Official Paper

SSC JE (Mechanical Engineering) Official Paper (Held On: 05 Dec, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

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General Intelligence and Reasoning (50 questions)

1

In the following, four roll numbers or centre codes are given. Three share a common pattern or belong to one group, but one is different. Select the odd one out.

220312, 220415, 220829, 240716

  1. ((a))

    220312

  2. ((b))

    220415

  3. ((c))

    220829

  4. ((d))

    240716

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

220312

2

In the following, four roll numbers or centre codes are given. Three share a common pattern or belong to one group, but one is different. Select the odd one out.

920325, 920512, 930213, 920419

  1. ((a))

    920325

  2. ((b))

    920512

  3. ((c))

    930213

  4. ((d))

    920419

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

920325

3

In the following, four roll numbers or centre codes are given. Three share a common pattern or belong to one group, but one is different. Select the odd one out.

701098, 700534, 700199, 900301

  1. ((a))

    701098

  2. ((b))

    700534

  3. ((c))

    700199

  4. ((d))

    900301

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

701098

4

Complete the analogy.

A : Z :: B : ?

  1. ((a))

    X

  2. ((b))

    W

  3. ((c))

    Y

  4. ((d))

    V

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

X

5

Complete the analogy.

DFH : HJL :: JLN : ?

  1. ((a))

    MPO

  2. ((b))

    NPT

  3. ((c))

    OQS

  4. ((d))

    NPR

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

MPO

6

Find the missing term in the series: B, C, E, H, L, ?

  1. ((a))

    M

  2. ((b))

    N

  3. ((c))

    O

  4. ((d))

    Q

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

M

7

Find the missing term in the series: AZ, BY, CX, DW, ?

  1. ((a))

    EV

  2. ((b))

    FU

  3. ((c))

    GV

  4. ((d))

    EW

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

EV

8

Find the missing term in the series: X-3, U-6, R-9, O-12, ?

  1. ((a))

    K-15

  2. ((b))

    L-15

  3. ((c))

    K-16

  4. ((d))

    L-16

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

K-15

9

Find the missing number in the series: 1, 8, 27, 64, ?

  1. ((a))

    72

  2. ((b))

    81

  3. ((c))

    100

  4. ((d))

    125

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

72

10

Find the missing number in the series: 2, 6, 12, 20, ?

  1. ((a))

    28

  2. ((b))

    30

  3. ((c))

    32

  4. ((d))

    34

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

28

11

Find the missing number in the series: 10, 15, 25, 45, ?

  1. ((a))

    75

  2. ((b))

    80

  3. ((c))

    85

  4. ((d))

    90

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

75

12

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others: Mercury, Venus, Pluto, Mars

  1. ((a))

    Mercury

  2. ((b))

    Venus

  3. ((c))

    Pluto

  4. ((d))

    Mars

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mercury

13

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others: Ozone, Carbon dioxide, Helium, Oxygen

  1. ((a))

    Ozone

  2. ((b))

    Carbon dioxide

  3. ((c))

    Helium

  4. ((d))

    Oxygen

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ozone

14

Complete the analogy.

5:25::6:?5 : 25 :: 6 : ?

  1. ((a))

    11

  2. ((b))

    30

  3. ((c))

    36

  4. ((d))

    18

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

11

15

Complete the analogy.

576 : 24 :: 1024 : ?

  1. ((a))

    30

  2. ((b))

    32

  3. ((c))

    28

  4. ((d))

    34

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30

16

Complete the analogy. 8128 : 496 :: 496 : ?

  1. ((a))

    28

  2. ((b))

    30

  3. ((c))

    24

  4. ((d))

    31

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

28

17

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others: 17, 27, 45, 81

  1. ((a))

    17

  2. ((b))

    27

  3. ((c))

    45

  4. ((d))

    81

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

17

18

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others:

125, 216, 343, 521

  1. ((a))

    125

  2. ((b))

    216

  3. ((c))

    343

  4. ((d))

    521

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

125

19

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others: 343, 512, 2197, 1331

  1. ((a))

    343

  2. ((b))

    512

  3. ((c))

    2197

  4. ((d))

    1331

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

343

20

Statement: "School will organise practical workshops for all science topics this term." Which assumption is implicit?

  1. ((a))

    Teachers are unhappy with the current curriculum

  2. ((b))

    Students dislike theory completely

  3. ((c))

    Practical learning improves understanding

  4. ((d))

    Exams will only have practical questions

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Teachers are unhappy with the current curriculum

21

Statement: "The government will ban burning of crop waste to reduce winter air pollution."

Which conclusion follows?

  1. ((a))

    All pollution is caused by farmers

  2. ((b))

    Crop burning is a major source of winter pollution

  3. ((c))

    Farmers have stopped growing certain crops

  4. ((d))

    Winter pollution will be completely eliminated

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

All pollution is caused by farmers

22

Statement: "All hospitals in the city will conduct free medical check-up camps during the festival week." Which conclusion follows?

  1. ((a))

    Authorities want more people to get health check-ups

  2. ((b))

    Hospitals will close after the festival week

  3. ((c))

    Patients will avoid check-ups at other times

  4. ((d))

    Only poor patients use free camps

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Authorities want more people to get health check-ups

23

Select the word that appears first in dictionary order: DRAW, DRAIN, DRAGON, DRAMA

  1. ((a))

    DRAGON

  2. ((b))

    DRAIN

  3. ((c))

    DRAMA

  4. ((d))

    DRAW

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

DRAGON

24

Which comes first in the dictionary? THANK, THINE, THIRD, THIRST?

  1. ((a))

    THANK

  2. ((b))

    THINE

  3. ((c))

    THIRD

  4. ((d))

    THIRST

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

THANK

25

Arrange as per dictionary order and select the word that comes third: TRAVEL, TRAVESTY, TRAVERSE, TRAVIS

  1. ((a))

    TRAVEL

  2. ((b))

    TRAVERSE

  3. ((c))

    TRAVESTY

  4. ((d))

    TRAVIS

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

TRAVEL

26

If in a code CAT=3120, then DOG=4157, then BAT=?

  1. ((a))

    2120

  2. ((b))

    2130

  3. ((c))

    3121

  4. ((d))

    2121

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2120

27

The average of 25, 35, and 45 is:

  1. ((a))

    30

  2. ((b))

    45

  3. ((c))

    40

  4. ((d))

    35

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30

28

Rearrange the letters R O T C A R T into a valid English word.

  1. ((a))

    TROCART

  2. ((b))

    CONTRACT

  3. ((c))

    TRACTOR

  4. ((d))

    CARTRON

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

TROCART

29

From the letters A R G N E M T, which valid word can be formed?

  1. ((a))

    MEGRANT

  2. ((b))

    GARMENT

  3. ((c))

    REMGNAT

  4. ((d))

    MARGENT

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

MEGRANT

30

In a team, women are assigned to less visible projects than men. What is a valid inference?

  1. ((a))

    Women choose less visible work

  2. ((b))

    Men are forced into visible projects

  3. ((c))

    Women face workplace bias

  4. ((d))

    Projects assigned randomly

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Women choose less visible work

31

Teachers from rural schools get fewer opportunities to attend educational seminars compared to urban school teachers of the same subjects.

Which inference is valid?

  1. ((a))

    Seminar selection favours urban staff

  2. ((b))

    Urban teachers are more capable

  3. ((c))

    Rural teachers are busier

  4. ((d))

    Urban schools have more students

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Seminar selection favours urban staff

32

Crop yield rose 2020% after introducing drip irrigation, with the same rainfall.

Which inference is valid?

  1. ((a))

    Fertiliser use increased

  2. ((b))

    Farmers worked longer hours

  3. ((c))

    Irrigation improved water use

  4. ((d))

    Crop variety changed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fertiliser use increased

33

You hear a rumour about a company merger. What is the best judgement?

