SSC MTS 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 11 Feb, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Shortcut Trick

Solve bracket first and then group terms for faster addition/subtraction.

Value = 94 + 61 − 38 + (48 × 2) − 91

Value = 155 − 38 + 96 − 91

Value = 117 + 5 = 122

∴ The correct answer is 122.

Alternate Method

Given: 94 + 61 − 38 + (27 + 21) × 2 − 91

Formula used: BODMAS (Bracket, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction)

⇒ 94 + 61 − 38 + 48 × 2 − 91

⇒ 94 + 61 − 38 + 96 − 91

⇒ 155 − 38 + 96 − 91

⇒ 117 + 96 − 91

⇒ 213 − 91

⇒ 122

∴ The correct answer is 122.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

It defines the sequence of operations: Brackets first, then Orders (powers/roots), then Division and Multiplication (left to right), and finally Addition and Subtraction (left to right).

Grouping Method

To simplify large expressions, group all positive terms together and all negative terms together before the final subtraction.

Shortcut Trick

Solve using the BODMAS rule: Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction.

Evaluate the division and multiplication first: 29 ÷ 1 = 29 and 22 × 1 = 22.

Simplify the expression: 86 + 33 − 29 + 22 + 44 − 16.

Group positive and negative numbers: (86 + 33 + 22 + 44) − (29 + 16) = 185 − 45 = 140.

∴ The correct answer is 140.

Alternate Method

Given expression: 86 + 33 − (29 ÷ 1) + 22 × 1 + 44 − 16

Method: Apply BODMAS rule

⇒ 86 + 33 − 29 + 22 × 1 + 44 − 16 (Solving Bracket & Division)

⇒ 86 + 33 − 29 + 22 + 44 − 16 (Solving Multiplication)

⇒ 119 − 29 + 22 + 44 − 16

⇒ 90 + 22 + 44 − 16

⇒ 112 + 44 − 16

⇒ 156 − 16

⇒ 140

∴ The correct answer is 140.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

This rule defines the order of operations: Brackets (), Orders (powers/square roots), Division (÷), Multiplication (×), Addition (+), and Subtraction (−).

Multiplication and Division Identity

Any number divided by 1 or multiplied by 1 remains unchanged (n ÷ 1 = n and n × 1 = n).

Addition and Subtraction Grouping

To simplify long calculations, group all positive terms together and all negative terms together before finding the final difference.

Given:

Formula Used:

Total Sales = Sum of sales of all items (I1 + I2 + I3 + I4 + I5)

Percentage Share of I4 = (Sales of I4 ÷ Total Sales) × 100%

Calculation:

According to the line chart,

⇒ Total Sales = 45 + 42 + 56 + 50 + 38

⇒ Total Sales = 231

⇒ Sales of Item I4 = 50

⇒ Required Percentage = (50 ÷ 231) × 100%

⇒ Required Percentage = 5000 ÷ 231 %

⇒ Required Percentage ≈ 21.64502...

⇒ Required Percentage ≈ 21.65%

∴ The correct answer is 21.65%.

Given:

Unit scale: 1 unit = 1000 followers

Formula Used:

Total Increase = Followers at MT6 − Followers at MT1

Average Monthly Increase = Total Increase ÷ Number of monthly intervals (n − 1)

Total intervals from MT1 to MT6 = 6 − 1 = 5

Calculation:

According to the line chart,

⇒ Number of followers at MT1 = 132 × 1000 = 132000

⇒ Number of followers at MT6 = 321 × 1000 = 321000

⇒ Total increase in followers from MT1 to MT6 = 321000 − 132000 = 189000

⇒ Number of months of growth (intervals) = 5 (MT1 to MT2, MT2 to MT3, MT3 to MT4, MT4 to MT5, MT5 to MT6)

⇒ Average monthly increase = 189000 ÷ 5

⇒ Average monthly increase = 37800

∴ The correct answer is 37800.

Given:

The distribution of milk shops in 6 towns is given as percentages in the pie chart:

Formula Used:

Total central angle of a pie chart = 360°

Central angle for a specific sector = (Percentage of that sector ÷ 100) × 360°

Alternatively, 1% = 3.6° (since 360° ÷ 100 = 3.6°)

Calculation:

According to the question, we need to calculate the total central angle for the sectors of towns B, C, D, and F.

First, find the total percentage for these specific towns:

⇒ Total Percentage = Percentage of B + Percentage of C + Percentage of D + Percentage of F

⇒ Total Percentage = 10% + 15% + 14% + 18%

⇒ Total Percentage = 57%

Now, convert this combined percentage into degrees to find the central angle:

⇒ Total Central Angle = 57 × 3.6°

⇒ Total Central Angle = 205.2°

∴ The correct answer is 205.2.

Given:

R = Average number of cars produced in the given 5 years.

A = Total number of cars produced in Y₂, Y₃ and Y₄.

Formula Used:

Average (R) = (Sum of cars produced in all years) ÷ (Total number of years)

A = Sum of cars produced in Y₂, Y₃ and Y₄

Required value = A − R

Calculation:

According to the question,

⇒ Total cars produced in all 5 years = 78 + 85 + 69 + 74 + 90 = 396

⇒ Average production (R) = 396 ÷ 5 = 79.2

⇒ Total production in Y₂, Y₃ and Y₄ (A) = 85 + 69 + 74 = 228

⇒ Value of A − R = 228 − 79.2

⇒ Value of A − R = 148.8

∴ The correct answer is 148.8.

Given:

Formula Used:

Respective Ratio = Value of T1 bank in S2 : Value of T2 bank in S2

Calculation:

According to the bar graph,

⇒ Number of T1 bank in state S2 = 200

⇒ Number of T2 bank in state S2 = 140

⇒ Respective ratio = 200 : 140

⇒ Dividing both sides by 20,

⇒ Ratio = (200 ÷ 20) : (140 ÷ 20)

⇒ Ratio = 10 : 7

∴ The correct answer is 10 : 7.

Shortcut Trick

Total ratio parts = 2 + 3 + 5 = 10 units.

Given, 10 units = 100.

Difference between largest (5) and smallest (2) = 5 − 2 = 3 units.

Required difference = (100 ÷ 10) × 3 = 30.

∴ The correct answer is 30.

Alternate Method

Given: Ratio of three numbers = 2 : 3 : 5 and their Sum = 100.

⇒ Let the three numbers be 2x, 3x, and 5x.

⇒ Sum of numbers = 2x + 3x + 5x = 100.

⇒ 10x = 100.

⇒ x = 100 ÷ 10 = 10.

⇒ Smallest number = 2x = 2 × 10 = 20.

⇒ Largest number = 5x = 5 × 10 = 50.

⇒ Difference = 50 − 20 = 30.

∴ The correct answer is 30.

Additional Information

Ratio and Sum Relation

If a total value S is divided in the ratio a : b : c, then the value of each part is [a/(a+b+c)] × S, [b/(a+b+c)] × S, and [c/(a+b+c)] × S.

Difference in Ratio Parts

The difference between any two parts can be calculated directly by finding the difference in their ratio units: Difference = [(ratio1 − ratio2) / Total ratio units] × Total Sum.

Mean Proportional

For two numbers a and b, the mean proportional is given by √(a × b).

Shortcut Trick

Round all decimals to nearest integers: 77, 144, 7, 12, 4, 14, 7, and 2.

First term: (77 × 144) ÷ (7 × 12) = 11 × 12 = 132.

Second term: (4² × 14) ÷ (7 × 2) = (16 × 14) ÷ 14 = 16.

Result = 132 − 16 = 116.

∴ The correct answer is 116.

Alternate Method

Given Expression: (76.91 × 143.97) ÷ (7.07 × 12.01) − (3.93² × √195.88) ÷ (6.93 × 8.03^1/3)

Step 1: Approximate the values to the nearest whole numbers.

⇒ 76.91 ≈ 77

⇒ 143.97 ≈ 144

⇒ 7.07 ≈ 7

⇒ 12.01 ≈ 12

⇒ 3.93 ≈ 4

⇒ √195.88 ≈ √196 = 14

⇒ 6.93 ≈ 7

⇒ 8.03^1/3 ≈ 8^1/3 = 2

Step 2: Substitute values and apply BODMAS.

⇒ Expression ≈ (77 × 144) ÷ (7 × 12) − (4² × 14) ÷ (7 × 2)

⇒ Expression ≈ (11088 ÷ 84) − (16 × 14 ÷ 14)

⇒ Expression ≈ 132 − 16

⇒ Expression ≈ 116

∴ The correct answer is 116.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

Operations must be performed in the order: Brackets, Orders (powers/roots), Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction.

Approximation Rule

If the digit after the decimal is 5 or more, round up the integer; if it is less than 5, keep the integer as is.

Cubes and Roots

8^1/3 = ³√8 = 2 and 4² = 16. Always look for nearby perfect squares or cubes in approximation questions.

Shortcut Trick

From the ratio 4x : 3y = 20 : 21, we get x/y = (20/4) / (21/3) = 5/7.

Let x = 5k and y = 7k. Substitute in 9x − 3y = 96.

9(5k) − 3(7k) = 96 ⇒ 45k − 21k = 96 ⇒ 24k = 96 ⇒ k = 4.

Therefore, x = 20 and y = 28.

Required value = 2(20)² + 3(28)² = 800 + 2352 = 3152.

∴ The correct answer is 3152.

Alternate Method

Given:

Equation 1: 9x − 3y = 96

Ratio: 4x : 3y = 20 : 21

Formula Used:

Ratio Simplification and Substitution method.

Calculations:

⇒ 4x / 3y = 20 / 21

⇒ x / y = (20 × 3) / (21 × 4)

⇒ x / y = 60 / 84 = 5 / 7

⇒ Let x = 5k and y = 7k

⇒ 9(5k) − 3(7k) = 96

⇒ 45k − 21k = 96

⇒ 24k = 96 ⇒ k = 4

⇒ x = 5 × 4 = 20

⇒ y = 7 × 4 = 28

⇒ Value = 2(20)² + 3(28)²

⇒ Value = 2(400) + 3(784)

⇒ Value = 800 + 2352 = 3152

∴ The correct answer is 3152.

Additional Information

Ratio and Proportion

If a : b = c : d, then ad = bc. In this problem, we simplified the compound ratio 4x:3y to find the base ratio of the variables x and y.

Linear Equations

To solve for two variables, we need two independent equations. Here, the ratio provided the second relationship needed to find specific values for x and y.

Algebraic Substitution

Substitution involves expressing one variable in terms of another (x = 5y/7) or using a common constant k to simplify the system into a single-variable equation.

Shortcut Trick

Convert all decimals to like decimals by adding trailing zeros to have 3 decimal places.

245.360 + 12.475 + 98.240

= 257.835 + 98.240 = 356.075

∴ The correct answer is 356.075.

Alternate Method

Given values: 245.36, 12.475, 98.24

Method: Vertical addition of decimals by aligning the decimal points.

⇒ 245.360

⇒ + 12.475

⇒ + 98.240

⇒ Total = 356.075

∴ The correct answer is 356.075.

Additional Information

Like Decimals

Decimals having the same number of digits after the decimal point are called like decimals. For example, 0.500 and 0.125 are like decimals.

Alignment Rule

When adding or subtracting decimals, always align the decimal points vertically to ensure digits of the same place value are processed together.

Trailing Zeros

Adding zeros at the end of a decimal (after the last non-zero digit) does not change its value but helps in converting unlike decimals to like decimals.

Given:

Target value = More than 115 dogs

Formula Used:

Condition: Number of Dogs > 115

Calculation:

According to the question, we compare the number of dogs in each town with 115:

⇒ Town A: 140 > 115 (Satisfies condition)

⇒ Town B: 100 < 115 (Does not satisfy)

⇒ Town C: 80 < 115 (Does not satisfy)

⇒ Town D: 120 > 115 (Satisfies condition)

⇒ Town E: 60 < 115 (Does not satisfy)

⇒ Town F: 110 < 115 (Does not satisfy)

⇒ Town G: 70 < 115 (Does not satisfy)

⇒ Town H: 110 < 115 (Does not satisfy)

⇒ Total number of towns satisfying the condition = Town A and Town D

⇒ Total count = 2

∴ The correct answer is 2.

