Official Paper

SSC JE (Mechanical Engineering) Official Paper (Held On: 06 Dec, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

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General Intelligence and Reasoning (50 questions)

1

In the following, four roll numbers or centre codes are given. Three share a common pattern or belong to one group, but one is different. Select the odd one out.

301441, 301551, 321327, 301660

  1. ((a))

    301441

  2. ((b))

    301551

  3. ((c))

    321327

  4. ((d))

    301660

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

301441

2

In the following, four roll numbers or centre codes are given. Three share a common pattern or belong to one group, but one is different. Select the odd one out.

680422, 681901, 681502, 540345

  1. ((a))

    680422

  2. ((b))

    681901

  3. ((c))

    681502

  4. ((d))

    540345

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

680422

3

In the following, four roll numbers or centre codes are given. Three share a common pattern or belong to one group, but one is different. Select the odd one out.

720626, 720334, 700211, 720997

  1. ((a))

    720626

  2. ((b))

    720334

  3. ((c))

    700211

  4. ((d))

    720997

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

720626

4

Complete the analogy.

J : L :: V : ?

  1. ((a))

    Z

  2. ((b))

    Y

  3. ((c))

    X

  4. ((d))

    T

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Z

5

Complete the analogy.

LOP : PRT :: VWZ : ?

  1. ((a))

    ZZD

  2. ((b))

    ZAC

  3. ((c))

    BCD

  4. ((d))

    BAD

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ZZD

6

Find the missing term in the series: A, E, I, M, ?

  1. ((a))

    O

  2. ((b))

    P

  3. ((c))

    Q

  4. ((d))

    R

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

O

7

Find the missing term in the series: C, G, K, O, ?

  1. ((a))

    S

  2. ((b))

    T

  3. ((c))

    U

  4. ((d))

    V

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

S

8

Find the missing term in the series: B2D, D4F, F6H, H8J, ?

  1. ((a))

    J10L

  2. ((b))

    J12L

  3. ((c))

    I10L

  4. ((d))

    L10J

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

J10L

9

Find the missing number in the series: 2, 4, 8, 16, ?

  1. ((a))

    24

  2. ((b))

    30

  3. ((c))

    32

  4. ((d))

    36

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

24

10

Find the missing number in the series: 5, 11, 23, 47, ?

  1. ((a))

    90

  2. ((b))

    95

  3. ((c))

    92

  4. ((d))

    93

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

90

11

Find the missing number in the series: 4, 11, 25, 53, ?

  1. ((a))

    100

  2. ((b))

    109

  3. ((c))

    115

  4. ((d))

    118

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

100

12

Complete the analogy.

% : Percentage :: # : ?

  1. ((a))

    Hash

  2. ((b))

    Number

  3. ((c))

    Symbol

  4. ((d))

    Telephone

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hash

13

Complete the analogy.

36 : 216 :: 18 : ?

  1. ((a))

    54

  2. ((b))

    81

  3. ((c))

    162

  4. ((d))

    108

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

54

14

Complete the analogy.

1024 : 32 :: 256 : ?

  1. ((a))

    8

  2. ((b))

    16

  3. ((c))

    24

  4. ((d))

    32

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8

15

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others: 16, 36, 54, 64

  1. ((a))

    16

  2. ((b))

    36

  3. ((c))

    54

  4. ((d))

    64

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

16

16

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others: 24,42,54,6824, 42, 54, 68

  1. ((a))

    24

  2. ((b))

    68

  3. ((c))

    54

  4. ((d))

    42

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

24

17

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others: 97, 89, 91, 83

  1. ((a))

    97

  2. ((b))

    89

  3. ((c))

    91

  4. ((d))

    83

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

97

18

Statement: "All vehicles must pass emission tests before their registration is renewed".

Which conclusion follows?

  1. ((a))

    All old vehicles will be banned automatically

  2. ((b))

    Fuel prices will be reduced soon

  3. ((c))

    Traffic rules will become stricter for parking

  4. ((d))

    Pollution from vehicles is a concern

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

All old vehicles will be banned automatically

19

Statement: "Streetlights in residential colonies will be switched to LED bulbs." Which conclusion follows?

  1. ((a))

    LED lights are more decorative

  2. ((b))

    Residents dislike the current lights

  3. ((c))

    LED lights use less electricity

  4. ((d))

    Streetlights will be switched off at night

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

LED lights are more decorative

20

Statement: "Due to a major IT outage, bank branches will remain closed for two days." What is the immediate course of action?

  1. ((a))

    Inform customers and provide alternate services

  2. ((b))

    Train staff on handling outages

  3. ((c))

    Upgrade the entire banking network

  4. ((d))

    Wait for the power supply to be restored

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Inform customers and provide alternate services

21

Select the word that appears last in alphabetical order:

HOOK, HOOKED, HOOKS, HOOP

  1. ((a))

    HOOK

  2. ((b))

    HOOKED

  3. ((c))

    HOOKS

  4. ((d))

    HOOP

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

HOOK

22

In a dictionary, which comes first: QUEST, QUERY, QUEUE, QUELL?

  1. ((a))

    QUEUE

  2. ((b))

    QUERY

  3. ((c))

    QUELL

  4. ((d))

    QUEST

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

QUEUE

23

In a dictionary, which comes first? PREFIX, PREGNANT, PRELUDE, PRECISE

  1. ((a))

    PRECISE

  2. ((b))

    PREGNANT

  3. ((c))

    PRELUDE

  4. ((d))

    PREFIX

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

PRECISE

24

Find the odd one out: Rose, Lily, Mango, Jasmine

  1. ((a))

    Rose

  2. ((b))

    Lily

  3. ((c))

    Mango

  4. ((d))

    Jasmine

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rose

25

A shopkeeper buys an article at ₹240\text{₹}240 and sells it at a profit of 2525%. What is the selling price?

  1. ((a))

    260

  2. ((b))

    ₹280\text{₹}280

  3. ((c))

    ₹300\text{₹}300

  4. ((d))

    ₹320\text{₹}320

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

260

26

From the letters C R E T A P U, which valid English word can be made?

  1. ((a))

    CAPTURE

  2. ((b))

    CURPETA

  3. ((c))

    ACEPTUR

  4. ((d))

    CRAPUTE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CAPTURE

27

Using all letters of E P M R E L A, which word is correct?

  1. ((a))

    EMPERAL

  2. ((b))

    PREMEAL

  3. ((c))

    PREMALE

  4. ((d))

    PREAMLE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

EMPERAL

28

A company promotes mostly male employees despite an equal number of male and female candidates. What is the valid inference?

  1. ((a))

    Company favours males

  2. ((b))

    Females are less qualified

  3. ((c))

    Males work more hours

  4. ((d))

    Promotions based on seniority

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Company favours males

29

In an airline, foreign passengers are offered free upgrades more often than domestic passengers in the same booking class. Which inference is valid?

  1. ((a))

    Domestic seats are cheaper

  2. ((b))

    Foreigners complain less

  3. ((c))

    Foreigners pay more

  4. ((d))

    Upgrade policy favours foreigners

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Domestic seats are cheaper

30

Rainwater harvesting in a town increased water storage by 4040% without rainfall change.

Which inference is valid?

  1. ((a))

    Rainfall rose

  2. ((b))

    Water was used less

  3. ((c))

    Collection efficiency increased

  4. ((d))

    Population decreased

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rainfall rose

31

An employee misses deadlines frequently but meets some targets. What should a manager infer?

