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SSC JE (Mechanical Engineering) Official Paper (Held On: 03 Dec, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

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General Intelligence and Reasoning (50 questions)

1

In the following, four roll numbers or centre codes are given. Three share a common pattern or belong to one group, but one is different. Select the odd one out.

720404, 720314, 700219, 720512

  1. ((a))

    720404

  2. ((b))

    720314

  3. ((c))

    700219

  4. ((d))

    720512

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

720404

2

In the following, four roll numbers or centre codes are given. Three share a common pattern or belong to one group, but one is different. Select the odd one out.

501428, 501902, 511632, 501750

  1. ((a))

    501428

  2. ((b))

    501902

  3. ((c))

    511632

  4. ((d))

    501750

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

501428

3

Complete the analogy.

W : U :: S : ?

  1. ((a))

    R

  2. ((b))

    Q

  3. ((c))

    O

  4. ((d))

    T

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

R

4

Complete the analogy.

GIK : MPS :: QSU : ?

  1. ((a))

    YDF

  2. ((b))

    WZC

  3. ((c))

    WZD

  4. ((d))

    RTX

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

YDF

5

Complete the analogy.

DFHJ : LNPR :: SUWY : ?

  1. ((a))

    ACEG

  2. ((b))

    ABCE

  3. ((c))

    ACBE

  4. ((d))

    ZCDE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ACEG

6

Find the missing term in the series: A, Z, B, Y, C, ?

  1. ((a))

    D

  2. ((b))

    X

  3. ((c))

    W

  4. ((d))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

D

7

Find the missing term in the series:

B, C, F, E, J, ?

  1. ((a))

    I

  2. ((b))

    H

  3. ((c))

    K

  4. ((d))

    G

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I

8

Find the missing number in the series: 

5, 10, 15, 20, ?

  1. ((a))

    22

  2. ((b))

    25

  3. ((c))

    28

  4. ((d))

    30

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

22

9

Find the missing number in the series:

3, 8, 15, 24, ?

  1. ((a))

    31

  2. ((b))

    33

  3. ((c))

    35

  4. ((d))

    37

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

31

10

Find the missing number in the series:

20, 18, 15, 11, ?

  1. ((a))

    7

  2. ((b))

    8

  3. ((c))

    5

  4. ((d))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7

11

Complete the analogy.

Architect : Building :: Sculptor : ?

  1. ((a))

    Museum

  2. ((b))

    Stone

  3. ((c))

    Chisel

  4. ((d))

    Statue

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Museum

12

Complete the analogy.

Botanist : Plants :: Entomologist : ?

  1. ((a))

    Animals

  2. ((b))

    Bacteria

  3. ((c))

    Fungi

  4. ((d))

    Insects

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Animals

13

Find the odd one out in the given semantic series based on the pattern identified.

Orange, Guava, Papaya, Grapes

  1. ((a))

    Orange

  2. ((b))

    Guava

  3. ((c))

    Papaya

  4. ((d))

    Grapes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Orange

14

In a society, houses are numbered 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, and 15: Q lives two houses above O; R lives just above Q; S lives at the highest-numbered house; T lives at the lowest-numbered house.

Who lives at 11?

  1. ((a))

    O

  2. ((b))

    R

  3. ((c))

    Q

  4. ((d))

    S

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

O

15

If TRAIN is coded as UQBHO, then how is PLANE coded?

  1. ((a))

    QKBMF

  2. ((b))

    QKBND

  3. ((c))

    QKBNF

  4. ((d))

    QKCMF

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

QKBMF

16

In a certain code, ARRANGE is written as YWWYSLC (every consonant +5, every vowel -2, positions unchanged).

How is SYSTEM coded?

  1. ((a))

    XDBZJR

  2. ((b))

    XEBZKR

  3. ((c))

    XDXCYR

  4. ((d))

    XEBZJR

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

XDBZJR

17

Statement: "To control crowding, entry to the park will be by online booking only".

Which conclusion follows?

  1. ((a))

    Park staff prefer online work

  2. ((b))

    Online booking is free for all

  3. ((c))

    The number of visitors is currently too high

  4. ((d))

    Citizens dislike visiting parks in the evenings

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Park staff prefer online work

18

Four friends, R, K, S, and A, travelled to a city in April on dates: 4, 11, 18, and 25. K went exactly one week before S. A did not go on the 25th. R travelled after S. A travelled on the 18th.