Given:

Formula Used:

Difference = (Marks obtained by A in S₃) − (Marks obtained by B in S₂)

Calculation:

From the given table,

⇒ Marks scored by Student A in subject S₃ = 80

⇒ Marks scored by Student B in subject S₂ = 75

⇒ Required difference = 80 − 75

⇒ Required difference = 5

∴ The correct answer is 5.

Shortcut Trick

For an odd number of consecutive terms, Average = Middle Term.

Middle Term = Sum ÷ Total Numbers = 18 ÷ 3 = 6.

The three consecutive numbers are (6 − 1), 6, and (6 + 1) → 5, 6, 7.

The smallest number is 5.

∴ The correct answer is 5.

Alternate Method

Given:

Sum of three consecutive natural numbers = 18.

Formula Used:

Let the three consecutive natural numbers be x, (x + 1), and (x + 2).

Calculations:

⇒ x + (x + 1) + (x + 2) = 18

⇒ 3x + 3 = 18

⇒ 3x = 18 − 3

⇒ 3x = 15

⇒ x = 15 ÷ 3

⇒ x = 5

Smallest number = x = 5.

Middle number = x + 1 = 6.

Largest number = x + 2 = 7.

∴ The correct answer is 5.

Additional Information

Sum of First n Natural Numbers

The sum of the first n natural numbers is given by the formula S_n = [n(n + 1)] ÷ 2.

Consecutive Even or Odd Numbers

Consecutive even or odd numbers have a common difference of 2. They are represented as x, x+2, x+4, etc.

Average of Arithmetic Progression

The average of any series in AP (including consecutive numbers) is (First term + Last term) ÷ 2.

Shortcut Trick

Factor out 6 from the series: 6 × (1 + 2 + 3 + ... + 102)

Number of terms (n) = 612 ÷ 6 = 102

Sum of first n natural numbers = [n × (n + 1)] ÷ 2

Total Sum = 6 × [102 × 103 ÷ 2] = 3 × 102 × 103

Total Sum = 306 × 103 = 31518

∴ The correct answer is 31518.

Alternate Method

Given series: 6 + 12 + 18 + 24 + ... + 612

This is an Arithmetic Progression (AP) where:

First term (a) = 6

Common difference (d) = 12 − 6 = 6

Last term (l) = 612

Formula for number of terms (n): n = [(l − a) ÷ d] + 1

⇒ n = [(612 − 6) ÷ 6] + 1

⇒ n = [606 ÷ 6] + 1 = 101 + 1 = 102

Formula for Sum (S_n) = (n ÷ 2) × (a + l)

⇒ S₁₀₂ = (102 ÷ 2) × (6 + 612)

⇒ S₁₀₂ = 51 × 618

⇒ S₁₀₂ = 31518

∴ The correct answer is 31518.

Additional Information

Sum of first n natural numbers

The sum of 1 + 2 + 3 + ... + n is given by the formula S_n = n(n + 1) ÷ 2.

n-th term of an AP

The n-th term (a_n) of an arithmetic progression is calculated as a_n = a + (n − 1)d.

General Sum of an AP

The sum can also be calculated using S_n = (n ÷ 2) × [2a + (n − 1)d] when the last term is unknown.

Shortcut Trick

Identify the algebraic identity: a² + b² + c² + 2(ab + bc + ca) = (a + b + c)².

Here, a = 14, b = 16, and c = 24.

Sum = 14 + 16 + 24 = 54.

The result is 54² = 2916.

∴ The correct answer is 2916.

Alternate Method

Given: 14² + 16² + 24² + 2(14 × 16 + 16 × 24 + 24 × 14)

Formula Used: (a + b + c)² = a² + b² + c² + 2ab + 2bc + 2ca

⇒ Let a = 14, b = 16, and c = 24.

⇒ The expression matches the expansion of (a + b + c)².

⇒ Result = (14 + 16 + 24)²

⇒ Result = (54)²

⇒ 54 × 54 = 2916

∴ The correct answer is 2916.

Additional Information

Square of a Trinomial

The identity (a + b + c)² = a² + b² + c² + 2ab + 2bc + 2ca is essential for simplifying expressions involving squares of three terms.

Algebraic Identities

Basic identities like (a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b² and (a − b)² = a² − 2ab + b² are derived from the same expansion principles.

BODMAS Rule

Always follow the order of Brackets, Orders (powers/roots), Division/Multiplication, and Addition/Subtraction for standard calculations.

Shortcut Trick

Old average of 5 numbers = 40

New average of 4 numbers = 36

Decrease in average = 40 − 36 = 4

Removed number = Old Average + (New Count × Decrease in Average)

Removed number = 40 + (4 × 4) = 40 + 16 = 56

∴ The correct answer is 56.

Alternate Method

Given:

Average of 5 numbers = 40

Average of 4 numbers = 36

Formula:

Sum = Average × Count

Removed Number = (Sum of 5 numbers) − (Sum of 4 numbers)

⇒ Sum₅ = 5 × 40 = 200

⇒ Sum₄ = 4 × 36 = 144

⇒ Removed number = 200 − 144

⇒ Removed number = 56

∴ The correct answer is 56.

Additional Information

Average Basic Formula

Average = (Sum of observations) ÷ (Total number of observations).

Excluded Value Rule

When one value is excluded: Excluded Value = (Original Count × Original Average) − (New Count × New Average).

Average Change Property

If every observation in a set is increased or decreased by a constant value 'k', then the average also increases or decreases by 'k'.

Shortcut Trick

For parallel lines with an interior kink, the angle x is the sum of the supplementary interior components.

Angle x = (180° − Angle BAE) + (180° − Angle DCE)

x = (180° − 120°) + (180° − 140°)

x = 60° + 40° = 100°

∴ The correct answer is 100°.

Alternate Method

Given:

AB || CD

Angle BAE = 120°

Angle DCE = 140°

Calculations:

⇒ Draw a line EF parallel to AB passing through point E.

⇒ Since AB || CD and EF || AB, then EF || CD.

⇒ Angle BAE + Angle AEF = 180° (Co-interior angles between parallel lines AB and EF)

⇒ 120° + Angle AEF = 180° ⇒ Angle AEF = 60°

⇒ Angle DCE + Angle CEF = 180° (Co-interior angles between parallel lines CD and EF)

⇒ 140° + Angle CEF = 180° ⇒ Angle CEF = 40°

⇒ x = Angle AEF + Angle CEF

⇒ x = 60° + 40° = 100°

∴ The correct answer is 100°.

Additional Information

Co-interior Angles

When two parallel lines are cut by a transversal, the sum of the interior angles on the same side is always 180°.

Alternate Interior Angles

When two parallel lines are cut by a transversal, the alternate interior angles are equal (e.g., Z-shape angles).

Transitivity of Parallelism

If line L1 is parallel to line L2, and line L2 is parallel to line L3, then line L1 is also parallel to line L3.

Shortcut Trick

By Alligation: Blue (65) and Red (35) with mean (50).

Ratio of Blue : Red = (50 − 35) : (65 − 50) = 15 : 15 = 1 : 1.

Total ratio parts = 1 + 1 = 2 units.

2 units = 24 hats ⇒ 1 unit = 12 hats.

Number of Red hats = 1 unit = 12 hats.

∴ The correct answer is 12 hats.

Alternate Method

Given: Total hats = 24, Avg Cost (Blue) = ₹65, Avg Cost (Red) = ₹35, Avg Cost (Total) = ₹50.

⇒ Let the number of red hats be x and blue hats be (24 − x).

⇒ Total Cost = (Number of blue hats × Avg cost) + (Number of red hats × Avg cost)

⇒ 24 × 50 = (24 − x) × 65 + x × 35

⇒ 1200 = 1560 − 65x + 35x

⇒ 1200 = 1560 − 30x

⇒ 30x = 1560 − 1200

⇒ 30x = 360

⇒ x = 360 ÷ 30 = 12

∴ The correct answer is 12 hats.

Additional Information

Weighted Average Formula

The combined average of two groups is calculated as A_avg = (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Alligation Rule

The ratio of the quantities of two components is inversely proportional to the difference of their individual averages from the mean average.

Percentage and Ratio

In problems involving mixtures or averages, if the ratio is 1:1, both groups have an equal number of items.

Shortcut Trick

Draw an auxiliary line through A parallel to BC and DE.

The angle ∠BAD is split into two parts by this parallel line.

Part 1 = Alternate interior angle to ∠ABC = 40°.

Part 2 = Supplementary angle to ∠ADE (Co-interior) = 180° − 130° = 50°.

Total ∠BAD = 40° + 50° = 90°.

∴ The correct answer is 90°.

Alternate Method

Given:

Line DE || Line BC

∠ABC = 40°

∠ADE = 130°

Calculations:

⇒ Draw a line AX parallel to BC passing through point A.

⇒ Since AX || BC, ∠XAB = ∠ABC (Alternate Interior Angles)

⇒ ∠XAB = 40°

⇒ Since AX || DE, ∠XAD + ∠ADE = 180° (Consecutive Interior Angles)

⇒ ∠XAD + 130° = 180°

⇒ ∠XAD = 180° − 130° = 50°

⇒ ∠BAD = ∠XAB + ∠XAD

⇒ ∠BAD = 40° + 50° = 90°

∴ The correct answer is 90°.

Additional Information

Alternate Interior Angles

When a transversal intersects two parallel lines, each pair of alternate interior angles is equal.

Consecutive Interior Angles

Also known as co-interior angles, the sum of these angles on the same side of the transversal is 180°.

Parallel Line Properties

If two lines are parallel to the same line, then they are parallel to each other.

Logic followed here is: Each subsequent term in the series is obtained by multiplying the previous term by 4 and then adding 1 to the result.

Therefore, the missing term in the series is -6059.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Logic followed here is: The next letter in the series is determined by subtracting consecutive odd numbers (1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, ...) from the positional value of the previous letter.

 

Therefore, the missing term in the series is 'F'.

Logic followed here is.

Logic: Each letter in the cluster is shifted forward by 2 positions in the alphabetical order to obtain the corresponding letter of the next cluster.

For

HAC is related to JCE →

GVB is related to IXD →

The pattern observed is: Each letter is incremented by 2.

Similarly, let's find the code for OTF:

Therefore, the missing letter cluster is QVH.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Logic followed here is.

Logic: The letters in each cluster are increased by 4 to get the corresponding letters of the next cluster.

For FPG : JTK →

For RYE : VCI →

The pattern observed is: (Each letter's positional value) + 4.

Similarly, for the missing cluster ? : NXZ, we subtract 4 from NXZ:

Therefore, the missing cluster is 'JTV'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Logic followed here is: The series follows a pattern where the first and second letters of each term decrease by specific constant values in each step.

Therefore, the missing term in the series is OV.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Logic followed here is.

Logic: The day of the week is determined by calculating the total number of odd days from the beginning of the calendar (1 AD) until the given date.

Breakdown of 16 January 2003:

We split the period into three parts: (1600 + 400) years + 2 years (2001 and 2002) + 16 days of January 2003.

Step 1: Odd days in 2000 years

Odd days in 2000 years = 0

 

Step 2: Odd days in the remaining years (2001 to 2002)

Number of odd days in 2 years = 2

 

Step 3: Odd days in January 2003 (up to 16th)

Number of days = 16

Odd days = 16 ÷ 7 = 2 (remainder 2)

Number of odd days in 16 days = 2

 

Step 4: Total Odd Days Calculation

Total odd days = 0 (up to 2000) + 2 (2001-2002) + 2 (Jan 2003) = 4

Mapping of Total Odd Days to Weekdays:

As the total number of odd days is 4, the day of the week corresponds to Thursday.

 

Therefore, the day of the week on 16 January 2003 was Thursday.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The day of the week for a given date is determined by calculating the total number of odd days up to that date.

Logic followed here is:

Logic: Total Odd Days = (Odd days in completed centuries + Odd days in completed years + Odd days in the current year) mod 7.

Step 1: Calculation for years up to 31st December 2011 →

We can break down 2011 years as: 1600 years + 400 years + 11 years.

