SSC MTS 2024 Official Paper (Held On 15 Oct, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Given:

Batch 1: 40 students with average marks = 50

Batch 2: 50 students with average marks = 60

Batch 3: 60 students with average marks = 75

Formula Used:

Average marks of all students = (Total marks of all students) / (Total number of students)

Calculation:

Total marks of Batch 1 = 40 × 50 = 2000

Total marks of Batch 2 = 50 × 60 = 3000

Total marks of Batch 3 = 60 × 75 = 4500

Total marks of all students = 2000 + 3000 + 4500 = 9500

Total number of students = 40 + 50 + 60 = 150

Average marks of all students = 9500 / 150

Average marks of all students = 63.33

The average marks of all the students is 63.33.

Given:

Distance from which the person sees the thief = 300 metres

Speed of the person running = 10 km/h

Total distance run by the person = 1.5 km

Formula Used:

Time = Distance / Speed

Relative speed = Speed of person - Speed of thief

Calculation:

Time taken by the person to catch the thief:

Time taken by the person = Total distance run / Speed of the person

Time taken by the person = 1.5 km / 10 km/h

Time taken by the person = 0.15 hours

The thief was initially 300 metres (0.3 km) ahead:

Relative speed = Distance / Time

Relative speed = 0.3 km / 0.15 hours

Relative speed = 2 km/h

Speed of the thief = Speed of the person - Relative speed

Speed of the thief = 10 km/h - 2 km/h

Speed of the thief = 8 km/h

The speed at which the thief was running was 8 km/h.

Given:

Lengths of cloth: 250 cm, 420 cm, and 710 cm.

Formula Used:

Greatest common divisor (GCD) of the lengths.

Calculation:

Prime factorization of 250 = 2 × 5³

Prime factorization of 420 = 2² × 3 × 5 × 7

Prime factorization of 710 = 2 × 5 × 71

Common factors: 2 and 5

GCD of 250, 420 and 710 = 2 × 5 = 10

The greatest possible length of the scale is 10 cm.

Given:

The batting average of a cricket player for 40 innings = 60 runs.

His highest score exceeds his lowest score by 110 runs.

If these two innings are excluded, the average score of the remaining 38 innings = 58 runs.

Formula Used:

Average score = Total runs / Number of innings

Calculation:

Total runs for 40 innings = 60 × 40 = 2400

Total runs for 38 innings = 58 × 38 = 2204

Let the lowest score be L and the highest score be H.

According to the problem,

L + H = 2400 - 2204 = 196

Also, given that,

H = L + 110

Substitute H in the first equation:

L + (L + 110) = 196

L = 43

Now, H = L + 110

H = 43 + 110

H = 153

The highest score is 153.

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹2000

Rate of interest (R) = 7% per year

Time (T) = 3 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) / 100

Calculation:

SI = (2000 × 7 × 3) / 100

⇒ SI = (42000) / 100

⇒ SI = ₹420

The simple interest on ₹2000 at 7% per year for 3 years is ₹420.

Given:

Number of students in each class:

Class 6: 36

Class 7: 48

Class 8: 39

Class 9: 45

Class 10: 56

Class 11: 50

Class 12: 67

Calculations:

Average number of students in classes 8, 9, 11, and 12:

Sum = 39 + 45 + 50 + 67 = 201

Average = 201 / 4 = 50.25

Average number of students in classes 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, and 12:

Sum = 36 + 48 + 39 + 45 + 56 + 67 = 291

Average = 291 / 6 = 48.5

Ratio of the two averages:

Ratio = 50.25 / 48.5 = 5025 / 4850

Ratio = 201 / 194

∴ The ratio is 201 : 194.

Shortcut Trick

In 'Buy X Get Y Free' schemes, the net discount is calculated on the total items received by the customer.

Discount % = [Free Items ÷ Total Items (Paid + Free)] × 100

Here, Paid items = 4 and Free items = 1 ⇒ Total items = 5

Discount % = (1 ÷ 5) × 100 = 20%

∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Offer = Buy 4 shirts, get 1 free.

Formula Used:

Discount = Marked Price (MP) − Selling Price (SP)

Discount % = (Discount ÷ Total Marked Price) × 100

Calculations:

Let the Marked Price (MP) of 1 shirt be ₹100.

⇒ Total shirts given to the customer = 4 + 1 = 5 shirts.

⇒ Total MP of 5 shirts = 5 × 100 = ₹500.

⇒ Since 1 shirt is free, the customer pays for only 4 shirts.

⇒ Selling Price (SP) for the customer = 4 × 100 = ₹400.

⇒ Total Discount offered = MP − SP = 500 − 400 = ₹100.

⇒ Net Discount Percentage = (100 ÷ 500) × 100

⇒ Net Discount Percentage = (1 ÷ 5) × 100 = 20%

∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Additional Information

Successive Discounts

When two discounts x% and y% are given successively, the single equivalent discount is [x + y − (xy ÷ 100)]%.

Marked Price and Markup

Marked Price is the price printed on the label. Markup Percentage = [(MP − CP) ÷ CP] × 100.

Relationship between CP and MP

The ratio of Cost Price (CP) to Marked Price (MP) is given by CP ÷ MP = (100 − Discount%) ÷ (100 + Profit%).

Given:

Distance = 300 metres

Time = 36 seconds

Formula Used:

Speed (km/h) = (Distance (m) / Time (s)) × (18 / 5)

Calculation:

Speed (km/h) = (300 / 36) × (18 / 5)

⇒ Speed (km/h) = (300 / 36) × 3.6

⇒ Speed (km/h) = 8.33 × 3.6

⇒ Speed (km/h) = 30

The runner's speed is 30 km/h.

Given:

Volume of right circular cylinder = 2425.5 cm³

Base area of cylinder = 346.5 cm²

Formula used:

Volume of cylinder = Base area × Height

Base area of cylinder = πr²

Curved surface area of cylinder = 2πrh

Calculations:

Let the radius of the base be 'r' and the height of the cylinder be 'h'.

Volume = Base area × Height

2425.5 = 346.5 × h

h = 2425.5 / 346.5

h = 7 cm

Base area = πr²

346.5 = (22/7) × r²

r² = (346.5 × 7) / 22

r² = 2425.5 / 22

r² = 110.25

r = √110.25

r = 10.5 cm

Curved surface area = 2πrh

Curved surface area = 2 × (22/7) × 10.5 × 7

Curved surface area = 2 × 22 × 10.5

Curved surface area = 462 cm²

∴ The curved surface area of the cylinder is 462 cm².

Given:

Cost of service A by company E = 88

Cost of service B by company E = 115

Calculations:

Difference in cost = Cost of service B - Cost of service A

Difference = 115 - 88 = 27

Percentage increase = (Difference / Cost of service A) × 100

Percentage increase = (27 / 88) × 100

Percentage increase ≈ 30.68%

∴ The cost charged for service B is approximately 30.68% more than the cost of service A by company E.

Given:

Initial investment = ₹5000

Growth in the first month = 15%

Growth in the second month = 20%

Decrease in the third month = 10%

Formula Used:

Final Amount = Initial Amount × (1 + Growth Rate/100) for each period

Calculation:

Initial Amount = ₹5000

After first month:

Amount = 5000 × (1 + 15/100) = 5000 × 1.15 = 5750

After second month:

Amount = 5750 × (1 + 20/100) = 5750 × 1.20 = 6900

After third month:

Amount = 6900 × (1 - 10/100) = 6900 × 0.90 = 6210

The final amount is ₹6210.

Shortcut Trick

When Simple Interest is equal for all parts, the ratio of investments is 1/r₁t₁ : 1/r₂t₂ : 1/r₃t₃.

Since time t is 1 year for all, Ratio = 1/3 : 1/6 : 1/5.

Multiply by LCM (30) to simplify: 10 : 5 : 6.

Total units = 10 + 5 + 6 = 21 units → ₹21,000.

Ashima's share (5 units) = 5 × ₹1,000 = ₹5,000.

∴ The correct answer is ₹5,000.

Alternate Method

Given: Total Investment = ₹21,000. Rates: r₁=3%, r₂=6%, r₃=5%. Time t=1 year.

Formula Used: Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) / 100

⇒ Let investments be V, A, and P.

⇒ (V × 3 × 1)/100 = (A × 6 × 1)/100 = (P × 5 × 1)/100

⇒ 3V = 6A = 5P

⇒ V/A = 6/3 = 2/1 and A/P = 5/6

⇒ V : A : P = 10 : 5 : 6

⇒ Sum of ratios = 10 + 5 + 6 = 21

⇒ Ashima's investment = (5 / 21) × 21,000

⇒ Ashima's investment = 5 × 1,000 = ₹5,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹5,000.

Additional Information

Equal Amount Case

If the total amounts (Principal + Interest) are equal, the investment ratio is 1/(100+r₁t₁) : 1/(100+r₂t₂) : 1/(100+r₃t₃).

Simple Interest Formula

SI = (P × R × T) / 100, where P is Principal, R is Rate per annum, and T is Time in years.

Ratio and Proportion in SI

When interest is constant, the principal is inversely proportional to the product of rate and time (P ∝ 1/RT).

Given:

Number of students in the class = 40

Number of students with average score of 80 = 25

Number of students with average score of 90 = 40 - 25 = 15

Formula Used:

Average score of the whole class = (Total score of all students) / (Total number of students)

Calculation:

Total score of students with average score of 80 = 25 × 80

Total score of students with average score of 90 = 15 × 90

Total score of all students = (25 × 80) + (15 × 90)

Total score of all students = 2000 + 1350

Total score of all students = 3350

Total number of students = 40

Average score of the whole class = 3350 / 40

Average score of the whole class = 83.75

The average score of the whole class is 83.75.

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹3000

Rate of Interest (R) = 8% per year

Time (T) = 6 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) / 100

Calculation:

SI = (₹3000 × 8 × 6) / 100

⇒ SI = (₹144000) / 100

⇒ SI = ₹1440

The simple interest on ₹3000 at 8% per year for 6 years is ₹1440.