  1. ((a))

    Accept it as fact

  2. ((b))

    Spread the rumour wider

  3. ((c))

    Ignore all news

  4. ((d))

    Check reliable sources

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Accept it as fact

34

A student’s attendance is 9898%, and test scores are consistently low.

Which is the fair judgement?

  1. ((a))

    Student is lazy

  2. ((b))

    Student struggles with understanding despite regularity

  3. ((c))

    Tests are too hard

  4. ((d))

    Student studies less

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Student is lazy

35

Employees worked 1010% more hours but output remained constant.

Which is the best conclusion?

  1. ((a))

    Machines slowed down

  2. ((b))

    Employees wasted time

  3. ((c))

    Output target reduced

  4. ((d))

    Work was inefficiently managed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Machines slowed down

36

If % multiplication, # = subtraction, =addition,and@=division,thenfind25 = addition, and @ = division, then find 25 % 2 # 8 10 @ 5.

  1. ((a))

    45

  2. ((b))

    44

  3. ((c))

    46

  4. ((d))

    43

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

45

37

If % = multiplication, $ = subtraction, * = addition, and # = division, then what is 15 % 3 $ 5 * 8 # 4?

  1. ((a))

    16

  2. ((b))

    18

  3. ((c))

    32

  4. ((d))

    42

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

16

38

If * = subtraction, % = addition, =multiplication,and@=division,thenfind48 = multiplication, and @ = division, then find 48 2 * 6 % 10 @ 5.

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    92

  3. ((c))

    81

  4. ((d))

    24

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20

39

A company’s profit decreased by 1515% each year from 200000. What will be the profit after four years?

  1. ((a))
    1. 25
  2. ((b))
    1. 25
  3. ((c))
    1. 25
  4. ((d))
    1. 25
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 25
40

The sales of a company in five years were 1500, 1650, 1815, 1996. 5, and 2196. 15 units. What is the expected sales in the seventh year?

  1. ((a))
    1. 25
  2. ((b))
    1. 35
  3. ((c))
    1. 34
  4. ((d))
    1. 74
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 25
41

Company expenses were 2,000, 2,200, 2,420, and 2,662 for four years. What is the estimated project expense of the sixth year?

  1. ((a))

    3200

  2. ((b))

    3221

  3. ((c))

    3500

  4. ((d))

    3250

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3200

42

A man said, "She is the wife of the only son of my father".

How is the woman related to the man?

  1. ((a))

    Sister

  2. ((b))

    Wife

  3. ((c))

    Mother

  4. ((d))

    Daughter

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sister

43

Pointing to a woman, Ritika said, "She is the wife of my brother’s father".

How is the woman related to Ritika?

  1. ((a))

    Cousin of Ritika

  2. ((b))

    Aunt of Ritika

  3. ((c))

    Sister of Ritika

  4. ((d))

    Mother of Ritika

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cousin of Ritika

44

A man spends ₹2400 from his ₹6000 salary. What percentage of salary is left?

  1. ((a))

    65%

  2. ((b))

    60%

  3. ((c))

    40%

  4. ((d))

    35%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

65%

45

A car’s value depreciates by 1010% annually. If its present value is ₹486,000\text{₹}486,000, what was its value 2 years ago?

  1. ((a))

    ₹6,00,000\text{₹}6,00,000

  2. ((b))

    ₹5,80,000\text{₹}5,80,000

  3. ((c))

    ₹5,90,000\text{₹}5,90,000

  4. ((d))

    ₹5,40,000\text{₹}5,40,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹6,00,000\text{₹}6,00,000

46

The average weight of 8 men increases by 1.5kg1.5 kg when one man weighing 65kg65 kg is replaced by a new man.

What is the weight of the new man?

  1. ((a))

    75 kg

  2. ((b))

    76 kg

  3. ((c))

    77 kg

  4. ((d))

    78 kg

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

75 kg

47

In the following question, two statements are followed by four conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read the conclusions carefully and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

<br>

Statements:

All trees are plants.

Some plants are flowers.

<br>

Conclusions:

A. All trees are flowers

B. Some flowers are trees

C. All plants are trees

D. Some trees are plants

  1. ((a))

    Only B

  2. ((b))

    Only A

  3. ((c))

    Only C

  4. ((d))

    Only D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only B

48

In the following question, two statements are followed by four conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read the conclusions carefully and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

Statements:

All keys are metal objects.

No metal object is edible.

Conclusions:

I. No key is edible

II. Some keys are edible

III. All edible things are keys

IV. Cannot say

  1. ((a))

    I only

  2. ((b))

    Both II and III

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II

  4. ((d))

    IV only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I only

49

Statements:

No books are gadgets.

Some gadgets are tools.

<br>

Which conclusion logically follows?

  1. ((a))

    Some books are tools

  2. ((b))

    All tools are gadgets

  3. ((c))

    Some tools are books

  4. ((d))

    Cannot say

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Some books are tools

50

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others: Cricket, Football, Chess, Reading

  1. ((a))

    Cricket

  2. ((b))

    Football

  3. ((c))

    Chess

  4. ((d))

    Reading

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cricket

General Awareness (50 questions)

51

The "human development as freedom" perspective, championed by Amartya Sen, argues for:

  1. ((a))

    Government control over individual choices.

  2. ((b))

    The expansion of people’s capabilities does not choose lives they value.

  3. ((c))

    The standardization of cultural values.

  4. ((d))

    The expansion of people’s capabilities to choose lives they value.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Government control over individual choices.

52

The collective ownership, the absence of consumer choice, and the absence of competition are all features of a ____ economy.

  1. ((a))

    socialist

  2. ((b))

    mixed

  3. ((c))

    free market

  4. ((d))

    capitalist

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

socialist

53

What kind of energy is mainly used to power satellites?

  1. ((a))

    Solar energy

  2. ((b))

    Wind energy

  3. ((c))

    Water energy

  4. ((d))

    Nuclear energy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Solar energy

54

What role does the ISRO-developed IRNSS system (now NAVIC) primarily serve?

  1. ((a))

    Deep-space tracking

  2. ((b))

    Geostationary weather monitoring

  3. ((c))

    Regional satellite navigation for India

  4. ((d))

    Satellite-based telephone services

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Deep-space tracking

55

What does the MUDRA Bank stand for?

  1. ((a))

    Macro Units Development and Reserve Agency

  2. ((b))

    Micro Units Development and Reserve Agency

  3. ((c))

    Macro Units Development and Refinance Agency

  4. ((d))

    Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Macro Units Development and Reserve Agency

56

In case of perfectly elastic demand, what is the value of elasticity?

  1. ((a))

    ∞\infty

  2. ((b))

    =1=1

  3. ((c))

    =0=0

  4. ((d))

    >1>1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

∞\infty

57

Which of the following is the additional cost incurred to produce an additional unit of a commodity?

  1. ((a))

    Average variable cost

  2. ((b))

    Average fixed cost

  3. ((c))

    Marginal cost

  4. ((d))

    Total cost

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Average variable cost

58

The battle of Talikota (1565 AD) led to the downfall of:

  1. ((a))

    Bahmani Sultanate

  2. ((b))

    Chalukyas

  3. ((c))

    Vijayanagara Empire

  4. ((d))

    Maratha Confederacy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bahmani Sultanate

59

The founder of the Sur dynasty who briefly ended Mughal rule in India was:

  1. ((a))

    Bairam Khan

  2. ((b))

    Ibrahim Lodi

  3. ((c))

    Sher Shah Suri

  4. ((d))

    Daulat Khan Lodi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bairam Khan

60

What is the eighth planet in the solar system?