Calculation for 11 years (2001 to 2011):

Leap years: 2004, 2008 (Total 2 leap years)

Ordinary years: 11 - 2 = 9 ordinary years

Odd days = (2 × 2) + (9 × 1) = 4 + 9 = 13 odd days.

 

Step 2: Calculation for days from 1st January 2012 to 15th July 2012 →

Note: 2012 is a leap year because it is divisible by 4. So, February has 29 days.

Total days in 2012 = 31 + 29 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 30 + 15 = 197 days.

Odd days in 2012 = 197 ÷ 7 = 1 odd day (Remainder 1).

 

Step 3: Total Odd Days calculation →

Total odd days = (Odd days until 2011) + (Odd days in 2012)

Total odd days = 13 + 1 = 14 odd days.

Final Odd Days = 14 mod 7 = 0.

 

Mapping of Odd Days to Day of the Week:

Since the total number of odd days is 0, the day was Sunday.

 

Therefore, the day of the week on 15 July 2012 was Sunday.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The day of the week for a specific date is determined by calculating the total number of odd days from the beginning of the calendar (1 AD) up to that date.

Logic followed here is:

Step 1: Calculate odd days in completed centuries.

Odd days up to 1800 = 0 + 3 = 3 odd days.

 

Step 2: Calculate odd days in remaining completed years (1801 to 1856).

In 56 years (1801 to 1856):

• Number of leap years = 56 / 4 = 14
• Number of ordinary years = 56 - 14 = 42

Odd days in 56 years = (14 × 2) + (42 × 1) = 28 + 42 = 70

70 divided by 7 leaves a remainder of 0. So, 0 odd days.

 

Step 3: Calculate odd days in the target year 1857.

The target date is December 31, 1857. Since 1857 is an ordinary year, it contains 365 days.

365 divided by 7 = 52 weeks and 1 day remainder. So, 1 odd day.

 

Step 4: Total sum of odd days.

Total odd days = (Odd days in 1800 years) + (Odd days in 56 years) + (Odd days in 1857)

Total odd days = 3 + 0 + 1 = 4 odd days.

 

The mapping for the day of the week is:

Since the total number of odd days is 4, the day was Thursday.

 

Therefore, the last day of the year 1857 was Thursday.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

5 boys J, R, M, B and C are sitting in a row facing south.

1. R is to the immediate right of M.
   

2. B is to the immediate left of M.
   

3. J is to the right of R.
   

4. C is to the left of M.

Therefore, the boy sitting at the right end of the row is J.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Given:

7 teachers A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a row facing north.

1. B is fifth to the left of E.
   

2. A is fifth to the left of G.
   

3. D is third to the left of E.
   

4. C is second to the right of D.

So, 3 teachers are sitting between D and G.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The first figure is related to the second figure through a transformation where the inner and outer shapes interchange their positions. The same logic is applied to the third figure to find the missing fourth figure.

For the first pair of figures →

Relation: The outer shape of Figure 1 becomes the inner shape of Figure 2, and the inner shape of Figure 1 becomes the outer shape of Figure 2.

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Similarly, for the second pair of figures →

Rule: Interchange the positions of the inner and outer shapes of Figure 3 to obtain the resulting Figure 4.

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By following this pattern, the resulting figure corresponds to the one given in option (3).

Therefore, the missing figure is Option (3).

Logic followed here is.

Logic: The number of sides in the resulting figure is determined by counting the number of sides in the initial figure and then multiplying that sum by a constant factor.

For

The first pair of figures →

Sum of sides (Triangle) = 1 + 1 + 1 + 0 = 3

Number of sides in the second figure = 3 × 2 = 6 (Hexagon)

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The second pair of figures →

Sum of sides (Square) = 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 4

Number of sides in the missing figure = 4 × 2 = 8 (Octagon)

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The pattern observed is: (Number of sides of the initial figure) × 2.

Similarly, let's find the missing figure:

Sum of sides = 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 4

Resulting code = 4 × 2 = 8

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Therefore, the missing figure is the one with 8 sides, which corresponds to option (3).

Logic followed here is:

Logic: The first two letter-number clusters are related through specific positional shifts of their letters and a mathematical subtraction from the number. This pattern is then consistently applied to find the missing cluster.

For MM167 : LP67 →

For LL197 : KO97 →

The observed pattern for clusters starting with '1' is: (Letter 1 - 1, Letter 2 + 3) and (Number - 100).

Similarly, let's find the code for NN207:

Therefore, the cluster related to 'NN207' is MQ107.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Logic followed here is.

Logic: Each letter in the cluster is shifted by +2 in the alphabetical sequence, and the number part is increased by 180.

AKM420 is coded as CMO600 →

XTW710 is coded as ZVY890 →

The pattern observed is: (Letter shift + 2) and (Number + 180).

Similarly, let's find the cluster for LCD100:

Therefore, the cluster for 'LCD100' is NEF280.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Logic followed here is.

Logic: The second number in each pair is obtained by adding 37 to the first number.

For 8425 : 8462 →

8425 + 37 = 8462

 

For 6552 : 6589 →

6552 + 37 = 6589

 

The pattern observed is: (First number) + 37 = Second number.

Similarly, let's find the missing number for 5067 : ?

5067 + 37 = 5104

Therefore, the missing number is 5104.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Logic followed here is: The second number is determined by multiplying the first number by 2 and then subtracting 4 from the result.

For

705 : 1406 →

Calculation: (705 × 2) - 4 = 1410 - 4 = 1406

 

582 : 1160 →

Calculation: (582 × 2) - 4 = 1164 - 4 = 1160

 

The pattern observed is: (First number × 2) - 4 = Second number.

Similarly, let's find the missing number for ? : 230:

Calculation: (117 × 2) - 4 = 234 - 4 = 230

 

Therefore, the missing number '?' is 117.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Logic followed here is by comparing the common words and their corresponding codes in the given sentences.

 

Therefore, the code for 'code' is tq.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Logic followed here is.

Logic: The code for a word is determined by shifting the positional values of its letters by a specific sequence of values (+1, +4, -2, -3, -5).

For

SCOPE is coded as TGMMZ →

Coded letters = 19+1=20(T), 3+4=7(G), 15-2=13(M), 16-3=13(M), 5-5=26(Z)

Code = TGMMZ

 

PHASE is coded as QLYPZ →

Coded letters = 16+1=17(Q), 8+4=12(L), 1-2=25(Y), 19-3=16(P), 5-5=26(Z)

Code = QLYPZ

 

The pattern observed is: (First letter + 1, Second letter + 4, Third letter - 2, Fourth letter - 3, Fifth letter - 5).

Similarly, let's find the code for BONED:

Coded letters = 2+1=3(C), 15+4=19(S), 14-2=12(L), 5-3=2(B), 4-5=25(Y)

Code = CSLBY

 

Therefore, the code for 'BONED' is CSLBY.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Logic followed here is:

The series consists of three patterns: one for the first letter, one for the second letter, and one for the numeric part of each term.

Pattern 1: First Letter (Constant Increment)

Logic: 11 + 3 = 14 (N); 14 + 3 = 17 (Q); 17 + 3 = 20 (T); 20 + 3 = 23 (W); 23 + 3 = 26 (Z).

The first letter of the second term should be N instead of O.

 

Pattern 2: Second Letter (Constant Decrement)

Logic: 20 - 5 = 15; 15 - 5 = 10; 10 - 5 = 5; 5 - 5 = 0 (26/Z); 26 - 5 = 21.

The second letter pattern is correct.

 

Pattern 3: Numeric Part (Constant Subtraction)

Logic: 910 - 86 = 824; 824 - 86 = 738; 738 - 86 = 652; 652 - 86 = 566; 566 - 86 = 480.

The numeric pattern is correct.

 

By comparing all terms, we find that in OO824, the first letter 'O' breaks the +3 increment logic (it should be 'N').

Therefore, the wrong term is OO824.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Logic followed here is.

Logic: Each term in the series is composed of three letters and a number. The letters follow a specific positional value pattern, and the numbers follow a constant addition pattern.

Analysis of the First Letter:

Pattern: 26 − 4 = 22, 22 − 4 = 18, 18 − 4 = 14 (N). (Here, M is wrong as its value is 13).

 

Analysis of the Second Letter:

Pattern: 2 + 5 = 7, 7 + 5 = 12, 12 + 5 = 17, 17 + 5 = 22, 22 + 5 = 27 (A). (The second letters are correct).

 

Analysis of the Third Letter:

Pattern: 21 + 6 = 27 (A), 1 + 6 = 7, 7 + 6 = 13 (M). (Here, N is wrong as its value is 14).

 

Analysis of the Numerical Part:

500 + 2 = 502

502 + 2 = 504

504 + 2 = 506 (Here, 505 is wrong).

506 + 2 = 508

508 + 2 = 510

 

The correct 4th term should be NQM506 instead of MQN505.

Therefore, the wrong term in the series is MQN505.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The correct answer is Only I.

Key Points

• The civil aviation industry in India underwent a major transformation with the passage of the Air Corporations Act in 1953, which led to the nationalisation of the entire sector.
• Under this Act, the Government of India decided to merge eight existing private airlines into two state-owned autonomous corporations.
• The eight airlines involved in the nationalisation process were Air India, Air Services of India, Airways (India), Bharat Airways, Deccan Airways, Himalayan Aviation, Indian National Airways, and Kalinga Airlines.
• Statement I: Bharat Airways was one of the major private entities founded by the Birla Group in 1945. It was indeed nationalised in 1953 as part of the merger to form Indian Airlines. Hence, statement I is correct.
• Statement II: While Deccan Airways (based in Hyderabad) was nationalised, there was no major airline officially recognized as "Hyderabad Aviation" among the primary eight companies merged under the 1953 Act. Hence, statement II is incorrect.
• The merger resulted in the creation of Indian Airlines Corporation for domestic operations and Air India International for overseas services.

Additional Information

• Early History of Aviation: J.R.D. Tata, often called the father of Indian civil aviation, launched Tata Airlines in 1932, which carried mail between Karachi and Bombay. This company was renamed Air India in 1946.
• Bharat Airways: Established by G.D. Birla, this airline was headquartered in Calcutta (now Kolkata). It played a significant role in providing air connectivity in the post-independence era before being absorbed into the public sector.
• The Air Corporations Act, 1953: This legislation was enacted to ensure the planned and coordinated development of air transport services. It gave the government a monopoly over the aviation sector for several decades.
• Liberalization: The monopoly created by the 1953 Act lasted until 1994, when the Air Corporations (Transfer of Undertaking and Repeal) Act was passed. This allowed private scheduled carriers like Jet Airways and Sahara India to enter the market again.
• Modern Context: In January 2022, the wheel of history came full circle when Air India was officially handed back to the Tata Group, marking the end of the era of nationalisation for the flagship carrier.

Important Points

• The nationalisation was driven by the need for financial stability in the aviation industry, as many private airlines were struggling with high operating costs and low profit margins in the early 1950s.
• The Indian Airlines Corporation initially took over the fleet of 74 Douglas DC-3 Dakotas, 12 Vickers Vikings, and other aircraft from the nationalised private companies.
• The headquarters of Indian Airlines was established in New Delhi, while Air India maintained its primary base in Bombay (now Mumbai).

The correct answer is Dhana Nanda.

Key Points

• Dhana Nanda was the last ruler of the Nanda Dynasty, which held power over the Magadha region in ancient India during the 4th century BCE.
• He was the youngest of the nine sons of Mahapadma Nanda, who are collectively known in historical and religious texts as the Navanandas.
• During his reign, Alexander the Great invaded the north-western part of India in 326 BCE. Historical accounts suggest that Alexander's army refused to cross the Beas River primarily due to the fear of Dhana Nanda's massive and formidable military force.
• His rule came to an end around 322–321 BCE when he was defeated and overthrown by Chandragupta Maurya, who was assisted by the strategic brilliance of Chanakya (Kautilya).
• The downfall of Dhana Nanda marked the transition from the Nanda period to the Mauryan Empire, which eventually unified most of the Indian subcontinent.

