Official Paper

SSC JE (Mechanical Engineering) Official Paper (Held On: 04 Dec, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

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General Intelligence and Reasoning (50 questions)

1

In the following, four roll numbers or centre codes are given. Three share a common pattern or belong to one group, but one is different. Select the odd one out.

220112, 240213, 220406, 220519

  1. ((a))

    220112

  2. ((b))

    240213

  3. ((c))

    220406

  4. ((d))

    220519

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

220112

2

In the following, four roll numbers or centre codes are given. Three share a common pattern or belong to one group, but one is different. Select the odd one out.

540205, 540908, 551214, 540603

  1. ((a))

    540205

  2. ((b))

    540908

  3. ((c))

    551214

  4. ((d))

    540603

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

540205

3

Complete the analogy.

G : K :: M : ?

  1. ((a))

    O

  2. ((b))

    R

  3. ((c))

    P

  4. ((d))

    Q

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

O

4

Complete the analogy.

QRS : NOP :: DEF : ?

  1. ((a))

    BKL

  2. ((b))

    ABC

  3. ((c))

    BCD

  4. ((d))

    IJK

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

BKL

5

Complete the analogy.

FJNR : LPSX :: EHQS : ?

  1. ((a))

    KNUY

  2. ((b))

    KOWY

  3. ((c))

    KNVY

  4. ((d))

    KORY

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

KNUY

6

Find the missing term in the series: M, K, I, G, ?

  1. ((a))

    F

  2. ((b))

    H

  3. ((c))

    E

  4. ((d))

    J

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

F

7

Find the missing term in the series:

E, J, O, T, ?

  1. ((a))

    V

  2. ((b))

    W

  3. ((c))

    X

  4. ((d))

    Y

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

V

8

Find the missing number in the series:

100, 90, 80, 70, ?

  1. ((a))

    60

  2. ((b))

    65

  3. ((c))

    75

  4. ((d))

    50

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

60

9

Find the missing number in the series:

2, 3, 5, 8, 13, ?

  1. ((a))

    18

  2. ((b))

    25

  3. ((c))

    23

  4. ((d))

    21

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

18

10

Find the missing number in the series:

2, 6, 15, 31,  ?

  1. ((a))

    50

  2. ((b))

    54

  3. ((c))

    56

  4. ((d))

    58

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50

11

Complete the analogy.

Marathon : Race :: Hibernation : ?

  1. ((a))

    Sleeping

  2. ((b))

    Running

  3. ((c))

    Dream

  4. ((d))

    Inactivity

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sleeping

12

Complete the analogy.

Photosynthesis : Chlorophyll :: Hearing : ?

  1. ((a))

    Bone

  2. ((b))

    Cochlea

  3. ((c))

    Voice

  4. ((d))

    Eardrum

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bone

13

Find the odd one out in the given semantic series based on the pattern identified.

Uncle, Sister, Aunt, Cousin

  1. ((a))

    Uncle

  2. ((b))

    Sister

  3. ((c))

    Aunt

  4. ((d))

    Cousin

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Uncle

14

Four people, M, N, O, and P, live on floors 1-4. M is just above N; O is just below P; N is not on floor 1.

Who lives on floor 3?

  1. ((a))

    N

  2. ((b))

    M

  3. ((c))

    O

  4. ((d))

    P

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

N

15

In a certain code, CREATE is written as DQFZUD.

How is SCHOOL coded?

  1. ((a))

    TIDPMM

  2. ((b))

    TBINPK

  3. ((c))

    TIDPLL

  4. ((d))

    TIDPML

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

TIDPMM

16

If PENCIL is coded as QDOBJK, then how is ERASER coded?

  1. ((a))

    FQBQFQ

  2. ((b))

    FQBQFR

  3. ((c))

    FQBRFQ

  4. ((d))

    FQBQEQ

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

FQBQFQ

17

A sudden spike in hospital visits for food poisoning is reported.

What could be the probable cause?

  1. ((a))

    A major festival with food stalls was recently held

  2. ((b))

    People have started cooking at home more

  3. ((c))

    Restaurants reduced their menu prices

  4. ((d))

    Demand for salads has decreased

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A major festival with food stalls was recently held

18

Four people - T, A, L, and M - visited a city in August on 2, 9, 16, and 23. A did not go at the earliest or latest. M travelled immediately before L. L did not go on the 23rd.

Which person travelled on the 9th?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    L

  3. ((c))

    T

  4. ((d))

    M

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

19

Four students - Nisha, Pratap, Ria, and Simran - travelled to four science labs on June 5th, 10th, 15th, and 20th. Simran went just before Ria. Pratap after Nisha. Simran did not go on the 10th or 15th.

Who went on the 10th?

  1. ((a))

    Simran

  2. ((b))

    Ria

  3. ((c))

    Nisha

  4. ((d))

    Pratap

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Simran

20

A teammate’s idea is not selected.

What’s the best thing to say?

  1. ((a))

    "Your idea was useless"

  2. ((b))

    "It was good, maybe next time"

  3. ((c))

    "Mine was better"

  4. ((d))

    Ignore them

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

"Your idea was useless"

21

During a team task, two members frequently disagree and meetings become unproductive.

What high emotional intelligence approach enhances team function?

  1. ((a))

    Alternate leadership roles and set ground rules for communication

  2. ((b))

    Ignore disagreements and focus on deliverables

  3. ((c))

    Assign one member an extra workload

  4. ((d))

    Remove both members from future meetings

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Alternate leadership roles and set ground rules for communication

22

Arrange as in a dictionary and select the word that comes first:

TABLE, TAB, TABBY, TACKLE

  1. ((a))

    TAB

  2. ((b))

    TABBY

  3. ((c))

    TABLE

  4. ((d))

    TACKLE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

TAB

23

Find the word first in the dictionary:

STONE, STONY, STOP, STORK

  1. ((a))

    STONE

  2. ((b))

    STONY

  3. ((c))

    STOP

  4. ((d))

    STORK

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

STONE

24

Which number will replace the question mark?

4, 9, 19, 39, ?

  1. ((a))

    49

  2. ((b))

    59

  3. ((c))

    69

  4. ((d))

    79

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

49

25

Find the next number: 7, 14, 28, 56, ?

  1. ((a))

    84

  2. ((b))

    100

  3. ((c))

    112

  4. ((d))

    128

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

84

26

A trader marks his goods at 4040% above cost and gives a discount of 1010%.

His profit percent is:

  1. ((a))

    26%

  2. ((b))

    27%

  3. ((c))

    28%

  4. ((d))

    30%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

26%

27

If you forget someone’s name in conversation, the best recovery is:

  1. ((a))

    Avoid using their name

  2. ((b))

    End the conversation quickly

  3. ((c))

    Guess the name

  4. ((d))

    Politely ask them to repeat it

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Avoid using their name

28

Rearrange T E N A N C E into an English word.

  1. ((a))

    CANTEEN

  2. ((b))

    ENACTNE

  3. ((c))

    ANNCEET

  4. ((d))

    NACTENE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CANTEEN

29

Rearrange the letters O M E R D A into a valid English word.