  1. ((a))

    Neptune

  2. ((b))

    Saturn

  3. ((c))

    Pluto

  4. ((d))

    Uranus

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Neptune

61

The effect by which Earth became a layered planet is:

  1. ((a))

    Orbital differentiation

  2. ((b))

    Gravitational differentiation

  3. ((c))

    Tectonic differentiation

  4. ((d))

    Inversion differentiation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Orbital differentiation

62

Which article enables Parliament to form new states or alter the boundaries of existing states?

  1. ((a))

    Article 1

  2. ((b))

    Article 4

  3. ((c))

    Article 3

  4. ((d))

    Article 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 1

63

What is known as the surface of ice and snow on planet earth?

  1. ((a))

    Biosphere

  2. ((b))

    Cryosphere

  3. ((c))

    Atmosphere

  4. ((d))

    Stratosphere

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Biosphere

64

What is the SI unit of force?

  1. ((a))

    Watt

  2. ((b))

    Joule

  3. ((c))

    Newton

  4. ((d))

    Pascal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Watt

65

Which government initiative primarily focuses on improving the efficiency and sustainability of agricultural practices in India?

  1. ((a))

    Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN)

  2. ((b))

    Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana

  3. ((c))

    Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY)

  4. ((d))

    National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN)

66

The phenomenon of polarization proves that light is:

  1. ((a))

    A longitudinal wave

  2. ((b))

    A transverse wave

  3. ((c))

    Composed of particles

  4. ((d))

    A form of energy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A longitudinal wave

67

Entropy in a system refers to:

  1. ((a))

    Its potential energy

  2. ((b))

    Pressure variation

  3. ((c))

    Level of disorder or randomness

  4. ((d))

    Chemical composition

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Its potential energy

68

In which year did India win the Hockey World Cup?

  1. ((a))

    1971

  2. ((b))

    1975

  3. ((c))

    1982

  4. ((d))

    1986

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1971

69

Which Indian cricketer holds the record for the fastest double century in ODIs?

  1. ((a))

    Rohit Sharma

  2. ((b))

    Virender Sehwag

  3. ((c))

    Virat Kohli

  4. ((d))

    Ishan Kishan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rohit Sharma

70

The "Kalaripayattu" martial art, originating in Kerala, is known for its variations. Which specific style emphasizes weaponry over empty-hand techniques?

  1. ((a))

    Vadakkan Kalari

  2. ((b))

    Thekkan Kalari

  3. ((c))

    Tulunadan Kalari

  4. ((d))

    Madhya Kalari

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vadakkan Kalari

71

Which of the following architectural styles features the "Shikhara"?

  1. ((a))

    Dravidian

  2. ((b))

    Indo-Saracenic

  3. ((c))

    Nagara

  4. ((d))

    Gothic

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dravidian

72

Which of the following temples in Odisha is designed as a colossal chariot?

  1. ((a))

    Jagannath Temple

  2. ((b))

    Sun Temple, Konark

  3. ((c))

    Rajarani Temple

  4. ((d))

    Mukteswar Temple

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jagannath Temple

73

The Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) were established in which of the following Five-Year Plans to support rural banking?

  1. ((a))

    3rd Five-Year Plan

  2. ((b))

    4th Five-Year Plan

  3. ((c))

    5th Five-Year Plan

  4. ((d))

    6th Five-Year Plan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3rd Five-Year Plan

74

Which Indian author was awarded the Neustadt International Prize for Literature in 2012?

  1. ((a))

    Amitav Ghosh

  2. ((b))

    Rohinton Mistry

  3. ((c))

    Vinod Kumar Shukla

  4. ((d))

    Salman Rushdie

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Amitav Ghosh

75

Which of the following posed a significant obstacle to the effective execution of the Five-Year Plans?

  1. ((a))

    Systematic over-fulfillment of sectoral growth benchmarks

  2. ((b))

    Bureaucratic inefficiencies, resource constraints, and unforeseen external shocks

  3. ((c))

    Uninterrupted and efficient intergovernmental coordination

  4. ((d))

    Perfect alignment between private sector ambitions and planned economic goals

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Systematic over-fulfillment of sectoral growth benchmarks

76

Which Indian writer did NOT win the Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar in 2011?

  1. ((a))

    Debachand

  2. ((b))

    Gayatribala Panda

  3. ((c))

    Vikram Sampath

  4. ((d))

    Meena Kandasamy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Debachand

77

Which of the following most accurately characterizes the principal factor behind the establishment of integrated steel complexes such as Bhilai, Durgapur, and Rourkela during the Second Five-Year Plan?

  1. ((a))

    A surge in large-scale private sector investments facilitated by extensive government deregulation

  2. ((b))

    The execution of bilateral arrangements with both socialist and Western bloc nations to secure technical know-how and financial support for industrialization

  3. ((c))

    An explicit policy orientation towards fostering export-driven industries to augment foreign exchange reserves

  4. ((d))

    The existence of plentiful indigenous iron ore and coal reserves, combined with advanced domestic technological expertise

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A surge in large-scale private sector investments facilitated by extensive government deregulation

78

Krebs cycle is also known as _________.

  1. ((a))

    TCA

  2. ((b))

    C3

  3. ((c))

    C4

  4. ((d))

    CAM

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

TCA

79

What term is used when a Kabaddi raider scores three or more points in a single raid?

  1. ((a))

    Bonus Raid

  2. ((b))

    Super Raid

  3. ((c))

    Do-or-Die

  4. ((d))

    Chain Raid

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bonus Raid

80

In a light-dependent reaction, formation of _______ and _______ takes place.

  1. ((a))

    ATP ; NADPH

  2. ((b))

    ATP ; CO2CO_2

  3. ((c))

    NADPH ; CO2CO_2

  4. ((d))

    ATP ; H2OH_2O

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ATP ; NADPH

81

In which year did PV Sindhu win her first Olympic medal?

  1. ((a))

    2012

  2. ((b))

    2016

  3. ((c))

    2020

  4. ((d))

    2021

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2012

82

Which edition of the Commonwealth Games was the first to include para-sports as a fully integrated part of the program?

  1. ((a))

    1998 Kuala Lumpur

  2. ((b))

    2002 Manchester

  3. ((c))

    2010 Delhi

  4. ((d))

    2014 Glasgow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1998 Kuala Lumpur

83

Which of the following Indian classical dance forms is performed during the festival of Navratri in Gujarat?

  1. ((a))

    Kathak

  2. ((b))

    Garba

  3. ((c))

    Kuchipudi

  4. ((d))

    Bharatanatyam

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kathak

84

In which Indian state is the unique festival of Lai Haraoba celebrated for worshipping the ancient gods and goddesses of the Meitei community?

  1. ((a))

    Manipur

  2. ((b))

    Assam

  3. ((c))

    Nagaland

  4. ((d))

    Mizoram

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Manipur

85

The passing of the Indian Independence Act of 1947 led to:

  1. ((a))

    The complete integration of all princely states into India.

  2. ((b))

    The establishment of a unified and undivided India.

  3. ((c))

    The partition of British India into India and Pakistan.

  4. ((d))

    The continuation of British rule under a constitutional monarchy.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The complete integration of all princely states into India.

86

The "Universities Act" of 1904, enacted under Lord Curzon, had specific objectives concerning higher education in India. Which of the following best describes the primary aim of this Act?

  1. ((a))

    To promote mass literacy and expand primary education across India.

  2. ((b))

    To grant greater autonomy to Indian universities in their administration and curriculum.

  3. ((c))

    To bring universities under closer government control and regulate their functioning, citing concerns about standards and nationalist activities.

  4. ((d))

    To establish specialized institutions for technical and vocational training.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To promote mass literacy and expand primary education across India.

87

Which of the following sectors witnessed the greatest regulatory transformation during the post-1991 liberalization era, marked by the formation of independent regulators and the dismantling of state monopolies?