Additional Information

• Mahapadma Nanda:
• He was the founder of the Nanda dynasty and is often regarded as the first historical emperor of India.
• In the Puranas, he is described as "Sarva-Kshatrantaka" (the uprooter of all Kshatriyas) and "Ekarat" (the sole monarch).
• He successfully expanded the Magadhan Empire by conquering various kingdoms like the Kurus, Panchalas, and Kashis.
• The Nanda Military:
• The dynasty was famous for its military strength. According to Greek historians like Curtius, the Nanda army consisted of 200,000 infantry, 20,000 cavalry, 2,000 chariots, and 3,000 elephants.
• This immense power ensured that Magadha remained the most dominant Mahajanapada of its time.
• Economic and Social Conditions:
• The name "Dhana" implies wealth. Ancient texts mention that the Nandas had accumulated vast treasures through a highly organized system of taxation.
• However, Dhana Nanda became highly unpopular among his subjects due to his oppressive tax regimes and his low-born status, which was looked down upon by the contemporary social elite.

Important Points

• Navanandas (The Nine Nandas):
• According to Buddhist traditions found in the Mahabodhivamsa, the nine kings were Ugrasena (Mahapadma Nanda), Panduka, Pandugati, Bhuta-pala, Rashtra-pala, Govishanaka, Dashasiddhaka, Kaivarta, and Dhana Nanda.
• They ruled for a relatively short duration, approximately 22 to 28 years, but left a lasting impact on Indian administration.
• Capital:
• The capital of the Nanda Empire was Pataliputra (modern-day Patna). It was a major center for trade, politics, and education.
• Role of Chanakya:
• The friction between Chanakya and Dhana Nanda is a significant historical theme. After being insulted in the Nanda court, Chanakya swore to destroy the dynasty and trained Chandragupta Maurya to fulfill this objective.

The correct answer is Guard cell.

Key Points

• The opening and closing of stomata is primarily controlled by the Guard cells. These are specialized cells located in the epidermis of leaves and stems.
• Each stomatal pore is surrounded by a pair of kidney-shaped guard cells (in dicots) or dumb-bell shaped guard cells (in grasses/monocots).
• The mechanism of opening and closing depends on the turgidity of these cells. When water flows into the guard cells, they swell and become turgid, which pulls the stomatal pore open.
• Conversely, when the guard cells lose water, they shrink and become flaccid, causing the stomatal pore to close. This process helps the plant regulate gas exchange and transpiration.
• The movement of water in and out of guard cells is driven by the concentration of potassium ions (K+). An increase in K+ concentration lowers the water potential, causing water to enter the cell via osmosis.

Additional Information

• Stomata: These are tiny pores found mostly on the underside of leaves. Their main functions are the intake of Carbon Dioxide (CO2) for photosynthesis and the release of Oxygen (O2) and water vapor.
• Root Cells: These cells are specialized for the absorption of water and minerals from the soil. Unlike guard cells, they are located underground and do not contain stomata for gas exchange.
• Stem Cells: In the botanical context, these often refer to cells in the meristematic tissue which are responsible for the growth and differentiation of various plant parts. They do not directly regulate stomatal movement.
• Midrib: This is the central, thickened vein of a leaf. It provides structural support and contains the vascular bundles (xylem and phloem) for transporting water and nutrients, but it does not control the stomatal pores.
• Environmental Factors: Stomatal activity is influenced by external factors such as light intensity, humidity, and temperature. For example, most plants close their stomata at night to prevent unnecessary water loss when photosynthesis is not occurring.
• Abscisic Acid (ABA): This is a plant hormone often produced during drought stress. It signals the guard cells to close the stomata to conserve water, acting as a survival mechanism for the plant.

Important Points

• Transpiration: This is the process of water loss from the aerial parts of the plant in the form of vapor. Approximately 90% of transpiration occurs through the stomata.
• Chloroplasts: Uniquely among epidermal cells, guard cells contain chloroplasts, allowing them to produce energy through photosynthesis, which aids in the active transport of ions required for opening the pore.
• Diffusion: The exchange of gases through the stomata occurs by the simple physical process of diffusion, moving from an area of higher concentration to lower concentration.

The correct answer is Desire and enjoyment.

Key Points

• In the Vedic tradition and broader Hindu philosophy, Kama is defined as one of the four Puruṣārthas, which are the legitimate goals of human life. It represents the pursuit of desire, wish, passion, and the enjoyment of life.
• The concept primarily relates to the pleasure of the senses, aesthetic enjoyment (such as art, music, and literature), love, and affection. It is not limited to physical desire but includes the emotional and psychological satisfaction derived from the world. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Kama is considered an essential part of the human experience. However, it must be pursued within the framework of Dharma (ethical duty) to ensure that the pursuit of pleasure does not lead to social or personal harm.
• In the Vedas, the term is sometimes associated with the creative impulse of the universe. In the Rigveda, Kama is described as the "first seed of mind" that arose in the One during the creation of the cosmos.
• While Ethical duties refer to Dharma, Selfless service is more closely aligned with Karma Yoga or Seva, and Detachment from worldly life relates to Vairagya or Sanyasa. Hence, statements 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect.

Additional Information

• The Four Puruṣārthas:
• Dharma (Duty): This refers to ethical duties, moral laws, and righteousness. It is the foundation of the other three goals, ensuring that wealth and pleasure are acquired through right conduct.
• Artha (Prosperity): This signifies the pursuit of material prosperity, wealth, economic values, and power. It is necessary for maintaining a household and performing religious rituals.
• Kama (Pleasure): As discussed, it focuses on desire and enjoyment. It is the fulfillment of sensory and emotional needs during the Grihastha (householder) stage of life.
• Moksha (Liberation): This is the ultimate goal of human life, representing spiritual liberation and freedom from the cycle of birth and death (Samsara).
• Kamasutra:
• The most famous ancient Indian text on Kama is the Kamasutra, attributed to the sage Vatsyayana, believed to have been written between the 2nd and 4th century CE.
• Far from being just a manual on physical love, it is a comprehensive guide to social etiquette, aesthetic living, and the nature of love and relationships in a civilized society.
• The Ashrama System:
• The pursuit of Kama is particularly emphasized in the Grihastha stage (householder stage) of the four Ashramas.
• During this stage, an individual is expected to get married, raise a family, and enjoy the pleasures of the world while fulfilling their social and economic obligations to society.

Important Points

• Deity of Kama: In Indian mythology, Kamadeva is the god of desire and attraction, often depicted with a bow made of sugar cane and arrows decorated with five kinds of fragrant flowers.
• Balance in Life: Vedic philosophy warns against the excessive pursuit of Kama without Dharma, as it can lead to greed and attachment, which hinder the eventual path toward Moksha.
• Upanishadic Perspective: While the earlier Vedic texts recognize the importance of desire in creation, the Upanishads often emphasize transcending desires (Kama) to realize the Atman (Self) and achieve peace.

The correct answer is Article 187.

Key Points

• Article 187 of the Constitution of India specifically provides for the Secretariat of State Legislature. It ensures that each House of the State Legislature has its own dedicated administrative staff to maintain the independence of the legislative body from the executive.
• According to Clause 1 of this article, each House of the Legislature of a State shall have a separate secretarial staff. However, in states with a bicameral legislature (having both a Legislative Assembly and a Legislative Council), nothing prevents the creation of posts common to both Houses.
• Clause 2 empowers the State Legislature to make laws to regulate the recruitment and the conditions of service of persons appointed to the secretarial staff of the House or Houses.
• Clause 3 states that until the State Legislature makes such laws, the Governor of the state has the power to make rules regarding recruitment and service conditions. This is done after consultation with the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly or the Chairman of the Legislative Council.
• The existence of an independent secretariat is vital for the doctrine of separation of powers, allowing the legislature to function without interference from government departments. Hence, the correct answer is Article 187.

Additional Information

• Article 182:
• This article deals with the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council.
• It stipulates that the Legislative Council of every state having such a Council shall, as soon as may be, choose two members of the Council to be respectively Chairman and Deputy Chairman thereof.
• Article 185:
• This article specifies that the Chairman or the Deputy Chairman shall not preside while a resolution for his removal from office is under consideration.
• It ensures impartial proceedings during a no-confidence motion or removal process against the presiding officers of the Council.
• Article 189:
• This article pertains to voting in Houses, the power of Houses to act notwithstanding vacancies, and the quorum.
• It states that all questions at any sitting shall be determined by a majority of votes of the members present and voting, other than the Speaker or Chairman. It also defines the quorum for a meeting as one-tenth of the total number of members of the House or ten, whichever is greater.

Important Points

• Comparison with Parliament: Similar to Article 187 for States, Article 98 of the Indian Constitution provides for a separate Secretarial staff for each House of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha).
• Administrative Independence: The Secretariat is headed by a Secretary-General (usually in Parliament) or a Secretary (in State Legislatures) who is the administrative head and functions under the overall control of the Speaker or Chairman.
• Bicameral vs. Unicameral: In Unicameral states (only Legislative Assembly), only one secretarial unit exists. In Bicameral states (like Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana), there may be separate or common secretarial staffs as per the state's administrative setup.
• Constitutional Status: These provisions were included to ensure that the officers of the house are not subject to the pleasure of the Executive, thereby maintaining the dignity and autonomy of the Legislative organ of the Government.

The correct answer is No fixed shape but fixed volume.

Key Points

• Liquids are a state of matter characterized by having a definite volume but no definite shape. This means they will occupy the same amount of space regardless of the container, but will adapt their form to fit the bottom of that container. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The particles in a liquid are close together with no regular arrangement. They vibrate, move about, and slide past each other, which allows liquids to flow and change shape.
• Unlike gases, the intermolecular forces in a liquid are strong enough to keep the particles in contact, ensuring a fixed volume that does not expand to fill the entire container.
• A liquid is nearly incompressible. Even under high pressure, the volume of a liquid decreases by a very small margin because the particles are already quite packed.
• When a liquid is poured into a vessel, it takes the shape of the part of the vessel it occupies due to gravity and the fluidity of its particles.

Additional Information

• Solids:
• Solids possess a fixed shape and a fixed volume. The particles are tightly packed in a regular pattern and only vibrate around fixed positions. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• They have high density and are generally rigid, meaning they resist changes to their shape.
• Gases:
• Gases have no fixed shape and no fixed volume. The particles are far apart with negligible attraction between them, moving randomly at high speeds. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
• A gas will expand to completely fill whatever container it is placed in, making it highly compressible.
• Statement 3 Analysis:
• The characteristic of having a fixed shape but no fixed volume does not correspond to any standard state of matter under normal conditions. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Physical Properties of Liquids:
• Viscosity: This refers to a liquid's resistance to flow. For example, honey has a higher viscosity than water at room temperature.
• Surface Tension: This is the property of the surface of a liquid that allows it to resist an external force, due to the cohesive nature of its molecules. It is the reason why small insects can walk on water.
• Boiling Point: The temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid equals the external pressure surrounding the liquid, causing it to turn into a gas.

Important Points

• Diffusion: Liquids undergo diffusion, where particles mix with other particles. The rate of diffusion in liquids is higher than in solids but lower than in gases.
• Density: Generally, the density of a substance in its liquid state is slightly lower than in its solid state (with the notable exception of water, where ice is less dense than liquid water).
• Evaporation: This is a surface phenomenon where liquid particles gain enough kinetic energy to escape into the vapor phase at temperatures below the boiling point.
• Molecules in Motion: The kinetic energy of liquid molecules is intermediate between that of solids and gases, allowing for mobility while maintaining structural proximity.

The correct answer is Bidding farewell to a newly-wed bride.

Key Points

• Pathori Geet is a traditional folk song belonging to the state of Chhattisgarh, primarily associated with the emotional rituals of marriage.
• This song is specifically performed during the Vidaai ceremony, which marks the occasion of bidding farewell to a newly-wed bride as she departs from her parental home to her husband's home.
• The theme of Pathori Geet is deeply melancholic, capturing the poignant moments of separation and the transition of a daughter into a new family. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
• It is traditionally sung by the women of the family and the neighborhood, reflecting the socio-cultural values and the bond between a daughter and her parents.
• The lyrics often describe the path (Path) the bride is about to take and offer blessings for her future life, making it a vital part of the Chhattisgarhi folk heritage.