  1. ((a))

    MOARED

  2. ((b))

    ROAMED

  3. ((c))

    DEMARO

  4. ((d))

    DOREAM

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

MOARED

30

You’re leading a team and a member makes repeated minor mistakes.

What is the best decision?

  1. ((a))

    Report to HR at once

  2. ((b))

    Ignore mistakes

  3. ((c))

    Offer guidance and training

  4. ((d))

    Remove them from the project

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Report to HR at once

31

You are overburdened with tasks and deadlines are approaching.

What should you do first?

  1. ((a))

    Work overtime regularly

  2. ((b))

    Take sick leave

  3. ((c))

    Refuse all new tasks

  4. ((d))

    Delegate or prioritise tasks as per urgency

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Work overtime regularly

32

A school has more boys than girls, but the number of teachers teaching boys is fewer.

What can be inferred?

  1. ((a))

    Boys get less attention

  2. ((b))

    Girls get equal attention

  3. ((c))

    Number of girls is less

  4. ((d))

    Teachers prefer girls

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Boys get less attention

33

A company’s revenue grew 2020% this year, but the cost of raw materials rose by 3535%, and total expenses rose by 2525%. Last year’s profit margin was 1515%.

Which inference is most valid?

  1. ((a))

    Company broke even

  2. ((b))

    Profit margins stayed the same

  3. ((c))

    Profit margins improved

  4. ((d))

    Profit margins declined

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Company broke even

34

A project was completed before the deadline, but the quality audit found many defects.

What is the best managerial judgement?

  1. ((a))

    Team is highly efficient

  2. ((b))

    Audit criteria were unfair

  3. ((c))

    Project scope was small

  4. ((d))

    Team focused on speed over quality

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Team is highly efficient

35

Evaluate {144÷\div12-6}×\times(54÷\div9+3).

  1. ((a))

    72

  2. ((b))

    60

  3. ((c))

    54

  4. ((d))

    66

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

72

36

Evaluate (80÷5−8)×(12−7)(80 \div 5 - 8) \times (12 - 7).

  1. ((a))

    32

  2. ((b))

    40

  3. ((c))

    25

  4. ((d))

    35

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

32

37

If # = subtraction, =division,@=multiplication,and = division, @ = multiplication, and % = addition, then what is 50 # 20 5 @ 4 % 6?

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    30

  3. ((c))

    40

  4. ((d))

    35

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20

38

A machine costs ₹250000 and depreciates 12% every year. What is its value after 3 years?

  1. ((a))

    170368

  2. ((b))

    172064

  3. ((c))

    180000

  4. ((d))

    175500

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

170368

39

The population of a city increased by 5% annually for 4 years, then dropped by 10% in the 5th year. If the initial population = 200,000200,000, what is the approximate population after 5 years?

  1. ((a))

    242,611

  2. ((b))

    240,000

  3. ((c))

    218,791

  4. ((d))

    243,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

242,611

40

If ’P is the father of Q’ and ’Q is the mother of R’, then how is P related to R?

  1. ((a))

    Uncle

  2. ((b))

    Grandmother

  3. ((c))

    Grandfather

  4. ((d))

    Brother

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Uncle

41

A woman says, "He is the son of my father’s only daughter".

Who is the man to the woman?

  1. ((a))

    Brother

  2. ((b))

    Son

  3. ((c))

    Nephew

  4. ((d))

    Cousin

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Brother

42

The average age of 40 students is 15 years. If the age of the teacher is included, the average becomes 16 years. Find the teacher’s age.

  1. ((a))

    54

  2. ((b))

    55

  3. ((c))

    57

  4. ((d))

    56

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

54

43

In an examination, 6060% % of students passed in Maths, 7070% % in English, and 2020% % failed in both.

Find the percentage who passed in both.

  1. ((a))

    30%

  2. ((b))

    40%

  3. ((c))

    50%

  4. ((d))

    60%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30%

44

In the following question, two statements are followed by two conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

<br>

Statements:

All cats are animals.

Some animals are wild.

<br>

Conclusions:

I. Some cats are wild.

II. All animals are cats.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

  4. ((d))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follows

45

In the following question, two statements are followed by two conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

<br>

Statements:

All trains are fast.

Some fast things are unsafe.

<br>

Conclusions:

I. Some trains are unsafe.

II. All unsafe things are trains.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follows

46

In the following question, two statements are followed by four conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read the conclusions carefully and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

<br>

Statements:

Some X are Y.

Some Y are Z.

<br>

Conclusions:

A. Some X are Z

B. All X are Z

C. No X are Z

D. Cannot say

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Only B

  3. ((c))

    Only C

  4. ((d))

    Only D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

47

In the following question, two statements are followed by four conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read the conclusions carefully and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

<br>

Statements:

Some mountains are tall.

All tall things cause shadow.

<br>

Conclusions:

I. Some mountains cause shadow

II. All shadows are caused by mountains

III. No mountain causes shadow

IV. Some shadows are tall

  1. ((a))

    I only

  2. ((b))

    II only

  3. ((c))

    Both I and III

  4. ((d))

    Both I and IV

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I only

48

City’s crime rate dropped 1010% after community policing was introduced.

Which inference is valid?

  1. ((a))

    Police got more funds

  2. ((b))

    Citizens became more cooperative

  3. ((c))

    Criminals left the city

  4. ((d))

    Laws became stricter

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Police got more funds

49

In a public seminar, an attendee asks a long, irrelevant question.

What’s the best moderator response?

  1. ((a))

    Acknowledge and gently return to topic

  2. ((b))

    Tell them it’s irrelevant rudely

  3. ((c))

    Ignore them

  4. ((d))

    Cut them off mid-sentence

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Acknowledge and gently return to topic

50

Calculate the value of (15+24÷3)×(18÷6−1)(15+24\div3)\times(18\div6-1).

  1. ((a))

    46

  2. ((b))

    65

  3. ((c))

    50

  4. ((d))

    60

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

46

General Awareness (50 questions)

51

What is the focus of the Ease of Doing Business (EoDB) index?

  1. ((a))

    Environmental sustainability

  2. ((b))

    Social equality

  3. ((c))

    Regulatory environment for businesses

  4. ((d))

    Technological advancement

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Environmental sustainability

52

Which of the following is known as ’administered prices’?

  1. ((a))

    Prices set based on negotiation between buyers and sellers

  2. ((b))

    Prices set by market forces

  3. ((c))

    Prices set by sellers

  4. ((d))

    Prices set by the central planning authority

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Prices set based on negotiation between buyers and sellers

53

A major Ease of Doing Business (EoDB) challenge in developing countries is:

  1. ((a))

    Over-automation

  2. ((b))

    Currency appreciation

  3. ((c))

    Free trade agreements

  4. ((d))

    Lack of physical infrastructure

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Over-automation

54

What does the "L1" in Aditya-L1 refer to?

  1. ((a))

    Lagrange Point 1

  2. ((b))

    First stage of Sun

  3. ((c))

    Launch vehicle

  4. ((d))

    Light speed zone

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lagrange Point 1

55

What is the purpose of SSLV (Small Satellite Launch Vehicle)?