Who travelled on the 11th?

  1. ((a))

    R

  2. ((b))

    K

  3. ((c))

    S

  4. ((d))

    A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

R

19

Six people, M-R, travelled to a city on 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, and 21 June; Q travelled between N and R, M travelled after P, N travelled immediately after M, P did not travel first, R travelled last.

Who went on the 15th?

  1. ((a))

    Q

  2. ((b))

    P

  3. ((c))

    N

  4. ((d))

    M

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Q

20

After a difficult team project, two members openly blame each other for failures. You are their supervisor.

What shows the highest emotional intelligence?

  1. ((a))

    Avoid involvement and let them solve it

  2. ((b))

    Criticise both in front of the team

  3. ((c))

    Meet each member privately and explore their perspectives

  4. ((d))

    Remove both from the team

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Avoid involvement and let them solve it

21

In the dictionary, which comes first?

CRY, CRYPT, CRYSTAL, CRYING

  1. ((a))

    CRYING

  2. ((b))

    CRYSTAL

  3. ((c))

    CRY

  4. ((d))

    CRYPT

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CRYING

22

Which comes last alphabetically in the dictionary?

BRIGHT, BRIM, BRINE, BRISK

  1. ((a))

    BRIGHT

  2. ((b))

    BRIM

  3. ((c))

    BRINE

  4. ((d))

    BRISK

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

BRIGHT

23

If 25% of a number is 15, then what is the number?

  1. ((a))

    50

  2. ((b))

    80

  3. ((c))

    70

  4. ((d))

    60

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50

24

A pipe fills a tank in 6 hours, another in 4 hours. Together they fill in:

  1. ((a))

    2 hr 12 min

  2. ((b))

    2 hr 24 min

  3. ((c))

    2 hr 30 min

  4. ((d))

    2 hr 40 min

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2 hr 12 min

25

A can do a job in 10 days, B in 15 days. They start together but B leaves after 5 days.

In how many more days will A finish the work?

  1. ((a))
    1. 67
  2. ((b))

    3.5

  3. ((c))
    1. 57
  4. ((d))

    5.8

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 67
26

In group work, a member suggests a method you think may not work.

Best way to respond?

  1. ((a))

    Appreciate the idea, discuss concerns politely

  2. ((b))

    Reject it immediately

  3. ((c))

    Laugh at it

  4. ((d))

    Ignore suggestion

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Appreciate the idea, discuss concerns politely

27

In a team video call, one member’s connectivity is poor and repeats questions you already answered.

What’s the socially intelligent response?

  1. ((a))

    Answer patiently again

  2. ((b))

    Tell them to check the recording later

  3. ((c))

    Ignore their questions

  4. ((d))

    Say they are wasting time

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Answer patiently again

28

Arrange the letters V I R A T C O I to form a meaningful English word.

  1. ((a))

    CAVITOIR

  2. ((b))

    COVRIAT

  3. ((c))

    VICTOAIR

  4. ((d))

    VICTORIA

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CAVITOIR

29

Using all letters of E D E R M A T O, which valid word can be formed?

  1. ((a))

    DREAMOTE

  2. ((b))

    MODERATE

  3. ((c))

    TEARDOME

  4. ((d))

    MATERODE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

DREAMOTE

30

Your friend asks for confidential company data.

What should you do?

  1. ((a))

    Refuse politely and explain it’s not allowed

  2. ((b))

    Share as it’s a friend

  3. ((c))

    Share partly

  4. ((d))

    Ignore the question

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Refuse politely and explain it’s not allowed

31

You notice a team member appears upset after a team reshuffle.

What is the best decision?

  1. ((a))

    Ignore their feelings

  2. ((b))

    Discuss and address their concerns in private

  3. ((c))

    Announce the issue publicly

  4. ((d))

    Change the team structure again

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ignore their feelings

32

A store has fewer female cashiers than male cashiers, despite females applying in equal numbers.

What is likely inferred?

  1. ((a))

    Prefer males as cashiers

  2. ((b))

    Females avoid cashier jobs

  3. ((c))

    Male cashiers are trained better

  4. ((d))

    Cashier jobs require strength

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Prefer males as cashiers

33

River water level rose by 2 metres after the dam gates were closed.

Which inference is valid?