  1. ((a))

    Telecommunications

  2. ((b))

    Education

  3. ((c))

    Retail

  4. ((d))

    Health

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Telecommunications

88

Which institutional change during India’s 1991 reforms best illustrates the transition from state-controlled mechanisms to market-based regulation in the capital markets?

  1. ((a))

    Setting up of NABARD to oversee capital inflows into rural infrastructure

  2. ((b))

    Empowerment of SEBI as a statutory body with regulatory authority over stock exchanges

  3. ((c))

    The merger of UTI with SEBI to manage investor grievances in mutual funds

  4. ((d))

    Delegation of stock market oversight to the Ministry of Finance for centralized control

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Setting up of NABARD to oversee capital inflows into rural infrastructure

89

Which reform allows charge sheets and summons to be delivered electronically?

  1. ((a))

    Indian Evidence Act

  2. ((b))

    Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita

  3. ((c))

    Right to Information Act

  4. ((d))

    Consumer Protection Act

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Indian Evidence Act

90

Which famous Indian airline launched the world’s longest non-stop flight from India in 2023?

  1. ((a))

    Indigo

  2. ((b))

    Vistara

  3. ((c))

    Air India

  4. ((d))

    SpiceJet

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Indigo

91

Which state is known for the folk dance ’Mayil Attam’?

  1. ((a))

    Tamil Nadu

  2. ((b))

    Andhra Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Assam

  4. ((d))

    Uttar Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tamil Nadu

92

Which dance form from Punjab is known for its high-energy footwork, lively music, and colorful costumes, traditionally performed by men during harvest festivals?

  1. ((a))

    Giddha

  2. ((b))

    Bhangra

  3. ((c))

    Dandiya Raas

  4. ((d))

    Raslila

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Giddha

93

Which dance involves balancing a pot on the head and is performed in Tamil Nadu?

  1. ((a))

    Karagattam

  2. ((b))

    Kolattam

  3. ((c))

    Oyilattam

  4. ((d))

    Mayil Attam

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Karagattam

94

Which among the following is wrongly matched about Rig Vedic Gods?

  1. ((a))

    Soma - God of Plants

  2. ((b))

    Agni - God of Fire

  3. ((c))

    Varuna - God of Water

  4. ((d))

    Indra - God of Wisdom

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Soma - God of Plants

95

Which among the following is not a sacrifice ritual performed by the Later Vedic period kings to confer supreme power?

  1. ((a))

    Rajasuya

  2. ((b))

    Ashvamedha

  3. ((c))

    Brahmopadesha

  4. ((d))

    Vajapeya

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rajasuya

96

Match the following archaeological sites with their modern-day states.

Column A | Column B

  1. Dholavira | a. Haryana
  2. Rakhigarhi | b. Gujarat
  3. Kalibangan | c. Rajasthan
  4. Lothal | d. Gujarat
  1. ((a))

    1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d

  2. ((b))

    1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c

  3. ((c))

    1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b

  4. ((d))

    1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d

97

With reference to hydrogen as a fuel, consider the following statements:

  1. The first pilot project of the National Hydrogen Mission is based on green hydrogen.
  2. Hydrogen can potentially replace coal and coke in iron and steel production.
  3. Fuel cell electric vehicles (FCEVs) powered by hydrogen fuel produce no tailpipe emissions.

Which of the statements given above is/are CORRECT?

  1. ((a))

    2 only

  2. ((b))

    1 and 2 only

  3. ((c))

    2 and 3 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2, and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2 only

98

Which folk music style from Chhattisgarh narrates tales from the Mahabharata?

  1. ((a))

    Bhatiali

  2. ((b))

    Kolattam

  3. ((c))

    Ovi

  4. ((d))

    Pandavani

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bhatiali

99

Which type of folk music is performed during the Lai Haraoba festival in Manipur?

  1. ((a))

    Ghasivari Geet

  2. ((b))

    Heijing Hirao

  3. ((c))

    Rasiya

  4. ((d))

    Shakunakhhar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ghasivari Geet

100

What is the role of ’graha’ in the structure of a raga?

  1. ((a))

    It defines the scale

  2. ((b))

    It is the starting note of a phrase

  3. ((c))

    It is the ending note of a phrase

  4. ((d))

    It is a variant of the main note

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It defines the scale

Mechanical Engineering (100 questions)

101

Which component must resist the highest temperature in a gas turbine?

  1. ((a))

    Compressor blades

  2. ((b))

    Combustion chamber

  3. ((c))

    Turbine blades

  4. ((d))

    Air intake

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Compressor blades

102

What is the function of the intercooler in a multi-stage compressor?

  1. ((a))

    Increases delivery pressure

  2. ((b))

    Cools compressed air between stages

  3. ((c))

    Reduces inlet air temperature

  4. ((d))

    Increases compression ratio

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increases delivery pressure

103

What is SI engine performance most sensitive to?

  1. ((a))

    Injector timing

  2. ((b))

    Ignition timing

  3. ((c))

    Scavenging

  4. ((d))

    Fuel cetane number

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Injector timing

104

Where does the major energy input occur in a simple open-cycle gas turbine?

  1. ((a))

    Compressor

  2. ((b))

    Combustion chamber

  3. ((c))

    Turbine

  4. ((d))

    Exhaust nozzle

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Compressor

105

A gas turbine receives air at 1 bar and 300 K, compresses it isentropically to 5 bar. What is the final temperature? (γ=1.4\gamma = 1. 4)

  1. ((a))

    475 K

  2. ((b))

    630 K

  3. ((c))

    523 K

  4. ((d))

    579 K

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

475 K

106

Air at 6 bar and 800°C expands isentropically to 1 bar. Find exit temperature. (γ=1.4\gamma = 1. 4)

  1. ((a))

    310°C

  2. ((b))

    370°C

  3. ((c))

    423°C

  4. ((d))

    511°C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

310°C

107

The formula for the torque transmitted by a clutch, under uniform wear conditions, is given by:

  1. ((a))

    T=n×F×RT = n \times F \times R

  2. ((b))

    T=n×Q×RT = n \times Q \times R

  3. ((c))

    T=n×d×RT = n \times d \times R

  4. ((d))

    T=n×d×PT = n \times d \times P

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

T=n×F×RT = n \times F \times R

108

In a flat belt drive, the belt is subjected to a maximum tension (TT) and a centrifugal tension (TcT_c). What is the condition for the transmission of maximum power?

  1. ((a))

    T=TcT = T_c

  2. ((b))

    T=2TcT = 2T_c

  3. ((c))

    T=3TcT = 3T_c

  4. ((d))

    T=3TcT = \sqrt{3}T_c

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

T=TcT = T_c

109

A V-belt has a mass per unit length of 0. 10 kg/m and runs at a speed of 25 m/s. What is the centrifugal tension in the belt?

  1. ((a))
    1. 5 N
  2. ((b))
    1. 5 N
  3. ((c))

    80 N

  4. ((d))
    1. 5 N
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 5 N
110

A double-riveted lap joint is made between 15 mm15 \text{ mm}-thick plates. The rivet diameter and pitch are 25 mm25 \text{ mm} and 75 mm75 \text{ mm}, respectively. If the ultimate stresses are 400 MPa400 \text{ MPa} in tension, 320 MPa320 \text{ MPa} in shear, and 640 MPa640 \text{ MPa} in crushing, find the minimum force per pitch that will rupture the joint.

  1. ((a))

    400 kN400 \text{ kN}

  2. ((b))

    300 kN300 \text{ kN}

  3. ((c))

    500 kN500 \text{ kN}

  4. ((d))

    600 kN600 \text{ kN}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

400 kN400 \text{ kN}

111

What is the equivalent bending load on the rope?