Additional Information

• Birth of a child:
• The songs sung during the birth of a child in Chhattisgarh are known as Sohar Geet. These songs celebrate the arrival of the newborn and are filled with joy and hope. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Holi celebration:
• During the Holi celebration, people sing Phag Geet or Holi Geet. These are energetic songs accompanied by instruments like the Nagara and Mandar, reflecting the spirit of colors and brotherhood. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Worship of Goddess Lakshmi:
• The Sua Geet (Parrot Song) is performed during the Deepawali period, specifically during the worship of Goddess Lakshmi and Gauri. Women dance in a circle, mimicking the movement of a parrot. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Pandwani:
• One of the most famous folk ballad forms of Chhattisgarh is Pandwani, which narrates the story of the Pandavas from the epic Mahabharata. Renowned artists like Teejan Bai have brought global recognition to this form.

Important Points

• Dadariya: Known as the "King of Chhattisgarhi Folk Songs," it is a popular form of musical dialogue often sung during harvest or while performing daily tasks.
• Karma Geet: This is a tribal folk song performed during the Karma Festival by tribes such as the Gonds, Baigas, and Oraons to honor Karam Sani, the deity of destiny.
• Panthi Geet: Associated with the Satnami community of Chhattisgarh, these songs are performed to propagate the teachings and principles of Guru Ghasidas.
• Bhartari: A narrative folk song based on the legends of King Bhartari, usually sung with instruments like the Iktara and Sarangi.
• The state of Chhattisgarh, formed on 1st November 2000, is often referred to as the "Rice Bowl of India" and possesses a rich tapestry of tribal art and oral traditions.

The correct answer is 99.1%.

Key Points

• According to the National Family Health Survey-5 (NFHS-5), which was conducted between 2019 and 2021, the percentage of households in urban areas with access to electricity is 99.1%.
• The survey indicates a near-universal electrification in urban centers, reflecting the success of various urban development and power distribution schemes.
• For rural areas, the percentage of households with electricity access stands at 95.8%, showing a significant catch-up with urban infrastructure.
• On a national level, the total percentage of households having access to electricity is 96.8%, which is a substantial increase from the 88.2% recorded during NFHS-4 (2015-16).
• The International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS), Mumbai, served as the nodal agency for the survey under the aegis of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW).

Additional Information

• Improved Drinking Water Sources:
• In NFHS-5, 95.9% of households in India have access to an improved source of drinking water.
• In urban areas, this figure is as high as 98.7%, compared to 94.5% in rural areas.
• Sanitation Facilities:
• Around 70.2% of households in the country use improved sanitation facilities that are not shared with other households.
• There is a marked difference between regions, with 81.5% in urban areas and 64.9% in rural areas having access to such facilities.
• Clean Cooking Fuel:
• The use of clean cooking fuel (LPG/natural gas, biogas) stands at 58.6% nationally.
• Urban areas lead significantly with 89.7%, while rural areas lag behind at 43.2% usage.
• Housing Characteristics:
• 96.7% of urban households live in a "pucca" or semi-pucca structure, whereas the national average for households living in "pucca" houses has risen to 60.3%.

Important Points

• Scope of NFHS-5: The survey provides high-quality data on population, health, and nutrition for India and each State/Union Territory. It covered approximately 6.37 lakh sample households across the country.
• Survey Phases: The NFHS-5 was conducted in two phases. Phase I covered 17 States and 5 UTs, while Phase II covered the remaining 11 States and 3 UTs.
• Key Parameters: Apart from household amenities, the survey tracks Total Fertility Rate (TFR), which has declined to 2.0 at the national level, and Infant Mortality Rate (IMR).
• Electricity Schemes: The progress in electricity access is often attributed to the Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana (Saubhagya), launched in September 2017, aimed at achieving universal household electrification.
• State Performance: Several states like Goa, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu reported nearly 100% electricity access in both urban and rural sectors in this report.

The correct answer is Lord Irwin.

Key Points

• Lord Irwin served as the Viceroy of India from 1926 to 1931, a period marked by significant political upheaval and the rise of the independence movement.
• The Simon Commission, officially known as the Indian Statutory Commission, was appointed by the British government in November 1927.
• The commission arrived in India in February 1928 at Bombay (now Mumbai) to review the working of the Government of India Act 1919 and suggest further constitutional reforms.
• It was headed by Sir John Simon and consisted of seven members of the British Parliament, but notably, it did not include a single Indian member.
• The exclusion of Indians from a commission meant to decide India's constitutional future led to widespread outrage and a boycott by almost all Indian political parties, including the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League.

Additional Information

• Lord Chelmsford (1916–1921):
• He was the Viceroy during the introduction of the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms and the Government of India Act 1919.
• His tenure saw the infamous Jallianwala Bagh Massacre in 1919 and the launch of the Non-Cooperation Movement and Khilafat Movement.
• Lord Willingdon (1931–1936):
• He succeeded Lord Irwin and was the Viceroy during the Second and Third Round Table Conferences.
• The Communal Award (1932) and the Government of India Act 1935 were significant landmarks during his administration.
• Lord Linlithgow (1936–1944):
• He served as Viceroy during the outbreak of World War II in 1939.
• His tenure is noted for the Quit India Movement (1942), the August Offer (1940), and the Cripps Mission (1942).

Important Points

• The Simon Commission was greeted with black flags and slogans of "Simon Go Back" across the country.
• During a protest in Lahore in October 1928, the veteran leader Lala Lajpat Rai was severely injured in a lathi charge and later succumbed to his injuries, which intensified the nationalist sentiment.
• As a response to the challenge by Lord Birkenhead (the Secretary of State) that Indians were incapable of drafting a constitution, the Nehru Report was prepared in 1928 under the chairmanship of Motilal Nehru.
• Lord Irwin later made the famous Deepavali Declaration in October 1929, stating that the natural issue of India's constitutional progress was the attainment of Dominion Status.
• His tenure also saw the Dandi March (1930) and the subsequent Gandhi-Irwin Pact signed on March 5, 1931, which led to the suspension of the Civil Disobedience Movement.

The correct answer is 78.

Key Points

• Mahatma Gandhi initiated the historic Salt March, also known as the Dandi March or the Salt Satyagraha, on 12 March 1930.
• The march began from Sabarmati Ashram in Ahmedabad and was destined for the coastal village of Dandi in Gujarat.
• Gandhi was accompanied by 78 of his trusted volunteers at the start of the journey. These individuals were meticulously chosen from different regions of India to represent a cross-section of the nation's unity.
• The marchers traversed a distance of approximately 240 miles (about 385 kilometers) over a period of 24 days.
• The primary objective was to defy the British salt monopoly and the Salt Tax, which Gandhi viewed as an unjust burden on the common people and the poor of India.

Additional Information

• The Symbolism of Salt:
• Salt was selected as a symbol of protest because it was a commodity used by every household in India, regardless of caste, creed, or economic status.
• By choosing a universal necessity, Gandhi successfully mobilized the masses and bridged the gap between the political elite and the rural population.
• Launch of Civil Disobedience:
• The Dandi March marked the official beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement, a major phase in the Indian Independence Movement.
• On 6 April 1930, Gandhi reached Dandi and ceremonially broke the law by picking up a handful of natural salt from the shore, signifying the non-violent refusal to cooperate with the British Raj.
• International Impact:
• The march attracted significant international media attention. The American journalist Webb Miller provided detailed accounts of the movement, which helped shift global opinion in favor of Indian self-rule.
• It showcased the efficacy of Satyagraha (truth-force) and Ahimsa (non-violence) as powerful political tools against colonialism.

Important Points

• Mass Participation and Arrests:
• Following Gandhi’s action at Dandi, similar acts of civil disobedience broke out across India. In Tamil Nadu, C. Rajagopalachari led a march from Trichinopoly to Vedaranyam.
• The British authorities responded with a massive crackdown, arresting nearly 60,000 people, including Mahatma Gandhi and Jawaharlal Nehru.
• The Gandhi-Irwin Pact:
• The pressure from the Civil Disobedience Movement eventually led to negotiations between Gandhi and the Viceroy, Lord Irwin.
• This culminated in the Gandhi-Irwin Pact signed in March 1931, which resulted in the release of political prisoners and allowed people living near the coast to produce salt for personal consumption.
• Dharasana Satyagraha:
• After Gandhi's arrest, Sarojini Naidu led a non-violent raid on the Dharasana Salt Works in May 1930, where peaceful protesters were brutally beaten by British police, an event that shocked the world.

The correct answer is 117.

Key Points

• The 1961 Census of India is often cited for its exhaustive documentation of the country's linguistic diversity, where it recorded 1,652 mother tongues.
• Out of these documented mother tongues, the Scheme for Protection and Preservation of Endangered Languages (SPPEL) has identified 117 languages for prioritized documentation and preservation. Hence, the correct option is 117.
• The primary criterion for inclusion in this list by SPPEL is the number of speakers; languages spoken by fewer than 10,000 people are generally categorized as endangered in the Indian context.
• The identification process focuses on languages that do not have a written script or are not used in the formal education system, making them highly vulnerable to extinction.
• This initiative is a critical part of India's efforts to safeguard its intangible cultural heritage and linguistic pluralism.

Additional Information

• Scheme for Protection and Preservation of Endangered Languages (SPPEL):
• The scheme was instituted by the Ministry of Human Resource Development (now the Ministry of Education), Government of India, in 2013.
• The Central Institute of Indian Languages (CIIL), located in Mysore, Karnataka, is the nodal agency responsible for implementing this scheme.
• The objective is to document and archive all the mother tongues/languages of India that are likely to die out in the near future.
• Documentation under SPPEL involves creating comprehensive dictionaries, grammars, and ethnolinguistic profiles of the identified languages.
• Endangered Languages Criteria:
• According to UNESCO, a language is endangered when its speakers cease to use it, use it in an increasingly reduced number of communicative domains, or cease to pass it on from one generation to the next.
• UNESCO uses a scale of vitality: Vulnerable, Definitely Endangered, Severely Endangered, Critically Endangered, and Extinct.
• In India, many tribal and minor languages fall under the Critically Endangered category because the younger generation is shifting towards dominant regional languages or Hindi and English.

Important Points

• Linguistic Surveys in India:
• The Linguistic Survey of India (LSI) was first commissioned in the late 19th century under the direction of Sir George Abraham Grierson.
• The People's Linguistic Survey of India (PLSI), a non-governmental initiative led by G.N. Devy in 2010, claimed that India has around 780 languages, suggesting many from the 1961 Census have already vanished.
• The Constitution of India recognizes 22 languages in the Eighth Schedule, but hundreds of other "minor" languages lack official status, contributing to their endangered state.
• Geographic Distribution:
• A significant number of the 117 identified languages are found in the North-Eastern states, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and central tribal belts of Odisha, Chhattisgarh, and Jharkhand.
• Languages of the Andamanese (like Jarawa and Onge) are among the most critically endangered and are a major focus for CIIL.

The correct answer is Bulbul v2.

Key Points

• In May 2025, the Indian artificial intelligence startup Sarvam AI announced the launch of Bulbul v2, a sophisticated text-to-speech (TTS) model.
• Bulbul v2 is specifically designed to handle the complex phonetic and linguistic nuances of Indian languages, providing a more natural and human-like voice output compared to its predecessors.
• The model is built to support a wide range of Indic languages, aiming to bridge the digital divide by enabling voice-based interactions for users who prefer their native tongues.
• One of the standout features of Bulbul v2 is its low-latency performance, making it suitable for real-time applications such as voice assistants, interactive voice response (IVR) systems, and live translation tools.
• The launch marks a significant milestone for Sarvam AI in its mission to develop sovereign AI capabilities tailored for the unique demographic and linguistic landscape of India.