  1. ((a))

    Rainfall increased

  2. ((b))

    Dam closure stopped the downstream flow

  3. ((c))

    Water usage increased

  4. ((d))

    Tourists visited more

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rainfall increased

34

A community park was renovated at double the budget but visitor numbers remained the same.

Which is the best judgement?

  1. ((a))

    Renovation improved park quality

  2. ((b))

    Visitors dislike changes

  3. ((c))

    Money was not utilised efficiently to attract visitors

  4. ((d))

    Park is too far

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Renovation improved park quality

35

Find the value of 15×3−(12+9÷3)15\times3-(12+9\div3).

  1. ((a))

    35

  2. ((b))

    30

  3. ((c))

    42

  4. ((d))

    33

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

35

36

Find the result of (32÷\div4+14)×\times(15÷\div3-4).

  1. ((a))

    36

  2. ((b))

    22

  3. ((c))

    42

  4. ((d))

    48

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

36

37

Work out (500÷25)×(72÷8)+(180÷12)×(45÷9){(500\div25)\times(72\div8)}+{(180\div12)\times(45\div9)}

  1. ((a))

    184

  2. ((b))

    255

  3. ((c))

    380

  4. ((d))

    476

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

184

38

If @ = division, % = addition, $ = multiplication, and # = subtraction, calculate 64 @ 8 % 12 $ 3 # 10.

  1. ((a))

    27

  2. ((b))

    34

  3. ((c))

    28

  4. ((d))

    26

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

27

39

The rainfall measured for three years was 600 mm, 630 mm, and 662 mm.

Expected rainfall in the 5th year is

  1. ((a))

    718

  2. ((b))

    745

  3. ((c))

    739

  4. ((d))

    732

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

718

40

An investment grows by 15% in the first year, 20% in the second, and 25% in the third. If the initial investment ₹ 80,000, what is its value after 3 years?

  1. ((a))

    138,000

  2. ((b))

    135,000

  3. ((c))

    139,000

  4. ((d))

    137,999

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

138,000

41

A and B are brothers. C is the daughter of B.

How is A related to C?

  1. ((a))

    Father

  2. ((b))

    Uncle

  3. ((c))

    Brother

  4. ((d))

    Cousin

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Father

42

Pointing to a girl, Rohit said, "She is the daughter of my mother’s only son".

How is the girl related to Rohit?

  1. ((a))

    Sister of Rohit

  2. ((b))

    Daughter of Rohit

  3. ((c))

    Niece of Rohit

  4. ((d))

    Cousin of Rohit

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sister of Rohit

43

A 250 m long train crosses a platform in 20 seconds at a speed of 72 km/h.

What is the length of the platform?

  1. ((a))

    150 m

  2. ((b))

    200 m

  3. ((c))

    250 m

  4. ((d))

    300 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

150 m

44

The sum of the present ages of A and B is 50 years. After 10 years, A’s age will be twice B’s age.

Find B’s present age in years.

  1. ((a))
    1. 33
  2. ((b))
    1. 33
  3. ((c))
    1. 66
  4. ((d))
    1. 33
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 33
45

In the following question, two statements are followed by two conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

Statements:

Some books are papers.

Some papers are covers.

Conclusions:

I. Some books are covers.

II. No book is cover.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

  4. ((d))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follows

46

In the following question, two statements are followed by two conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

Statements:

All gold is precious.

Some precious things are rare.

Conclusions:

I. Some gold is rare.

II. All rare things are gold.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follows

47

In the following question, two statements are followed by four conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read the conclusions carefully and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

Statements:

All cats are animals.

Some animals are dogs.

Conclusions:

A. Some cats are dogs

B. All cats are dogs

C. Some dogs are cats

D. Some animals are cats

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Only D

  3. ((c))

    Only C

  4. ((d))

    Only B

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

48

In the following questions, a few statements are given, followed by some conclusions. Consider the statements to be true, even if they appear to contradict commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions carefully and decide which of them logically follows from the given statements.

Statements:

All rats are dogs.

Some dogs are cows.

No cow is a cat.

Conclusions:

I. Some rats are cows.

II. Some dogs are cats.

III. No cat is a cow.

  1. ((a))

    Only I and III follow

  2. ((b))

    Only III follows

  3. ((c))

    Only II and III follow

  4. ((d))

    All follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I and III follow

49

Mall footfall rose by 2525% in the festive season without extra advertisements.