  1. ((a))

    Employee is careless

  2. ((b))

    Employee has too much work

  3. ((c))

    Employee is dishonest

  4. ((d))

    Employee may need support

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Employee is careless

32

A company’s profit fell 5% despite 15% revenue growth. Which is the best inference?

  1. ((a))

    Costs increased significantly

  2. ((b))

    Employees worked less

  3. ((c))

    Customers bought fewer products

  4. ((d))

    Management bonuses increased

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Costs increased significantly

33

City pollution levels decreased 55%, but the number of vehicles increased by 88%. Which is the logical judgement?

  1. ((a))

    Vehicles became more fuel-efficient

  2. ((b))

    People drove less

  3. ((c))

    Pollution data is wrong

  4. ((d))

    Weather reduced pollution

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vehicles became more fuel-efficient

34

If # = addition, =division,@=subtraction,and = division, @ = subtraction, and % = multiplication, what is the value of {(96 # 24) 6} @ (12 % 3)?

  1. ((a))

    -16

  2. ((b))

    18

  3. ((c))

    20

  4. ((d))

    14

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

-16

35

If @ = addition, # = multiplication, =subtraction,and = subtraction, and % = division, then find the value of 18 # 3 5 @ 12 % 4.

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    22

  3. ((c))

    26

  4. ((d))

    52

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20

36

If =subtraction,∗=multiplication,@=addition,and = subtraction, * = multiplication, @ = addition, and % = division, then evaluate 90 25 * 2 @ 8% 2.

  1. ((a))

    68

  2. ((b))

    44

  3. ((c))

    134

  4. ((d))

    74

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

68

37

Given that the factory produced 1000 units in the first year, 1100 in the second, and 1200 in the third, what would be the estimated output for the fourth year?

  1. ((a))

    1250

  2. ((b))

    1300

  3. ((c))

    1350

  4. ((d))

    1450

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1250

38

Profits of a firm were 100,000 and increased 8% yearly. What is the profit at the end of 4 years?

  1. ((a))

    134391

  2. ((b))

    135000

  3. ((c))

    134000

  4. ((d))

    136049

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

134391

39

An investment of 100,000 earns 7% compound interest yearly. What is the value after 5 years?

  1. ((a))

    140255

  2. ((b))

    138000

  3. ((c))

    140000

  4. ((d))

    139500

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

140255

40

In a family, X is the brother of Y. Y is the mother of Z.

How is Z related to X?

  1. ((a))

    Daughter

  2. ((b))

    Father-in-law

  3. ((c))

    Niece / Nephew

  4. ((d))

    Wife

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Daughter

41

Pointing to a girl, Vikas said, "She is the daughter of my wife’s brother".

How is the girl related to Vikas?

  1. ((a))

    Aunt of Vikas

  2. ((b))

    Cousin of Vikas

  3. ((c))

    Niece of Vikas

  4. ((d))

    Sister of Vikas

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Aunt of Vikas

42

A shopkeeper bought 50 apples for ₹500\text{₹}500. He sold them at ₹12\text{₹}12 each. What is his profit?

  1. ((a))

    ₹100\text{₹}100

  2. ((b))

    ₹120\text{₹}120

  3. ((c))

    ₹80\text{₹}80

  4. ((d))

    ₹150\text{₹}150

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹100\text{₹}100

43

A sum triples itself in 12 years at simple interest. Find the rate per annum.

  1. ((a))
    1. 57%
  2. ((b))
    1. 82%
  3. ((c))
    1. 53%
  4. ((d))
    1. 67%
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 57%
44

In the following question, two statements are followed by four conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read the conclusions carefully and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

<br>

Statements:

I. Some pens are pencils.

II. All pencils are erasers.

<br>

Conclusions:

A. Some pens are erasers.

B. All erasers are pens.

C. No pen is an eraser.

D. All pens are pencils.

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Only B

  3. ((c))

    Only C

  4. ((d))

    Only D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

45

Statements:

Some stars are planets.

Some planets are habitable.

Which conclusion logically follows?

  1. ((a))

    Some stars are habitable

  2. ((b))

    All habitable are planets

  3. ((c))

    Some planets are stars

  4. ((d))

    Some habitable are stars

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Some stars are habitable

46

Statements:

All smartphones are devices.

Some devices are expensive.

Which conclusion logically follows?

  1. ((a))

    Some smartphones are expensive

  2. ((b))

    No smartphone is expensive

  3. ((c))

    All devices are smartphones

  4. ((d))

    Some expensive items are devices

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Some smartphones are expensive

47

A shopkeeper buys 300 notebooks at ₹25\text{₹}25 each. He sells 120 notebooks at a 20% profit, 100 notebooks at a 10% loss, and the remaining at the cost price. What is his overall profit or loss percentage on the entire purchase?

  1. ((a))

    4.67%

  2. ((b))

    3.87%

  3. ((c))

    4.12%

  4. ((d))

    5.27%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4.67%

48

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others: Oxygen, Nitrogen, Helium, Water

  1. ((a))

    Oxygen

  2. ((b))

    Nitrogen

  3. ((c))

    Helium

  4. ((d))

    Water

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Oxygen

49

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others: Typhoid, Malaria, Diabetes, Cholera

  1. ((a))

    Typhoid

  2. ((b))

    Malaria

  3. ((c))

    Diabetes

  4. ((d))

    Cholera

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Typhoid

50

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others: Insulin, Thyroxine, Adrenaline, Pepsin

  1. ((a))

    Insulin

  2. ((b))

    Thyroxine

  3. ((c))

    Adrenaline

  4. ((d))

    Pepsin

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Insulin

General Awareness (50 questions)

51

Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about the World Happiness Report 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Finland ranked as the happiest country for the eighth consecutive year.

  2. ((b))

    India improved its ranking from 126th126^{th} in 2024 to 118th118^{th} in 2025.

  3. ((c))

    The report evaluates happiness based on six key factors.

  4. ((d))

    Afghanistan ranked higher than Sierra Leone and Lebanon in the 2025 report.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Finland ranked as the happiest country for the eighth consecutive year.

52

Which satellite was launched to monitor the Sun in real-time?

  1. ((a))

    Cartosat

  2. ((b))

    RISAT-2

  3. ((c))

    Aditya-L1

  4. ((d))

    GSAT-30

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cartosat

53

In NITI Aayog, what does NITI stand for?

  1. ((a))

    National Institution for Technology and Innovation

  2. ((b))

    National Institution for Transforming India

  3. ((c))

    National Initiative for Transforming India

  4. ((d))

    National Initiative for Technology and Innovation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

National Institution for Technology and Innovation

54

What specific property of cosmic X-rays does the XPoSat mission by ISRO aim to study?

  1. ((a))

    Frequency

  2. ((b))

    Intensity

  3. ((c))

    Spectral shift

  4. ((d))

    Polarization

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Frequency

55

Which of the following refers to the paradox of increased savings in the short term reducing the ability to save in the long term?

  1. ((a))

    Giffen paradox

  2. ((b))

    Leontief paradox

  3. ((c))

    Paradox of thrift

  4. ((d))

    Easterlin paradox

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Giffen paradox

56

Who is known as the father of economics?

  1. ((a))

    Karl Marx

  2. ((b))

    Adam Smith

  3. ((c))

    Alfred Marshall

  4. ((d))

    Edmund Burke

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Karl Marx

57

What does T in the SWOT analysis stand for?

  1. ((a))

    Talent

  2. ((b))

    Table

  3. ((c))

    Threat

  4. ((d))

    Transaction

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Talent

58

Which ruler issued the famous copper plate inscription of Uttaramerur describing a detailed village administration system?