  1. ((a))

    Wb=ob×A=Er×dw×DDWb = ob \times A = \frac{Er \times dw \times D}{D}

  2. ((b))

    Wb=ob×A=Er×dw×CDWb = ob \times A = \frac{Er \times dw \times C}{D}

  3. ((c))

    Wb=ob×A=Er×dw×ADWb = ob \times A = \frac{Er \times dw \times A}{D}

  4. ((d))

    Wb=ob×A=Er×dw×BDWb = ob \times A = \frac{Er \times dw \times B}{D}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Wb=ob×A=Er×dw×DDWb = ob \times A = \frac{Er \times dw \times D}{D}

112

What is the e×pression for the frictional torque transmitted by a conical pivot bearing under the assumption of uniform wear?

  1. ((a))

    μ\mu × W × R × cosec α\alpha

  2. ((b))

    32\frac{3}{2} × μ\mu × W × R × cosec α\alpha

  3. ((c))

    12\frac{1}{2} × μ\mu × W × R × cosec α\alpha

  4. ((d))

    14\frac{1}{4} × μ\mu × W × R × cosec α\alpha

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

μ\mu × W × R × cosec α\alpha

113

Sliding contact bearings are also known as:

  1. ((a))

    Sleeve bearings

  2. ((b))

    Plain bearings

  3. ((c))

    Antifriction bearings

  4. ((d))

    Thrust bearings

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sleeve bearings

114

The bearing characteristic number is given by:

  1. ((a))
    1. 5μ\muN/P
  2. ((b))

    μ\muN/P

  3. ((c))

    2μ\muN/P

  4. ((d))

    μ\muaN/P

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 5μ\muN/P
115

A footstep bearing with a radius of 0.30.3 m supports a vertical shaft rotating at 12001200 rpm under an axial load of 30003000 N. Assuming uniform pressure and a coefficient of friction of 0.20.2, determine the power lost due to friction.

  1. ((a))
    1. 072 kW
  2. ((b))
    1. 072 kW
  3. ((c))
    1. 072 kW
  4. ((d))
    1. 072 kW
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 072 kW
116

What is the efficiency value for a hand-made riveted lap joint?

  1. ((a))

    90%

  2. ((b))

    50-75%

  3. ((c))

    100%

  4. ((d))

    10-30%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

90%

117

Which component protects the compressor from damage due to liquid refrigerant?

  1. ((a))

    Thermostat

  2. ((b))

    Expansion valve

  3. ((c))

    Evaporator

  4. ((d))

    Accumulator

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Thermostat

118

Which of the following is a closed-loop refrigeration system?

  1. ((a))

    Icebox

  2. ((b))

    Vapour compression system

  3. ((c))

    Evaporative cooling system

  4. ((d))

    Window ventilation system

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Icebox

119

Which of the following assumptions is not part of the air-standard cycle analysis?

  1. ((a))

    Working fluid is air treated as an ideal gas

  2. ((b))

    Specific heats are temperature-dependent

  3. ((c))

    Compression and expansion are isentropic

  4. ((d))

    Cycle is closed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Working fluid is air treated as an ideal gas

120

The temperature at the end of isentropic compression in an Otto cycle increases with ______.

  1. ((a))

    Increase in compression ratio

  2. ((b))

    Decrease in compression ratio

  3. ((c))

    Increase in heat addition

  4. ((d))

    Increase in cut-off ratio

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increase in compression ratio

121

A Carnot engine receives 243 kJ of heat at 673 K and rejects it at 313 K. What is the change in entropy during the heat rejection process?

  1. ((a))
    1. 361 kJ/K
  2. ((b))
    1. 271 kJ/K
  3. ((c))
    1. 293 kJ/K
  4. ((d))
    1. 175 kJ/K
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 361 kJ/K
122

Which of the following statements correctly identifies the forces acting on a fluid element at rest and explains their balance under fluid-static (hydrostatic) conditions?

  1. ((a))

    Only pressure forces act, and inertial forces always balance them.

  2. ((b))

    Gravity acts as a body force, balanced by a gradient in pressure in the vertical direction.

  3. ((c))

    Viscous forces dominate and are balanced by buoyant forces.

  4. ((d))

    Surface tension acts in the bulk fluid and balances hydrostatic pressure.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only pressure forces act, and inertial forces always balance them.

123

Which of the following best describes the behavior of an ideal plastic fluid?

  1. ((a))

    It flows at all shear stresses with constant viscosity.

  2. ((b))

    It behaves like a solid below a certain yield stress and flows like a viscous fluid above it.

  3. ((c))

    It has no viscosity and cannot resist shear stress.

  4. ((d))

    It compresses under pressure and has a shear stress directly proportional to velocity.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It flows at all shear stresses with constant viscosity.

124

Consider two sealed containers, one filled with a liquid and the other with a gas, both initially at room temperature. The temperature of both containers is gradually increased. Which of the following best describes the expected trend in viscosity and the correct physical reasoning behind it?

  1. ((a))

    Viscosity of both liquid and gas decreases due to increased molecular spacing at higher temperatures.

  2. ((b))

    Viscosity of liquid increases while that of gas decreases due to enhanced cohesive forces and reduced molecular collisions.

  3. ((c))

    Viscosity of liquid decreases due to reduced intermolecular cohesion, while viscosity of gas increases due to increased momentum exchange between molecules.

  4. ((d))

    Viscosity of both liquid and gas increases due to increased kinetic energy and density with temperature.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Viscosity of both liquid and gas decreases due to increased molecular spacing at higher temperatures.

125

A fluid has a bulk modulus of elasticity K. If a small pressure increase ΔP\Delta P causes a fractional volume decrease ΔV/V\Delta V/V, which of the following statements is correct regarding compressibility and bulk modulus?

  1. ((a))

    Compressibility is defined as the ratio ΔP/(ΔV/V)\Delta P / (\Delta V/V) and is numerically equal to the bulk modulus.

  2. ((b))

    A high bulk modulus implies high compressibility, meaning the fluid volume changes significantly with pressure.

  3. ((c))

    Compressibility is the reciprocal of bulk modulus and represents the fluid’s resistance to deformation under pressure.

  4. ((d))

    A fluid with infinite bulk modulus is perfectly incompressible, as any finite pressure change results in zero volume change.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Compressibility is defined as the ratio ΔP/(ΔV/V)\Delta P / (\Delta V/V) and is numerically equal to the bulk modulus.

126

Which of the following is the correct SI unit of surface tension, and what does it physically represent?

  1. ((a))

    N/m2^2, representing force per unit volume

  2. ((b))

    N/m, representing force per unit length acting along a liquid surface

  3. ((c))

    J/kg, representing energy per unit mass

  4. ((d))

    N⋅\cdotm, representing torque due to surface interactions

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

N/m2^2, representing force per unit volume

127

Match the following phenomena with the corresponding fluid property involved:

Column A: Phenomena

A. Ink rising in a blotting paper

B. Resistance offered to flow in narrow tubes

C. Sudden collapse of bubbles near propeller blades

D. Perfect spherical shape of mercury droplets

E. Difficulty in pumping oil at low temperature

Column B: Fluid Properties

  1. Surface tension
  2. Viscosity
  3. Capillarity
  4. Vapour pressure
  5. Compressibility
  1. ((a))

    A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1, E-2

  2. ((b))

    A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4, E-5

  3. ((c))

    A-1, B-3, C-5, D-2, E-4

  4. ((d))

    A-5, B-4, C-2, D-3, E-1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1, E-2

128

Which taper turning method uses swiveling of the compound rest?

  1. ((a))

    Form tool method

  2. ((b))

    Tailstock offset

  3. ((c))

    Compound rest method

  4. ((d))

    Taper turning attachment

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Form tool method

129

In peripheral milling, cutting action occurs at:

  1. ((a))

    Cutter’s face

  2. ((b))

    Cutter’s circumference

  3. ((c))

    Cutter’s shank

  4. ((d))

    Cutter arbor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cutter’s face

130

A pressure gauge connected to a vessel shows a gauge pressure of −0.3-0.3 bar (vacuum). If the atmospheric pressure is 1.01.0 bar, what is the absolute pressure inside the vessel?