Additional Information

• Sarvam AI:
• Founded by Vivek Raghavan and Pratyush Kumar, who were previously associated with AI4Bharat at IIT Madras.
• The company focuses on building Large Language Models (LLMs) and generative AI tools that are culturally and linguistically relevant to India.
• It has received significant venture capital funding from firms like Lightspeed Venture Partners, Peak XV Partners, and Khosla Ventures.
• Text-to-Speech (TTS) Technology:
• TTS systems convert written text into synthetic speech using neural networks and deep learning techniques.
• In the context of India, TTS is vital for literacy programs, e-governance, and making financial services accessible to the visually impaired or non-literate populations.
• The Bulbul series represents Sarvam AI's dedicated effort to master prosody and intonation across diverse dialects.
• Significance of Indic AI:
• With over 1.4 billion people and 22 official languages, India requires AI models that understand local contexts better than global generic models.
• Models like Bulbul v2 and OpenHathi (an earlier LLM by Sarvam) are part of a broader movement toward "AI for Bharat", ensuring technological benefits reach beyond English-speaking urban centers.

Important Points

• Technical Specifications: Bulbul v2 utilizes advanced transformer-based architectures to ensure that the generated audio maintains high fidelity and emotional resonance.
• Deployment: The model is typically made available via APIs, allowing developers and enterprises to integrate high-quality Indian voice synthesis into their own mobile and web applications.
• Linguistic Coverage: While initial versions focused on Hindi and English, the v2 release expanded deep support for major regional languages including Bengali, Telugu, Marathi, Tamil, and Kannada.
• Year of Impact: By 2025, the integration of such models has become a cornerstone for the Digital India initiative, facilitating smoother man-machine communication in rural sectors.

The correct answer is 2.

Key Points

• To find the time taken by the sound wave to travel a certain distance, we first need to determine the speed of the sound wave using the given frequency and wavelength.
• The frequency (f) of the sound wave is given as 5 kHz. Converting this to the standard SI unit, 1 kHz = 1000 Hz, thus the frequency is 5000 Hz.
• The wavelength (λ) is given as 50 cm. Converting this to meters (SI unit), 100 cm = 1 m, so the wavelength is 0.5 m.
• The speed (v) of a wave is calculated using the formula: v = f × λ. By substituting the values: v = 5000 Hz × 0.5 m = 2500 m/s.
• The distance (d) to be traveled is 5 km. Converting this to meters, 1 km = 1000 m, so the distance is 5000 m.
• The time (t) taken is calculated using the formula: t = distance / speed. Substituting the values: t = 5000 m / 2500 m/s = 2 seconds. Hence, the time taken is 2 seconds.

Additional Information

• Frequency: It refers to the number of complete oscillations or cycles a wave makes per unit of time. The SI unit of frequency is the Hertz (Hz), named after Heinrich Hertz. In this problem, the high frequency of 5000 Hz indicates an ultrasonic or high-pitched sound.
• Wavelength: This is the minimum distance after which the sound wave repeats itself, typically measured between two consecutive crests or compressions. Its SI unit is the meter (m).
• Wave Speed: The speed of sound depends on the medium through which it travels. In this calculation, the speed was found to be 2500 m/s, which is significantly higher than the speed of sound in air (approximately 343 m/s at 20°C). This suggests the wave is likely traveling through a solid or a dense liquid, as sound travels fastest in solids.
• Distance and Time: The linear relationship between distance, speed, and time assumes that the wave speed remains constant throughout the journey. In real-world scenarios, factors like temperature and humidity can alter the speed of sound over a 5 km stretch.

Important Points

• Unit Conversions: It is crucial to convert all units to the International System of Units (SI) before performing calculations.
• 1 kilometer (km) = 1000 meters (m).
• 1 kilohertz (kHz) = 1000 hertz (Hz).
• 1 centimeter (cm) = 0.01 meters (m).
• The Wave Equation: The fundamental relation v = fλ applies to all types of waves, including longitudinal sound waves and transverse light waves.
• Audible Range: Human ears can typically hear sounds with frequencies between 20 Hz and 20,000 Hz (20 kHz). Since the frequency in the question is 5 kHz, it falls well within the audible range for humans.

The correct answer is Neither I nor II.

Key Points

• The Handloom sector is one of the largest economic sectors in India, particularly in the rural economy. It is fundamentally a labor-intensive sector rather than a capital-intensive one.
• Statement I: A capital-intensive industry is one that requires a large amount of financial investment in machinery and technology relative to the labor employed. In contrast, the handloom sector relies on manual weaving and requires very low capital investment for tools like looms. Hence, statement I is incorrect.
• Statement II: While the craft of weaving involves intricate art, the sector is economically classified as being accessible to semi-skilled and traditionally skilled workers. It does not strictly require "fully skilled" workers in the formal industrial sense (technical certifications), as skills are often passed down through generations within families. Hence, statement II is incorrect.
• The sector provides employment to approximately 3.5 million people in India, serving as the second-largest employer after agriculture.
• Hence, the correct answer is Neither I nor II.

Additional Information

• Characteristics of the Handloom Sector:
• The handloom industry is a cottage industry that reflects the cultural heritage of India. It is eco-friendly and has a low carbon footprint because it does not use electricity or heavy fuel-driven machinery.
• According to the Fourth All India Handloom Census, the sector employs a significant percentage of women, making up nearly 70% of the total handloom workers, thus contributing to women empowerment.
• The Ministry of Textiles governs the policies for this sector, focusing on welfare schemes, subsidies on yarn, and credit facilities for artisans.
• Key Initiatives and Symbols:
• Handloom Mark: This is a certification mark introduced by the Government of India to provide a collective identity to handloom products and guarantee their authenticity to consumers.
• National Handloom Day: It is celebrated every year on August 7. This date was chosen to commemorate the Swadeshi Movement which was launched on this day in 1905.
• The Geographical Indication (GI) tag has been granted to several handloom products like Banarasi Silk, Chanderi Sarees, and Muga Silk to protect the intellectual property of the weavers.

Important Points

• Economic Impact:
• The sector contributes significantly to export earnings. India is the world's largest producer of handloom cloth, accounting for about 95% of the world's hand-woven fabric.
• Unlike Powerlooms, which are capital-intensive and use electric power, Handlooms provide a unique texture and design flexibility that cannot be replicated by mass-produced textiles.
• Major handloom clusters are located in states like Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, and Assam.

The correct answer is The Five Dollar Smile and Other Stories.

Key Points

• The Five Dollar Smile and Other Stories is a collection of short stories written by the Indian author and politician Shashi Tharoor. It was first published in 1990.
• The book comprises various stories that Shashi Tharoor wrote during his teenage years and early twenties, reflecting themes of adolescence, human nature, and social observations.
• Shashi Tharoor is an award-winning writer who has authored several bestselling books. He is notably recognized for his command over the English language and his extensive vocabulary.
• He received the prestigious Sahitya Akademi Award in 2019 for his non-fiction work "An Era of Darkness: The British Empire in India".
• Apart from his literary career, Shashi Tharoor is a Member of Parliament (MP) representing the Thiruvananthapuram constituency in Kerala since 2009.

Additional Information

• Other Books in the Options:
• The End of Imagination: This book was written by Arundhati Roy and published in 1998. It is a collection of essays covering political and social issues, including her famous response to India's nuclear tests.
• The Great Book Robbery: This work is authored by Venu Govindu and Deepak Malghan. It explores the life and intellectual contributions of J.C. Kumarappa, a pioneer in Gandhian economics.
• The Night Train at Deoli and Other Stories: This is a classic collection of short stories by Ruskin Bond, published in 1988. Ruskin Bond is a celebrated Anglo-Indian author known for his stories set in the Himalayan foothills.
• Notable Works of Shashi Tharoor:
• The Great Indian Novel (1989): A satirical novel that reimagines the Mahabharata in the context of the Indian Independence Movement and the subsequent decades.
• Inglorious Empire (2017): Also known as "An Era of Darkness" in India, it details the devastating effects of British colonial rule on the Indian economy and society.
• Why I Am a Hindu (2018): A book where he discusses the history and core tenets of Hinduism and its social and political manifestations in modern India.
• The Paradoxical Prime Minister (2018): A critical examination of the first term of Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
• Career and Awards:
• Shashi Tharoor served as the Under-Secretary-General of the United Nations and ran for the post of UN Secretary-General in 2006.
• He was awarded the Commonwealth Writers' Prize for the Best First Book (Eurasia Region) for "The Great Indian Novel".
• In 2010, he was honored with the Pravasi Bharatiya Samman, the highest honor conferred on Overseas Indians.

The correct answer is The Shiva Trilogy.

Key Points

• The Oath of the Vayuputras, published in 2013, serves as the concluding installment of the critically acclaimed Shiva Trilogy authored by Amish Tripathi.
• The trilogy reimagines the Hindu deity Shiva as a human hero whose adventures lead him to be worshipped as a God. The narrative begins with The Immortals of Meluha (released in 2010) and continues with The Secret of the Nagas (released in 2011).
• In this final book, the protagonist Shiva reaches the capital of the Vayuputras, a legendary council, to seek their help in his war against Evil. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The series is noted for its "myth-history" genre, blending Indian mythology with historical fiction and philosophical themes.
• The Shiva Trilogy became a massive commercial success, recorded as the fastest-selling book series in the history of Indian publishing, with millions of copies sold globally.

Additional Information

• The Ram Chandra Series: This is the second multi-book series by Amish Tripathi, which follows a similar myth-historical approach. It includes titles such as Scion of Ikshvaku (2015), Sita: Warrior of Mithila (2017), Raavan: Enemy of Aryavarta (2019), and War of Lanka (2022).
• Amish Tripathi: Often referred to as "India's Tolkien," he is an alumnus of IIM Calcutta and worked in the financial services industry for over a decade before becoming a full-time author. He has also served as the Director of the Nehru Centre in London.
• The Bharat Series: While Amish has written non-fiction like Immortal India and Dharma, he also launched the Legend of Suheldev under the Immortal Writers' Centre, which focuses on King Suheldev and his fight against Mahmud of Ghazni.
• Publishing Impact: His books have been translated into over 20 languages, including Hindi, Marathi, Gujarati, Spanish, and French, making Indian mythology accessible to a global audience.

Important Points

• Cultural Significance: The Shiva Trilogy is credited with sparking a renewed interest in mythological fiction among Indian youth, leading to a surge of similar titles in the 2010s.
• The Vayuputras: In the context of the book, the Vayuputras are portrayed as the tribe left behind by the previous Mahadev (Lord Rudra) to assist the future Mahadev in identifying and destroying Evil.
• Sales Records: By 2022, Amish Tripathi's books had collectively sold over 6 million copies, with the Shiva Trilogy contributing significantly to these numerical figures.
• Awards: Amish has received several accolades, including the Raymond Crossword Book Award and the Hello! Hall of Fame Award for Literary Excellence.

The correct answer is 8.2%.

Key Points

• The economic reforms in India, initiated in 1991, are commonly known as the LPG (Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization) reforms. These reforms were aimed at making the Indian economy more market-oriented and service-oriented.
• Before the implementation of these reforms, the Indian economy was characterized by slow growth, often referred to as the "Hindu Rate of Growth." During the period 1980-1991, the GDP growth rate was approximately 5.6%.
• Post-1991, the structural adjustments led to a significant boost in economic productivity. By the 11th Five Year Plan, which spanned from 2007-2012, the GDP growth rate increased to 8.2%.
• This growth of 8.2% during the 2007-2012 period is noteworthy because it was achieved despite the Global Financial Crisis of 2008, which slowed down economies worldwide.
• The shift in growth was primarily driven by the Service Sector, which grew at an average rate of nearly 10% during the 11th Plan, while the industrial sector also showed marked improvement compared to the pre-reform era.

Additional Information

• Background of 1991 Reforms:
• India faced a severe Balance of Payments (BOP) crisis in 1991, where Foreign Exchange Reserves dropped to a level that could only sustain about two weeks of imports.
• The government, led by Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao and Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh, approached the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank for a loan of 7 billion dollars.
• In exchange for the loan, India agreed to liberalize its economy by reducing tariffs, removing the License Raj, and opening sectors to Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).
• LPG Components:
• Liberalization: This involved the removal of government restrictions on private individual activities and the deregulation of industrial licensing.
• Privatization: It referred to the withdrawal of state ownership from public sector undertakings (PSUs) through disinvestment.
• Globalization: This aimed at integrating the Indian economy with the global economy through the free flow of trade, capital, and technology across borders.
• Economic Impact:
• The reforms led to an increase in Foreign Institutional Investment (FII) and FDI, which rose from negligible amounts in the 1980s to billions of dollars annually by the 2000s.
• The 10th Five Year Plan (2002-2007) had previously recorded a growth rate of 7.6%, showing a steady upward trajectory leading into the 8.2% achievement of the 11th Plan.