Which inference is valid?

  1. ((a))

    New shops opened

  2. ((b))

    Festivals attracted more visitors

  3. ((c))

    Parking space increased

  4. ((d))

    Prices were reduced

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

New shops opened

50

How can you show empathy in conversation?

  1. ((a))

    Interrupt often

  2. ((b))

    Maintain eye contact and nod

  3. ((c))

    Check your phone

  4. ((d))

    Talk about yourself more

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Interrupt often

General Awareness (50 questions)

51

Which of the following is a key criticism of the Human Development Index (HDI) education component?

  1. ((a))

    It only considers primary education.

  2. ((b))

    It does not account for the quality of education.

  3. ((c))

    It overemphasizes higher education.

  4. ((d))

    It excludes vocational training.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It only considers primary education.

52

What is the significant environmental impact of increased levels of nitrogen oxides (NOx) in urban areas?

  1. ((a))

    Depletion of the ozone layer

  2. ((b))

    Formation of ground-level ozone and smog

  3. ((c))

    Increased ocean acidification

  4. ((d))

    Soil salinization

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Depletion of the ozone layer

53

The primary focus of the Cartosat series of satellites is:

  1. ((a))

    Solar research

  2. ((b))

    Communication

  3. ((c))

    Earth observation and mapping

  4. ((d))

    Astronomy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Solar research

54

____ curve shows the various combinations of two commodities that can be produced with the given resources.

  1. ((a))

    Indifference

  2. ((b))

    Phillips

  3. ((c))

    Production possibility

  4. ((d))

    Laffer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Indifference

55

What is the importance of the Vikram lander in the Chandrayaan-3 mission?

  1. ((a))

    It orbited Mars successfully

  2. ((b))

    It performed a soft landing near the lunar south pole

  3. ((c))

    It launched Aditya-L1 from lunar orbit

  4. ((d))

    It deployed the Mangalyaan rover

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It orbited Mars successfully

56

What is guaranteed by Article 32 of the Indian Constitution?

  1. ((a))

    Right to Education

  2. ((b))

    Right to Equality

  3. ((c))

    Right to Constitutional Remedies

  4. ((d))

    Right to Freedom of Speech

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Right to Education

57

Which amendment of the Indian Constitution added the provision for the reservation of seats for women in local bodies?

  1. ((a))

    77th Amendment

  2. ((b))

    70th Amendment

  3. ((c))

    73rd Amendment

  4. ((d))

    71st Amendment

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

77th Amendment

58

What does P in the PESTAL macroeconomic analysis stand for?

  1. ((a))

    Price

  2. ((b))

    Profit

  3. ((c))

    Private

  4. ((d))

    Political

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Price

59

Which of the following is the CORRECT procedure for the amendment of the Indian Constitution?

  1. ((a))

    By the President alone

  2. ((b))

    By the Supreme Court

  3. ((c))

    By Parliament through a simple majority

  4. ((d))

    By Parliament with a special majority

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

By the President alone

60

The Mansabdari system introduced by Akbar included:

  1. ((a))

    Military rank only

  2. ((b))

    Land grant only

  3. ((c))

    Civil and military rank

  4. ((d))

    Revenue farming

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Military rank only

61

Who among the following is NOT associated with Sufi Chishti order in India?

  1. ((a))

    Nizamuddin Auliya

  2. ((b))

    Moinuddin Chishti

  3. ((c))

    Nasiruddin Chiragh

  4. ((d))

    Shah Waliullah

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nizamuddin Auliya

62

The authority to establish or dissolve Legislative Councils in states is vested in:

  1. ((a))

    The Parliament

  2. ((b))

    The President of India

  3. ((c))

    The Supreme Court

  4. ((d))

    The State Governor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Parliament

63

Under which constitutional provision can the Union Parliament legislate for two or more states with their consent?

  1. ((a))

    Article 249

  2. ((b))

    Article 250

  3. ((c))

    Article 253

  4. ((d))

    Article 252

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 249

64

Which mechanism is used to allocate financial resources between the Union and the States?

  1. ((a))

    The Planning Commission

  2. ((b))

    The Economic Survey

  3. ((c))

    The Budget Committee

  4. ((d))

    The Finance Commission

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Planning Commission

65

Which Article mandates that state governments adhere to the laws made by the Union?