  1. ((a))

    Rajaraja Chola I

  2. ((b))

    Kulottunga I

  3. ((c))

    Parantaka I

  4. ((d))

    Mahendravarman I

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rajaraja Chola I

59

The ruler who adopted the title of ’Parameswara’ and expanded the Chola power overseas was:

  1. ((a))

    Vijayalaya Chola

  2. ((b))

    Rajendra Chola I

  3. ((c))

    Aditya Chola I

  4. ((d))

    Rajaraja Chola I

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vijayalaya Chola

60

Hematite is a major source of ______ .

  1. ((a))

    Zn

  2. ((b))

    Fe

  3. ((c))

    Al

  4. ((d))

    Mn

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Zn

61

Which one of the following is a radioactive isotope of carbon?

  1. ((a))

    Carbon - 12

  2. ((b))

    Carbon - 13

  3. ((c))

    Carbon - 14

  4. ((d))

    Carbon - 6

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Carbon - 12

62

Which commission recommended the establishment of the Inter-State Council?

  1. ((a))

    Sarkaria Commission

  2. ((b))

    Punchhi Commission

  3. ((c))

    Ashok Mehta Committee

  4. ((d))

    Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sarkaria Commission

63

High concentration of which molecule maintains 460∘C460^{\circ}C temperature by the greenhouse effect on Venus?

  1. ((a))

    CO

  2. ((b))

    NH3NH_3

  3. ((c))

    N2N_2

  4. ((d))

    CO2CO_2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CO

64

Which government scheme primarily focuses on improving access to banking, insurance, and remittance facilities for all households in India?

  1. ((a))

    Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY)

  2. ((b))

    Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY)

  3. ((c))

    Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)

  4. ((d))

    Stand-Up India Scheme

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY)

65

What is the standard unit of electric current in the International System?

  1. ((a))

    Volt

  2. ((b))

    Ohm

  3. ((c))

    Farad

  4. ((d))

    Ampere

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Volt

66

Which of the following best describes the role of a catalyst in a chemical reaction from a physics perspective?

  1. ((a))

    It increases the kinetic energy of the reacting molecules.

  2. ((b))

    It provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy.

  3. ((c))

    It increases the potential energy of the products.

  4. ((d))

    It shifts the equilibrium of the reaction towards the products.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It increases the kinetic energy of the reacting molecules.

67

The Higgs boson helps scientists understand:

  1. ((a))

    Speed of light

  2. ((b))

    Origin of gravity

  3. ((c))

    How particles acquire mass

  4. ((d))

    Magnetic poles

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Speed of light

68

In which year did India win the Kabaddi World Cup for the first time?

  1. ((a))

    2004

  2. ((b))

    2007

  3. ((c))

    2010

  4. ((d))

    2016

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2004

69

How many points does a player need to win a standard badminton game?

  1. ((a))

    15

  2. ((b))

    18

  3. ((c))

    21

  4. ((d))

    25

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15

70

India’s inaugural gold in Olympic hockey post-independence was secured in:

  1. ((a))

    1948, London

  2. ((b))

    1952, Helsinki

  3. ((c))

    1956, Melbourne

  4. ((d))

    1960, Rome

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1948, London

71

Which of the following architectural styles is famous for its large gateways called ’Gopurams’?

  1. ((a))

    Gothic

  2. ((b))

    Dravidian

  3. ((c))

    Vesara

  4. ((d))

    Nagara

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gothic

72

Which of the following features is not typically associated with Rajput forts and palaces?

  1. ((a))

    Courtyards

  2. ((b))

    Gopurams

  3. ((c))

    Jharokhas

  4. ((d))

    Chhatris

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Courtyards

73

The concept of the Five-Year Plans in India was borrowed from:

  1. ((a))

    South Africa

  2. ((b))

    France

  3. ((c))

    Brazil

  4. ((d))

    Soviet Union(USSR)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

South Africa

74

Who authored The Palace of Illusions, a retelling of the Mahabharata from Draupadi’s perspective, and received the Hutch Crossword Book Award for it?

  1. ((a))

    Anuja Chauhan

  2. ((b))

    Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni

  3. ((c))

    Kiran Desai

  4. ((d))

    Arundhati Roy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Anuja Chauhan

75

In India, the Mixed Economy was adopted in which of the following Five-Year plans?

  1. ((a))

    Sixth Five-Year Plan

  2. ((b))

    Second Five-Year Plan

  3. ((c))

    Third Five-Year Plan

  4. ((d))

    Fourth Five-Year Plan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sixth Five-Year Plan

76

Which American author won the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction in 1998 for American Pastoral?

  1. ((a))

    John Updike

  2. ((b))

    Philip Roth

  3. ((c))

    Don DeLillo

  4. ((d))

    Toni Morrison

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

John Updike

77

The Industrial Licensing Policy during the Fifth Five-Year Plan was relaxed for which of the following types of industries?

  1. ((a))

    Small and medium-scale industries

  2. ((b))

    Large-scale heavy industries

  3. ((c))

    Foreign-owned industries

  4. ((d))

    Luxury goods industries

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Small and medium-scale industries

78

Identify the correct sequence of the central dogma of the cell.

  1. ((a))

    DNA →\rightarrow RNA →\rightarrow Protein

  2. ((b))

    RNA →\rightarrow DNA →\rightarrow Protein

  3. ((c))

    Protein →\rightarrow RNA →\rightarrow DNA

  4. ((d))

    RNA →\rightarrow Protein →\rightarrow DNA

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

DNA →\rightarrow RNA →\rightarrow Protein

79

Kho-Kho is governed by which Indian federation?

  1. ((a))

    AIFC

  2. ((b))

    KKFI

  3. ((c))

    AIKWF

  4. ((d))

    KKDFI

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

AIFC

80

In which Commonwealth Games did India record its highest medal tally?

  1. ((a))

    2010 Delhi

  2. ((b))

    2002 Manchester

  3. ((c))

    2018 Gold Coast

  4. ((d))

    2022 Birmingham

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2010 Delhi

81

The National Sports Awards in India are usually presented by whom?

  1. ((a))

    The Prime Minister of India

  2. ((b))

    The President of India

  3. ((c))

    The Minister of Youth Affairs and Sports

  4. ((d))

    The Chief Justice of India

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Prime Minister of India

82

Which of the following is NOT a DNA-binding motif?

  1. ((a))

    Leucine zipper

  2. ((b))

    Helix-turn-helix

  3. ((c))

    Beta bundle

  4. ((d))

    Zinc finger

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Leucine zipper

83

Which celestial body is worshiped during Chhath Puja?

  1. ((a))

    Sun

  2. ((b))

    Moon

  3. ((c))

    Earth

  4. ((d))

    Stars

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sun

84

Which of the following cultural festivals is celebrated in Maharashtra by worshiping bulls and cattle?

  1. ((a))

    Holi

  2. ((b))

    Bail Pola

  3. ((c))

    Gudi Padwa

  4. ((d))

    Makar Sankranti

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Holi

85

The policy of "paramountcy" as practiced by the British in India implied that:

  1. ((a))

    Indian princely states had absolute sovereignty and were independent of British control.

  2. ((b))

    The British Crown had ultimate authority and the interests of the British Empire were supreme in India.

  3. ((c))

    Indian rulers were equal partners with the British in governing the subcontinent.

  4. ((d))

    Local self-governance was to be immediately introduced in all princely states.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Indian princely states had absolute sovereignty and were independent of British control.

86

The "Lahore Resolution" of 1940 is a pivotal moment in the history of the Indian subcontinent. Analyze the key arguments presented in the resolution and discuss the factors that contributed to its adoption by the Muslim League, ultimately leading to the demand for a separate state.