Given:

Entry ticket cost = ₹180

Number of rides Rohan had = 15

Total cost for 15 rides and entry ticket = ₹1380

Formula Used:

Cost of one ride = (Total cost for rides and entry ticket - Entry ticket cost) / Number of rides

Total cost for x rides and entry ticket = Entry ticket cost + (Cost of one ride × Number of rides)

Calculation:

Cost of one ride

⇒ Cost of one ride = (₹1380 - ₹180) / 15

⇒ Cost of one ride = ₹1200 / 15

⇒ Cost of one ride = ₹80

Total cost for 20 rides and entry ticket

⇒ Total cost = ₹180 + (₹80 × 20)

⇒ Total cost = ₹180 + ₹1600

⇒ Total cost = ₹1780

The total cost for 20 rides and entry ticket is ₹1780. The correct answer is option 4.

Given:

Diagonal of the rectangle = 16 cm

Perimeter of the rectangle = 48 cm

Formula Used:

Perimeter of the rectangle, P = 2(l + w)

Diagonal of the rectangle, d = $\sqrt{l^2 + w^2}$

Area of the rectangle, A = l × w

Calculation:

From the given perimeter:

2(l + w) = 48

⇒ l + w = 24

From the given diagonal:

$\sqrt{l^2 + w^2}$ = 16

⇒ l² + w² = 256

We have two equations:

1. l + w = 24

2. l² + w² = 256

Using (l + w)² = l² + w² + 2lw

⇒ 24² = 256 + 2lw

⇒ 576 = 256 + 2lw

⇒ 320 = 2lw

⇒ lw = 160

The area of the rectangle is 160 cm².

Given:

The average age of 14 students and their teacher = 18 years.

If the teacher's age is excluded, the average reduces by 1 year.

Formula Used:

Average age = Total age / Number of individuals

Teacher's age = Total age with teacher - Total age without teacher

Calculation:

Let the total age of 14 students and their teacher be T.

Given the average age of 14 students and their teacher is 18 years,

⇒ T / 15 = 18

⇒ T = 18 × 15 = 270

If the teacher's age is excluded, the average reduces by 1 year.

Let the total age of 14 students be S.

Given the average age of 14 students is 17 years (18 - 1),

⇒ S / 14 = 17

⇒ S = 17 × 14 = 238

Teacher's age = T - S

⇒ Teacher's age = 270 - 238

⇒ Teacher's age = 32

The teacher's age is 32 years.

Given:

Cost price of 25 balls = Selling price of 20 balls

Calculations:

Let the cost price of 1 ball be 'x'.

Cost price of 25 balls = 25x

Selling price of 20 balls = 25x

Selling price of 1 ball = 25x / 20 = 5x / 4

Profit per ball = Selling price - Cost price

Profit per ball = (5x / 4) - x = x / 4

Profit percentage = (Profit / Cost price) × 100

Profit percentage = (x / 4) / x × 100

Profit percentage = (1 / 4) × 100

Profit percentage = 25%

∴ The profit percentage is 25%.

Given:

The shopkeeper uses a weight that is 19% less than the actual weight.

Calculations:

Let the actual weight be 100 units.

The weight used by the shopkeeper = 100 - (19/100) * 100 = 81 units.

The shopkeeper sells 81 units of goods as 100 units.

Let the cost price of 81 units be ₹81.

Then, the selling price of 81 units is ₹100.

Profit = Selling price - Cost price

Profit = 100 - 81 = ₹19

Profit percentage = (Profit / Cost price) × 100

Profit percentage = (19 / 81) × 100

Profit percentage = $23\frac{37}{81}$

∴ The profit percentage is approximately $23\frac{37}{81}$..

Given:

The radius and the height of a right circular cone are in the ratio of 7 : 24.

Volume of the cone = 1232 cm³.

π = 22/7

Formula Used:

Volume of cone = (1/3) π r² h

Total Surface Area of cone = π r (r + l)

where l = slant height = √(r² + h²)

Calculation:

Let the radius be 7x and the height be 24x.

Volume of cone = (1/3) π r² h

⇒ 1232 = (1/3) × (22/7) × (7x)² × 24x

⇒ 1232 = (1/3) × (22/7) × 49x² × 24x

⇒ 1232 = 22 × 7 × 8x³

⇒ x³ = 1 ⇒ x = 1

Thus, r = 7x = 7 × 1 = 7 cm

and h = 24x = 24 × 1 = 24 cm

Slant height, l = √(r² + h²)

⇒ l = √(7² + 24²)

⇒ l ≈ √625 ⇒ l = 25 cm

Total Surface Area = π r (r + l)

⇒ Total Surface Area = (22/7) × 7 × ( 7 + 25)

⇒ Total Surface Area = 22 × 32

⇒ Total Surface Area ≈ 704 cm²

The total surface area of the cone is 704 cm².

The logic followed here is:

Given:

(9, 63, 7)

63 ÷ 9 = 7

63 ÷ 7 = 9

And,

(27, 189, 21)

189 ÷ 27 = 7

189 ÷ 21 = 9

So, checking each option one by one:

Option 1) (45, 315, 35)

315 ÷ 45 = 7

315 ÷ 35 = 9

Option 2) (45, 315, 33)

315 ÷ 45 = 7

315 ÷ 33 = 9.54 ≠ 9

Option 3) (45, 310, 35)

310 ÷ 45 = 6.88 ≠ 7

310 ÷ 35 = 9

Option 4) (40, 315, 35)

315 ÷ 40 = 7.87 ≠ 7

315 ÷ 35 = 9

Thus, out of all the options, '(45, 315, 35)' follows the same logic as given.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

VOJP is related to SLGM

And,

XQLR is related to UNIO

Similarly,

ZSNT is related to

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Given : (15 ÷ 3) × 11 + 48 − 21 × 2 + 8 = 57

According to the question, after interchanging the signs:

Option 1) 15 and 21

(15 ÷ 3) × 11 + 48 − 21 × 2 + 8 = 57 ⇒ (21 ÷ 3) × 11 + 48 − 15 × 2 + 8 = 57

⇒ (21 ÷ 3) × 11 + 48 − 15 × 2 + 8 = 57

⇒ 7 × 11 + 48 − 15 × 2 + 8 = 57

⇒ 77 + 48 + 8 − 30 = 57

⇒ 133 − 30 = 57

⇒ 103 ≠ 57 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  2) 21 and 8

(15 ÷ 3) × 11 + 48 − 21 × 2 + 8 = 57 ⇒ (15 ÷ 3) × 11 + 48 − 8 × 2 + 21 = 57

⇒ (15 ÷ 3) × 11 + 48 − 8 × 2 + 21 = 57

⇒ 5 × 11 + 48 − 8 × 2 + 21 = 57

⇒ 55 + 48 + 21 − 16 = 57

⇒ 124 − 16 = 57

⇒ 108 ≠ 57 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  3) 11 and 8

(15 ÷ 3) × 11 + 48 − 21 × 2 + 8 = 57 ⇒ (15 ÷ 3) × 8 + 48 − 21 × 2 + 11 = 57

⇒ (15 ÷ 3) × 8 + 48 − 21 × 2 + 11 = 57

⇒ 5 × 8 + 48 − 21 × 2 + 11 = 57

⇒ 40 + 48 + 11 − 42 = 57

⇒ 99 − 42 = 57

⇒ 57 = 57 (LHS = RHS)

Option  4) 15 and 48 

(15 ÷ 3) × 11 + 48 − 21 × 2 + 8 = 57 ⇒ (48 ÷ 3) × 11 + 15 − 21 × 2 + 8 = 57

⇒ (48 ÷ 3) × 11 + 15 − 21 × 2 + 8 = 57

⇒ 16 × 11 + 15 − 21 × 2 + 8 = 57

⇒ 176 + 15 + 8 − 42 = 57

⇒ 199 − 42 = 57

⇒ 157 ≠ 57 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

'MANAGE' is coded as 'IKEREQ'

And,

'RACE' is coded as 'IGEV'

Similarly,

'SYMPHONY' is coded as

​

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Given: M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

1) Q is an immediate neighbour of both R and P.

2. M sits second to the left of R.

3) O sits second to the left of M.

4) S is not an immediate neighbour of O.

After positioning S only one position is left which will be occupied by the only person left i.e. N.

So, according to the question all persons are arranged in alphabetical order in a clockwise direction starting from 'M':

Thus, after arranging in alphabetic order position of seven people will remain unchanged.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The image embedded in the given figure is as shown below :

∴ Here, the given figure is embedded in option figure 2.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

1. For square element → The number of lines is decreasing subsequently.

2. For circle element → The number of circles is increasing subsequently.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given: Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre

1) Only three people are sitting between C and G when counted from the right of C.

2. E is sitting third to the left of G.

3) Exactly one person is sitting between E and F when counted from the left of E.

4) D is sitting to the immediate left of B.

After positioning D and B only one position is left which will be occupied by the only person left i.e. A.

Thus, according to the final arrangement two people are sitting between A and D when counted from the left of A.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

'CAREER' is coded as 'EBTFGS'

And,

'CARING' is coded as 'EBTJPH'

Similarly,

'CENTER' is coded as

​

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

4 is related to 32

4 × 8 = 32

32 = 32 (LHS = RHS)

And,

11 is related to 88

11 × 8 = 88

88 = 88 (LHS = RHS)

Similarly,

6 is related to ?

6 × 8 = ?

48 = ?

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN is as shown below:

Here, option figure 3 shows the mirror image of the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

(I) Atleast some cables are branches → Does not follow (As some branches are leaves and some leaves are cables. So it is possible but not definite.)

(II) Some cables are leaves → Follow (As some leaves are cables. As some part of leaves is common with cables, therefore it is true.)