  1. ((a))

    Article 254

  2. ((b))

    Article 256

  3. ((c))

    Article 260

  4. ((d))

    Article 258

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 254

66

Which South Asian country has the lowest population?

  1. ((a))

    Bhutan

  2. ((b))

    Maldives

  3. ((c))

    Sri Lanka

  4. ((d))

    Nepal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bhutan

67

Which Middle Eastern country is a key part of the IMEC (India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor) corridor?

  1. ((a))

    Iran

  2. ((b))

    Saudi Arabia

  3. ((c))

    Libya

  4. ((d))

    Algeria

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Iran

68

Where is Chabahar Port located?

  1. ((a))

    Iran

  2. ((b))

    Pakistan

  3. ((c))

    India

  4. ((d))

    Afghanistan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Iran

69

The "DigiLocker" initiative by the Government of India serves what primary purpose?

  1. ((a))

    To provide free internet access to all citizens.

  2. ((b))

    To offer a secure cloud-based platform for storage and sharing of digital documents and certificates.

  3. ((c))

    To track the movement of goods and services across the country.

  4. ((d))

    To facilitate online voting in national and state elections.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To provide free internet access to all citizens.

70

Consider the following statements regarding the "National Green Hydrogen Mission":
I. It aims to make India a global hub for the production, utilization, and export of Green Hydrogen.
II. Green Hydrogen under this mission is primarily produced using fossil fuels with carbon capture technology.
III. The mission supports research and development in Green Hydrogen technologies.
IV. A key objective is to reduce India’s reliance on imported fossil fuels.
Which of the above statements accurately reflect the goals and approach of the National Green Hydrogen Mission?

  1. ((a))

    I and III only

  2. ((b))

    II and IV only

  3. ((c))

    I, III, and IV only

  4. ((d))

    II and III only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I and III only

71

Where is ’Garbhagriha’ located in Vastu Shastra-based temple designs?

  1. ((a))

    Vayavya (North-West)

  2. ((b))

    Agni Kon (South-East)

  3. ((c))

    Brahmasthan (Central point)

  4. ((d))

    Nairutya (South-West)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vayavya (North-West)

72

Where is the tomb of Sher Shah Suri located?

  1. ((a))

    Delhi

  2. ((b))

    Sasaram

  3. ((c))

    Agra

  4. ((d))

    Lahore

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Delhi

73

The Hill Area Development Programme was started during the ________ Five-Year Plan.

  1. ((a))

    First

  2. ((b))

    Second

  3. ((c))

    Third

  4. ((d))

    Fifth

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

First

74

Who was awarded the Man Asian Literary Prize in 2007 for Wolf Totem, a work often mistaken for an Indian novel?

  1. ((a))

    Aravind Adiga

  2. ((b))

    Jiang Rong

  3. ((c))

    Kiran Desai

  4. ((d))

    Tash Aw

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Aravind Adiga

75

The Industrial Disputes Act was commenced in the year _______, having significant implications for industrial relations during the early Five-Year Plans.

  1. ((a))

    1947

  2. ((b))

    1953

  3. ((c))

    1961

  4. ((d))

    1965

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1947

76

Which policy measure during the Sixth Five-Year Plan encouraged private sector participation in trade?

  1. ((a))

    Complete nationalization of industries

  2. ((b))

    Removal of all export incentives

  3. ((c))

    Introduction of high tariffs on all imports

  4. ((d))

    Liberalization of industrial licensing

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Complete nationalization of industries

77

Which novel by Kazuo Ishiguro won the Booker Prize in 1989 and explores themes of memory, regret, and duty through the life of a British butler?

  1. ((a))

    Never Let Me Go

  2. ((b))

    The Remains of the Day

  3. ((c))

    An Artist of the Floating World

  4. ((d))

    When We Were Orphans

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Never Let Me Go

78

The policy of "Divide and Rule," often employed by the British in India, aimed to:

  1. ((a))

    Promote unity and cooperation among different Indian communities.

  2. ((b))

    Weaken the nationalist movement by fostering divisions based on religion, caste, and region.

  3. ((c))

    Establish a single, unified administrative system across British India.

  4. ((d))

    Encourage inter-caste marriages and social reforms.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Promote unity and cooperation among different Indian communities.