Important Points

• The 11th Five Year Plan (2007-2012) originally set a target of 9% growth, but the actual achievement was 8.2%. This was still considered a major success given the global economic downturn.
• One of the critical shortcomings during the high-growth phase of 2007-2012 was that the Agriculture Sector did not grow as fast as intended, hovering around 3.2%, highlighting the "jobless growth" concern in some segments.
• The Foreign Exchange Reserves of India, which were roughly 1.2 billion dollars in June 1991, climbed to over 290 billion dollars by the end of the 11th Plan in March 2012.
• The Fiscal Deficit, which was as high as 8.4% of the GDP in 1990-91, was subjected to stricter management through the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act of 2003.

The correct answer is 45.

Key Points

• According to the Laws of the Game established by the International Football Association Board (IFAB), a standard professional football match lasts for a total duration of 90 minutes.
• The match is strictly divided into two equal periods of 45 minutes each. Hence, the correct answer is 45.
• There is an interval between the two halves, commonly referred to as half-time, which must not exceed 15 minutes as per standard regulations.
• The duration of each period may be reduced only if permitted by competition rules and if agreed upon by the referee and both participating teams before the match commences.
• The referee acts as the sole timekeeper on the field, ensuring that the full 45 minutes of play are completed in each half, excluding any added time.

Additional Information

• Stoppage Time: At the conclusion of each 45-minute period, the referee adds allowance for time lost, also known as stoppage time or injury time. This accounts for substitutions, assessment/removal of injured players, wasting time, and VAR (Video Assistant Referee) reviews.
• Extra Time: In knockout formats where a winner must be decided, if the scores are level after the regulation 90 minutes, the match proceeds to extra time. This consists of two equal periods of 15 minutes each, totaling 30 minutes of additional play.
• The Field of Play: A standard football pitch for international matches must have a length (touchline) of 100–110 meters and a width (goal line) of 64–75 meters.
• Team Composition: A match is played by two teams, each consisting of a maximum of 11 players, one of whom is the goalkeeper. The minimum number of players required to maintain a match is 7 per team.
• FIFA: The Federation Internationale de Football Association (FIFA) is the global governing body that organizes major tournaments like the FIFA World Cup, which is held every 4 years.

Important Points

• Historical Context: The standard 90-minute duration (two halves of 45 minutes) was officially adopted in 1866 during a match between London and Sheffield, setting a precedent that was later codified into the universal laws.
• The Ball: A standard football (size 5) used in professional matches must have a circumference between 68 cm and 70 cm and weigh between 410 g and 450 g at the start of the game.
• Disciplinary Actions: During the 45-minute periods, the referee has the authority to issue yellow cards (caution) and red cards (sending off) to players for fouls or misconduct.
• Abandoned Matches: If a match is abandoned before the completion of the 90 minutes (two 45-minute halves), it is usually replayed in full unless the competition rules state otherwise.

The correct answer is Delhi.

Key Points

• Purana Qila, which translates to "Old Fort," is one of the oldest forts in India, situated in the national capital, New Delhi.
• The construction of the fort was initiated by the second Mughal Emperor Humayun in 1533 as part of his new city, Dinpanah.
• After Sher Shah Suri defeated Humayun in 1540, he captured the fort, renamed it Shergarh, and added several more structures to the complex.
• The fort is strategically located on the banks of the Yamuna River and is believed by many historians to be the site of Indraprastha, the legendary capital of the Pandavas from the Mahabharata.
• It represents a transition in Indo-Islamic architecture, combining the ruggedness of the Lodi style with the emerging refinement of the Mughal era.

Additional Information

• Major Structures Inside the Fort:
• Qila-i-Kuhna Mosque: Built by Sher Shah Suri in 1541, it is a magnificent example of Pre-Mughal architecture, featuring five doorways and exquisite red sandstone and white marble work.
• Sher Mandal: An octagonal, double-storied tower built of red sandstone. It was used as a library and observatory by Humayun after he recaptured Delhi. It is historically significant as the place where Humayun fell from the stairs in 1556, leading to his untimely death.
• Gateways: The fort is enclosed by massive walls and features three main gateways: the Bara Darwaza (West Gate), the Humayun Darwaza (South Gate), and the Talaqi Darwaza (Forbidden Gate).
• Excavations: Archeological excavations conducted by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) since the 1950s have yielded artifacts belonging to the Painted Grey Ware (PGW) culture, as well as remnants from the Mauryan, Sunga, Kushan, Gupta, and Rajput periods, suggesting continuous habitation for over 2,500 years.

Important Points

• The fort is distinct from the Red Fort (Lal Qila), which was built much later by Emperor Shah Jahan in the 17th century.
• Today, the Purana Qila serves as a major cultural landmark in Delhi, hosting a popular Light and Sound Show that depicts the history of Delhi's seven cities.
• It is located near other prominent landmarks such as the National Zoological Park and Humayun's Tomb.
• The conservation and maintenance of this historical monument are managed by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI).

The correct answer is Itimad-ud-daula's Tomb.

Key Points

• The tomb of Itimad-ud-daula was commissioned by Nur Jahan, the wife of Mughal Emperor Jahangir, for her father Mirza Ghiyas Beg.
• Constructed between 1622 and 1628 AD, it is located in Agra on the eastern bank of the Yamuna River.
• It holds the distinction of being the first Mughal structure built entirely of white marble, marking a significant departure from the red sandstone architecture dominant during Akbar's reign.
• The monument is often referred to as the 'Baby Taj' because many of its architectural elements and the use of Pietra Dura (floral inlay work with semi-precious stones) served as a prototype for the Taj Mahal.
• The structure is situated within a classical Charbagh (four-quartered garden) layout and features hexagonal towers at each of its four corners.

 Additional Information

• Agra Fort:
• A UNESCO World Heritage Site rebuilt by Emperor Akbar in 1565 using red sandstone.
• It houses several notable buildings like the Jahangiri Mahal, Moti Masjid, and Diwan-i-Aam.
• Akbar's Mausoleum:
• Located at Sikandra, the construction was started by Akbar and completed by his son Jahangir in 1613.
• The five-story structure is primarily made of deep red sandstone, though the top floor is constructed from white marble.
• Jodha Bai's Tomb:
• Built for Mariam-uz-Zamani (Jodha Bai), the mother of Jahangir, it is located near Sikandra.
• This tomb is constructed of red sandstone and features distinct Mughal and Rajput architectural styles.

The correct answer is Bangladesh.

Key Points

• India discontinued the transshipment facility for Bangladesh in April 2025, which significantly affects how goods from the neighboring nation reach international markets via Indian territory.
• This facility previously allowed Bangladeshi exporters to use Indian land ports, railways, and maritime ports (such as Kolkata and Haldia) to ship goods to third countries, optimizing their supply chain.
• The cessation of these services impacts the Indo-Bangla Protocol (IBP) routes, which are vital for the movement of bulk cargo and containers between the two nations and beyond.
• Historically, the transshipment arrangement was a cornerstone of the Economic Partnership, aimed at reducing logistics costs and fostering regional connectivity under the Neighborhood First Policy.
• The move necessitates a shift in Bangladesh's export strategy, potentially increasing reliance on its own ports like Chattogram and Mongla for direct international shipping.

 Additional Information

• Transshipment Mechanisms:
• Definition: It involves the unloading of goods from one ship or carrier and loading them into another to complete a journey to a final destination.
• Strategic Port: The Petrapole-Benapole border remains the most critical land link, handling over 70 percent of land-based trade between India and Bangladesh.
• Economic Context:
• Bangladesh is a major exporter of Ready-Made Garments (RMG), and the loss of Indian transit routes adds pressure on their delivery timelines to European and American markets.
• The South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA) and the BIMSTEC framework have historically encouraged such transit facilities to boost intra-regional trade.

The correct answer is Gukesh D.

Key Points

• Gukesh D (Dommaraju Gukesh) was selected for the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in 2024, recognizing his phenomenal ascent in the global chess arena.
• He made history by winning the FIDE Candidates Tournament 2024 held in Toronto, becoming the youngest player ever to challenge for the World Chess Championship title.
• Gukesh played a pivotal role in leading the Indian Men's team to its first-ever Gold Medal at the 45th FIDE Chess Olympiad in Budapest.
• His individual performance was equally stellar, securing an Individual Gold Medal on the top board with a staggering performance rating during the Olympiad.
• In 2023-2024, he became the youngest player to cross the 2750 Elo rating mark and briefly overtook Vishwanathan Anand as the top-ranked Indian player in the FIDE rankings.

 Additional Information

• Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award:
• This is India's highest sporting honor, presented annually by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
• It was formerly known as the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award before being renamed in August 2021.
• The award includes a medallion, a certificate, and a cash prize of Rs. 25 lakh.
• Other Notable Chess Figures:
• Vishwanathan Anand: The first-ever recipient of the Khel Ratna (1991-92) and a five-time World Chess Champion.
• R Praggnanandhaa: A child prodigy and Grandmaster who reached the final of the 2023 FIDE World Cup and was a teammate of Gukesh in the gold-winning Olympiad squad.
• Vaishali Rameshbabu: The elder sister of Praggnanandhaa and a Grandmaster, she contributed significantly to the Indian Women's team winning Gold at the 2024 Olympiad.

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

• The ICC Champions Trophy 2025 is the 9th edition of the prestigious One Day International (ODI) cricket tournament organized by the International Cricket Council (ICC).
• The tournament features the top eight teams from the 2023 ICC Men’s Cricket World Cup group stage, with Pakistan gaining automatic entry as the host nation.
• According to the official groupings, Group A consists of Pakistan, Bangladesh, New Zealand, and South Africa.
• Group B comprises India, Australia, England, and Afghanistan.
• Since India is placed in Group B alongside Australia and England, it was not part of Group A for the 2025 edition.

 Additional Information

• Host Nation and Venues:
• The tournament is scheduled to be held in Pakistan during February and March 2025, marking the first time the country has hosted an ICC event solely since 1996.
• Major cities like Karachi, Lahore, and Rawalpindi have been identified as primary venues.
• Group Components:
• Pakistan: As the defending champions (won in 2017) and hosts, they lead Group A.
• Bangladesh: Secured their spot by finishing in the top 8 of the 2023 World Cup standings and is placed in Group A.
• Afghanistan: Created history by qualifying for their first-ever Champions Trophy and is placed in Group B.
• India: Despite being a top seed, India is grouped in Group B, leading to discussions regarding a Hybrid Model for their matches due to travel restrictions.

The correct answer is 3.

Key Points

• As per the IRENA (International Renewable Energy Agency) Renewable Energy Statistics 2025, India has consolidated its position as a global leader by ranking 3rd in terms of total Solar Power capacity.
• India has made significant strides in the renewable energy sector, reaching an installed solar capacity of over 90 GW (as per mid-2024/early-2025 projections), surpassing major economies such as Japan and Germany in recent growth trajectories.
• This massive expansion is a result of the National Solar Mission (part of the National Action Plan on Climate Change) and the government's ambitious target to achieve 500 GW of non-fossil fuel energy capacity by 2030.
• The ranking reflects India's contribution to the Global Solar Stocktake, where the country has consistently increased its share of Photovoltaic (PV) installations, benefiting from favorable policy frameworks like Production Linked Incentive (PLI) schemes.

 Additional Information

• IRENA (International Renewable Energy Agency):
• It is an intergovernmental organization established in 2009, headquartered in Abu Dhabi, UAE.
• Its primary role is to provide a platform for international cooperation and support countries in their transition to a sustainable energy future.
• Global Solar Rankings:
• China currently holds the 1st rank globally, maintaining a massive lead in both manufacturing and domestic installation of solar panels.
• The United States occupies the 2nd rank, driven by large-scale utility projects and residential solar expansion.
• International Solar Alliance (ISA):
• India, along with France, launched the ISA at COP21 in Paris to promote solar energy among sunshine-rich nations situated between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.
• The headquarters of ISA is located in Gurugram, India, further emphasizing the country's central role in global solar policy.