∴ Here, Only conclusion (II) follows.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The logic followed here is:

FD7 is related to KI12

And,

PN18 is related to US23

Similarly,

AY21 is related to

​

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

'DONE' is coded as '7139'

'TERM' is coded as '6874'

Thus, the code for 'E' is 7.​

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

(I) No copy is a stone → Follow (As no book is a copy and all stones are books. As whole stones comes in books which cannot be copy, therefore it is true.)

(II) All books are stones → Does not follow (As all stones are books. So it is possible but not definite.)

∴ Here, Only conclusion (I) follows.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The logic followed here is:

'HWCY' is coded as 'KBJH'

And,

'REPU' is coded as 'UJWD'

Similarly,

'AXMQ' is coded to

​

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Given: 18 ÷ 5 + 8 × 4 − 3 = ?

According to the question, after '+' and '−' are interchanged and '×' and '÷' are interchanged:

18 ÷ 5 + 8 × 4 − 3 = ? ⇒ 18 × 5 - 8 ÷ 4 + 3 = ?

⇒ 18 × 5 - 8 ÷ 4 + 3 = ?

⇒ 18 × 5 - 2 + 3 = ?

⇒ 90 + 3 - 2 = ?

⇒ 93 - 2 = ?

⇒ 91

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

1. First box series →

The 2nd column elements shift anticlockwise.

The rest of the elements interchange positions.

2. Second box series:

The left diagonal elements shift anticlockwise.

The rest of the elements interchange positions.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Earl of Auckland.

Key Points

• George Eden, 1st Earl of Auckland, served as the Governor-General of India from 1836 to 1842.
• He is most known for his involvement in the First Anglo-Afghan War (1839-1842), which ultimately ended in disaster for the British.
• Earl of Auckland succeeded Lord William Bentinck as the Governor-General.
• During his tenure, he implemented several administrative reforms and efforts to improve education and public works.
• He was eventually succeeded by Lord Ellenborough in 1842 following the failure in Afghanistan.

Additional Information

• First Anglo-Afghan War
• The war was fought between the British East India Company and the Emirate of Afghanistan from 1839 to 1842.
• The conflict was initiated by the British to install a puppet regime in Afghanistan and counter Russian influence in the region.
• The war ended in a catastrophic retreat for the British, famously known as the Retreat from Kabul in 1842.
• It resulted in significant loss of life and resources for the British forces.
• Administrative Reforms
• Earl of Auckland focused on improving the administrative efficiency of the British Indian government.
• He supported the expansion of the educational system in India, including the establishment of schools and colleges.
• His tenure also saw the improvement of public works, such as the construction of roads and irrigation projects.
• Legacy
• Despite the failure in Afghanistan, Earl of Auckland's efforts in education and public works left a lasting impact.
• His tenure is often remembered for its administrative and infrastructural improvements in British India.
• He was later commemorated in various namesakes, including the Auckland Islands in the Southern Ocean.

The correct answer is Football.

Key Points

• The GV Raja Memorial Trophy is an annual football tournament held in Kerala, India, named after the sports promoter, Col. Godavarma Raja.
• The Sir Ashutosh Mukherjee Trophy is associated with football tournaments at the university level in India, aimed at promoting the sport among students.
• The Santosh Trophy is one of the most prestigious football tournaments in India, organized by the All India Football Federation (AIFF), and serves as the national championship for state teams.
• These tournaments have played a significant role in the development and promotion of football at various levels, from grassroots to professional, within the country.

Additional Information

• All India Football Federation (AIFF)
• The AIFF is the governing body of football in India and is responsible for organizing national tournaments such as the Santosh Trophy, I-League, and Indian Super League (ISL).
• It was founded in 1937 and is affiliated with the Fédération Internationale de Football Association (FIFA) and the Asian Football Confederation (AFC).
• Indian Super League (ISL)
• The ISL is one of the top professional football leagues in India, established in 2013 to promote football and increase its popularity.
• The league operates with a franchise-based model, similar to the Indian Premier League (IPL) in cricket.
• I-League
• The I-League is another prominent professional football league in India, running parallel to the ISL.
• It was established in 2007 as the top-tier football league in the country, aimed at improving the standard of Indian football.
• National Football Team
• India's national football team is managed by the AIFF and competes in various international tournaments, including the AFC Asian Cup and FIFA World Cup qualifiers.
• Sunil Chhetri, one of India's most famous footballers, has been a key player for the national team, contributing significantly to its success.

The correct answer is Zoonotic disease.

Key Points

• COVID-19 is caused by the SARS-CoV-2 virus, which is believed to have originated in bats and potentially transmitted to humans through an intermediate host.
• Zoonotic diseases are infections that are transmitted from animals to humans. Examples include Ebola, Rabies, and Avian Influenza.
• Such diseases can spread through direct contact with animals, by consuming contaminated food or water, or via vectors like mosquitoes.
• Zoonotic diseases pose significant challenges to public health due to their potential for widespread outbreaks and pandemics.

Additional Information

• Terminology:
• Zoonosis: An infectious disease that has jumped from a non-human animal to humans.
• Vector: An organism, typically a biting insect or tick, that transmits a disease or parasite from one animal or plant to another.
• Examples of Zoonotic Diseases:
• Ebola: Transmitted to humans through contact with blood, secretions, organs, or other bodily fluids of infected animals.
• Rabies: A viral disease that causes inflammation of the brain in humans and other mammals.
• Avian Influenza: Commonly known as bird flu, it is a viral infection that can infect not only birds but also humans and other animals.
• COVID-19 Transmission:
• The primary mode of transmission is through respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks.
• It can also spread by touching surfaces contaminated with the virus and then touching the face.
• Public Health Measures:
• Preventive measures include wearing masks, practicing hand hygiene, and maintaining physical distance.
• Controlling zoonotic diseases involves monitoring animal health, regulating wildlife trade, and ensuring food safety.

The correct answer is Shiv Pratap Shukla.

Key Points

• Shiv Pratap Shukla was appointed as the Governor of Himachal Pradesh in February 2023.
• He succeeded Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar, the former Governor of Himachal Pradesh.
• Shukla has served as a Member of Parliament in the Rajya Sabha representing the state of Uttar Pradesh.
• He is a senior leader of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) and has held various key positions in the party and government.

Additional Information

• Role of a Governor
• The Governor is the constitutional head of each of the states in India.
• They are appointed by the President of India for a term of five years.
• The Governor acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister.
• The Governor has the power to summon, prorogue, and dissolve the state legislature.
• Himachal Pradesh
• Himachal Pradesh is located in the northern part of India.
• The state is known for its scenic beauty, including the Himalayan mountains.
• It was granted statehood on 25th January 1971.
• The capital of Himachal Pradesh is Shimla, and its largest city is also Shimla.
• Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)
• The BJP is one of the two major political parties in India, along with the Indian National Congress.
• It was founded in 1980 by members of the Bharatiya Jana Sangh.
• The party advocates for a policy of integral humanism, which was first formulated by Deendayal Upadhyaya.
• The BJP has been the ruling party in India since 2014 under the leadership of Prime Minister Narendra Modi.

The correct answer is Aruna Asaf Ali.

Key Points

• Aruna Asaf Ali is popularly known as the 'Grand Old Lady' of the Indian Independence Movement due to her significant contribution to India's struggle for freedom.
• She is best remembered for hoisting the Indian National Congress flag at the Gowalia Tank Maidan, Bombay, during the Quit India Movement in 1942.
• Aruna Asaf Ali played a crucial role in organizing protests, strikes, and other activities against British rule, demonstrating her unwavering dedication to India's independence.
• She was awarded the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award, in 1997 posthumously for her invaluable contributions to the nation.
• She was also the first elected Mayor of Delhi, representing her leadership and influence in post-independence India.

Additional Information

• Quit India Movement:
• Launched by Mahatma Gandhi on 8 August 1942, demanding an end to British rule in India.
• It was a mass protest demanding "Do or Die" for independence.
• Aruna Asaf Ali's hoisting of the flag became a symbol of defiance against British rule.
• Bharat Ratna:
• India's highest civilian award, instituted in 1954.
• Awarded for exceptional service in the highest order in any field of human endeavor.
• Recipients include prominent figures such as C. Rajagopalachari, S. Radhakrishnan, and Jawaharlal Nehru.
• Indian National Congress:
• Founded in 1885, played a pivotal role in India's independence movement.
• Leaders like Mahatma Gandhi, Jawaharlal Nehru, and Sardar Patel were its prominent members.
• Organized major movements like Non-Cooperation, Civil Disobedience, and Quit India Movement.
• Role of Women in Independence Movement:
• Women leaders like Sarojini Naidu, Kasturba Gandhi, and Kamala Nehru played significant roles.
• They participated in protests, boycotts, and were also imprisoned.
• Their involvement showcased the inclusive nature of the independence struggle.

The correct answer is Satluj.

Key Points

• The Satluj River is not known for coal deposits, unlike other river valleys listed in the options.
• Coal deposits are primarily found in the river valleys of the Mahanadi, Godavari, and Son rivers in India.
• Major coalfields in the Mahanadi Valley include Talcher and Ib Valley.
• Godavari Valley is known for its Singareni and Kothagudem coalfields.

Additional Information

• Coal Distribution in India:
• India has significant coal reserves, primarily located in the eastern and central parts of the country.
• The largest reserves are found in Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal, and Madhya Pradesh.
• Types of Coal:
• Anthracite: The highest grade of coal with the highest carbon content.
• Bituminous: Most common type, used for electricity generation and steel production.
• Sub-bituminous: Lower carbon content, used mainly for electricity generation.
• Lignite: Lowest grade, often used for electricity generation in power plants.
• Coal Mining Methods:
• Open-pit mining: Extracting coal from the surface.
• Underground mining: Extracting coal from deep below the earth's surface.
• Environmental Impact:
• Coal mining and usage contribute to air pollution and greenhouse gas emissions.
• Efforts are being made to reduce the environmental impact through cleaner coal technologies.