79

The "Quit India Movement" of 1942, while ultimately suppressed by the British, had a significant impact on the trajectory of the Indian nationalist struggle. What was a key characteristic of this movement that distinguished it from earlier forms of protest?

  1. ((a))

    It was primarily led by moderate leaders advocating for constitutional reforms.

  2. ((b))

    It emphasized non-violent civil disobedience and cooperation with the British war effort.

  3. ((c))

    It witnessed widespread spontaneous uprisings and a call for the immediate end of British rule, even without clear centralized leadership after the arrest of major leaders.

  4. ((d))

    It was largely confined to urban centers and had limited participation from rural populations.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It was primarily led by moderate leaders advocating for constitutional reforms.

80

What is the purpose of introducing Uniform Civil Code (UCC) in India ?

  1. ((a))

    Introduce a uniform criminal code

  2. ((b))

    Replace the Constitution of India

  3. ((c))

    Abolish the caste system

  4. ((d))

    Standardize personal laws across all religions

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Introduce a uniform criminal code

81

Which of the following group is directly impacted by the Uniform Civil Code?

  1. ((a))

    Only government employees

  2. ((b))

    Only residents of urban areas

  3. ((c))

    All Indian citizens

  4. ((d))

    Only Hindus

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only government employees

82

Which of the following type of documentary evidence is admissible without further proof?

  1. ((a))

    Handwritten anonymous letter

  2. ((b))

    Audio recordings without context

  3. ((c))

    Certified copies of public documents

  4. ((d))

    Scanned copy without metadata

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Handwritten anonymous letter

83

Who became the first woman to be appointed as the Director General of the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)?

  1. ((a))

    Kiran Bedi

  2. ((b))

    Nina Singh

  3. ((c))

    Archana Ramasundaram

  4. ((d))

    Meera Borwankar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kiran Bedi

84

Which Indian state launched the ’Mukhyamantri Ladli Behna Yojana’ for the welfare of women?

  1. ((a))

    Uttar Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Madhya Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Bihar

  4. ((d))

    Rajasthan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Uttar Pradesh

85

Who assumed charge as the Chief of the Air Staff in 2024 after serving as the Vice Chief of Air Staff?

  1. ((a))

    Air Marshal Narmdeshwar Tiwari

  2. ((b))

    Air Marshal Amar Preet Singh

  3. ((c))

    Air Marshal R.K.S. Bhadauria

  4. ((d))

    Air Marshal Sujeet Pushpakar Dharkar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Air Marshal Narmdeshwar Tiwari

86

Who was the first woman freedom fighter from Uttarakhand to be jailed during the freedom struggle?

  1. ((a))

    Tulsi Devi Rawat

  2. ((b))

    Vijaylakshmi Pandit

  3. ((c))

    Bishni Devi Shah

  4. ((d))

    Durga Devi Pant

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tulsi Devi Rawat

87

Who among the following was the first woman chief minister of Uttar Pradesh?

  1. ((a))

    Sucheta Kripalani

  2. ((b))

    Aruna Asaf Ali

  3. ((c))

    Usha Mehta

  4. ((d))

    Matangini Hazra

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sucheta Kripalani

88

Which tribal community is primarily associated with the Jhumar dance in Jharkhand?

  1. ((a))

    Santhal

  2. ((b))

    Gond

  3. ((c))

    Oraon

  4. ((d))

    Bhil

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Santhal

89

What are the ’Navarasas’ in dance?

  1. ((a))

    Dance styles

  2. ((b))

    Nine emotions portrayed in dance

  3. ((c))

    Dance costumes

  4. ((d))

    Classical instruments used in dance

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dance styles

90

Which among the following animals were NOT known to the Harappans?

  1. ((a))

    Elephant

  2. ((b))

    Sheep

  3. ((c))

    Cow

  4. ((d))

    Horse

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Elephant

91

Identify the correct pairs related to social structure.

  1. Brahmana - Ritual priest
  2. Vaishya - Warrior class
  3. Shudra - Service provider
  1. ((a))

    1 and 3 only

  2. ((b))

    2 and 3 only

  3. ((c))

    1 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2, and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 and 3 only

92

Which of the following regions does NOT constitute the hinterland of Mumbai port?

  1. ((a))

    Uttar Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Gujarat

  3. ((c))

    Maharashtra

  4. ((d))

    Goa

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Uttar Pradesh

93

Which of the given statements is CORRECT with reference to Paradip Port?