  1. ((a))

    It primarily focused on securing greater political representation and safeguards for Muslims within a united India.

  2. ((b))

    The resolution argued that Muslims constituted a distinct nation with their own culture and identity, necessitating a separate sovereign state in the Muslim-majority regions, driven by fears of marginalization in a Hindu-majority India and the perceived failure of constitutional safeguards.

  3. ((c))

    It was solely a tactical move by the Muslim League to exert pressure on the Indian National Congress for greater concessions.

  4. ((d))

    The resolution was largely influenced by the British government’s policy of "Divide and Rule" and did not reflect the genuine aspirations of the majority of Indian Muslims.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It primarily focused on securing greater political representation and safeguards for Muslims within a united India.

87

Which reform after 1991 effectively ended the ’License Raj’ by eliminating compulsory industrial licensing for most sectors while redefining the state’s role in industrial resource allocation?

  1. ((a))

    It transferred all industrial licensing powers to state governments under the 73rd Amendment

  2. ((b))

    It abolished industrial licensing for all industries, including those linked to strategic concerns

  3. ((c))

    It ended compulsory licensing for most industries but retained it selectively for a few critical sectors

  4. ((d))

    It created a parallel market-led licensing regime while retaining the Planning Commission’s allocation role

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It transferred all industrial licensing powers to state governments under the 73rd Amendment

88

Which statement best describes the change in the role of the public sector introduced by the New Industrial Policy of 1991?

  1. ((a))

    Public sector undertakings were expanded into all service sectors

  2. ((b))

    The reserved list for public sector undertakings was eliminated entirely

  3. ((c))

    PSUs were granted complete market autonomy and privatized simultaneously

  4. ((d))

    The number of industries reserved for the public sector was reduced to a core of strategic interest

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Public sector undertakings were expanded into all service sectors

89

What is the new approach toward minor offences under Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita?

  1. ((a))

    Life imprisonment

  2. ((b))

    Community service and reformative punishment

  3. ((c))

    Death penalty

  4. ((d))

    No action taken

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Life imprisonment

90

In Oct 2024, who assumed the office as the Chief Minister of the union territory of Jammu and Kashmir?

  1. ((a))

    Manoj Sinha

  2. ((b))

    Omar Abdullah

  3. ((c))

    Ghulam Nabi Azad

  4. ((d))

    Mehbooba Mufti

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Manoj Sinha

91

What is the primary instrument used in the dance of Manipur?

  1. ((a))

    Flute

  2. ((b))

    Tabla

  3. ((c))

    Violin

  4. ((d))

    Pung

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Flute

92

Which famous number in Kuchipudi involves the dancer balancing on a brass plate?

  1. ((a))

    Tarangam

  2. ((b))

    Shabdam

  3. ((c))

    Kalaapam

  4. ((d))

    Jatiswaram

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tarangam

93

Which dance form in Sattriya is characterized by vigor and majestic beauty, distinct from the graceful Chali?

  1. ((a))

    Rajagharia Chali

  2. ((b))

    Kharmanar Nach

  3. ((c))

    Sukananni

  4. ((d))

    Jhumura

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rajagharia Chali

94

Hsuan Tsang, the Chinese traveler, visited India during the reign of which ruler?

  1. ((a))

    Chandragupta 1

  2. ((b))

    Simuka

  3. ((c))

    Harshavardhana

  4. ((d))

    Samudragupta

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chandragupta 1

95

The naval battle of Kandalursalai took place during the reign of which ruler?

  1. ((a))

    Vijayalaya

  2. ((b))

    Parantaka

  3. ((c))

    Rajendra I

  4. ((d))

    Rajaraja I

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vijayalaya

96

Match the following cultural periods with their tools or features.

Column AColumn B
1. Neolithica. Polished stone tools
2. Mesolithicb. Microliths
3. Chalcolithicc. Copper tools
4. Iron Aged. Painted Grey Ware
  1. ((a))

    1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d

  2. ((b))

    1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b

  3. ((c))

    1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c

  4. ((d))

    1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d

97

Which one of the following states has the highest gold ore reserves in India?

  1. ((a))

    Uttar Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Maharashtra

  3. ((c))

    Bihar

  4. ((d))

    Gujarat

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Uttar Pradesh

98

In which region is "Powada" folk music performed, which praises heroes and warriors?

  1. ((a))

    Goa

  2. ((b))

    Gujarat

  3. ((c))

    Maharashtra

  4. ((d))

    Rajasthan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Goa

99

’Bhatiali’ is folk music sung by which group of people?

  1. ((a))

    Farmers of Punjab

  2. ((b))

    Fishermen of Bengal

  3. ((c))

    Shepherds of Rajasthan

  4. ((d))

    Nomadic tribes of Gujarat

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Farmers of Punjab

100

What is the function of ’nyasa’ in a musical raga?

  1. ((a))

    Starting note

  2. ((b))

    Ending note

  3. ((c))

    Note on which a phrase stops

  4. ((d))

    Middle note

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Starting note

Mechanical Engineering (100 questions)

101

What is the primary effect of regeneration in a gas turbine cycle?

  1. ((a))

    Increases work output

  2. ((b))

    Reduces fuel consumption

  3. ((c))

    Increases exhaust temperature

  4. ((d))

    Lowers inlet pressure

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increases work output

102

What is the role of the lubrication system in an engine?

  1. ((a))

    Reduces friction only

  2. ((b))

    Reduce friction and carry heat away from engine parts

  3. ((c))

    Helps in cooling only

  4. ((d))

    Provides combustion support

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Reduces friction only

103

What is the main purpose of a receiver in a compressed air system?

  1. ((a))

    Control temperature

  2. ((b))

    Store compressed air

  3. ((c))

    Increase volumetric efficiency

  4. ((d))

    Lubricate moving parts

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Control temperature

104

How does Brayton cycle efficiency improve?

  1. ((a))

    Increase in turbine inlet temperature

  2. ((b))

    Decreased pressure ratio

  3. ((c))

    Use of intercooling

  4. ((d))

    Reduced compressor work

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increase in turbine inlet temperature

105

What is the main loss in reciprocating compressors due to?

  1. ((a))

    Inlet throttling

  2. ((b))

    High-speed piston

  3. ((c))

    Re-expansion of clearance volume

  4. ((d))

    Cylinder leakage

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Inlet throttling

106

If area at throat is 0.001 m20.001 \space { m}^2, velocity is 600 m/s600 \space { m/s}, density = 0.6 kg/m30.6 \space{ kg/m}^3, find mass flow rate.

  1. ((a))
    1. 27 kg/s
  2. ((b))
    1. 36 kg/s
  3. ((c))
    1. 6 kg/s
  4. ((d))
    1. 54 kg/s
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 27 kg/s
107

The angle of contact is less in which type of belt drive?

  1. ((a))

    Cross belt drive

  2. ((b))

    V-belt drive

  3. ((c))

    Open belt drive

  4. ((d))

    Quarter turn belt

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cross belt drive

108

What is the primary function of caulking in a riveted joint?

  1. ((a))

    To make the joint leak-proof

  2. ((b))

    To increase the tensile strength of the plate

  3. ((c))

    To enhance the appearance of the joint

  4. ((d))

    To reduce the weight of the joint

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To make the joint leak-proof

109

For maximum power transmission in a belt drive, what should be the velocity of the belt?