The correct answer is Calcutta.

Key Points

• Chittaranjan Das, also known as C.R. Das, was born on November 5, 1870, in the city of Calcutta (now Kolkata), which was the administrative hub of British India.
• He belonged to a well-known Baidya family from Telirbagh in the Vikrampur region of Bengal.
• He is celebrated in Indian history as Deshbandhu, a title meaning 'Friend of the Nation', reflecting his selfless dedication to the Indian Independence Movement.
• Das was a brilliant barrister who received his legal training at the Inner Temple in London before returning to practice at the Calcutta High Court.

 Additional Information

• Political Contributions:
• He co-founded the Swaraj Party in January 1923 along with Motilal Nehru following the withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement.
• He served as the President of the Gaya Session of the Indian National Congress in 1922.
• He was elected as the first Mayor of the Calcutta Municipal Corporation in 1924, where he worked closely with Subhash Chandra Bose.
• Legal Career:
• He gained national fame for his defense of Aurobindo Ghosh in the Alipore Bomb Case of 1908, ensuring his acquittal.
• Literary Interests:
• Apart from politics, he was a gifted poet and writer, editing the monthly journal Narayan and publishing poetry collections like Malancha.
• Legacy:
• He passed away on June 16, 1925, in Darjeeling. His mortal remains were brought back to Calcutta, where a massive funeral procession was led by Mahatma Gandhi.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. albatross around his neck.

Key Points

• The idiom "albatross around one's neck" refers to a burden or a hindrance that significantly impacts someone's ability to function or succeed. (गले का फंदा)
• Example: His financial debts became an albatross around his neck, preventing him from pursuing his dreams.
• The idiom originates from Samuel Taylor Coleridge's poem "The Rime of the Ancient Mariner," where the albatross becomes a symbol of guilt and burden.
• In this context, the inability to nurse his ailing mother represents a major burden for him, making "albatross around his neck" the most appropriate answer.
• Example: His inability to nurse his ailing mother was the albatross around his neck that stopped him from focusing on his duty.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. albatross around his neck.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Sparrow around his neck (गले में चिड़िया): This phrase does not exist as a recognized idiom, and hence it is incorrect.
• Example: No relevant usage exists for this phrase.
• Eagle around his neck (गले में चील): This phrase is not a recognized idiom in English and does not fit the context.
• Example: No relevant usage exists for this phrase.
• Pigeon around his neck (गले में कबूतर): This phrase is also not a recognized idiom and cannot be used in this context.
• Example: No relevant usage exists for this phrase.

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. An exorbitant sum of money.

Key Points

• The idiom "King's ransom" refers to an exorbitant or extremely large amount of money. (बहुत बड़ी राशि)
• Example: The painting was sold for a king's ransom at the auction.
• This idiom is used figuratively to describe something of immense monetary value or worth.

Therefore, the correct answer is: An exorbitant sum of money.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: To demand something or some action from someone by threatening them with a harmful consequence if they do not comply. (धमकी देकर कुछ मांगना)
• Example: The kidnappers tried to extort money by threatening the victim's family.
• Option 2: An opening speech at the Parliament. (संसद में उद्घाटन भाषण)
• Example: The Prime Minister delivered the opening speech at the budget session of Parliament.
• Option 3: Budget session. (बजट सत्र)
• Example: The budget session is a crucial part of the annual parliamentary schedule.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

• The correctly spelt word is 'Necessary'.
• 'Necessary' is an adjective that means 'needed to be done, achieved, or present; essential.' (आवश्यक)
• For Example -
• It is necessary to study hard to pass the exam.
• Water is necessary for survival.

Additional Information

Explanation of the incorrect options:

• Option 1: Necesary - Misspelled version of 'Necessary' with one missing 's'.
• Option 3: Neccessary - Incorrect spelling with an extra 'c'.
• Option 4: Neccesary - Incorrect spelling with misplaced double 'c'.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

• The given sentence contains the misspelled word "sobriquete".
• The correct spelling is "sobriquet".
• The word "sobriquet" is a noun that means "a nickname or a descriptive name."
• For example: "He earned the sobriquet 'The Iron Man' due to his resilience."

Correct sentence: The soldier was known by the sobriquet “Iron Hand” among his comrades.

Additional Information

• Understanding the options:
• Option 1: Sobriquet – This is the correct spelling.
• Option 2: Sobriqette – Incorrect spelling.
• Option 3: Sobrequete – Incorrect spelling.
• Option 4: No replacement required – Incorrect, as the word in the sentence is misspelled.
• Usage: The word "sobriquet" is commonly used to denote nicknames, often given based on someone's traits or behavior.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

The misspelt word is 'illegaly'.

• The correct spelling is 'illegally'.
• Illegally is an adverb meaning 'in a way that is contrary to or forbidden by law'. (ग़ैरक़ानूनी रूप से)
• For Example -
• The company was fined for illegally dumping waste into the river.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'illegaly'.

Additional Information

Let’s understand why the other options are correct spellings -

• Tribunal - A court of justice or a body established to settle disputes. (न्यायाधिकरण)
• Breaching - Breaking or violating a law, agreement, or code of conduct. (उल्लंघन करना)
• Suppressing - Forcibly putting an end to something. (दमन करना)

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Suspention'.

• The correct spelling would be 'Suspension'.
• The word 'suspension' is a noun which means 'the action of suspending someone or something or the state of being suspended'. (निलंबन)
• For Example -
• The suspension of the employee will last for two weeks.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Suspention'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Innovation - the action or process of innovating; introducing new ideas or methods (नवाचार)
• Invention - the act of creating or designing something new that has not existed before (आविष्कार)
• Revelation - a surprising or previously unknown fact that has been disclosed (प्रकाशन)

The correct answer is: Retreat.

Key Points

• The word "advance" means to move forward, make progress, or promote something. (आगे बढ़ना, उन्नति करना)
• Example: The army planned to advance into enemy territory during the night.
• "Retreat" refers to moving back or withdrawing from a position or situation, often due to unfavorable conditions. It is the opposite of "advance." (पीछे हटना)
• Example: The soldiers were forced to retreat after encountering unexpected resistance.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'advance' is 'retreat'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Retreat.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Progress (प्रगति): Refers to moving forward or developing in a positive direction.
• Example: The team made significant progress in their research this year.
• Promote (प्रचार करना): To support, encourage, or advance the growth or development of something.
• Example: The new campaign is designed to promote healthy eating habits.
• Proceed (आगे बढ़ना): To continue or move forward with an action or process.
• Example: After receiving approval, the team proceeded with the project.

The correct answer is: Dryness.

Key Points

• The word "Humidity" refers to the presence of moisture in the air or the quality of being damp or moist. (आर्द्रता)
• Example: The humidity in the room made it uncomfortable to stay for long.
• "Dryness" refers to the absence of moisture or the quality of being dry. It is the opposite of humidity. (शुष्कता)
• Example: The dryness of the desert air makes it difficult for plants to thrive.
• Hence, the antonym of "Humidity" is "Dryness."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Dryness.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Dampness (नमी): Refers to slight wetness or moisture.
• Example: The dampness in the walls caused the paint to peel off.
• Moisture (आर्द्रता): Refers to water or other liquid diffused in a small quantity.
• Example: Plants absorb moisture from the soil to grow.
• Wetness (गीलापन): Refers to the condition of being covered with water or another liquid.
• Example: The wetness of his clothes showed that he got caught in the rain.

The correct answer is 'bear'.

 

Key Points

• The word "bear" is a verb that means "to endure" or "to carry" (e.g., responsibility, burden).
• The sentence refers to the weight of responsibility, making "bear" the correct choice.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect as they do not match the meaning or grammatical context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "He could not bear the weight of responsibility on his shoulders."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "bare" is incorrect because "bare" means "naked" or "exposed," which does not fit the context.
• Option 3: "bier" is incorrect; "bier" refers to a stand for a coffin, which is unrelated to the sentence.
• Option 4: "beer" is incorrect because "beer" refers to the beverage and does not match the meaning.

The correct answer is 'elude'.

 

Key Points

• The word "elude" means to evade or escape from someone or something, especially in a clever or skillful way.
• The sentence describes the thief’s attempt to avoid capture by hiding in the forest, which aligns with the meaning of "elude."
• Option 2: "allude" means to refer to something indirectly, which does not fit the context of the sentence.
• Option 3: "illusion" refers to a false perception or belief, which is unrelated to the action described.
• Option 4: "allusion" is a literary device used to refer indirectly to something, which is also not applicable here.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "The thief tried to elude the police by hiding in the forest."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "allude" is incorrect as it refers to making an indirect reference, which does not fit the context of escaping the police.
• Option 3: "illusion" is incorrect because it refers to a false perception, which is not related to the scenario.
• Option 4: "allusion" is incorrect as it pertains to indirect references in writing or speech, not physical evasion.

The correct answer is 'for'.

 

Key Points

• The preposition "for" is used to indicate a connection or suitability in the context of skills, talents, or preferences.
• In the sentence, Ruby's genius is specifically related to physics, making "for" the appropriate preposition.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect because they do not convey the intended meaning in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "Ruby has a genius for physics, which is her favourite subject."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "at" is incorrect because "at" is generally used for specific locations or points in time, not talents.
• Option 3: "in" is incorrect because "in" is typically used for indicating inclusion within a space or domain, which does not fit here.
• Option 4: "about" is incorrect because "about" is used to indicate a topic or subject, not a talent or connection.

The correct answer is: Spoiler.

Key Points

• The word "Spoiler" refers to revealing crucial details or plot points of a story, movie, or series, which may ruin the experience for someone who hasn't watched it yet. (स्पॉइलर)
• Example: John gave away the spoiler by revealing the ending of the movie before anyone could watch it.
• Explanation: The term "Spoiler" is used to describe information that spoils or ruins the suspense or enjoyment of a film or story. (स्पॉइलर)
• Example: Avoid sharing spoilers when discussing the movie; not everyone has seen it yet!

Therefore, the correct answer is: Spoiler.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Teaser (टीज़र): A short preview or promotional material designed to arouse interest in a movie, series, or product without revealing too much.
• Example: The teaser for the new movie has everyone excited about its release.
• Climax (पराकाष्ठा): The most intense, exciting, or important part of a story or movie.
• Example: The climax of the movie had everyone on the edge of their seats.
• Twister (मोड़): A surprising or unexpected turn in the plot of a story or movie.
• Example: The plot twister at the end of the movie left everyone shocked.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Anagram.

Key Points

• The word "Anagram" refers to a word or phrase that is formed by rearranging the letters of another word or phrase. (शब्द परिवर्तित करके बनाया गया नया शब्द)
• Example: The word "listen" can be rearranged to form the anagram "silent".
• An anagram is a creative linguistic tool often used in puzzles or word games.
• Hence, the word "Anagram" is the correct answer. (शब्द परिवर्तित कर बनाए गए रूप को "Anagram" कहते हैं।)

Therefore, the correct answer is: Anagram.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Acronym (संक्षिप्त शब्द): A word or name formed using the first letters of a group of words.
• Example: NASA is an acronym for "National Aeronautics and Space Administration".
• Homonym (समनाम): A word that sounds the same as another word but has a different meaning.
• Example: The word "bare" (uncovered) and "bear" (animal) are homonyms.
• Synonym (समानार्थी): A word that has the same or nearly the same meaning as another word.
• Example: "Big" and "large" are synonyms.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The given sentence is in the present continuous tense, as indicated by the verb structure "is installing."
• To convert a present continuous sentence into passive voice, the structure is:
• Active voice: Subject + is/are/am + verb (-ing) + object
• Passive voice: Object + is/are/am + being + past participle + by + subject
• In the active sentence, the object is "the security system," and the subject is "the technician."
• The passive form of the sentence becomes: "Is the security system being installed by the technician in the building?"
• This matches Option 3.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "Is the security system being installed by the technician in the building?"

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "Has the security system been installed by the technician in the building?" – This is in the present perfect tense, which is incorrect here.
• Option 2: "Was the security system installed by the technician in the building?" – This is in the past simple tense, which is incorrect here.
• Option 4: "The security system is installed by the technician in the building." – This is in the present simple tense, which is incorrect here.