  1. ((a))

    Monitor black holes

  2. ((b))

    Carry large communication satellites

  3. ((c))

    Launch small satellites on demand

  4. ((d))

    Launch interplanetary missions

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Monitor black holes

56

Which of the following is an example of implicit cost?

  1. ((a))

    Wages to labourers

  2. ((b))

    Rent for the use of own land

  3. ((c))

    Raw material purchase

  4. ((d))

    Interest on borrowed money

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Wages to labourers

57

Which of the following is TRUE about the Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution?

  1. ((a))

    Fundamental Duties are justiciable rights

  2. ((b))

    Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable

  3. ((c))

    The Fundamental Duties are only applicable to non-citizens

  4. ((d))

    The Constitution provides a separate enforcement mechanism for Fundamental Duties

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fundamental Duties are justiciable rights

58

Which body has the power to amend the Constitution of India?

  1. ((a))

    The President

  2. ((b))

    The State Legislative Assemblies

  3. ((c))

    The Supreme Court

  4. ((d))

    The Parliament

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The President

59

Which of the following statements about the Parliament of India is TRUE?

  1. ((a))

    The Lok Sabha is the only house of Parliament

  2. ((b))

    The Lok Sabha is appointed by the President

  3. ((c))

    The President can dissolve the Rajya Sabha

  4. ((d))

    The Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Lok Sabha is the only house of Parliament

60

The first sultan to implement market regulations and price control was:

  1. ((a))

    Alauddin Khalji

  2. ((b))

    Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

  3. ((c))

    Muhammad Bin Tughlaq

  4. ((d))

    Firoz Shah Tughlaq

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Alauddin Khalji

61

Which Sultan of Delhi was NOT of slave origin nor associated with any slave dynasty?

  1. ((a))

    Balban

  2. ((b))

    Qutb-ud-din Aibak

  3. ((c))

    Jalaluddin Khalji

  4. ((d))

    Iltutmish

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Balban

62

Which article provides for the discretionary power of the Governor in certain legislative matters?

  1. ((a))

    Article 155

  2. ((b))

    Article 161

  3. ((c))

    Article 168

  4. ((d))

    Article 163

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 155

63

Which constitutional authority adjudicates disputes related to the distribution of revenue between the Centre and the States?

  1. ((a))

    The Attorney General

  2. ((b))

    The Supreme Court

  3. ((c))

    The President of India

  4. ((d))

    The Finance Commission

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Attorney General

64

Which Article details the power of the Governor to reserve a state bill for the President’s consideration?

  1. ((a))

    Article 199

  2. ((b))

    Article 202

  3. ((c))

    Article 201

  4. ((d))

    Article 200

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 199

65

Under which Article can the President withhold assent to a state bill and reserve it for his/her consideration?

  1. ((a))

    Article 200

  2. ((b))

    Article 199

  3. ((c))

    Article 201

  4. ((d))

    Article 202

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 200

66

The highest peak in the Himalayas is located in which country?

  1. ((a))

    Nepal

  2. ((b))

    India

  3. ((c))

    Pakistan

  4. ((d))

    Bhutan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nepal

67

Which of these countries does NOT border the Indian Ocean?

  1. ((a))

    India

  2. ((b))

    South Africa

  3. ((c))

    Australia

  4. ((d))

    China

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

India

68

When was Chabahar Port inaugurated?

  1. ((a))

    2015

  2. ((b))

    2016

  3. ((c))

    2017

  4. ((d))

    2018

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2015

69

The "Finance Commission" in India plays a crucial role in fiscal federalism. Which of the following is a primary function of the Finance Commission?

  1. ((a))

    To formulate the annual budget of the central government.

  2. ((b))

    To advise the President on the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States, and the allocation of the States’ share among themselves.

  3. ((c))

    To oversee the monetary policy and regulate the banking sector in India.

  4. ((d))

    To audit the accounts of the Union and the State governments.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To formulate the annual budget of the central government.

70

Consider the following statements regarding the "Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM)" scheme:

I. It aims to promote the use of diesel-based irrigation pumps by providing subsidies.

II. One of its components supports the installation of standalone solar agriculture pumps.

III. It encourages farmers to set up grid-connected solar power plants on their barren lands.

IV. The scheme mandates that farmers sell all the generated solar power back to the grid.

Which of the above statements accurately describe the components and objectives of the PM-KUSUM scheme?

  1. ((a))

    I and III only

  2. ((b))

    II and III only

  3. ((c))

    I, III, and IV only

  4. ((d))

    II, III, and IV only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I and III only

71

The Rajput style of architecture often included chhatris, which are:

  1. ((a))

    Pillared halls for dance performances

  2. ((b))

    Small domed pavilions used as decorative elements

  3. ((c))

    Large gateways to temples or forts

  4. ((d))

    Stepped water tanks for ritual purposes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pillared halls for dance performances

72

In which traditional architectural style are the Buddhist monasteries in Sikkim built?

  1. ((a))

    Persian

  2. ((b))

    Mughal

  3. ((c))

    Tibetan

  4. ((d))

    South Indian Dravidian

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Persian

73

Who wrote Shadow Lines, a novel that received the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1989?

  1. ((a))

    Arundhati Roy

  2. ((b))

    Amitav Ghosh

  3. ((c))

    Vikram Seth

  4. ((d))

    Upamanyu Chatterjee

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Arundhati Roy

74

Which of the following slogans became popular during the Fifth Five-Year Plan in 1974-1978?

  1. ((a))

    Jai Jawan Jai Kisan

  2. ((b))

    Make in India

  3. ((c))

    Digital India

  4. ((d))

    Garibi Hatao

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jai Jawan Jai Kisan

75

The trade policy framework before 1990 can be most accurately described as:

  1. ((a))

    Strongly focused on liberalization and export promotion

  2. ((b))

    Mainly aimed at supporting free trade agreements

  3. ((c))

    Largely influenced by market forces with minimal government interference

  4. ((d))

    Protectionist, inward-looking and characterized by high tariffs and quantitative restrictions

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Strongly focused on liberalization and export promotion

76

In the context of India’s inaugural Five-Year Plan, which foundational infrastructure initiative was accorded topmost strategic priority to establish the prerequisites for future industrial growth?

  1. ((a))

    Construction of dams and irrigation canals

  2. ((b))

    Development of integrated steel plants

  3. ((c))

    Creation of dedicated industrial corridors

  4. ((d))

    Expansion of interstate highway networks

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Construction of dams and irrigation canals

77

Which Austrian author received the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2019, sparking controversy due to his political views?

  1. ((a))

    Elfriede Jelinek

  2. ((b))

    Peter Handke

  3. ((c))

    Thomas Bernhard

  4. ((d))

    Ingeborg Bachmann

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Elfriede Jelinek

78

The Charter Act of 1813 marked a significant change in the British East India Company’s policy by:

  1. ((a))

    Granting the Company a monopoly over all trade with India.

  2. ((b))

    Ending the Company’s trade monopoly in India, except for tea and trade with China.

  3. ((c))

    Allowing the Company to directly administer all territories in India.

  4. ((d))

    Establishing the first Supreme Court in Calcutta.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Granting the Company a monopoly over all trade with India.

79

The nature of land revenue settlements introduced by the British in India had a varying impact across different regions.
Which of the following best explains a key difference between the "Permanent Settlement" and the "Mahalwari Settlement"?