  1. ((a))

    v = TM\sqrt{\frac{T}{M}}

  2. ((b))

    v = T2M\sqrt{\frac{T}{2M}}

  3. ((c))

    v = T3M\sqrt{\frac{T}{3M}}

  4. ((d))

    v = T4M\sqrt{\frac{T}{4M}}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

v = TM\sqrt{\frac{T}{M}}

110

A journal bearing supports a load of 150kN150 kN from a turbine shaft with a diameter of 300mm300 mm, running at 1800rpm1800 rpm. If the allowable bearing pressure is 1.6N/mm21.6 N/mm^2, what is the required length of the bearing?

  1. ((a))
    1. 5 mm
  2. ((b))
    1. 5 mm
  3. ((c))
    1. 5 mm
  4. ((d))
    1. 5 mm
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 5 mm
111

A single-plate clutch is transmitting 20 kW of power at 3,000 r.p.m. Assuming the coefficient of friction is 0. 35 and the mean radius is 0. 15 m, calculate the required axial force.

  1. ((a))

    150 N

  2. ((b))

    303 N

  3. ((c))

    403 N

  4. ((d))
    1. 4 N
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

150 N

112

According to Indian standards, what should be the diameter of the rivet hole for a rivet of 24 mm diameter?

  1. ((a))

    24 mm

  2. ((b))

    25 mm

  3. ((c))

    26 mm

  4. ((d))

    27 mm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

24 mm

113

What is the initial condition in clutches?

  1. ((a))

    Both members rotate at the same speed with no relative motion

  2. ((b))

    Driving member is at rest and driven member is rotating

  3. ((c))

    Both members rotate at the same speed with relative motion

  4. ((d))

    Driving member is rotating and driven member is at rest

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both members rotate at the same speed with no relative motion

114

The torque capacity of a cone clutch is maximum when the cone angle is:

  1. ((a))

    90∘^\circ

  2. ((b))

    Very large

  3. ((c))

    Very small

  4. ((d))

    12∘^\circ to 15∘^\circ

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

90∘^\circ

115

Rivets are commonly made of:

  1. ((a))

    Copper

  2. ((b))

    Cast iron

  3. ((c))

    Mild steel

  4. ((d))

    Aluminium

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Copper

116

A rolling contact bearing is subjected to a radial load of 3000 N and an axial load of 900 N. Given that X=0.85X = 0. 85 and Y=1.8Y = 1. 8, determine the dynamic equivalent load (P) acting on the bearing.

  1. ((a))

    4260 N

  2. ((b))

    4270 N

  3. ((c))

    4170 N

  4. ((d))

    4100 N

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4260 N

117

What is the role of the expansion valve in refrigeration equipment?

  1. ((a))

    Increases refrigerant pressure

  2. ((b))

    Reduces the pressure and temperature of the refrigerant

  3. ((c))

    Controls refrigerant flow into the condenser

  4. ((d))

    Removes heat from refrigerant

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increases refrigerant pressure

118

In refrigeration, which device senses room temperature and controls the cooling cycle?

  1. ((a))

    Thermostat

  2. ((b))

    Receiver

  3. ((c))

    Filter

  4. ((d))

    Compressor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Thermostat

119

The ideal air standard cycles assume which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    Variable specific heats

  2. ((b))

    Real gas behaviour

  3. ((c))

    Constant specific heats

  4. ((d))

    Moist air as working fluid

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Variable specific heats

120

In the Otto cycle, if the compression ratio is increased from 6 to 8. What will happen to the theoretical efficiency?

  1. ((a))

    Decrease by 10%

  2. ((b))

    Remain unchanged

  3. ((c))

    Increase

  4. ((d))

    Double

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Decrease by 10%

121

What will be the efficiency of a Carnot cycle operating between 600 K and 300 K?

  1. ((a))

    25%

  2. ((b))

    33%

  3. ((c))

    66%

  4. ((d))

    50%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25%

122

Mercury does not wet the surface of glass because:

  1. ((a))

    The adhesive force between mercury and glass is greater than the cohesive force within mercury.

  2. ((b))

    The cohesive force within mercury molecules is stronger than the adhesive force between mercury and glass.

  3. ((c))

    Mercury has no surface tension.

  4. ((d))

    Glass has a repelling electric charge that pushes mercury away.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The adhesive force between mercury and glass is greater than the cohesive force within mercury.

123

The primary motion in turning is provided by:

  1. ((a))

    Feed movement

  2. ((b))

    Workpiece rotation

  3. ((c))

    Tool rotation

  4. ((d))

    Cross-slide motion

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Feed movement

124

Which of the following statements correctly represents Pascal’s Law?

  1. ((a))

    Pressure at a point in a fluid varies with direction in a static fluid

  2. ((b))

    An increase in pressure at any point in a confined fluid is transmitted equally in all directions

  3. ((c))

    The pressure at a point in a fluid depends on the shape of the container

  4. ((d))

    Pressure is inversely proportional to the depth in a static fluid

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pressure at a point in a fluid varies with direction in a static fluid

125

Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between gauge pressure, vacuum pressure, and atmospheric pressure?

  1. ((a))

    Gauge pressure is the sum of absolute pressure and atmospheric pressure

  2. ((b))

    Vacuum pressure is always equal to gauge pressure

  3. ((c))

    Gauge pressure is the difference between absolute pressure and atmospheric pressure

  4. ((d))

    Atmospheric pressure is the difference between gauge and absolute pressures

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gauge pressure is the sum of absolute pressure and atmospheric pressure

126

Where is the center of pressure located on a vertically immersed plane surface in a liquid?

  1. ((a))

    At the centre of gravity

  2. ((b))

    Above the centre of gravity

  3. ((c))

    Below the centre of gravity

  4. ((d))

    At the free surface

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

At the centre of gravity

127

What technique (tool) is used in broaching?

  1. ((a))

    Single-point

  2. ((b))

    Multi-tooth progressive

  3. ((c))

    Interrupted

  4. ((d))

    Abrasive

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Single-point

128

The Mach number is defined as the ratio of which two physical quantities?

  1. ((a))

    Local velocity of fluid to gravitational acceleration

  2. ((b))

    Local velocity of fluid to the speed of sound in the same medium

  3. ((c))

    Velocity of object to the velocity of light

  4. ((d))

    Pressure force to inertial force

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Local velocity of fluid to gravitational acceleration

129

Orthogonal cutting differs from oblique cutting by:

  1. ((a))

    Cutting edge perpendicular to workpiece

  2. ((b))

    No tool rake angle

  3. ((c))

    Use in drilling

  4. ((d))

    Absence of chip

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cutting edge perpendicular to workpiece

130

Which of the following statements is TRUE for a tank moving vertically upward with a constant acceleration aa, containing an incompressible fluid?

  1. ((a))

    Pressure variation remains purely hydrostatic.

  2. ((b))

    Gauge pressure decreases linearly with depth.

  3. ((c))

    Pressure at a given depth is more than that in a stationary fluid.

  4. ((d))

    Free surface becomes inclined due to upward acceleration.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pressure variation remains purely hydrostatic.

131

The torque required increases with drill diameter because:

  1. ((a))

    Chip resistance ∝\propto area ∝\propto Diameter of drill2^2

  2. ((b))

    Flute depth increases linearly

  3. ((c))

    Web thickness remains constant

  4. ((d))

    Cutting speed reduces

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chip resistance ∝\propto area ∝\propto Diameter of drill2^2

132

What happens to the pressure inside a liquid container when it is in free fall?

  1. ((a))

    Pressure at any depth equals atmospheric pressure.

  2. ((b))

    Pressure increases with depth due to the force of inertia.

  3. ((c))

    Fluid compresses and pressure increases.

  4. ((d))

    Fluid exerts an upward force on the container base.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pressure at any depth equals atmospheric pressure.