The correct answer is Bharat Shared Repository of Inscriptions.

Key Points

• The Bharat Shared Repository of Inscriptions (BSRI) is an initiative aimed at digitising ancient inscriptions across India.
• In its first phase, the project targets the digitisation of one lakh ancient inscriptions.
• The repository will be part of a digital epigraphy museum to preserve and share ancient Indian heritage.
• This initiative will help in the conservation, study, and promotion of India's rich epigraphical heritage.

Additional Information

• Epigraphy
• Epigraphy is the study and interpretation of ancient inscriptions engraved on various materials like stone, metal, or pottery.
• It provides valuable insights into the language, culture, and history of ancient civilizations.
• Epigraphical records are primary historical sources that help in understanding the chronology and events of the past.
• Digitisation of Inscriptions
• Digitisation involves converting physical inscriptions into digital formats to ensure their preservation and accessibility.
• It helps in preventing the loss of historical data due to physical degradation over time.
• Digital repositories allow researchers and the public to access these inscriptions from anywhere in the world.
• National Mission on Monuments and Antiquities
• The National Mission on Monuments and Antiquities was launched by the Government of India to document and preserve India's heritage.
• It aims to create a comprehensive database of monuments and antiquities across the country.
• This mission plays a crucial role in protecting and promoting India's cultural heritage.
• Digital Museums
• Digital museums use technology to display and interpret cultural and historical artifacts.
• They provide an immersive experience to visitors through interactive exhibits and virtual tours.
• Digital museums help in reaching a wider audience and making heritage accessible to all.

The correct answer is In the dawn.

Key Points

• The amount of dissolved oxygen in water is typically lowest just before dawn due to the lack of photosynthesis during the night.
• Photosynthesis by aquatic plants and algae ceases at night, leading to the consumption of oxygen by respiration without replenishment.
• Respiration by aquatic organisms continues throughout the night, further depleting oxygen levels.
• Warmer water temperatures at night can also reduce the solubility of oxygen in water.
• This phenomenon is particularly significant in eutrophic water bodies with high levels of organic matter.

Additional Information

• Dissolved Oxygen (DO):
• Dissolved oxygen refers to the amount of oxygen that is present in water, which is crucial for the survival of aquatic life.
• DO levels are influenced by temperature, salinity, and the presence of photosynthetic organisms.
• Photosynthesis:
• Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants and some other organisms use sunlight to synthesize foods with the help of chlorophyll.
• During photosynthesis, oxygen is produced as a byproduct.
• Respiration:
• Respiration is the process of breaking down food to release energy, which consumes oxygen and produces carbon dioxide.
• Both aquatic plants and animals undergo respiration.
• Eutrophication:
• Eutrophication is the process by which a body of water becomes overly enriched with minerals and nutrients, leading to excessive growth of algae.
• This can result in oxygen depletion in water bodies.
• Water Temperature:
• Water temperature plays a critical role in determining the solubility of oxygen.
• Higher temperatures reduce the solubility of oxygen in water.

The correct answer is 1%.

Key Points

• Only about 1% of the sunlight energy that reaches the surface of the Earth is absorbed by green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem.
• This small fraction is due to the limitations in the efficiency of photosynthesis and the availability of light that plants can utilize.
• Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants convert light energy into chemical energy stored in glucose.
• Most of the sunlight is either reflected by the plant leaves or absorbed as heat, with only a small fraction being used for photosynthesis.

Additional Information

• Photosynthesis Process
• Photosynthesis occurs in the chloroplasts of plant cells, where chlorophyll captures light energy.
• The process converts carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen, using the captured light energy.
• It is a crucial process for the survival of plants and the production of oxygen for other living organisms.
• Energy Flow in Ecosystems
• Energy flow in ecosystems begins with the absorption of sunlight by producers (green plants).
• Only a small fraction of the total sunlight is converted into chemical energy by plants, and this energy is passed through the food chain.
• At each trophic level, energy is lost as heat, leading to a decrease in the amount of energy available to higher trophic levels.
• Light Absorption in Plants
• Plant leaves contain pigments like chlorophyll that absorb light primarily in the blue and red wavelengths.
• Green light is mostly reflected, which is why plants appear green to our eyes.
• The efficiency of light absorption and conversion to chemical energy is limited by various factors, including the intensity and duration of light.
• Global Primary Production
• Primary production is the creation of organic compounds from atmospheric or aquatic carbon dioxide, mainly through photosynthesis.
• Terrestrial primary production is a key component of the global carbon cycle, influencing climate and ecosystem dynamics.
• The efficiency of primary production varies among different ecosystems and is influenced by factors such as climate, nutrient availability, and plant species.

The correct answer is Medha Deshmukh Bhaskaran.

Key Points

• The novel 'Life and Death of Sambhaji' was authored by Medha Deshmukh Bhaskaran.
• The book was published in the year 2021.
• Medha Deshmukh Bhaskaran is known for her detailed and well-researched historical novels.
• The novel focuses on the life and times of Sambhaji Maharaj, the second Chhatrapati of the Maratha Empire.
• The book provides a comprehensive account of Sambhaji Maharaj's contributions and struggles during his reign.

Additional Information

• Sambhaji Maharaj
• He was the eldest son of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj and succeeded him as the ruler of the Maratha Empire.
• Sambhaji Maharaj's reign lasted from 1681 to 1689.
• He faced numerous challenges, including conflicts with the Mughal Empire, Portuguese, and Siddis.
• He is remembered for his valor, administrative skills, and dedication to preserving the Maratha sovereignty.
• Historical Novels
• These are novels set in a past time period, often incorporating real historical events and characters.
• They aim to provide readers with a deeper understanding of historical events through the lens of fictional narratives.
• Authors often conduct extensive research to ensure historical accuracy and authenticity in their storytelling.
• Historical novels can cover various genres, including romance, adventure, and drama, set against historical backdrops.
• Medha Deshmukh Bhaskaran
• She is a well-regarded author in the field of historical fiction.
• Her works are known for their meticulous research and engaging narrative style.
• In addition to 'Life and Death of Sambhaji,' she has written other notable works, contributing significantly to Indian historical literature.
• Her books often focus on prominent figures and events in Indian history, offering readers an immersive experience.

The correct answer is Sikkim.

Key Points

• As per the Census 2011, Sikkim has the highest percentage of Buddhist population among all states in India.
• Approximately 27.39% of the population in Sikkim follows Buddhism.
• Buddhism is one of the major religions practiced in Sikkim, alongside Hinduism and Christianity.
• The state is known for its many Buddhist monasteries, such as the Rumtek Monastery and Tashiding Monastery.

Additional Information

• Census 2011:
• The Census 2011 is the 15th National census survey conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India.
• It provides comprehensive data on the population size, distribution, and various demographic attributes of India's population.
• Buddhism in India:
• Buddhism originated in India around the 5th century BCE with the teachings of Siddhartha Gautama, known as the Buddha.
• It spread across Asia and has a significant following in countries like Tibet, Myanmar, Thailand, and Japan.
• Buddhist Monasteries in Sikkim:
• Rumtek Monastery is one of the largest and most significant monasteries in Sikkim, serving as the headquarters of the Kagyu lineage of Tibetan Buddhism.
• Tashiding Monastery is another important religious site, known for its annual Bumchu Festival.
• Cultural Significance:
• Sikkim's culture is heavily influenced by Buddhism, reflected in its festivals, architecture, and daily life.
• The state celebrates various Buddhist festivals like Losar, Saga Dawa, and Lhabab Duchen with great fervor.

The correct answer is Governor.

Key Points

• Article 163 of the Constitution of India pertains to the Council of Ministers advising the Governor of a state.
• The Governor is the constitutional head of the state, and the real executive authority lies with the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister.
• According to Article 163(3), the question of whether any, and if so what, advice was tendered by Ministers to the Governor shall not be inquired into in any court.
• This provision is meant to preserve the confidentiality of the advice given by the Council of Ministers to the Governor.
• The Governor acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers except in cases where he/she is required to act in his/her discretion.

Additional Information

• Governor's Role
• The Governor is appointed by the President of India and holds office at the President's pleasure.
• The Governor's powers include legislative powers, executive powers, financial powers, and judicial powers.
• The Governor has the power to summon, prorogue, and dissolve the state legislature.
• In certain situations, the Governor can act independently, such as in the appointment of the Chief Minister when there is no clear majority.
• Council of Ministers
• The Council of Ministers, headed by the Chief Minister, aids and advises the Governor in the exercise of his/her functions.
• It is collectively responsible to the legislative assembly of the state.
• The Council of Ministers is instrumental in policy formulation and administration of the state.
• Discretionary Powers of the Governor
• Discretionary powers are exercised by the Governor without the advice of the Council of Ministers.
• These powers include reserving a bill for the President's consideration, recommending President's Rule, and seeking information from the Chief Minister regarding the legislative and administrative matters of the state.
• The Governor also has the discretion to appoint the Chief Minister when no party has a clear majority in the legislative assembly.
• Judicial Immunity
• Article 163(3) ensures judicial immunity to the advice given by the Council of Ministers to the Governor.
• This immunity is designed to maintain the confidentiality and integrity of the executive advice process.

The correct answer is Veena.

Key Points

• Chitti Babu was a renowned Veena player from India, recognized for his exceptional skill and contribution to Carnatic music.
• He started learning the Veena at a very young age and was tutored by Emani Sankara Sastry, a legendary veena player.
• Chitti Babu's playing style was noted for its melodic beauty, technical proficiency, and deep emotional expression.
• He performed extensively in India and internationally, popularizing the Veena and Carnatic music across the globe.
• Chitti Babu received numerous awards and honors, including the prestigious Sangeet Natak Akademi Award and Kalaimamani Award.