  1. ((a))
    1. 3 bar
  2. ((b))
    1. 7 bar
  3. ((c))
    1. 3 bar
  4. ((d))

    -0.3 bar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 3 bar
131

Euler’s equation of motion in fluid mechanics represents:

  1. ((a))

    The principle of energy conservation in a moving fluid

  2. ((b))

    The momentum conservation law applied to an inviscid fluid element

  3. ((c))

    The momentum conservation principle restricted to incompressible flows

  4. ((d))

    The momentum conservation law applied to a viscous (real) fluid

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The principle of energy conservation in a moving fluid

132

______ is the example of multipoint tool.

  1. ((a))

    Milling cutters

  2. ((b))

    Welding torch

  3. ((c))

    Casting

  4. ((d))

    Forging

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Milling cutters

133

Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes between laminar flow and turbulent flow in a pipe?

  1. ((a))

    Laminar flow is characterized by smooth, orderly motion; turbulent flow is chaotic with eddies and vortices.

  2. ((b))

    Laminar flow occurs at high Reynolds number; turbulent flow occurs at low Reynolds number.

  3. ((c))

    In laminar flow, fluid particles move randomly, whereas in turbulent flow, they move in parallel layers.

  4. ((d))

    In turbulent flow, viscous forces dominate over inertial forces.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Laminar flow is characterized by smooth, orderly motion; turbulent flow is chaotic with eddies and vortices.

134

If a liquid-filled container is moving vertically downward with constant acceleration "aa", then which of the following is correct?

  1. ((a))

    Pressure at any point is higher than hydrostatic pressure.

  2. ((b))

    Pressure at any point is equal to atmospheric pressure.

  3. ((c))

    Pressure at a point at depth hh is given by p=p0+pghp=p_{0}+pgh

  4. ((d))

    Pressure at a depth hh is less than hydrostatic pressure due to reduced effective gravity.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pressure at any point is higher than hydrostatic pressure.

135

Slotting vertical surfaces requires:

  1. ((a))

    Lower feed per stroke

  2. ((b))

    Use of swarf breaker

  3. ((c))

    Vertical orientation of tool

  4. ((d))

    High lubricant usage

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lower feed per stroke

136

Dressing a grinding wheel restores cutting efficiency by:

  1. ((a))

    Reducing abrasive grain size

  2. ((b))

    Exposing new abrasive grains

  3. ((c))

    Filling pores with bond

  4. ((d))

    Hardening wheel material

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Reducing abrasive grain size

137

Rotational flow is characterized by which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    Fluid particles rotating about their own axis

  2. ((b))

    Fluid particles follow curved streamlines only

  3. ((c))

    No change in velocity direction

  4. ((d))

    Zero angular velocity

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fluid particles rotating about their own axis

138

In orthogonal cutting, the friction angle β\beta increases with tool wear because:

  1. ((a))

    Shear plane becomes shorter

  2. ((b))

    Chip formation becomes unstable

  3. ((c))

    Contact zone increases

  4. ((d))

    Rake angle increases

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Shear plane becomes shorter

139

Which type of drilling machine is commonly used in workshops?

  1. ((a))

    Radial

  2. ((b))

    Gang

  3. ((c))

    Portable

  4. ((d))

    Bench

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Radial

140

The drilling machine gets power through:

  1. ((a))

    Foot pedal

  2. ((b))

    Hydraulic pump

  3. ((c))

    Electric motor

  4. ((d))

    Air pump

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Foot pedal

141

From the following options, choose what a grinding wheel is made from.

  1. ((a))

    Wood

  2. ((b))

    Abrasive particles

  3. ((c))

    Cast iron

  4. ((d))

    Copper

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Wood

142

In which of the following is centerless grinding used for?

  1. ((a))

    Gear cutting

  2. ((b))

    Welding

  3. ((c))

    Cylindrical jobs

  4. ((d))

    Boring

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gear cutting

143

The grade of a grinding wheel refers to:

  1. ((a))

    Abrasive size

  2. ((b))

    Wheel size

  3. ((c))

    Bond strength

  4. ((d))

    Wheel color

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Abrasive size

144

In a two-dimensional incompressible steady flow, at what angle do the streamlines and equipotential lines intersect?

  1. ((a))

    0∘^\circ

  2. ((b))

    90∘^\circ

  3. ((c))

    45∘^\circ

  4. ((d))

    180∘^\circ

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0∘^\circ

145

Which property must a metal possess to undergo extrusion effectively?

  1. ((a))

    Low Plasticity

  2. ((b))

    High Strain Hardening

  3. ((c))

    High Plasticity

  4. ((d))

    More Toughness

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Low Plasticity

146

Magnetic forming is an example of which process?

  1. ((a))

    Cold forming

  2. ((b))

    Hot forming

  3. ((c))

    Roll forming

  4. ((d))

    High energy rate forming

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cold forming

147

Arc blow occurs due to which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    Excessive welding speed

  2. ((b))

    Magnetic field around the electrode

  3. ((c))

    Improper joint fit-up

  4. ((d))

    Excessive shielding gas flow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Excessive welding speed

148

Choose the correct carbon percentage range for high-speed steel from the given options.

  1. ((a))
    1. 6 - 1. 0%
  2. ((b))

    2 - 4%

  3. ((c))

    4 - 6%

  4. ((d))

    6 - 10%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 6 - 1. 0%
149

Which of these is NOT a tool used in a foundry?

  1. ((a))

    Arbor

  2. ((b))

    Trowel

  3. ((c))

    Slick

  4. ((d))

    Riddle

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Arbor

150

Through what is the globular form of cementite in the structure of steel obtained?

  1. ((a))

    Normalizing

  2. ((b))

    Malleablizing

  3. ((c))

    Spheroidizing

  4. ((d))

    Carbonizing

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Normalizing

151

During hot extrusion of steel, billets are typically heated to a temperature range of approximately:

  1. ((a))

    700 - 950∘^\circC

  2. ((b))

    1100 - 1200∘^\circC

  3. ((c))

    1250 - 1400∘^\circC

  4. ((d))

    1450 - 1680∘^\circC

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

700 - 950∘^\circC

152

Which of the following methods can be used to enhance directional solidification in casting?

  1. ((a))

    Chills and chaplets

  2. ((b))

    Chills and padding

  3. ((c))

    Chaplets and padding

  4. ((d))

    Chills, chaplets, and padding

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chills and chaplets

153

Assertion (A): Cold working increases the strength and hardness of metals. Reason (R): This is because cold working decreases the total number of dislocations per unit volume in the material.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are true, and R is not a correct explanation of A.

  3. ((c))

    A is true but R is false.

  4. ((d))

    A is false but R is true.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

154

Which of the following statements are correct when comparing cold working to hot working?

  1. Higher forces are required
  2. No heating is needed
  3. Less ductility is required
  4. A better surface finish is achieved
  1. ((a))

    1, 2 and 3

  2. ((b))

    1, 2 and 4

  3. ((c))

    1 and 3

  4. ((d))

    2, 3 and 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1, 2 and 3

155

Which of the following materials is most suitable for constructing base structures in machinery to achieve effective vibration damping?

  1. ((a))

    Low carbon steel

  2. ((b))

    Nodular iron

  3. ((c))

    Grey cast iron

  4. ((d))

    White cast iron

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Low carbon steel

156

Steam tables are primarily used to determine thermodynamic properties of which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    Ideal gases

  2. ((b))

    Perfect liquids

  3. ((c))

    Real gas properties of water and steam

  4. ((d))

    Only superheated vapors

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ideal gases

157

At the critical point of a pure substance, which of the following statements is true?