  1. ((a))

    The Permanent Settlement involved periodic revision of revenue demands, while the Mahalwari Settlement fixed revenue in perpetuity.

  2. ((b))

    The Permanent Settlement established direct relationships with individual cultivators, whereas the Mahalwari Settlement involved village communities.

  3. ((c))

    The Permanent Settlement was primarily implemented in the Bombay and Madras Presidencies, while the Mahalwari system was prevalent in Bengal.

  4. ((d))

    The Permanent Settlement aimed to create a landed gentry with proprietary rights, while the Mahalwari system recognized collective ownership at the village level.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Permanent Settlement involved periodic revision of revenue demands, while the Mahalwari Settlement fixed revenue in perpetuity.

80

Which of these changes in Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), improves protection against false testimony?

  1. ((a))

    Legal presumption of falsehood for inconsistent witnesses

  2. ((b))

    Ban on hostile witnesses

  3. ((c))

    Mandatory video recording of key witness depositions

  4. ((d))

    Introduction of polygraph tests

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Legal presumption of falsehood for inconsistent witnesses

81

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, which type of evidence is newly recognized as valid?

  1. ((a))

    Dreams

  2. ((b))

    Digital and electronic records

  3. ((c))

    Oral traditions

  4. ((d))

    Hearsay statements

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dreams

82

How is the burden of proof determined in civil cases?

  1. ((a))

    Always on the plaintiff

  2. ((b))

    Always on the defendant

  3. ((c))

    On the person who asserts a fact

  4. ((d))

    On the investigating officer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Always on the plaintiff

83

As of April 2025, the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India is _____ .

  1. ((a))

    Rajiv Kumar

  2. ((b))

    Sunil Arora

  3. ((c))

    Sushil Chandra

  4. ((d))

    Gyanesh Kumar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rajiv Kumar

84

Who is the chairman of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) as, March 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Ajay Tyagi

  2. ((b))

    Tuhin Kanta Pandey

  3. ((c))

    Subhash Chandra Garg

  4. ((d))

    Madhabi Puri Buch

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ajay Tyagi

85

Who among the following was appointed as a full-time member of NITI Aayog in March 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Sanjay Kumar Mishra

  2. ((b))

    Dr. Jay Bhattacharya

  3. ((c))

    Rajiv Gauba

  4. ((d))

    CS Setty

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sanjay Kumar Mishra

86

Which Indian freedom fighter was known as the Jhansi Rani of Travancore?

  1. ((a))

    Accamma Cherian

  2. ((b))

    Lakshmi N. Menon

  3. ((c))

    A.V. Kuttymalu Amma

  4. ((d))

    Annie Mascarene

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Accamma Cherian

87

Which dance form is commonly performed during the Holi festival in Madhya Pradesh?

  1. ((a))

    Gendi Dance

  2. ((b))

    Dhol Cholom

  3. ((c))

    Matki Dance

  4. ((d))

    Karma Dance

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gendi Dance

88

Which among these is not one of the only four Indian Tennis players to have won a Grand Slam in their careers?

  1. ((a))

    Rohan Bopanna

  2. ((b))

    Vijay Amritraj

  3. ((c))

    Sania Mirza

  4. ((d))

    Leander Paes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rohan Bopanna

89

What was the contribution of the Bhakti movement to Kathak?

  1. ((a))

    It shifted Kathak from temples to courts

  2. ((b))

    It introduced Radha-Krishna themes in dance

  3. ((c))

    It focused solely on rhythmic purity

  4. ((d))

    It led to the development of pure dance techniques

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It shifted Kathak from temples to courts

90

The Hathigumpha inscription talks about which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    The achievements of Kharavela of Kalinga

  2. ((b))

    The reign of Ashoka

  3. ((c))

    The military campaigns of Samudragupta

  4. ((d))

    The religious reforms of Harsha

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The achievements of Kharavela of Kalinga

91

Which pairs are INCORRECTLY matched?

  1. Surkotada - Evidence of horse remains
  2. Manusmriti - Earliest Vedic text
  3. Harappa - Granaries
  1. ((a))

    1 and 2 only

  2. ((b))

    2 only

  3. ((c))

    3 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2, and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 and 2 only

92

The Hazira-Vijaipur-Jagdishpur pipeline does NOT connect, which of the following states?

  1. ((a))

    Gujarat

  2. ((b))

    Madhya Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Uttar Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Jharkhand

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gujarat

93

Which of the given statements is/are INCORRECT regarding coal deposits in India?

  1. Bituminous coal forms the largest deposits of coal in India.
  2. More than 8080% of coal in India is of coking grade, which can be used in the production of steel.
  1. ((a))

    1 only

  2. ((b))

    2 only

  3. ((c))

    Both 1 and 2

  4. ((d))

    Neither 1 nor 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 only

94

With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:

  1. Sand is a ’minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the country.
  2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.
  3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.

Which of the statements given above is/are CORRECT?

  1. ((a))

    1 and 3

  2. ((b))

    2 and 3

  3. ((c))

    3 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2 and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 and 3

95

Which folk music style from Bengal involves songs by mystic performers and emphasizes inner spirituality?

  1. ((a))

    Bhavageete

  2. ((b))

    Baul

  3. ((c))

    Lavani

  4. ((d))

    Pandavani

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bhavageete

96

In Carnatic music, which form of composition typically begins with an alapana (improvised raga exposition) followed by a structured composition?

  1. ((a))

    Varnam

  2. ((b))

    Kriti

  3. ((c))

    Tillana

  4. ((d))

    Ragam-Tanam-Pallavi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Varnam

97

Which of these tribes practice transhumance?

  1. Gujjars
  2. Bakarwals
  3. Bhutiyas
  4. Gaddis
  1. ((a))

    1 and 3 only

  2. ((b))

    1, 2, and 4 only

  3. ((c))

    4 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2, 3, and 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 and 3 only

98

In which of the following states, the highest number of tribal people was recorded in census of India 2011?

  1. ((a))

    Odisha

  2. ((b))

    Rajasthan

  3. ((c))

    Maharashtra

  4. ((d))

    Madhya Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Odisha

99

What causes rainfall in Tamil Nadu and the adjoining part of Andhra Pradesh in the months of November and December?

  1. ((a))

    Norwesters

  2. ((b))

    South East Monsoon

  3. ((c))

    Retreating Monsoon

  4. ((d))

    Tropical Jet Stream

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Norwesters

100

South Andaman and Little Andaman are separated by:

  1. ((a))

    10-degree Channel

  2. ((b))

    Duncan Passage

  3. ((c))

    Grand Channel

  4. ((d))

    Coco Strait

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10-degree Channel

Mechanical Engineering (100 questions)

101

What does crankcase ventilation prevent?