133

The stroke adjustment in a shaper using the hydraulic quick return allows:

  1. ((a))

    Stroke length control

  2. ((b))

    Non-uniform return motion

  3. ((c))

    Variable tool engagement

  4. ((d))

    Variable feed per stroke

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Stroke length control

134

A grinding wheel specification "A46K5V" indicates:

  1. ((a))

    Alumina grit, grade K hardness, vitrified bond

  2. ((b))

    Silicon carbide, 46 size, fine bond

  3. ((c))

    Alumina grit, 5 structure, resin bond

  4. ((d))

    Aluminum bond, 46 grit, K structure

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Alumina grit, grade K hardness, vitrified bond

135

For an incompressible fluid flowing through a cross-section, the volumetric discharge QQ is given by which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    Q=A+VQ=A+V

  2. ((b))

    Q=A×VQ = A \times V

  3. ((c))

    Q=VAQ = \frac{V}{A}

  4. ((d))

    Q=ρAVQ = \rho AV

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Q=A+VQ=A+V

136

What is the purpose of reaming?

  1. ((a))

    Making holes

  2. ((b))

    Enlarging holes

  3. ((c))

    Threading holes

  4. ((d))

    Finishing holes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Making holes

137

In milling, which of the following parts rotates?

  1. ((a))

    Workpiece

  2. ((b))

    Tool

  3. ((c))

    Table

  4. ((d))

    Base

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Workpiece

138

What is the axis of rotation of a horizontal milling cutter relative to the surface of the worktable?

  1. ((a))

    Vertical

  2. ((b))

    Inclined

  3. ((c))

    Horizontal

  4. ((d))

    Curved

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vertical

139

The velocity components of a 2D incompressible flow are:

u=x+yu=x+y v=x−yv=x-y

Is this flow possible (i.e., does it satisfy the continuity equation)?

  1. ((a))

    YES

  2. ((b))

    NO

  3. ((c))

    Possible only if viscosity is zero

  4. ((d))

    Possible only for irrotational flow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

YES

140

In shaping, metal is removed in:

  1. ((a))

    Return stroke

  2. ((b))

    Forward stroke

  3. ((c))

    Both strokes

  4. ((d))

    Alternatively, in forward and return stroke

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Return stroke

141

In fluid kinematics, the acceleration experienced by fluid particles arises due to which factors?

  1. ((a))

    Pressure only

  2. ((b))

    Gravity only

  3. ((c))

    Convective and local acceleration

  4. ((d))

    Density variation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pressure only

142

Why is coolant used in grinding?

  1. ((a))

    To cool the work and wheel

  2. ((b))

    To resize wheel

  3. ((c))

    To resize work

  4. ((d))

    To heat the workpiece

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To cool the work and wheel

143

Which of the following expressions represents a possible stream function (Ψ\Psi) for a 2D incompressible flow?

  1. ((a))

    Ψ=x2+y2\Psi = x^2 + y^2

  2. ((b))

    Ψ=xy\Psi = xy

  3. ((c))

    Ψ=x2−y2\Psi = x^2 - y^2

  4. ((d))

    Ψ=x3+y3\Psi = x^3 + y^3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ψ=x2+y2\Psi = x^2 + y^2

144

Which statement best describes free-cutting steel?

  1. ((a))

    A steel containing carbon in free form.

  2. ((b))

    A steel that is difficult to deform.

  3. ((c))

    A low carbon steel with a high sulphur content.

  4. ((d))

    A steel with poor wear resistance.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A steel containing carbon in free form.

145

What is the typical range of carbon content in cast iron?

  1. ((a))
    1. 1 to 0. 2%
  2. ((b))
    1. 5 to 1. 0 %
  3. ((c))
    1. 0 to 1. 5%
  4. ((d))
    1. 5 to 3. 5%
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 1 to 0. 2%
146

What is the main purpose of the chaplet in sand molding?

  1. ((a))

    To ensure directional solidification

  2. ((b))

    To provide efficient venting

  3. ((c))

    To align the mould boxes

  4. ((d))

    To support the cores

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To ensure directional solidification

147

Seam welding is a/an ____ welding process.

  1. ((a))

    arc

  2. ((b))

    multi spot

  3. ((c))

    gas

  4. ((d))

    continuous spot

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

arc

148

What is the ratio between oxygen and acetylene gases for a neutral flame in gas welding?

  1. ((a))

    2 : 1

  2. ((b))

    1 : 2

  3. ((c))

    4 : 1

  4. ((d))

    1 : 1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2 : 1

149

Shell molding is best suited for which of the following applications?

  1. ((a))

    Producing milling cutters

  2. ((b))

    Making gold ornaments

  3. ((c))

    Producing heavy and thick walled casting

  4. ((d))

    Producing thin casting

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Producing milling cutters

150

Which gas is typically employed as a shielding gas in inert gas welding processes?

  1. ((a))

    Hydrogen

  2. ((b))

    Oxygen

  3. ((c))

    Water vapour

  4. ((d))

    Helium or Argon

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hydrogen

151

Flux is used in the form of granules in which welding?

  1. ((a))

    Submerged arc welding

  2. ((b))

    Resistance welding

  3. ((c))

    Plasma welding

  4. ((d))

    TIG (Tungsten Inert Gas) welding

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Submerged arc welding

152

Which of the following factors influences the magnitude of residual stresses generated during welding?

  1. Amount of metal melted or deposited
  2. Design of the weldment
  3. Method of support and clamping of components
  4. Type of welding process used
  1. ((a))

    1, 2 and 4

  2. ((b))

    1, 2 and 3

  3. ((c))

    1 and 3

  4. ((d))

    2 and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1, 2 and 4

153

Which of the following elements is typically added to iron and carbon in an alloy steel that is work-hardenable and used for manufacturing blades of bulldozers, bucket wheel excavators, and other earth-moving equipment?

  1. ((a))

    Chromium

  2. ((b))

    Silicon

  3. ((c))

    Manganese

  4. ((d))

    Magnesium

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chromium

154

Hot extrusion is a manufacturing process commonly used to produce which of the following products?

  1. Aluminium curtain rods
  2. Steel pipes for the domestic water supply
  3. Stainless steel tubes used in furniture
  4. Large-diameter pipes for city water mains
  1. ((a))

    1 and 3

  2. ((b))

    2 and 4

  3. ((c))

    2,3 and 4

  4. ((d))

    1, 2, 3 and 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 and 3

155

To which systems does the First Law of Thermodynamics apply?

  1. ((a))

    Only closed systems

  2. ((b))

    Open systems only

  3. ((c))

    All systems

  4. ((d))

    Only ideal gases

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only closed systems

156

Over one complete thermodynamic cycle of a system, the net heat interaction equals what?

  1. ((a))

    Change in internal energy

  2. ((b))

    Work done

  3. ((c))

    Enthalpy change

  4. ((d))

    Zero

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Change in internal energy

157

Which of the following expressions correctly represents the efficiency (η\eta) of an ideal Carnot heat engine operating between source reservoirs at T1T_1 and Sink reservoirs at T2T_2?

  1. ((a))

    η=1−T2T1\eta = 1 - \frac{T_2}{T_1}

  2. ((b))

    η=1+T2T1\eta = 1 + \frac{T_2}{T_1}

  3. ((c))

    η=T1T2\eta = \frac{T_1}{T_2}

  4. ((d))

    η=T2T1\eta = \frac{T_2}{T_1}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

η=1−T2T1\eta = 1 - \frac{T_2}{T_1}

158

Which thermodynamic property remains unchanged during a throttling process for all fluids?