  1. ((a))

    Latent heat of vaporisation becomes infinity

  2. ((b))

    Latent heat of vaporisation is finite on non-zero

  3. ((c))

    Enthalpy becomes zero

  4. ((d))

    Properties of saturated liquid and vapor become identical

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Latent heat of vaporisation becomes infinity

158

In the case of an ideal gas, the internal energy primarily depends on which of the following properties?

  1. ((a))

    Temperature only

  2. ((b))

    Volume only

  3. ((c))

    Pressure only

  4. ((d))

    Density only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Temperature only

159

What defines the thermodynamic direction of a natural process in terms of entropy?

  1. ((a))

    Increase in enthalpy

  2. ((b))

    Decrease in temperature

  3. ((c))

    Increase in entropy of isolated system

  4. ((d))

    Increase in Gibbs free energy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increase in enthalpy

160

What does the Second Law of Thermodynamics imply about refrigeration systems?

  1. ((a))

    They can operate with zero work input

  2. ((b))

    They must transfer heat from a hot body to a cold one

  3. ((c))

    They must consume work to extract heat from cold body

  4. ((d))

    They violate the First Law of Thermodynamics

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

They can operate with zero work input

161

What does entropy generation represent physically in a thermodynamic system?

  1. ((a))

    Energy added to the system

  2. ((b))

    Irrecoverable loss in work potential

  3. ((c))

    Increase in internal energy

  4. ((d))

    Phase transformation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Energy added to the system

162

For a Francis turbine, the condition for maximum hydraulic efficiency is met when:

  1. ((a))

    The runner blade tips are radial at the outlet

  2. ((b))

    The guide vanes are set at an angle of 90∘90^{\circ}

  3. ((c))

    The absolute velocity of water is radial at the runner outlet

  4. ((d))

    The relative velocity of water is radial at the runner outlet

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The runner blade tips are radial at the outlet

163

In a reaction turbine, the primary function of the draft tube is to:

  1. ((a))

    Prevent air from being drawn into the turbine

  2. ((b))

    Recover kinetic energy by converting it into pressure energy

  3. ((c))

    Increase the rate of water flow through the turbine

  4. ((d))

    Remove eddies formed in the downstream flow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Prevent air from being drawn into the turbine

164

Identify the pump type from the options given below that does not operate on the positive displacement principle:

  1. ((a))

    Centrifugal pump

  2. ((b))

    Reciprocating pump

  3. ((c))

    Lobe pump

  4. ((d))

    Vane pump

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Centrifugal pump

165

An alternator with 12 poles is coupled to a Francis turbine for power generation at a frequency of 50 Hz50 \text{ Hz}. Determine the constant operating speed of the turbine from the options below:

  1. ((a))

    600 rpm

  2. ((b))

    250 rpm

  3. ((c))

    1000 rpm

  4. ((d))

    500 rpm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

600 rpm

166

Which of the following gives the correct dimensional formula for the specific speed of a turbine?

  1. ((a))

    F1/2L−3/4T−3/2F^{1/2} L^{-3/4} T^{-3/2}

  2. ((b))

    F1/2L−5/2T−3/2F^{1/2} L^{-5/2} T^{-3/2}

  3. ((c))

    F3/2L−3/2T−3/2F^{3/2} L^{-3/2} T^{-3/2}

  4. ((d))

    F3/2L−3/4T−3/2F^{3/2} L^{-3/4} T^{-3/2}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

F1/2L−3/4T−3/2F^{1/2} L^{-3/4} T^{-3/2}

167

According to Newton’s Second Law of Motion (where m = mass, a = acceleration, v = velocity), which equation correctly represents the law?

  1. ((a))

    Force = mama

  2. ((b))

    Force = mvmv

  3. ((c))

    Force = ma\frac{m}{a}

  4. ((d))

    Force= vm\frac{v}{m}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Force = mama

168

Which force is a contact force?

  1. ((a))

    Friction force

  2. ((b))

    Magnetic force

  3. ((c))

    Gravity force

  4. ((d))

    Electrostatic force

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Friction force

169

When a body is moving on a surface, the force of friction acting on it is called ________ friction.

  1. ((a))

    Static

  2. ((b))

    Dynamic

  3. ((c))

    Limiting

  4. ((d))

    Rolling

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Static

170

The cavitation parameter σ\sigma of a centrifugal pump is mathematically expressed in terms of the Net Positive Suction Head (NPSH) and the net head (H). Which of the following formulas is correct?

  1. ((a))

    NPSH / H

  2. ((b))

    NPSH / H\sqrt{H}

  3. ((c))

    NPSH / H3/2H^{3/2}

  4. ((d))

    NPSH / H2H^{2}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

NPSH / H

171

In the case of a centrifugal pump, which of the following statements is correct?

  1. ((a))

    The pressure rise in the diffuser section is higher than that produced in the impeller

  2. ((b))

    The slip factor is lowest when the impeller vanes are radial

  3. ((c))

    In multistage pumping, the discharge in series connection is multiplied by the number of stages

  4. ((d))

    The discharge of the pump is inversely proportional to its operating speed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The pressure rise in the diffuser section is higher than that produced in the impeller

172

From the following, pick the statement that does not hold true about hydraulic turbines:

  1. ((a))

    Specific speed is highest for propeller, followed by Francis, then Pelton

  2. ((b))

    Bulb turbine is a type of Kaplan turbine

  3. ((c))

    Slow runner turbines have a degree of reaction >50> 50%

  4. ((d))

    A turbine with 100100% reaction will not transfer any energy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Specific speed is highest for propeller, followed by Francis, then Pelton

173

Which mathematical condition is used to find the centre of gravity of a body using the principle of moments?

  1. ((a))

    Total area =0= 0

  2. ((b))

    Σ\Sigma (Moment of weights) =0= 0

  3. ((c))

    X=Σ(W×xi)ΣWX = \frac{\Sigma(W \times x_i)}{\Sigma W}

  4. ((d))

    ΣForce=mass×acceleration\Sigma \text{Force} = \text{mass} \times \text{acceleration}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Total area =0= 0

174

Supporting a rigid body exactly under its centre of gravity helps in which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    Making it deform

  2. ((b))

    Balancing it in equilibrium

  3. ((c))

    Increasing its weight

  4. ((d))

    Rotating the body faster

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Making it deform

175

Which of the following statements is true about a couple moment and a force moment?

  1. ((a))

    Both depend on the point of reference

  2. ((b))

    Only a couple moment depends on the point of reference

  3. ((c))

    Both are independent of the reference point

  4. ((d))

    A couple moment is independent, but a force moment depends on the point

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both depend on the point of reference

176

What does the location of a centroid primarily depend on?

  1. ((a))

    Mass only

  2. ((b))

    Shape

  3. ((c))

    Weight only

  4. ((d))

    Volume only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mass only

177

Two bodies have masses of 3 kg3 \text{ kg} and 5 kg5 \text{ kg}, moving with velocities of 4 m/s4 \text{ m/s} and 6 m/s6 \text{ m/s}, respectively, in the same direction. What is the total momentum of the system in kg⋅m/s\text{kg}\cdot\text{m/s}?

  1. ((a))

    38

  2. ((b))

    42

  3. ((c))

    48

  4. ((d))

    50

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

38

178

If a constant force is applied to a body, which of the following must be true?

  1. ((a))

    The body must move with constant velocity

  2. ((b))

    The acceleration of the body must be constant

  3. ((c))

    The velocity of the body remains constant

  4. ((d))

    The body remains at rest

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The body must move with constant velocity

179

If a man pulls a 20kg20 kg square box with a force of 100N100 N and it accelerates at 2m/s22 m/s^2 in the direction of the force, what are the coefficient of friction and the type of friction acting on the box?