  1. ((a))

    Fuel vaporization

  2. ((b))

    Overheating of piston

  3. ((c))

    Excessive cooling

  4. ((d))

    Pressure buildup due to blowby gases

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fuel vaporization

102

For adiabatic compression, heat transfer is:

  1. ((a))

    Maximum

  2. ((b))

    Minimum

  3. ((c))

    Zero

  4. ((d))

    Very high

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Maximum

103

Roots blower is an example of:

  1. ((a))

    Centrifugal compressor

  2. ((b))

    Positive displacement compressor

  3. ((c))

    Axial flow compressor

  4. ((d))

    Dynamic compressor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Centrifugal compressor

104

Mechanical efficiency is:

  1. ((a))

    Brake power / Indicated power

  2. ((b))

    Brake power ×\times Friction factor

  3. ((c))

    Indicated power / Brake power

  4. ((d))

    Total energy input / Shaft output

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Brake power / Indicated power

105

What does the blade velocity coefficient measure?

  1. ((a))

    Work done

  2. ((b))

    Friction loss

  3. ((c))

    Pressure loss

  4. ((d))

    Enthalpy drop

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Work done

106

What does friction in a nozzle affect?

  1. ((a))

    Enthalpy only

  2. ((b))

    Pressure only

  3. ((c))

    Only nozzle material

  4. ((d))

    Velocity and enthalpy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Enthalpy only

107

What is the primary cause of engine knocking in SI engines?

  1. ((a))

    Low exhaust pressure

  2. ((b))

    Early spark timing

  3. ((c))

    Weak compression

  4. ((d))

    Auto-ignition of end-gas

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Low exhaust pressure

108

What does the turbine in a gas turbine plant usually drive?

  1. ((a))

    A generator only

  2. ((b))

    Only the fuel system

  3. ((c))

    A pump

  4. ((d))

    The compressor and generator

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A generator only

109

If Brake Power = 5 kW5 \text{ kW}, and Friction Power = 1.2 kW1.2 \text{ kW}. What is mechanical efficiency?

  1. ((a))

    65%

  2. ((b))

    68%

  3. ((c))

    72%

  4. ((d))

    81%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

65%

110

A 4-stroke engine has 4 cylinders, 80 mm bore, 100 mm stroke. Find total swept volume.

  1. ((a))

    2012 cm3\text{cm}^3

  2. ((b))

    2865 cm3\text{cm}^3

  3. ((c))

    1054 cm3\text{cm}^3

  4. ((d))

    3045 cm3\text{cm}^3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2012 cm3\text{cm}^3

111

An engine runs at 3000 rpm with torque of 100 Nm. Find brake power.

  1. ((a))
    1. 1 kW
  2. ((b))
    1. 3 kW
  3. ((c))
    1. 4 kW
  4. ((d))
    1. 9 kW
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 1 kW
112

The correct formula for the angle of contact (θ\theta) in a cross belt drive is:

  1. ((a))

    θ=(180∘−2α)×π/180\theta=(180^{\circ}-2\alpha) \times \pi/180

  2. ((b))

    θ=(180∘+2α)×π/180\theta=(180^{\circ}+2\alpha) \times \pi/180

  3. ((c))

    θ=(90∘−2α)×π/180\theta=(90^{\circ}-2\alpha) \times \pi/180

  4. ((d))

    θ=(360∘−2α)×π/180\theta=(360^{\circ}-2\alpha) \times \pi/180

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

θ=(180∘−2α)×π/180\theta=(180^{\circ}-2\alpha) \times \pi/180

113

A clutch transmits 35 kW of power at 1400 rpm. What is the torque transmitted?

  1. ((a))
    1. 5 Nm
  2. ((b))
    1. 75 Nm
  3. ((c))

    100 Nm

  4. ((d))

    300 Nm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 5 Nm
114

What is the formula for the diagonal pitch (pdpd) for zig-zag riveted joints?

  1. ((a))

    Pd = (2p + d) / 3

  2. ((b))

    Pd = (0.5p + d) / 3

  3. ((c))

    Pd = (1.5p + d) / 3

  4. ((d))

    Pd = (2.5p + d) / 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pd = (2p + d) / 3

115

In the case of a multiple-disc clutch, if n1 is the number of discs on the driving shaft and n2 is the number of discs on the driven shaft, then the number of pairs of contact surfaces will be:

  1. ((a))

    n1+n2+1n_1 + n_2 + 1

  2. ((b))

    n1+n2+2n_1 + n_2 + 2

  3. ((c))

    n1+n2−1n_1 + n_2 - 1

  4. ((d))

    n1+n2−2n_1 + n_2 - 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

n1+n2+1n_1 + n_2 + 1

116

What is the typical groove angle of a pulley used in V-belt drives?

  1. ((a))

    20∘−25∘20^\circ - 25^\circ

  2. ((b))

    32∘−38∘32^\circ - 38^\circ

  3. ((c))

    25∘−32∘25^\circ - 32^\circ

  4. ((d))

    38∘−45∘38^\circ - 45^\circ

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20∘−25∘20^\circ - 25^\circ

117

A multi-plate clutch with 7 outer plates and 5 inner plates is used. What is the number of pairs of contact surfaces?

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    7

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    11

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5

118

For a roller bearing, the life exponent is 10/3. If the load is doubled, the bearing life will become:

  1. ((a))

    One-fourth

  2. ((b))

    One-eighth

  3. ((c))

    One-tenth

  4. ((d))

    Half

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One-fourth

119

A boiler shell has an internal diameter of 2000 mm and a plate thickness of 15 mm. It is subjected to an internal pressure of 4 MPa. If the joint efficiency is 90%, what is the maximum allowable longitudinal stress?

  1. ((a))

    286.29 MPa

  2. ((b))

    296.29 MPa

  3. ((c))

    276.29 MPa

  4. ((d))

    266.29 MPa

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

286.29 MPa

120

Which of the following is commonly used as a journal bearing material?

  1. ((a))

    Babbitt metal

  2. ((b))

    Cast iron

  3. ((c))

    Aluminium

  4. ((d))

    Copper

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Babbitt metal

121

Which of the following correctly gives the excess pressure inside a hollow soap bubble of radius rr and surface tension TT?

  1. ((a))

    T/rT/r

  2. ((b))

    2T/r2T/r

  3. ((c))

    3T/r3T/r

  4. ((d))

    4T/r4T/r

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

T/rT/r

122

The common bond for diamond grinding wheels is _______.

  1. ((a))

    Rubber

  2. ((b))

    Metal

  3. ((c))

    Shellac

  4. ((d))

    Vitrified

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rubber

123

Why is alcohol sometimes used in place of mercury in manometers?

  1. ((a))

    It has a higher density than mercury

  2. ((b))

    It has better thermal conductivity

  3. ((c))

    It provides higher sensitivity due to lower density

  4. ((d))

    It forms stronger meniscus for accurate reading

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It has a higher density than mercury

124

What does the grinding wheel structure describe?

  1. ((a))

    Abrasive type

  2. ((b))

    Bond type

  3. ((c))

    Density/Porosity

  4. ((d))

    Grain size

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Abrasive type

125

What is the primary advantage of an inclined single-column manometer over a vertical one?

  1. ((a))

    It can withstand higher pressures

  2. ((b))

    It occupies less space

  3. ((c))

    It provides higher sensitivity for small pressure measurements

  4. ((d))

    It reduces evaporation of the manometric fluid

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It can withstand higher pressures

126

How is the Reynolds number in a fluid flow defined?