  1. ((a))

    Enthalpy

  2. ((b))

    Pressure

  3. ((c))

    Temperature

  4. ((d))

    Entropy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Enthalpy

159

In a reversible adiabatic process involving an ideal gas, which of the following relations holds true?

  1. ((a))

    ΔU=W\Delta U = W

  2. ((b))

    ΔH=Q\Delta H = Q

  3. ((c))

    W=0W = 0

  4. ((d))

    Q=WQ = W

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ΔU=W\Delta U = W

160

Why does the Clausius inequality provide a quantitative criterion for irreversibility in thermodynamic processes?

  1. ((a))

    Because it always gives zero for real processes

  2. ((b))

    Because it sets a bound on entropy change

  3. ((c))

    Because inequality becomes strict in irreversible cycles

  4. ((d))

    Because work and heat are directly proportional

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Because it always gives zero for real processes

161

The critical speed of a turbine shaft is defined as the rotational speed at which:

  1. ((a))

    It is equal to the runaway speed of the turbine

  2. ((b))

    The shaft will immediately fail due to mechanical overstress

  3. ((c))

    It equals the synchronous speed of the connected generator

  4. ((d))

    The shaft’s natural vibration frequency matches its rotational frequency

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It is equal to the runaway speed of the turbine

162

The specific speed of a turbine is the speed of a geometrically similar turbine of such a size that it:

  1. ((a))

    Delivers a unit power output at a unit discharge

  2. ((b))

    Delivers a unit power output under a unit head

  3. ((c))

    Delivers a unit discharge at a unit power output

  4. ((d))

    Delivers a unit discharge under a unit head

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Delivers a unit power output at a unit discharge

163

Which of the following vane configurations is most commonly adopted in centrifugal pumps?

  1. ((a))

    Radial

  2. ((b))

    Twisted

  3. ((c))

    Curved in the forward direction

  4. ((d))

    Curved in the backward direction

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Radial

164

While initiating the operation of a centrifugal pump, the delivery valve is maintained:

  1. ((a))

    Half open

  2. ((b))

    Less than half open

  3. ((c))

    Completely open

  4. ((d))

    Completely closed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Half open

165

When a fluid flows along a curved path, its angular momentum changes. This change primarily leads to which of the following effects?

  1. ((a))

    Variation in pressure

  2. ((b))

    Variation in total energy

  3. ((c))

    A dynamic (centripetal) force directed toward the center of curvature

  4. ((d))

    Production of torque

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Variation in pressure

166

In turbulent flow theory, the Prandtl mixing length is defined as:

  1. ((a))

    The proportion of particle mean free path to a reference dimension of the flow

  2. ((b))

    The characteristic wavelength corresponding to the smallest frequency present

  3. ((c))

    The average normal distance from the boundary over which fluid elements exchange momentum with the main flow

  4. ((d))

    The measure of turbulent kinetic energy per unit mass

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The proportion of particle mean free path to a reference dimension of the flow

167

What is the formula for the volume flow rate per unit depth between two streamlines with stream functions Ψ1\Psi_1 and Ψ2\Psi_2 ?

  1. ((a))

    ∣Ψ1−Ψ2∣|\Psi_1 - \Psi_2|

  2. ((b))

    Ψ1Ψ2\frac{\Psi_1}{\Psi_2}

  3. ((c))

    Ψ1Ψ2\Psi_1\Psi_2

  4. ((d))

    ∣Ψ1+Ψ2∣|\Psi_1 + \Psi_2|

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

∣Ψ1−Ψ2∣|\Psi_1 - \Psi_2|

168

Which of the following is an example of a body force?

  1. ((a))

    Water pressure on a dam

  2. ((b))

    Weight of a body

  3. ((c))

    Friction between two surfaces

  4. ((d))

    Tension in a rope

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Water pressure on a dam

169

Which one is vector quantity?

  1. ((a))

    Speed

  2. ((b))

    Mass

  3. ((c))

    Momentum

  4. ((d))

    Work

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Speed

170

According to the law of conservation of momentum, which statement is true for an isolated system?

  1. ((a))

    Momentum is always zero

  2. ((b))

    Momentum can be created or destroyed

  3. ((c))

    Momentum increases with velocity

  4. ((d))

    Total momentum remains constant if no external forces act on the system

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Momentum is always zero

171

What is the role of Inertia?

  1. ((a))

    Change its shape

  2. ((b))

    Resist a change in its state of motion

  3. ((c))

    Attract other bodies

  4. ((d))

    Move faster when pushed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Change its shape

172

Arrange the following centrifugal pump components in the order through which the liquid passes during operation:

(1) Impeller, (2) Suction pipe, (3) Foot valve with strainer, (4) Delivery pipe.

  1. ((a))

    2 →\to 4 →\to 1 →\to 3

  2. ((b))

    1 →\to 2 →\to 3 →\to 4

  3. ((c))

    3 →\to 2 →\to 1 →\to 4

  4. ((d))

    1 →\to 2 →\to 4 →\to 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2 →\to 4 →\to 1 →\to 3

173

An engineer connects two identical centrifugal pumps in series to increase pumping capability. If each pump delivers Q against head H, what is the resulting discharge and head of the system?

  1. ((a))

    Q\sqrt{Q} against 2H\sqrt{2H}

  2. ((b))

    2Q against 2H

  3. ((c))

    Q against 2H

  4. ((d))

    2Q against H

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Q\sqrt{Q} against 2H\sqrt{2H}

174

What is the correct general expression for the magnitude of a force vector in three-dimensional space, given its components Fx, Fy, and Fz along the x, y, and z axes for any values of Fx, Fy, and Fz?

  1. ((a))

    F = Fx + Fy + Fz

  2. ((b))

    F = Fx2+Fy2+Fz2\sqrt{F_x^2 + F_y^2 + F_z^2}

  3. ((c))

    F = FxFyFzF_x F_y F_z

  4. ((d))

    F = Fx2+Fy2−FzF_x^2 + F_y^2 - F_z

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

F = Fx + Fy + Fz

175

A body moves with constant velocity on a rough surface. What can be said about the applied force and frictional force?

  1. ((a))

    Applied force is zero

  2. ((b))

    Applied force is less than friction

  3. ((c))

    Applied force is greater than friction

  4. ((d))

    Applied force is equal to friction

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Applied force is zero

176

For a symmetrical body with uniform density, what is the relationship between its centroid and center of gravity?

  1. ((a))

    They always differ

  2. ((b))

    They lie at different height

  3. ((c))

    They always coincide

  4. ((d))

    Their positions depend only on the shape

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

They always differ

177

In the analytical method for coplanar forces, which is an incorrect requirement for the equilibrium?

  1. ((a))

    ΣFx=0\Sigma F_x = 0

  2. ((b))

    ΣFy=0\Sigma F_y = 0

  3. ((c))

    ΣM=0\Sigma M = 0

  4. ((d))

    ΣFx×ΣFy=0\Sigma F_x \times \Sigma F_y = 0

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ΣFx=0\Sigma F_x = 0

178

The coefficient of kinetic (dynamic) friction is ___ the limiting static friction.

  1. ((a))

    Greater than

  2. ((b))

    Equal to

  3. ((c))

    Lesser than

  4. ((d))

    May be greater than or equal to

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Greater than

179

The energy possessed by a body, for doing work by virtue of its position, is called____.

  1. ((a))

    Potential energy

  2. ((b))

    Kinetic energy

  3. ((c))

    Electrical energy

  4. ((d))

    Internal energy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Potential energy

180

Which of the following correctly defines the rigidity modulus (GG)?