Additional Information

• Veena
• The Veena is a traditional Indian string instrument used primarily in Carnatic classical music.
• It consists of a large resonating body, a long neck, and seven strings, with four main playing strings and three drone strings.
• The instrument is known for its deep, resonant sound and is played using a combination of plucking and sliding techniques.
• The Veena has a history dating back to ancient times and is considered one of the oldest musical instruments in India.
• It is often associated with the goddess Saraswati, the Hindu deity of knowledge, music, and arts.
• Carnatic Music
• Carnatic music is a system of classical music associated with the southern part of India.
• It is known for its intricate and complex compositions, known as kritis, which are often devotional in nature.
• The music emphasizes vocal performance, but instruments like the Veena, Mridangam, and Violin are also integral.
• Carnatic music is characterized by its use of ragas (melodic scales) and talas (rhythmic cycles).
• Training and performance in Carnatic music require years of rigorous practice and dedication.
• Sangeet Natak Akademi Award
• This is the highest Indian recognition given to practicing artists for their outstanding contribution to the performing arts.
• The award is presented by the Sangeet Natak Akademi, India's National Academy for Music, Dance, and Drama.
• It was instituted in 1952 and includes a citation, a plaque, and a cash prize.
• Recipients are chosen for their excellence in the fields of music, dance, and drama.
• Kalaimamani Award
• The Kalaimamani Award is a prestigious award given by the Tamil Nadu government to artists in the fields of art and literature.
• It was instituted in 1954 and is presented annually by the Tamil Nadu Eyal Isai Nataka Manram (Tamil Nadu State Academy).
• The award recognizes contributions to Tamil culture and includes a medal and a citation.
• It is one of the highest honors for artists in the state of Tamil Nadu.

The correct answer is Rural Cooperatives.

Key Points

• Rural Cooperatives were one of the earliest forms of microfinance institutions established in India.
• They were set up to provide credit and financial services to rural and agricultural sectors.
• The aim was to eliminate the exploitation by moneylenders and to provide farmers with access to necessary financial resources.
• These cooperatives played a crucial role in the development and upliftment of rural areas post-independence.

Additional Information

• Grameen Model Banks
• This model was popularized by Muhammad Yunus in Bangladesh and is not originally from India.
• It focuses on group-based lending and has been adapted in various parts of the world.
• Joint Liability Groups (JLGs)
• Introduced much later as a microfinance model to provide loans based on group guarantees.
• They are aimed at ensuring credit access to small farmers and rural entrepreneurs.
• Self Help Groups (SHGs)
• These were introduced in India in the 1980s and gained popularity in the 1990s.
• SHGs are small groups of people who come together to save and lend to each other.
• They are often linked with banks for larger financial support.
• Cooperative Societies Act
• In India, the first Cooperative Societies Act was passed in 1904.
• This act laid the foundation for the cooperative movement in India.
• The act aimed at providing a legal framework for cooperative societies.

The correct answer is Pongal.

Key Points

• Pongal is a major harvest festival celebrated by the Tamil community in the month of January every year.
• The festival lasts for four days, usually from January 14th to January 17th, marking the Tamil New Year.
• It is named after the Tamil word "Pongal," meaning "to boil," and is celebrated with the boiling of the first rice of the season.
• The festival is dedicated to the Sun God (Surya) and signifies the end of the winter solstice and the start of the sun's six-month-long journey northwards.
• Pongal is celebrated with traditional rituals, including cooking a special dish called "Pongal" and offering it to the deities.

Additional Information

• Bhogi Pongal
• The first day of Pongal is called Bhogi Pongal and is dedicated to Lord Indra, the god of rain.
• On this day, old and unwanted items are burned in a bonfire to mark the end of the old and the beginning of the new.
• Surya Pongal
• The second day, Surya Pongal, is dedicated to the Sun God and is the main day of the festival.
• People prepare a dish of rice, milk, and jaggery and offer it to the Sun God as a gesture of gratitude.
• Mattu Pongal
• The third day, Mattu Pongal, is dedicated to cattle (Mattu) which are considered essential for farming in Tamil culture.
• Cattle are decorated and worshipped, and farmers express their gratitude to them for their hard work throughout the year.
• Kanum Pongal
• The fourth day, Kanum Pongal, is a day for socializing and relaxation.
• Families visit relatives and friends, and various cultural events and games are organized.
• Significance of Kolam
• During Pongal, homes are decorated with beautiful Kolam (rangoli) designs made using rice flour.
• Kolam is believed to bring prosperity and happiness and is an integral part of the Pongal celebrations.

The correct answer is absolute zero temperature.

Key Points

• Absolute zero temperature is defined as -273.15°C or 0 Kelvin (K).
• At absolute zero, the entropy of a perfect crystal is exactly zero, according to the Third Law of Thermodynamics.
• Absolute zero is the theoretical point where particles have minimum thermal motion.
• It represents the lowest limit of the thermodynamic temperature scale.

Additional Information

• Kelvin Scale
• The Kelvin scale is the SI unit of temperature measurement.
• It starts from absolute zero, where 0 K is equal to -273.15°C.
• 1 Kelvin is equivalent to 1°C in terms of the temperature interval.
• Third Law of Thermodynamics
• States that as the temperature approaches absolute zero, the entropy of a system approaches a constant minimum.
• This law implies that it is impossible to reach absolute zero through any finite number of processes.
• Absolute Zero in Practice
• Absolute zero cannot be achieved experimentally, but scientists can get very close to it.
• Techniques like laser cooling and magnetic evaporative cooling are used to reach temperatures near absolute zero.
• Implications of Absolute Zero
• At absolute zero, molecular motion ceases, and a system reaches its ground state.
• Understanding absolute zero helps in the study of quantum mechanics and superconductivity.

The correct answer is The proportion of persons in different age groups relative to the total population.

Key Points

• Age structure represents the distribution of various age groups within a population.
• It is a critical demographic tool used to understand the age composition of a population.
• Age structure helps in planning and policy-making, particularly in areas such as education, healthcare, and employment.
• Analyzing age structure can reveal trends such as aging populations or youth bulges, which have significant socio-economic implications.
• It is typically illustrated through population pyramids, which graphically represent the age and sex distribution of a population.

Additional Information

• Population Pyramid
• A graphical representation that shows the distribution of various age groups in a population, typically separated by sex.
• It can indicate population growth trends, with wider bases showing younger populations and narrower bases indicating older populations.
• Demographic Transition
• A model that describes population change over time, transitioning from high birth and death rates to low birth and death rates.
• It typically involves four stages: pre-industrial, transitional, industrial, and post-industrial.
• Dependency Ratio
• A measure comparing the portion of a population composed of dependents (young and old) with the portion that is in the working age group.
• A high dependency ratio indicates that the working population is supporting a larger proportion of non-working individuals.
• Median Age
• The age that divides a population into two numerically equal groups, with half the people younger and half older than that age.
• It is an indicator of the overall age distribution of a population.
• Life Expectancy
• The average number of years a person is expected to live based on current mortality rates.
• It is a key indicator of the overall health and well-being of a population.

The correct answer is Bombay.

Key Points

• The first successful textile mill in India was established in Bombay (now Mumbai) in 1854.
• It was set up by Cowasji Nanabhai Davar and was named Bombay Spinning and Weaving Company.
• This marked the beginning of the cotton textile industry in India.
• Bombay rapidly became the center of textile production in India, contributing significantly to the city’s economic growth.

Additional Information

• Textile Industry in India:
• The textile industry is one of the largest industries in India, both in terms of production and employment.
• It plays a pivotal role in the Indian economy, contributing about 2.3% to the GDP and 13% to industrial production.
• India is one of the largest producers and exporters of textiles and garments in the world.
• The industry is labor-intensive and employs around 45 million people directly and 60 million people indirectly.
• Cotton Textile Industry:
• Cotton textiles were among the first industries to develop in India during the British colonial period.
• It remains a major segment of the Indian textile industry, with states like Maharashtra, Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, and West Bengal being major producers.
• Modernization and expansion in the cotton textile industry have led to increased productivity and quality.
• Impact of Industrialization:
• The establishment of textile mills played a crucial role in the industrialization of India.
• It led to urbanization and economic development in several regions, particularly in Bombay.
• Industrialization also brought about significant social changes, including the rise of a new working class and changes in labor practices.
• Modern Textile Industry:
• Today's textile industry in India is highly diversified, producing a wide range of products from traditional handloom fabrics to modern synthetic textiles.
• It continues to be a major contributor to India's export economy, with key markets in the USA, European Union, and Middle East.
• Government initiatives like the Textile Policy aim to support and promote the growth and modernization of the textile sector.

The correct answer is 1992.

Key Points

• The first Senior Women's National Football Championship was held in India in 1992.
• This championship was introduced to promote women's football in the country.
• The All India Football Federation (AIFF) organized the tournament.
• The inaugural tournament witnessed participation from various states across India.
• It has since become an annual event, fostering the growth of women's football nationwide.

Additional Information

• All India Football Federation (AIFF)
• AIFF is the governing body for football in India.
• It was founded in 1937 and is affiliated with FIFA, the global governing body for football.
• AIFF is responsible for organizing national competitions and promoting football at all levels.
• It oversees both men's and women's football activities in India.
• Growth of Women's Football in India
• Women's football in India has gained significant momentum over the past few decades.
• Various national and regional tournaments are held to encourage participation.
• The Indian Women's National Football Team has competed in several international tournaments.
• Efforts are ongoing to improve infrastructure and training facilities for women footballers.
• Importance of National Championships
• National championships provide a platform for players to showcase their talent.
• They help in identifying and nurturing future stars of the sport.
• Such tournaments promote a competitive spirit and improve the overall standard of the game.
• They also help in building a strong foundation for the national teams.
• Women's Football Initiatives by AIFF
• AIFF has launched several initiatives to boost women's football.
• These include grassroots programs, coaching camps, and talent scouting missions.
• AIFF also collaborates with international bodies for technical support and training.
• There is a focus on increasing participation at the school and college levels.