  1. ((a))

    Inertial force to gravitational force

  2. ((b))

    Viscous force to inertial force

  3. ((c))

    Pressure force to surface tension force

  4. ((d))

    Inertial force to viscous force

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Inertial force to gravitational force

127

In an incompressible, irrotational flow field, which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the relation between streamlines and equipotential lines?

  1. ((a))

    They are always parallel to each other.

  2. ((b))

    They intersect each other at an angle determined by local velocity.

  3. ((c))

    They never intersect and are always concentric.

  4. ((d))

    They intersect orthogonally at every point in the flow field.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

They are always parallel to each other.

128

In high-speed turning, the specific cutting energy reduces because:

  1. ((a))

    Bulk heating reduces strength of workpiece

  2. ((b))

    Cutter softens at high rpm

  3. ((c))

    Tool wear reduces cutting edge

  4. ((d))

    Chip flow becomes laminar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bulk heating reduces strength of workpiece

129

Differential indexing is preferred over simple indexing when locating:

  1. ((a))

    Prime numbers of teeth

  2. ((b))

    Equally spaced holes

  3. ((c))

    Splines on disks

  4. ((d))

    Squares on round plate

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Prime numbers of teeth

130

Which of the following correctly describes the Eulerian method of analysing fluid motion?

  1. ((a))

    By following a single particle

  2. ((b))

    By tracking density variation in the system only

  3. ((c))

    At a fixed point in space over time

  4. ((d))

    By observing flow from a rotating frame of reference

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

By following a single particle

131

Creep-feed grinding is particularly suited for materials like Inconel due to:

  1. ((a))

    High specific energy

  2. ((b))

    Low wheel speeds

  3. ((c))

    Highly continuous chip removal

  4. ((d))

    Deep single-pass cuts

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

High specific energy

132

Which part holds the tool in a lathe?

  1. ((a))

    Tailstock

  2. ((b))

    Tool post

  3. ((c))

    Lead screw

  4. ((d))

    Saddle

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tailstock

133

Which lathe part moves the carriage automatically?

  1. ((a))

    Feed rod

  2. ((b))

    Chuck

  3. ((c))

    Tailstock

  4. ((d))

    Compound rest

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Feed rod

134

For a steady flow, which of the following statements is correct?

  1. ((a))

    All spatial derivatives are zero

  2. ((b))

    Convective acceleration is zero

  3. ((c))

    Local acceleration is zero

  4. ((d))

    Total acceleration is zero

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

All spatial derivatives are zero

135

Which part holds the drill in the drilling machine?

  1. ((a))

    Base

  2. ((b))

    Chuck

  3. ((c))

    Arbor

  4. ((d))

    Arm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Base

136

Which surface is mainly produced on a horizontal milling machine?

  1. ((a))

    Spiral

  2. ((b))

    Circular

  3. ((c))

    Flat

  4. ((d))

    Helical

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Spiral

137

A wooden block has a volume of 2 m3^3 and floats in water with 75% of its volume submerged. What is the density of the wood?

  1. ((a))

    750 kg/m3^3

  2. ((b))

    1000 kg/m3^3

  3. ((c))
    1. 33 kg/m3^3
  4. ((d))

    450 kg/m3^3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

750 kg/m3^3

138

At point P(2,3), what is the magnitude of the velocity vector for the 2D flow with stream function ψ=2xy\psi=2xy?

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    7.2

  3. ((c))

    5

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6

139

A closed cylindrical container of diameter 200 mm and height 150 mm is completely filled with water and rotated about its vertical axis at 200 r.p.m. What is the angular velocity of the system?

  1. ((a))
    1. 57
  2. ((b))
    1. 8
  3. ((c))
    1. 94
  4. ((d))
    1. 12
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 57
140

In a rotational flow, which statement about the velocity potential function (Φ\Phi) is correct?

  1. ((a))

    Exists and satisfies Laplace equation

  2. ((b))

    Exists but does not satisfy Laplace equation

  3. ((c))

    Does not exist

  4. ((d))

    Exists only for incompressible flow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Exists and satisfies Laplace equation

141

Choose from the following the process used for the making of ornaments, statues, toys, and other such novelties of non-ferrous metal.

  1. ((a))

    Sand casting

  2. ((b))

    Investment casting

  3. ((c))

    Centrifugal casting

  4. ((d))

    Machine moulding

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sand casting

142

An expendable pattern is used in ______ casting.

  1. ((a))

    investment

  2. ((b))

    slush

  3. ((c))

    centrifugal

  4. ((d))

    squeeze

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

investment

143

The continuity principle in fluid mechanics satisfies which of the following:

  1. ((a))

    It defines a relationship between the mass and energy of the fluid system

  2. ((b))

    It is valid exclusively for irrotational fluid motion

  3. ((c))

    It ensures that the mass flow rate remains constant along a given streamline

  4. ((d))

    It implies that the fluid medium can be treated as a continuous substance

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It defines a relationship between the mass and energy of the fluid system

144

By what is the arc in arc welding created between the electrode and the workpiece?

  1. ((a))

    Contact resistance

  2. ((b))

    Chemicals

  3. ((c))

    Voltage

  4. ((d))

    Frequency

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Contact resistance

145

Weld spatter is considered as which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    A welding defect

  2. ((b))

    A flux

  3. ((c))

    A filler metal

  4. ((d))

    An electrode

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A welding defect

146

What is the Shrink rule used for in casting processes?

  1. ((a))

    Machining allowance

  2. ((b))

    Draft allowance

  3. ((c))

    Expansion allowance

  4. ((d))

    Contraction allowance

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Machining allowance

147

What is the primary objective of full annealing?

  1. ((a))

    Reducing ductility and machinability

  2. ((b))

    Reduce ductility and resilience

  3. ((c))

    Remove foreign impurities and improve surface finish

  4. ((d))

    Increase ductility and machinability

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Reducing ductility and machinability

148

Which process achieves maximum surface hardness in the case of Steel?

  1. ((a))

    Cyaniding

  2. ((b))

    Carburising

  3. ((c))

    Fame hardening

  4. ((d))

    Nitriding

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cyaniding

149

Consider the following statements:

  1. Forging reduces the grain size of the metal, which results in a decrease in strength and toughness.
  2. A forged component can be provided with thin sections without reducing the strength.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. ((a))

    1 only

  2. ((b))

    2 only

  3. ((c))

    Both 1 and 2

  4. ((d))

    Neither 1 nor 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 only

150

Which forging process involves decreasing the diameter of a bar and increasing its length?

  1. ((a))

    Fullering

  2. ((b))

    Punching

  3. ((c))

    Upsetting

  4. ((d))

    Bending

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fullering

151

Choose the correct match between the equipment listed in List-I and the manufacturing processes in List-II.

List-I: Equipment : P:Hot chamber machine, Q:Muller, R:Dielectric baker, S:Sand blaster

List-II: Process

  1. Cleaning
  2. Core making
  3. Die casting
  4. Annealing
  5. Sand mixing

Select the correct code:

  1. ((a))

    P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5

  2. ((b))

    P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-5

  3. ((c))

    P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-2

  4. ((d))

    P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5

152

Chvorinov’s rule states that the time required for a casting to solidify is proportional to the ratio of its volume to surface area raised to the power n.