  1. ((a))

    0.310.31, Static friction

  2. ((b))

    0.260.26, Static friction

  3. ((c))

    0.260.26, Kinetic friction

  4. ((d))

    0.310.31, Kinetic friction

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.310.31, Static friction

180

What is toughness in materials?

  1. ((a))

    The property of a material that prevents it from regaining its original shape and size after the removal of external loads.

  2. ((b))

    The property of a material that allows it to be extended in two directions or drawn into thin sheets.

  3. ((c))

    The property of a material that doesn’t allow any deformation before failure under external forces.

  4. ((d))

    The property of a material to resist sudden or shock loads without fracturing.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The property of a material that prevents it from regaining its original shape and size after the removal of external loads.

181

Which of the following is commonly used as a material for manufacturing shafts?

  1. ((a))

    Copper

  2. ((b))

    Titanium

  3. ((c))

    Cast iron

  4. ((d))

    Steel having approximately 0.40.4% carbon and 0.80.8% manganese

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Copper

182

For a thin cylinder, if the internal pressure is doubled, the hoop stress:

  1. ((a))

    Doubles

  2. ((b))

    Halves

  3. ((c))

    4 times

  4. ((d))

    6 times

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Doubles

183

Shear force at a section of a beam is:

  1. ((a))

    Algebraic sum of horizontal forces (axial loads)

  2. ((b))

    Algebraic sum of vertical forces (transverse loads)

  3. ((c))

    Algebraic sum of moments

  4. ((d))

    Sum of all forces

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Algebraic sum of horizontal forces (axial loads)

184

What is the point of inflection?

  1. ((a))

    The section at which the bending moment is zero or changes its sign.

  2. ((b))

    The section at which the bending moment is non zero.

  3. ((c))

    The section where the bending moment is maximum.

  4. ((d))

    The section where the bending moment is minimum.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The section at which the bending moment is zero or changes its sign.

185

A solid circular shaft is subjected to a bending moment MM and a twisting moment TT. What is the equivalent twisting moment TeTe, that will produce the same maximum shear stress as the combination?

  1. ((a))

    M+TM+T

  2. ((b))

    M2+T2M^2 + T^2

  3. ((c))

    M−TM-T

  4. ((d))

    M2+T2\sqrt{M^2 + T^2}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

M+TM+T

186

What is the correct formula for hoop strain (ϵH\epsilon_H) in thin-walled cylindrical pressure vessels? where σh\sigma_h is the hoop stress, σL\sigma_L is the longitudinal stress, μ\mu is Poisson’s ratio, and E is the elastic modulus of the material

  1. ((a))

    ϵH=13E[σh−μσL]\epsilon_H = \frac{1}{3E} [\sigma_h - \mu\sigma_L]

  2. ((b))

    ϵH=15E[σh−μσL]\epsilon_H = \frac{1}{5E} [\sigma_h - \mu\sigma_L]

  3. ((c))

    ϵH=1E[σh−μσL]\epsilon_H = \frac{1}{E} [\sigma_h - \mu\sigma_L]

  4. ((d))

    ϵH=12E[σh−μσL]\epsilon_H = \frac{1}{2E} [\sigma_h - \mu\sigma_L]

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ϵH=13E[σh−μσL]\epsilon_H = \frac{1}{3E} [\sigma_h - \mu\sigma_L]

187

If a material has a Poisson’s ratio of 0. 25 and a Young’s modulus of 70 GPa, what is its shear modulus?

  1. ((a))

    38 GPa

  2. ((b))

    48 GPa

  3. ((c))

    28 GPa

  4. ((d))

    18 GPa

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

38 GPa

188

If the modulus of elasticity E=206 GPa206 \text{ GPa} and the shear modulus G=78 GPa78 \text{ GPa}, determine the Poisson’s ratio μ\mu and the corresponding bulk modulus K of the material.

  1. ((a))
    1. 15, 170.74 GPa170.74 \text{ GPa}.
  2. ((b))
    1. 15, 160.74 GPa160.74 \text{ GPa}.
  3. ((c))
    1. 32, 180.74 GPa180.74 \text{ GPa}.
  4. ((d))
    1. 32, 190.74 GPa190.74 \text{ GPa}.
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 15, 170.74 GPa170.74 \text{ GPa}.
189

A mild steel wire is 5 mm5\text{ mm} in diameter and 1 m1\text{ m} long. If it is subjected to an axial tensile load of 10 kN10\text{ kN}, what is the extension of the wire?(Given: Young’s Modulus E=200 GPaE=200\text{ GPa})

  1. ((a))

    6.55 mm6.55\text{ mm}

  2. ((b))

    4.55 mm4.55\text{ mm}

  3. ((c))

    2.55 mm2.55\text{ mm}

  4. ((d))

    3.55 mm3.55\text{ mm}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6.55 mm6.55\text{ mm}

190

A cantilever beam of length 4 m carries a point load of 5 kN at its free end. What is the bending moment at the fixed end?

  1. ((a))

    30 kNm

  2. ((b))

    20 kNm

  3. ((c))

    40 kNm

  4. ((d))

    50 kNm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30 kNm

191

The ratio of diameter of gear to number of teeth is known as:

  1. ((a))

    Circular pitch

  2. ((b))

    Diametric pitch

  3. ((c))

    Module

  4. ((d))

    Addendum

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Circular pitch

192

When two equal gears (having equal teeth) connect two shafts whose axes are mutually perpendicular, then the gears are known as:

  1. ((a))

    Spur gear

  2. ((b))

    Mitre gear

  3. ((c))

    Helical gear

  4. ((d))

    Spiral gear

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Spur gear

193

Which one of the following governors is NOT controlled by a spring?

  1. ((a))

    Hartnell Governor

  2. ((b))

    Pickering Governor

  3. ((c))

    Hartung Governor

  4. ((d))

    Watt Governor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hartnell Governor

194

The size of a cam depends on:

  1. ((a))

    Pitch curve

  2. ((b))

    Prime circle

  3. ((c))

    Pitch circle

  4. ((d))

    Base circle

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pitch curve

195

In which type of gear are the teeth straight and parallel to the axis of rotation?

  1. ((a))

    Spur gear

  2. ((b))

    Bevel gear

  3. ((c))

    Helical gear

  4. ((d))

    Spiral gear

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Spur gear

196

What are the standard pressure angles used in involute gears?

  1. ((a))

    10∘^{\circ} and 15∘^{\circ}

  2. ((b))

    15∘^{\circ} and 25∘^{\circ}

  3. ((c))

    20∘^{\circ} and 25∘^{\circ}

  4. ((d))
    1. 5∘^{\circ} and 20∘^{\circ}
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10∘^{\circ} and 15∘^{\circ}

197

Which of the following is a spring-controlled governor?

  1. ((a))

    Porter governor

  2. ((b))

    Watt governor

  3. ((c))

    Hartnell governor

  4. ((d))

    Proell governor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Porter governor

198

Which type of gear train has two degrees of freedom?

  1. ((a))

    Simple gear train

  2. ((b))

    Compound gear train

  3. ((c))

    Epicyclic gear train

  4. ((d))

    Reverted gear train

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Simple gear train

199

A gear train in which the axes of the shafts carrying the gears move relative to a fixed axis is known as:

  1. ((a))

    Simple gear train

  2. ((b))

    Epicyclic gear train

  3. ((c))

    Reverted gear train

  4. ((d))

    Compound gear train

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Simple gear train

200

Offset is provided in a cam follower mechanism to:

  1. ((a))

    Achieve high efficiency

  2. ((b))

    Avoid jerk

  3. ((c))

    Increase acceleration

  4. ((d))

    Minimize side thrust

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Achieve high efficiency

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