The correct answer is Kirtivarman II.

Key Points

• Kirtivarman II was the last ruler of the Chalukya dynasty who reigned in the Deccan region.
• He was defeated by Dantidurga, the founder of the Rashtrakuta dynasty, around the mid-8th century.
• The defeat of Kirtivarman II marked the end of the Chalukya rule and the rise of the Rashtrakutas in the Deccan.
• Dantidurga's victory over Kirtivarman II is well-documented in various inscriptions and historical records.

Additional Information

• Chalukya Dynasty
• The Chalukyas were an Indian royal dynasty that ruled large parts of southern and central India between the 6th and the 12th centuries.
• Their rule is divided into three distinct but related dynasties: the Badami Chalukyas, the Eastern Chalukyas, and the Western Chalukyas.
• They are known for their contribution to art, architecture, and cultural developments in South India.
• Rashtrakuta Dynasty
• The Rashtrakutas were a prominent dynasty that ruled over large parts of the Indian subcontinent between the 6th and 10th centuries.
• They are well-known for their patronage of art and architecture, most notably the rock-cut temples of Ellora.
• Under their reign, the Deccan region witnessed significant economic, cultural, and political advancements.
• Dantidurga
• Dantidurga was the founder of the Rashtrakuta dynasty.
• He is credited with overthrowing the Chalukyan rule and establishing the Rashtrakuta Empire in the Deccan.
• His victory over Kirtivarman II is seen as a significant turning point in the history of South India.
• Historical Records
• Inscriptions and texts from the period provide valuable insights into the political and cultural history of the Deccan region during the time of the Chalukyas and Rashtrakutas.
• These records are crucial for understanding the transitions of power and the impact of these dynasties on Indian history.

The correct answer is pastoral.

Key Points

• The Early Vedic economy was primarily based on pastoral activities, focusing on cattle rearing and dairy production.
• Cattle were considered a significant measure of wealth and were often used as currency for trade and barter.
• The Rigvedic society placed immense importance on cows, and terms like "Gomat" (possessing cows) indicated prosperity.
• Pastoralism was central to the Vedic way of life, and cattle played a crucial role in their rituals, social status, and daily subsistence.

Additional Information

• Early Vedic Literature
• The Rigveda, one of the oldest texts, provides detailed insights into the pastoral lifestyle of the Early Vedic people.
• Verses in the Rigveda often praise cattle and describe various pastoral activities.
• Socio-Economic Structure
• The society was primarily tribal and kin-based, with clans led by chiefs known as "Rajan."
• Wealth was measured in terms of cattle, and social hierarchy often depended on the number of cattle owned.
• Religious Practices
• Many Vedic rituals and sacrifices, such as the Ashvamedha and Rajasuya, involved the use of cattle.
• Cows were considered sacred and were central to various religious ceremonies and offerings.
• Transition to Agriculture
• Although the Early Vedic economy was pastoral, there was a gradual shift towards agriculture during the Later Vedic period.
• This transition was marked by the settlement of tribes in the fertile plains of the Ganges and Yamuna rivers.

The correct answer is Kelucharan Mohapatra.

Key Points

• Kelucharan Mohapatra is renowned for reviving the classical Indian dance form of Odissi.
• He was born on January 8, 1926, in Raghurajpur, Odisha.
• Kelucharan Mohapatra was awarded the prestigious Padma Vibhushan in 2000 for his contributions to Indian classical dance.
• He was also a recipient of the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award and the Kalidas Samman.
• He established the Srjan (Guru Kelucharan Mohapatra Odissi Nrityabasa) dance school in Bhubaneswar, Odisha, to teach and promote Odissi dance.

Additional Information

• Odissi Dance
• Odissi is one of the classical dance forms of India that originated in Odisha.
• It is characterized by its fluid movements, intricate gestures, and expressive eyes.
• The dance form is traditionally performed as a form of worship to Lord Jagannath.
• Odissi has a rich history, with roots tracing back to the ancient temples of Odisha.
• Sangeet Natak Akademi Award
• This is the highest Indian recognition given to practicing artists.
• It is awarded by the Sangeet Natak Akademi, India's National Academy of Music, Dance & Drama.
• The award consists of a cash prize, a citation, and a tamrapatra (bronze plaque).
• Padma Awards
• The Padma Awards are one of the highest civilian honors in India, awarded annually on Republic Day.
• They are categorized into three levels: Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Shri.
• These awards recognize achievements in various disciplines including arts, education, industry, literature, science, sports, medicine, social service, and public affairs.
• Kalidas Samman
• This is a prestigious arts award presented annually by the government of Madhya Pradesh.
• It is named after the classical Sanskrit writer Kalidasa.
• The award is given for outstanding achievements in the fields of classical music, classical dance, theatre, and visual arts.

The correct answer is Sangeet Natak Akademi Amrit Award.

Key Points

• Siba Prasad Das is a renowned Chhau dancer known for his contributions to the traditional dance form.
• In 2022, he was conferred with the prestigious Sangeet Natak Akademi Amrit Award.
• The Sangeet Natak Akademi Amrit Award is given to artists who have significantly contributed to the field of performing arts in India.
• The award is part of the initiative by Sangeet Natak Akademi to recognize and honor the talent and dedication of artists in various performing arts.

Additional Information

• Sangeet Natak Akademi
• It is India's national academy for music, dance, and drama.
• Founded in 1952, it aims to promote and preserve India's vast cultural heritage of performing arts.
• The Akademi awards are considered the highest national recognition given to practicing artists.
• Chhau Dance
• Chhau is a semi-classical Indian dance with martial, tribal, and folk traditions.
• It is predominantly performed in the Indian states of Odisha, West Bengal, and Jharkhand.
• The dance is recognized by UNESCO as an intangible cultural heritage.
• Padma Shri
• It is one of the highest civilian awards in India, awarded for distinguished service in various fields.
• The award was instituted in 1954 and is given annually on Republic Day.
• Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowship
• This is a prestigious fellowship awarded by the Sangeet Natak Akademi to individuals for their lifetime achievement in the field of performing arts.
• It is different from the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award, which is for significant contributions in a specific period.

The correct answer is Gandhian philosophy.

Key Points

• The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution are primarily inspired by the Gandhian philosophy.
• These principles reflect Mahatma Gandhi's vision for a socio-economic framework that aims at ensuring social justice and the welfare of the people.
• The DPSPs cover various aspects such as promoting cottage industries, living wages for workers, and the organization of village Panchayats, which are rooted in Gandhian values.
• The goal of these principles is to create a just society and to ensure that the state works towards the welfare of all its citizens.
• Though not enforceable by law, these principles guide the government in making policies and laws.

Additional Information

• Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
• The DPSPs are included in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, from Articles 36 to 51.
• They are guidelines for the framing of laws by the government and are non-justiciable, meaning they are not enforceable by any court.
• The aim is to establish a welfare state by securing social, economic, and political justice.
• Gandhian Principles in DPSP
• Promotion of cottage industries in rural areas (Article 43).
• Organization of village Panchayats (Article 40).
• Promotion of educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and other weaker sections (Article 46).
• Comparison with Fundamental Rights
• Fundamental Rights (Part III) are enforceable by courts, whereas DPSPs are not.
• Both aim at the establishment of a just society and are complementary to each other.
• While Fundamental Rights ensure political democracy, DPSPs aim at social and economic democracy.
• Historical Context
• The concept of DPSPs was borrowed from the Irish Constitution.
• The framers of the Indian Constitution were influenced by the Irish nationalist movement and Gandhi's philosophy.
• They wanted to ensure that the state would work towards the welfare of all citizens, particularly the marginalized sections of society.

The correct answer is Lalgarh Palace – Bikaner.

Key Points

• Lalgarh Palace is located in the city of Bikaner in Rajasthan.
• The palace was built between 1902 and 1926 for Maharaja Ganga Singh.
• It was designed by the British architect Sir Samuel Swinton Jacob.
• The palace exhibits a perfect amalgamation of Rajput, Mughal, and European architectural styles.

Additional Information

• Rambagh Palace
• Located in Jaipur, it is one of the most famous palaces in Rajasthan.
• It was originally built in 1835 and was used as a royal guesthouse and hunting lodge.
• It was later converted into a palace and is now a luxury hotel.
• Umaid Bhawan Palace
• Located in Jodhpur, it is one of the world's largest private residences.
• The palace was completed in 1943 and is named after Maharaja Umaid Singh.
• It is divided into a luxury hotel, a museum, and the residence of the royal family.
• Taj Lake Palace
• Located in Udaipur, it is a luxury hotel situated on Lake Pichola.
• The palace was built in 1746 under the direction of Maharana Jagat Singh II.
• It is famous for its stunning architecture and picturesque location.

The correct answer is 'bear'.

 

Key Points

• The verb "bear" means to endure or tolerate.
• The phrase "bear with me" is commonly used to ask someone for patience or to wait for a moment.
• Options 1, 3, and 4 are not suitable in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "Please bear with me for a while."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "balm" is incorrect as it means a soothing ointment, and does not fit the context of the sentence.
• Option 3: "bare" is incorrect as it means to uncover, and is also not suitable here.
• Option 4: "bar" is incorrect as it means to block or prevent, and does not fit the context.

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

• The word "centuary" is incorrect and should be replaced with "century". (सदी)
• Example: Many technological advancements happened during the 20th century.
• "Century" refers to a period of one hundred years. (सदी)
• Example: The 21st century has seen significant changes in technology and communication.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: centurie (सेंचुरी): This is an incorrect spelling of the word "century".
• Example: "Centurie" is not a valid word in English.
• Option 3: centuari (सेंचुअरी): This is an incorrect spelling of the word "century".
• Example: "Centuari" does not exist in the English language.
• Option 4: centuarie (सेंचुअरी): This is an incorrect spelling of the word "century".
• Example: "Centuarie" is not a correct English word.