What is the typical value of n?

  1. ((a))
    1. 5
  2. ((b))

    1

  3. ((c))

    2

  4. ((d))

    3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 5
153

Which of the following characteristics or materials are associated with shell moulding?

  1. Use of resin binder
  2. Capability of achieving close dimensional tolerance
  3. Low cost
  4. Good surface finish

Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. ((a))

    1 and 2

  2. ((b))

    1 and 3

  3. ((c))

    2 and 3

  4. ((d))

    1, 2 and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 and 2

154

In the carburizing process used for heat treatment of steel components, which form of carbon is primarily absorbed at the surface to create a high-carbon layer?

  1. ((a))

    Graphite flakes

  2. ((b))

    Free carbon

  3. ((c))

    Pearlite

  4. ((d))

    Cementite

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Graphite flakes

155

At the critical point, which of the following statements is true?

  1. ((a))

    Liquid and vapour phases are indistinguishable

  2. ((b))

    Pressure becomes zero

  3. ((c))

    Only vapor exists

  4. ((d))

    Only liquid exists

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Liquid and vapour phases are indistinguishable

156

Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of the kinetic energy correction factor in fluid mechanics?

  1. ((a))

    It has the same units as velocity head

  2. ((b))

    It is used in the continuity equation

  3. ((c))

    It compensates for the non-uniform velocity distribution across a flow cross-section

  4. ((d))

    It adjusts the Bernoulli constant in the energy equation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It has the same units as velocity head

157

The type of fluid motion in which the flow follows a curved path and sustains itself without any continuous external force is called:

  1. ((a))

    Radial flow

  2. ((b))

    Free vortex flow

  3. ((c))

    Forced vortex flow

  4. ((d))

    Spiral flow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Radial flow

158

The Pelton wheel turbine is most appropriate for operating under conditions of:

  1. ((a))

    High head and low flow rate

  2. ((b))

    High head and high flow rate

  3. ((c))

    Low head and low flow rate

  4. ((d))

    Medium head and medium flow rate

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

High head and low flow rate

159

For a Pelton turbine to generate maximum power output, what should be the optimal speed of the bucket in relation to the speed of the water jet?

  1. ((a))

    Same as the jet speed

  2. ((b))

    Twice the jet speed

  3. ((c))

    Half of the jet speed

  4. ((d))

    Unrelated to the jet speed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Same as the jet speed

160

Based on typical engineering design considerations, which of the following lists shows the Kaplan, Francis, and Pelton hydraulic turbines arranged from highest to lowest flow rate?

  1. ((a))

    Francis, Kaplan, Pelton

  2. ((b))

    Pelton, Kaplan, Francis

  3. ((c))

    Pelton, Francis, Kaplan

  4. ((d))

    Kaplan, Francis, Pelton

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Francis, Kaplan, Pelton

161

For optimal performance, the Pelton turbine operates efficiently when its speed ratio falls within which of the following ranges?

  1. ((a))
    1. 8 – 0. 9
  2. ((b))
    1. 43 – 0. 47
  3. ((c))
    1. 96 – 0. 98
  4. ((d))
    1. 2 – 1. 4
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 8 – 0. 9
162

In turbine applications, how does a tapered draft tube differ from a cylindrical draft tube?

  1. ((a))

    Converts a greater portion of kinetic head into pressure head

  2. ((b))

    Prevents hammer blow and surges

  3. ((c))

    Prevents cavitation even when operating under reduced discharge conditions

  4. ((d))

    Responds better to load fluctuations

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Converts a greater portion of kinetic head into pressure head

163

In turbulent flow, shear stress primarily arises due to which of the following factor?

  1. ((a))

    The density of the fluid

  2. ((b))

    The viscosity of the fluid

  3. ((c))

    Variations in velocity along the flow direction

  4. ((d))

    Variations in velocity both along and across the flow direction

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The density of the fluid

164

Which technique is most often used in practice to manage the boundary layer and avoid flow separation?

  1. ((a))

    Suction of accelerating fluid within the boundary layer

  2. ((b))

    Smoothening the surfaces

  3. ((c))

    Suction of slow-moving fluid within the boundary layer

  4. ((d))

    Using large divergence angles in the boundary layer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Suction of accelerating fluid within the boundary layer

165

What is the maximum value of static friction, just before a body begins to move?

  1. ((a))

    Static friction

  2. ((b))

    Dynamic friction

  3. ((c))

    Limiting friction

  4. ((d))

    Rolling friction

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Static friction

166

The force of friction between two surfaces in contact is directly proportional to which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    Normal reaction

  2. ((b))

    Angle of friction

  3. ((c))

    Angle of repose

  4. ((d))

    Velocity

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Normal reaction

167

In mechanics, what does the term Coulomb friction refer to?

  1. ((a))

    Friction between electrically charged bodies

  2. ((b))

    Friction between bodies having relative motion

  3. ((c))

    Friction between solids and liquids

  4. ((d))

    Friction between dry surfaces

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Friction between electrically charged bodies

168

If a number of forces act simultaneously on a particle, it is possible:

  1. ((a))

    Not to replace them with a single force

  2. ((b))

    To replace them with a single force

  3. ((c))

    Not to replace them with two forces acting through the centre of gravity

  4. ((d))

    To replace them with a couple

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Not to replace them with a single force

169

Where is the centre of gravity of a scalene triangle located?

  1. ((a))

    The midpoint of the base

  2. ((b))

    The intersection of its medians

  3. ((c))

    The intersection of its altitudes

  4. ((d))

    The midpoint of one of the sides

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The midpoint of the base

170

In which of the following cases is friction considered harmful?

  1. ((a))

    In walking

  2. ((b))

    In case of working of an engine

  3. ((c))

    In holding something

  4. ((d))

    In clutch function

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

In walking

171

Which of the following is not a scalar quantity?

  1. ((a))

    Mass

  2. ((b))

    Volume / Mass

  3. ((c))

    Force ×\times Distance

  4. ((d))

    Rate of change of velocity

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mass

172

According to Lami’s Theorem, each force in a system of three concurrent, coplanar forces is proportional to which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    The cosine of the angle between the other two forces

  2. ((b))

    The sine of the angle between the other two forces

  3. ((c))

    The tangent of the angle between the other two forces

  4. ((d))

    The cotangent of the angle between the other two forces

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The cosine of the angle between the other two forces

173

A force of 50 N acts at a perpendicular distance of 0. 4 m from a pivot. What is the moment about the pivot?

  1. ((a))

    10 Nm

  2. ((b))

    20 Nm

  3. ((c))

    15 Nm

  4. ((d))

    13 Nm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10 Nm

174

What is the ratio of the new acceleration to the original if the applied force is doubled and the mass is reduced to half?

  1. ((a))

    1:2

  2. ((b))

    2:1

  3. ((c))

    1:4

  4. ((d))

    4:1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1:2

175

Which of the following is true about the direction of tension in a string?

  1. ((a))

    It always acts away from the body it’s attached to

  2. ((b))

    It always acts toward the pulley

  3. ((c))

    It acts opposite to the direction of motion

  4. ((d))

    Tension has no direction

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It always acts away from the body it’s attached to

176

What is the ratio of the endurance limit in shear to the endurance limit in flexure for most ductile materials?