  1. ((a))

    GG = shear stress/shear strain

  2. ((b))

    GG = tensile stress/volumetric strain

  3. ((c))

    GG = lateral strain/longitudinal strain

  4. ((d))

    GG = compressive stress/compressive strain

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

GG = shear stress/shear strain

181

What is the formula for section modulus (ZZ)? (where II = moment of inertia, YY = distance from the neutral axis to the outermost fiber of the cross-section, MM = bending moment, PP = bending stress, CC = radius of curvature)

  1. ((a))

    ZZ = IC\frac{I}{C}

  2. ((b))

    ZZ = IP\frac{I}{P}

  3. ((c))

    ZZ = IY\frac{I}{Y}

  4. ((d))

    ZZ = IM\frac{I}{M}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ZZ = IC\frac{I}{C}

182

The angle of twist of a shaft of diameter ’d’ is inversely proportional to:

  1. ((a))

    d2d^2

  2. ((b))

    d4d^4

  3. ((c))

    d3d^3

  4. ((d))

    dd

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

d2d^2

183

Poisson’s ratio for most metals lies between:

  1. ((a))
    1. 1 to 0. 2
  2. ((b))
    1. 25 to 0. 3
  3. ((c))
    1. 15 to 0. 25
  4. ((d))
    1. 02 to 0. 03
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 1 to 0. 2
184

Stress is a:

  1. ((a))

    External force

  2. ((b))

    Internal resistive force per unit area

  3. ((c))

    Axial force

  4. ((d))

    Radial force

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

External force

185

In the stress-strain diagram, the point of maximum stress is called:

  1. ((a))

    Fracture strength

  2. ((b))

    Tensile stress

  3. ((c))

    Ultimate strength

  4. ((d))

    Compressive strength

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fracture strength

186

A simply supported beam of length 8 m8 \text{ m} carries a uniformly distributed load of 4 kN/m4 \text{ kN/m}. Find the maximum shear force.

  1. ((a))

    16 kN

  2. ((b))

    36 kN

  3. ((c))

    28 kN

  4. ((d))

    24 kN

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

16 kN

187

What is the term used for the strain energy stored per unit volume of a material when it is stressed within the elastic limit?

  1. ((a))

    Modulus of resilience

  2. ((b))

    Hardness

  3. ((c))

    Fracture toughness

  4. ((d))

    Brittleness

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Modulus of resilience

188

Given a material with Young’s modulus E=1.2×1051.2 \times 10^5 N/mm2mm^2 and modulus of rigidity G=4.8×1044.8 \times 10^4 N/mm2mm^2, determine its Poisson’s ratio and bulk modulus.

  1. ((a))
    1. 25, 11×10411 \times 10^4 N/mm2mm^2
  2. ((b))
    1. 25, 8×1048 \times 10^4 N/mm2mm^2
  3. ((c))
    1. 2, 9×1049 \times 10^4 N/mm2mm^2
  4. ((d))
    1. 3, 10×10410 \times 10^4 N/mm
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 25, 11×10411 \times 10^4 N/mm2mm^2
189

Which of the following correctly represents the formula for the polar section modulus (ZpZ_p)? where J is polar moment of inertia, c is the distance from the neutral axis to the outermost fibre, K is the radius of gyration, M is the bending moment, G is shear modulus

  1. ((a))

    Zp=G/cZ_p = G / c

  2. ((b))

    Zp=J/cZ_p = J / c

  3. ((c))

    Zp=K/cZ_p = K / c

  4. ((d))

    Zp=M/cZ_p = M / c

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Zp=G/cZ_p = G / c

190

According to Lame’s equation, the thickness of a thick-walled cylinder is given by which of the following expressions? (where rir_i is the inner radius σt\sigma_t is the allowable design stress, p is the internal pressure, and μ\mu is Poisson’s ratio)

  1. ((a))

    ri[σt+pσt−p−1]r_i \left[ \sqrt{\frac{\sigma_t + p}{\sigma_t - p}} - 1 \right]

  2. ((b))

    ri[σt+(1−μ)pσt−(1−μ)p−1]r_i \left[ \sqrt{\frac{\sigma_t + (1-\mu) p}{\sigma_t - (1-\mu) p}} - 1 \right]

  3. ((c))

    ri[σtσt−2p−1]r_i \left[ \sqrt{\frac{\sigma_t}{\sigma_t - 2p}} - 1 \right]

  4. ((d))

    ri[σt+(1−2μ)pσt−(1−2μ)p−1]r_i \left[ \sqrt{\frac{\sigma_t + (1-2\mu) p}{\sigma_t - (1-2\mu) p}} - 1 \right]

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ri[σt+pσt−p−1]r_i \left[ \sqrt{\frac{\sigma_t + p}{\sigma_t - p}} - 1 \right]

191

In a cycloidal gear tooth profile, the flanks and faces of the teeth are generated by:

  1. ((a))

    A point on a circle rolling inside and outside a base circle.

  2. ((b))

    An involute curve only.

  3. ((c))

    A circular arc centered on the gear axis.

  4. ((d))

    A parabolic curve.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A point on a circle rolling inside and outside a base circle.

192

The height of a Watt governor is given by (where N is the speed of the arm and ball about the spindle axis):

  1. ((a))

    895N2\frac{895}{N^2} meter

  2. ((b))

    895N\frac{895}{N} meter

  3. ((c))

    8.95N\frac{8.95}{N} meter

  4. ((d))

    89.5N2\frac{89.5}{N^2} meter

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

895N2\frac{895}{N^2} meter

193

What is the primary function of a governor?

  1. ((a))

    To maintain constant speed despite load variations

  2. ((b))

    To improve engine efficiency

  3. ((c))

    To control the fuel supply

  4. ((d))

    To start the engine

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To maintain constant speed despite load variations

194

Lower pairs are classified as ____ pairs.

  1. ((a))

    Automatic closed

  2. ((b))

    Self-closed

  3. ((c))

    Friction closed

  4. ((d))

    Force-closed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Automatic closed

195

The coefficient of fluctuation of speed is an important factor in the design of:

  1. ((a))

    Gear

  2. ((b))

    Shaft

  3. ((c))

    Governor

  4. ((d))

    Flywheel

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gear

196

Which type of gear is commonly used to connect the governor to the engine?

  1. ((a))

    Spur gear

  2. ((b))

    Bevel gear

  3. ((c))

    Helical gear

  4. ((d))

    Spiral gear

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Spur gear

197

In a cam mechanism, when the follower rises with simple harmonic motion (SHM), the maximum velocity of the follower occurs at:

  1. ((a))

    End of stroke

  2. ((b))

    Start of stroke

  3. ((c))

    Throughout the stroke

  4. ((d))

    Mid-stroke

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

End of stroke

198

Klein’s construction is used only when?

  1. ((a))

    Velocity of crank is zero

  2. ((b))

    Angular acceleration of crank is zero

  3. ((c))

    Velocity of slider is zero

  4. ((d))

    Acceleration of slider is zero

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Velocity of crank is zero

199

A governor is considered stable when:

  1. ((a))

    The sleeve moves upward with an increase in speed

  2. ((b))

    The sleeve moves downward with an increase in speed

  3. ((c))

    The height increases with speed

  4. ((d))

    The height remains constant

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The sleeve moves upward with an increase in speed

200

A cam rotates at 1200 rpm. If the follower rises in 90° of cam rotation, how much time is required for the rise?

  1. ((a))

    0.035 seconds

  2. ((b))

    0.025 seconds

  3. ((c))

    0.0125 seconds

  4. ((d))

    0.0425 seconds

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.035 seconds

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