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

• The word "mean" means unkind, spiteful, or unfair; it refers to someone who is unpleasant or malicious in behavior. (मतलब)
• Example: He was being mean to his younger brother by taking away his toys.
• "Sympathetic" refers to feeling or showing sympathy and understanding towards others, being compassionate and kind-hearted. (सहानुभूतिपूर्ण)
• Example: She was very sympathetic towards the homeless man and offered him some food.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'mean' is 'sympathetic'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Apathetic (उदासीन): Showing or feeling no interest, enthusiasm, or concern.
• Example: The student was apathetic about his grades and did not study for exams.
• Modest (विनम्र): Having or showing a humble opinion of oneself; not boastful.
• Example: Despite his achievements, he remained modest and never bragged about his success.
• Rude (अभद्र): Offensively impolite or ill-mannered.
• Example: It was rude of him to interrupt the speaker during the presentation.

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

• The phrase "take the bull by the horns" means to confront a problem head-on and deal with it directly and confidently. (समस्या का डटकर सामना करना)
• Example: When the project faced unexpected delays, the manager decided to take the bull by the horns and worked overtime to get it back on track.
• The expression "take the bull with the horns" is incorrect and does not convey the intended meaning. (गलत अभिव्यक्ति)
• Example: Seizing the opportunity, Akhil decided to take the bull with the horns. (Incorrect)

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. true .

Key Points

• The given sentence is incorrect in its original form because "truest" is the superlative form of "true," and it should be used in appropriate contexts where a superlative degree is required.
• However, in this sentence, we need to describe how he is in adherence to his words, hence the adjective "true" is more suitable.
• The correct form should be "true to his words."

Correct sentence: He is true to his words.

Additional Information

• Degree of Comparison:
• Positive Degree: Describes a quality without comparing. Example: He is a true friend.
• Comparative Degree: Compares between two entities. Example: He is truer to his words than his friend is.
• Superlative Degree: Compares amongst three or more entities. Example: He is the truest friend one could have.

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

• The word "persuit" is a common misspelling and does not have any meaning in English. (गलत वर्तनी)
• "Pursuit" means the action of following or chasing after something or someone. (अनुसरण)
• Example: His pursuit of knowledge led him to read hundreds of books.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Persoot (गलत वर्तनी): This is an incorrect spelling and has no meaning.
• Example: The word "persoot" is misspelled and should be corrected to "pursuit".
• Persulte (गलत वर्तनी): This is an incorrect spelling and has no meaning.
• Example: The word "persulte" is misspelled and should be corrected to "pursuit".
• Pursulte (गलत वर्तनी): This is an incorrect spelling and has no meaning.
• Example: The word "pursulte" is misspelled and should be corrected to "pursuit".

The correct answer is '4' i.e. had wondering .

Key Points

• The given sentence is incorrect because of the phrase "had wondering".
• The correct phrase should be "were wondering" to indicate that Sam and Teena were in the process of thinking.

Correct sentence: Sam and Teena were wondering what to do this weekend.

Additional Information

• Usage of Continuous Tense:
• Structure: Subject + be (was/were) + verb-ing.
• Example: They were discussing their plans.
• Usage: Describes an ongoing action in the past.

The correct answer is 'Ethics'.

 

Key Points

• The word "Ethics" refers to the moral principles that govern a person's behavior or the conducting of an activity.
• In the context of animal welfare, an Ethics Committee is established to ensure that the treatment of animals is aligned with ethical standards.
• The other options: "Resistant," "Considers," and "Customs" do not fit the context or convey the appropriate meaning.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Sentence: The rising interest in and concern about animal welfare resulted in legislative laws and the formation of The Animal Ethics Committee in many nations.

Additional Information

• Resistant (प्रतिरोधी): means able to withstand or oppose.
• Considers (विचार करता है): means to think carefully about.
• Customs (रीति रिवाज): means traditional and widely accepted way of behaving or doing something.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. dropped by the club unexpectedly .

Key Points

• The phrasal verb "dropped of" is incorrect in this context. It should be "dropped by," which means to come for a brief, casual visit.
• The word "by" is used correctly to indicate stopping somewhere briefly.
• The correct phrase should be "dropped by the club unexpectedly."

Correct sentence: Heba dropped by the club unexpectedly to say hello and catch up.

Additional Information

• Phrasal Verbs Examples:
• Drop off: Leave someone or something at a particular place. Example: Can you drop me off at the station?
• Drop out: Withdraw from a social group or a chosen course of action. Example: She decided to drop out of college.
• Drop in: Visit informally. Example: She decided to drop in for a chat.

The correct answer is: Flexible.

Key Points

• The word "obstinate" means stubbornly refusing to change one's opinion or chosen course of action, despite attempts to persuade one to do so. (हठी)
• Example: Despite the evidence presented, he remained obstinate in his beliefs.
• "Flexible" refers to someone or something that is willing to change or adapt. It is the ability to be easily modified and responsive to different circumstances. (लचीला)
• Example: She has a flexible approach to problem-solving, which makes her an excellent leader.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'obstinate' is 'flexible'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Flexible.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Fearless (निर्भय): Lacking fear.
• Example: The firefighter was fearless in the face of danger.
• Adamant (अडिग): Refusing to be persuaded or to change one's mind.
• Example: She was adamant about not going to the party.
• Competent (कुशल): Having the necessary ability, knowledge, or skill to do something successfully.
• Example: He is a competent worker who always meets his deadlines.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. The sky is covering .

Key Points

• The given sentence is incorrect because of the phrase "is covering".
• The correct phrase should be "is covered" to indicate the passive voice, suggesting that the sky is being affected by the action of being covered by clouds.

Correct sentence: The sky is covered with dark clouds and I hope soon it will begin to rain.

Additional Information

• Usage of Passive Voice:
• Structure: Subject + is/am/are + past participle
• Example: The book is read by many people.
• Usage: Describes an action done to the subject by someone or something else.

The correct answer is: Eagerness.

Key Points

• The word "Procrastination" means the action of delaying or postponing something. (टालमटोल करना)
• Example: His procrastination led to missing the project deadline.
• "Eagerness" refers to a strong desire or enthusiasm to do or have something, the opposite of procrastination. (उत्सुकता)
• Example: Her eagerness to start the new project was evident from her early preparation.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Procrastination' is 'Eagerness'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Eagerness.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Hesitance (संकोच): The act of being reluctant or uncertain.
• Example: His hesitance to speak in public was noticeable.
• Timidness (भीरुता): Lack of courage or confidence.
• Example: Her timidness prevented her from voicing her opinions.
• Hawing (हिचकिचाहट): Indecisiveness or hesitation in speech or action.
• Example: He kept hemming and hawing during the meeting, unable to make a clear decision.

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

• The word "hiddden" is incorrect. It should be "hidden" which means something that is kept out of sight; concealed. (छिपा हुआ)
• Example: The treasure was hidden under the old oak tree.
• "Hidden" refers to something that is not visible or not easily found. (छिपा हुआ)
• Example: There was a hidden message in the letter.
• Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• hiddenn (छिपा हुआ): This is an incorrect spelling of "hidden".
• Example: This word is not correct in the sentence.
• hiden (छिपा हुआ): This is an incorrect spelling of "hidden".
• Example: This word is not correct in the sentence.
• hiddeen (छिपा हुआ): This is an incorrect spelling of "hidden".
• Example: This word is not correct in the sentence.

The correct answer is '4' i.e. The committee has careful .

Key Points

• The given sentence is incorrect because of the phrase "has careful".
• The correct phrase should be "has carefully considered" to indicate that the committee has thoughtfully examined the report.

Correct sentence: The committee has carefully considered the report which you sent us and has decided to take action.

Additional Information

• Usage of Adverbs:
• Structure: Subject + has/have + adverb + past participle
• Example: She has thoroughly checked the documents.
• Usage: Describes how an action was performed, modifying the verb.

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

• The idiom "Like a bat out of hell" means to move very fast and wildly. (बहुत तेज और बेकाबू तरीके से)
• Example: He ran out of the room like a bat out of hell when he heard the fire alarm.
• Very fast and wildly indicates a rapid and uncontrolled manner. (बहुत तेज और बेकाबू तरीके से)
• Example: The motorcycle sped down the highway very fast and wildly.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings:

• In a bad situation (खराब स्थिति में): Facing or experiencing difficulties.
• Example: He found himself in a bad situation after losing his job.
• Defeated (पराजित): Having been beaten in a battle or other contest.
• Example: The team felt defeated after losing the final match.
• Impossible (असंभव): Not able to occur, exist, or be done.
• Example: It seems impossible to complete this project within the deadline.

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

• The word "austere" means severe or strict in manner, attitude, or appearance. (सख्त या कठोर)
• Example: The monk led an austere life with no luxuries and minimal possessions.
• "Stern" refers to something that is serious and unrelenting, especially in the assertion of authority and exercise of discipline. (सख्त या कठोर)
• Example: The teacher had a stern expression on her face.
• Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'austere' is 'Stern'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Luxurious (शानदार): Extremely comfortable, elegant, or enjoyable, especially in a way that involves great expense.
• Example: They stayed in a luxurious hotel during their vacation.
• Happy (खुश): Feeling or showing pleasure or contentment.
• Example: She felt happy after receiving the good news.
• Ascetic (तपस्वी): Characterized by or suggesting the practice of severe self-discipline and abstention from all forms of indulgence.
• Example: He lived an ascetic life in the mountains.

The correct answer is '2) No error' .

Key Points

• The given sentence is grammatically correct and does not contain any errors.
• Each part of the sentence is properly structured and conveys the intended meaning.

Correct sentence: This is the best novel I have read, in a very long time.

Additional Information

• Present Perfect Tense:
• Usage: Describes actions that happened at an indefinite time in the past (e.g., I have read) that still hold relevance to the present.
• Structure: Subject + have/has + past participle
• Example: She has finished her homework.