  1. ((a))
    1. 25
  2. ((b))
    1. 55
  3. ((c))
    1. 40
  4. ((d))
    1. 70
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 25
177

What is residual stress?

  1. ((a))

    Stress that remains locked inside a material or component even after the original cause of the stress

  2. ((b))

    Stress concentration

  3. ((c))

    Stress that remains unlocked inside a material

  4. ((d))

    Resistant stress

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Stress that remains locked inside a material or component even after the original cause of the stress

178

True stress is defined as:

  1. ((a))

    Load / Instantaneous area

  2. ((b))

    Load / Original cross sectional area

  3. ((c))

    Load / Longitudinal strain

  4. ((d))

    Load / Elastic modulus

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Load / Instantaneous area

179

In a thin cylinder, the volume change is proportional to:

  1. ((a))

    Mechanical properties, geometry of cylinder and pressure

  2. ((b))

    Diameter only

  3. ((c))

    Stress only

  4. ((d))

    Pressure only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mechanical properties, geometry of cylinder and pressure

180

A supported beam with a span of 8m8 m carries a point load of 24kN24 kN at its central point. Find the reactions at the supports.

  1. ((a))

    12kN12 kN

  2. ((b))

    24kN24 kN

  3. ((c))

    36N36 N

  4. ((d))

    46kN46 kN

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12kN12 kN

181

For an isotropic material, the number of independent elastic constants is:

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    81

  3. ((c))

    21

  4. ((d))

    36

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2

182

In a shear force diagram, the slope at any point represents:

  1. ((a))

    Bending moment

  2. ((b))

    Load intensity

  3. ((c))

    Tensile stress

  4. ((d))

    Compressive stress

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bending moment

183

The maximum slope in a cantilever beam of length L, having an elastic modulus of E, carrying a point load W at the free end is: (where I is the moment of inertia)

  1. ((a))

    WL2/4EI

  2. ((b))

    WL2/8EI

  3. ((c))

    WL2/3E|

  4. ((d))

    WL2/2E|

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

WL2/4EI

184

What is the correct relation between Young’s modulus (E)(E), shear modulus (G)(G), and bulk modulus (K)(K)?

  1. ((a))

    E=10GK(3K+G)E = 10GK (3K + G)

  2. ((b))

    E=12GK(3K+G)E = 12GK (3K + G)

  3. ((c))

    E=9GK/(3K+G)E = 9GK /(3K + G)

  4. ((d))

    E=3GK(3K+G)E = 3GK (3K + G)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

E=10GK(3K+G)E = 10GK (3K + G)

185

If the bending moment distribution over a certain span of a beam is parabolic, then that span of the beam is subjected to:

  1. ((a))

    Uniformly Distributed Load (UDL)

  2. ((b))

    Point load

  3. ((c))

    Uniformly Varying Load (UVL)

  4. ((d))

    Concentrated Load

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Uniformly Distributed Load (UDL)

186

A thin spherical shell with a diameter of 900 mm and a thickness of 8 mm is subjected to an internal pressure of 1 MPa. What is the resulting hoop stress in the shell?

  1. ((a))
    1. 125 MPa
  2. ((b))
    1. 125 MPa
  3. ((c))
    1. 125 MPa
  4. ((d))
    1. 125 MPa
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 125 MPa
187

A thin cylindrical pressure vessel with a diameter of 500 mm is subjected to an internal pressure of 2 N/mm2^2. If the vessel’s wall thickness is 20 mm, calculate the hoop stress.

  1. ((a))

    25 N/mm2^2

  2. ((b))

    35 N/mm2^2

  3. ((c))

    45 N/mm2^2

  4. ((d))

    50 N/mm2^2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25 N/mm2^2

188

Which gear is used to convert rotary motion into linear motion?

  1. ((a))

    Spur gear

  2. ((b))

    Bevel gear

  3. ((c))

    Rack and Pinion gear

  4. ((d))

    Spiral gear

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Spur gear

189

The smaller gear in gear train is known as:

  1. ((a))

    Gear

  2. ((b))

    Pinion

  3. ((c))

    Annular

  4. ((d))

    Follower

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gear

190

The point at which two pitch circles of mating gear come in contact is known as:

  1. ((a))

    Pressure point

  2. ((b))

    Pitch point

  3. ((c))

    Dedendum point

  4. ((d))

    Contact point

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pressure point

191

In a simple band brake, the braking torque is:

  1. ((a))

    Zero if the angle of contact is more than 180∘180^{\circ}

  2. ((b))

    Inversely proportional to the angle of contact

  3. ((c))

    Proportional to the angle of contact

  4. ((d))

    Independent of the angle of contact

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Zero if the angle of contact is more than 180∘180^{\circ}

192

In a radial cam, the follower moves in which direction?

  1. ((a))

    Parallel to the cam axis

  2. ((b))

    In any direction

  3. ((c))

    Perpendicular to the cam axis

  4. ((d))

    Along the cam axis

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Parallel to the cam axis

193

In a structure with 3 links, 2 binary joints, and zero higher pairs, what is the degree of freedom?

  1. ((a))

    Zero

  2. ((b))

    One

  3. ((c))

    Two

  4. ((d))

    Three

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Zero

194

Oldham’s coupling is used to connect two shafts that have:

  1. ((a))

    An angular misalignment

  2. ((b))

    Perfect alignment

  3. ((c))

    A small angular misalignment

  4. ((d))

    A small parallel (lateral) misalignment

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

An angular misalignment

195

The contact ratio is the ratio of:

  1. ((a))

    Module to pitch circle diameter

  2. ((b))

    Pitch circle diameter to module

  3. ((c))

    Arc of contact to circular pitch

  4. ((d))

    Circular pitch to path of contact

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Module to pitch circle diameter

196

The loss of torque-transmitting capacity at high temperatures is called:

  1. ((a))

    Fading

  2. ((b))

    Rolling

  3. ((c))

    Drifting

  4. ((d))

    Planking

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fading

197

The energy storage capacity of a flywheel mainly depends on:

  1. ((a))

    Material and size of flywheel

  2. ((b))

    Size and angular velocity of the flywheel

  3. ((c))

    Material and angular velocity of the flywheel

  4. ((d))

    Mass and material of the flywheel

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Material and size of flywheel

198

An imaginary circle that transmits motion through pure rolling and represents the same motion as the actual gear is called the:

  1. ((a))

    Dedendum circle

  2. ((b))

    Pitch circle

  3. ((c))

    Clearance circle

  4. ((d))

    Addendum circle

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dedendum circle

199

Which type of gear is used to connect two parallel shafts with quiet operation and high load capacity?

  1. ((a))

    Spur gear

  2. ((b))

    Mitre gear

  3. ((c))

    Helical gear

  4. ((d))

    Spiral gear

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Spur gear

200

A governor applies a force of 120 N when the sleeve rises by 3 mm due to an increase in speed. What is the effort of the governor?

  1. ((a))
    1. 26 Nm
  2. ((b))
    1. 36 Nm
  3. ((c))
    1. 30 Nm
  4. ((d))
    1. 40 Nm
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 26 Nm

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