Unhappy India' was written by Lala Lajpat Rai in 1928. This work served as a systematic and scathing rebuttal to 'Mother India', a book published in 1927 by the American journalist Katherine Mayo. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• Katherine Mayo's book was widely regarded by Indians as British propaganda. It focused exclusively on the social pathologies of India, such as child marriage, untouchability, and sanitation issues, to argue that Indians were culturally backward and unfit for self-governance.
• In 'Unhappy India', Lala Lajpat Rai utilized comparative statistics and historical data to show that similar social problems existed in Western countries, including the United States and England. He argued that the British colonial administration was largely responsible for the economic and social stagnation of the Indian subcontinent.
• Rajendra Prasad, who later became the first President of India, authored the book 'India Divided' in 1946, which analyzed the Two-Nation Theory and the demand for Pakistan. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Bipin Chandra Pal was a revolutionary leader and a brilliant orator often called the 'Father of Revolutionary Thoughts', but he was not the author of this specific reply to Mayo. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Bal Gangadhar Tilak, a prominent nationalist leader, wrote 'The Arctic Home in the Vedas' and 'Gita Rahasya' (written during his imprisonment in Mandalay), but he passed away in 1920, years before Mayo's book was published. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Lala Lajpat Rai (born January 28, 1865) was a legendary freedom fighter from Punjab, earned the titles 'Punjab Kesari' and 'Sher-e-Punjab' (Lion of Punjab). He was a key figure in the Lal-Bal-Pal trio of the Extremist faction of the Indian National Congress.
• He was a staunch follower of Swami Dayanand Saraswati and played a pivotal role in the expansion of the Arya Samaj in North India. He also co-founded the Punjab National Bank in 1894 and the Lakshmi Insurance Company.
• Katherine Mayo's 'Mother India' caused such an international stir that Mahatma Gandhi reviewed it in 'Young India', famously labeling it a 'Drain Inspector's Report' because it focused only on the filth and ignored the beauty of the nation.
• Lala Lajpat Rai was also the President of the Indian National Congress during the Calcutta Special Session in 1920, where the Non-Cooperation Movement was first discussed.
• He founded the Servants of the People Society in 1921, a non-profit welfare organization aimed at training national missionaries for service to the country.

Important Points

• Martyrdom: In October 1928, Lala Lajpat Rai led a massive protest against the Simon Commission in Lahore. During the demonstration, he was severely injured in a lathi charge sanctioned by the British police superintendent James A. Scott.
• He famously declared, 'Every blow on my body will prove a nail in the coffin of the British Empire.' He passed away on November 17, 1928, due to the injuries sustained.
• Retaliation: His death deeply affected the young revolutionaries of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA). Bhagat Singh, Shivaram Rajguru, and Sukhdev Thapar vowed to avenge his death, leading to the Lahore Conspiracy Case and the assassination of John P. Saunders in December 1928.
• Literary Contributions: Apart from 'Unhappy India', his other significant writings include 'Young India: An Interpretation and a History of the Nationalist Movement from Within' and 'The Story of My Deportation'.

The correct answer is Gangaikonda Cholapuram Temple.

Key Points

• Gangaikonda Cholapuram Temple, also known as the Brihadisvara Temple at Gangaikondacholapuram, is a recognized UNESCO World Heritage Site. It is part of the Great Living Chola Temples group, which showcases the architectural brilliance of the Chola Empire. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
• Kamakhya Temple is a significant Shakti Peeth located on the Nilachal Hill in Guwahati, Assam. Although it is a site of immense religious and historical importance, it has not been inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage list. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Meenakshi Amman Temple is an iconic Dravidian style temple situated in the ancient city of Madurai, Tamil Nadu. While it is currently on the UNESCO Tentative List, it does not yet hold the official status of a World Heritage Site. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Kashi Vishwanath Temple is one of the holiest Hindu temples dedicated to Lord Shiva, located in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh. Despite its ancient heritage and spiritual status, it is not a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• The Great Living Chola Temples were built by kings of the Chola Empire and stretch across the state of Tamil Nadu. This site includes three great temples of the 11th and 12th centuries: the Brihadisvara Temple at Thanjavur, the Brihadisvara Temple at Gangaikondacholapuram, and the Airavatesvara Temple at Darasuram.

Additional Information

• Gangaikonda Cholapuram Temple: It was constructed by Rajendra Chola I in the 11th Century (around 1035 AD) to commemorate his victory over the Pala Dynasty of Bengal. He took the title Gangaikonda, meaning 'the one who conquered the Ganges'. The temple is famous for its Vimana (tower) which stands at a height of 55 meters and its intricate sculptures of Dancing Ganesha and Ardhanarishvara.
• UNESCO World Heritage Sites in India: As of 2024, India is home to 42 UNESCO World Heritage Sites. This includes 34 cultural sites, 7 natural sites, and 1 mixed site (Khangchendzonga National Park). The Great Living Chola Temples represent the peak of Dravida architecture and were inscribed in 1987 (Thanjavur) and expanded in 2004 (Gangaikondacholapuram and Darasuram).
• Kamakhya Temple Features: It is the center of Tantric practices and is famous for the annual Ambubachi Mela. The temple's current structure was rebuilt in the 16th Century by the Koch King Nara Narayana.
• Meenakshi Temple Features: It is known for its 14 gopurams (gateway towers), ranging from 45 to 50 meters in height. The tallest is the southern tower, reaching 51.9 meters. It was largely rebuilt by the Nayyak Dynasty in the 16th and 17th centuries.
• Kashi Vishwanath Temple Features: The current structure was built by the Maratha ruler, Ahilyabai Holkar of Indore, in 1780. The temple's two domes were covered in gold donated by Maharaja Ranjit Singh of Punjab in 1839.

Important Points

• The UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization) designates sites that have 'outstanding universal value' to humanity.
• The Chola temples are unique because they are 'living' temples, meaning the rituals and worship established nearly a thousand years ago are still practiced today.
• The Brihadisvara Temple at Thanjavur was the first of the group to be listed in 1987, while the Gangaikonda Cholapuram and Darasuram temples were added during the 28th session of the World Heritage Committee in 2004.
• The Airavatesvara Temple at Darasuram was built by Rajaraja Chola II in the 12th Century and is smaller but more ornate than the other two Brihadisvara temples.