The correct answer is 'What'.

 

Key Points

• The word "What" correctly introduces the noun clause that serves as the subject of the sentence.
• This construction conveys that the thing given to "them" was homemade ice cream.
• Options 1, 2, and 3 do not fit this context and are grammatically incorrect here.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: "What we gave them was some homemade ice cream."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "Which" is incorrect because it typically introduces a relative clause, not a noun clause.
• Option 2: "When" is incorrect because it refers to time, which is not relevant in this context.
• Option 3: "While" is incorrect because it indicates a period of time, which also doesn't fit the context.

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

• The idiom "at the top of your lungs" means to shout or scream extremely loudly. (बहुत जोर से चिल्लाना)
• Example: He screamed at the top of his lungs to get everyone's attention.
• "Extremely loudly" refers to making a very loud noise or sound. (बहुत जोर से)
• Example: The music was playing extremely loudly at the concert.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Extremely silly (बहुत मूर्खतापूर्ण): Acting in a very foolish or ridiculous manner.
• Example: It was extremely silly of him to wear a clown costume to the formal event.
• Pretend superiority (श्रेष्ठता का दिखावा करना): Acting as if you are better or more important than others.
• Example: She always pretends superiority and looks down on others.
• Exhausted (थका हुआ): Extremely tired or worn out.
• Example: After the long hike, we were all completely exhausted.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. dim .

Key Points

• The given sentence is incorrect as "dimmer" is the comparative form of "dim," and its usage suggests a comparison between two or more things.
• However, there is no comparison mentioned in the given sentence, so the correct form should be the positive degree "dim."
• The correct phrase should be "dim light."

Correct sentence: He was studying in the dim light.

Additional Information

• Degree of Adjectives Examples:
• Positive Degree: Describes a quality without any comparison. Example: He prefers dim light for reading.
• Comparative Degree: Compares between two entities. Example: This room is dimmer than the other one.
• Superlative Degree: Describes the highest degree of a quality among three or more entities. Example: This is the dimmest room in the house.

The correct answer is 'facilitates'.

 

Key Points

• The passage discusses the role of language in communication and interaction between humans.
• The appropriate verb should indicate that language makes communication easier and more effective.
• "Facilitates" fits well as it denotes making an action or process easier, which aligns with the context of language aiding communication.
• Other options ("delays", "qualifies", "experiences") do not fit the context of enhancing and enabling communication.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Complete Passage: Language is a powerful device that 1. facilitates communication and interaction between individuals. It serves as a crucial tool for expressing thoughts, emotions, and ideas. 2. The richness of language can be observed in various forms, including spoken and written interaction. People employ language to convey their intentions, share knowledge, and build relationships. It is a fundamental aspect of human interaction and plays a vital role in shaping societies and cultures. Without language, cooperation would be 3. impossible , as it serves as the foundation for collaboration and understanding among diverse communities. Furthermore, language is dynamic and stationary, evolving over time to adapt to changing environments. New words are 4. integrated into the vocabulary, reflecting advancements in technology, science and culture. The ability to modify and adapt language is a key aspect of linguistic competence. 5. Therefore*, the importance of language cannot be underestimated. It is a fundamental tool for human expression and interaction, facilitating the exchange of ideas and the formation of connections among people.*

 

Additional Information

• Delays (विलंब): "Delays" means to make something happen at a later time, which does not align with the idea of enhancing communication.
• Qualifies (योग्यता): "Qualifies" means to be entitled to a particular benefit or privilege by fulfilling a necessary condition, which does not reflect the idea of enhancing communication.
• Experiences (अनुभव): "Experiences" means encountering or undergoing an event or occurrence, which does not fit the context of enabling communication.

The correct answer is 'The'.

 

Key Points

• The passage discusses the role of language in communication and emphasizes the specific richness of language.
• The definite article "the" is used to refer to something specific that is already known to the reader.
• "The" fits well as it specifies the richness being observed, which aligns with the context of the passage.
• Other options, such as "a" or "an", indicate nonspecific nouns and would not fit the context here.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Complete Passage: Language is a powerful device that 1. facilitates communication and interaction between individuals. It serves as a crucial tool for expressing thoughts, emotions, and ideas. 2. The richness of language can be observed in various forms, including spoken and written interaction. People employ language to convey their intentions, share knowledge, and build relationships. It is a fundamental aspect of human interaction and plays a vital role in shaping societies and cultures. Without language, cooperation would be 3. impossible , as it serves as the foundation for collaboration and understanding among diverse communities. Furthermore, language is dynamic and stationary, evolving over time to adapt to changing environments. New words are 4. integrated into the vocabulary, reflecting advancements in technology, science and culture. The ability to modify and adapt language is a key aspect of linguistic competence. 5. Therefore, the importance of language cannot be underestimated. It is a fundamental tool for human expression and interaction, facilitating the exchange of ideas and the formation of connections among people.

 

Additional Information

• A (एक): "A" is used before words that begin with a consonant sound, indicating a nonspecific noun, which does not fit the context here.
• An (एक): "An" is used before words that begin with a vowel sound, indicating a nonspecific noun, which does not fit the context here.
• No article: Omitting the article would make the sentence grammatically incorrect.

The correct answer is 'impossible'.

 

Key Points

• The passage emphasizes the crucial role of language in cooperation and collaboration among diverse communities.
• The appropriate adjective should indicate that without language, cooperation simply could not occur.
• "Impossible" fits well as it denotes the inability to achieve cooperation without language, aligning with the context of the passage.
• Other options ("challenger", "challenging", "challenge", "challenges") do not fit the context of emphasizing the absolute necessity of language for cooperation.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Complete Passage: Language is a powerful device that 1. facilitates communication and interaction between individuals. It serves as a crucial tool for expressing thoughts, emotions, and ideas. 2. The richness of language can be observed in various forms, including spoken and written interaction. People employ language to convey their intentions, share knowledge, and build relationships. It is a fundamental aspect of human interaction and plays a vital role in shaping societies and cultures. Without language, cooperation would be 3. impossible , as it serves as the foundation for collaboration and understanding among diverse communities. Furthermore, language is dynamic and stationary, evolving over time to adapt to changing environments. New words are 4. integrated into the vocabulary, reflecting advancements in technology, science and culture. The ability to modify and adapt language is a key aspect of linguistic competence. 5. Therefore, the importance of language cannot be underestimated. It is a fundamental tool for human expression and interaction, facilitating the exchange of ideas and the formation of connections among people.

 

Additional Information

• Challenger (चुनौती देने वाला): "Challenger" denotes a person or thing that challenges or competes but does not fit the context of describing the necessity of language for cooperation.
• Challenging(चुनौतीपूर्ण): "Challenging" means testing one's abilities, which does not reflect the idea of emphasizing the necessity of language for cooperation.
• Challenge (चुनौती): "Challenge" is a noun meaning a demand to prove or justify something, which does not align well with the context of the sentence.

The correct answer is 'integrated'.

 

Key Points

• The passage describes the process that has happened to new words in the evolving vocabulary.
• The appropriate verb form should match the context of new words being added or incorporated into the vocabulary.
• "Integrated" fits well as it means incorporated or combined, aligning with the context of new words being added to the vocabulary.
• Other options ("integral", "integration", "integrity") do not fit the context as well as "integrated".

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Complete Passage: Language is a powerful device that 1. facilitates communication and interaction between individuals. It serves as a crucial tool for expressing thoughts, emotions, and ideas. 2. The richness of language can be observed in various forms, including spoken and written interaction. People employ language to convey their intentions, share knowledge, and build relationships. It is a fundamental aspect of human interaction and plays a vital role in shaping societies and cultures. Without language, cooperation would be 3. impossible , as it serves as the foundation for collaboration and understanding among diverse communities. Furthermore, language is dynamic and stationary, evolving over time to adapt to changing environments. New words are 4. integrated into the vocabulary, reflecting advancements in technology, science and culture. The ability to modify and adapt language is a key aspect of linguistic competence. 5. Therefore, the importance of language cannot be underestimated. It is a fundamental tool for human expression and interaction, facilitating the exchange of ideas and the formation of connections among people.

 

Additional Information

• Integral: Means necessary to make a whole complete, which does not fit the verb form needed.
• Integration: Means the process of combining or adding parts, but does not fit the verb requirement.
• Integrity: Means the quality of being honest and having strong moral principles, which is unrelated to the context.

The correct answer is 'In any case'.

Key Points

• The passage emphasizes the undeniable importance of language.
• The phrase "In any case" is used to emphasize that the importance of language remains significant regardless of any other factors.
• "In any case" appropriately concludes the passage, reinforcing the importance of language.
• Other options ("In order to", "In conclusive", "In spite of") do not fit the context and flow of the passage as well.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Complete Passage: Language is a powerful device that 1. facilitates communication and interaction between individuals. It serves as a crucial tool for expressing thoughts, emotions, and ideas. 2. The richness of language can be observed in various forms, including spoken and written interaction. People employ language to convey their intentions, share knowledge, and build relationships. It is a fundamental aspect of human interaction and plays a vital role in shaping societies and cultures. Without language, cooperation would be 3. impossible , as it serves as the foundation for collaboration and understanding among diverse communities. Furthermore, language is dynamic and stationary, evolving over time to adapt to changing environments. New words are 4. integrated into the vocabulary, reflecting advancements in technology, science and culture. The ability to modify and adapt language is a key aspect of linguistic competence. 5. In any case, the importance of language cannot be underestimated. It is a fundamental tool for human expression and interaction, facilitating the exchange of ideas and the formation of connections among people.

 

Additional Information

• In order to: Means for the purpose of, which does not fit the concluding nature of the sentence.
• In conclusive: This does not fit the grammatical structure or meaning needed in the sentence.
• In spite of: Means despite, which does not fit the context of emphasizing the importance of language.