  1. ((a))

    It is situated on the Krishna-Godavari Delta.

  2. ((b))

    It is a deep-water port in India.

  3. ((c))

    It was developed mainly for petroleum exports.

  4. ((d))

    The main hinterland of this port is Andhra Pradesh.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It is situated on the Krishna-Godavari Delta.

94

With reference to the location of Industries, consider the following statements:

  1. Heavy machines, machine tools, and heavy chemical industries are located near the high-demand areas, as these are market-oriented industries.
  2. Cotton textile industry and industries based on perishable raw materials are located near the source of raw materials because they use perishable raw materials, which need immediate processing.
  3. Aluminium manufacturing industries are located near sources of power because they are power-intensive and require a huge quantum of electricity.

Which of the statements given above is/are CORRECT?

  1. ((a))

    1 and 2 only

  2. ((b))

    2 only

  3. ((c))

    1 and 3 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2, and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 and 2 only

95

What does ’svar’ mean in the context of Indian music?

  1. ((a))

    Tone or note

  2. ((b))

    Rhythm cycle

  3. ((c))

    Scale

  4. ((d))

    Melody

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tone or note

96

The Kamaicha is a bowed lute traditionally played in which region of India?

  1. ((a))

    Punjab

  2. ((b))

    Rajasthan

  3. ((c))

    Kerala

  4. ((d))

    Tamil Nadu

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Punjab

97

The Katkari Tribes, sometimes seen in the news, is largely found in which of the following states?

  1. ((a))

    Maharashtra

  2. ((b))

    Telangana

  3. ((c))

    Karnataka

  4. ((d))

    Tamil Nadu

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Maharashtra

98

What is the CORRECT order to arrange the states in descending order according to the population density in India (2011)?

  1. ((a))

    Bihar, West Bengal, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, West Bengal

  3. ((c))

    West Bengal, Bihar, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Kerala

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bihar, West Bengal, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh

99

Which of the following rivers is an example of inland drainage in India?

  1. ((a))

    Ghaggar River

  2. ((b))

    Mahi River

  3. ((c))

    Tapi River

  4. ((d))

    Krishna River

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ghaggar River

100

The river that rises near Rohtang Pass in Kullu, draining the western slope of the Pir Panjal and the northern slope of the Dhauladhar Range, is the ______ River.

  1. ((a))

    Chenab

  2. ((b))

    Sutlej

  3. ((c))

    Indus

  4. ((d))

    Ravi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chenab

Mechanical Engineering (100 questions)

101

What does the ignition system in a petrol engine produce?

  1. ((a))

    Spark for combustion

  2. ((b))

    Heat for the carburetor

  3. ((c))

    Pressure for injection

  4. ((d))

    Air-fuel mixture

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Spark for combustion

102

What is the mean effective pressure (MEP)?

  1. ((a))

    Net work per cycle divided by displacement volume

  2. ((b))

    Peak cylinder pressure

  3. ((c))

    Exhaust gas pressure

  4. ((d))

    Fuel injection pressure

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Net work per cycle divided by displacement volume

103

Where does steam expand in an impulse turbine?

  1. ((a))

    At the exit

  2. ((b))

    In moving blades

  3. ((c))

    In both fixed and moving blades

  4. ((d))

    Only in the nozzle

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

At the exit

104

Which factor does not affect thermal efficiency in IC engines?

  1. ((a))

    Compression ratio

  2. ((b))

    Heat loss

  3. ((c))

    Ignition timing

  4. ((d))

    Bore size

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Compression ratio

105

Why is compounding done in turbines?

  1. ((a))

    To reduce the turbine cost.

  2. ((b))

    To minimize the casing weight.

  3. ((c))

    To increase steam temperature.

  4. ((d))

    To reduce the rotor speed.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To reduce the turbine cost.

106

What does ideal nozzle flow assume?

  1. ((a))

    Constant velocity

  2. ((b))

    Adiabatic and isentropic flow

  3. ((c))

    Constant enthalpy

  4. ((d))

    Isothermal expansion

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Constant velocity

107

What does turbocharging an engine improve?

  1. ((a))

    Emissions only

  2. ((b))

    Torque only

  3. ((c))

    Volumetric efficiency and power

  4. ((d))

    Cooling

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Emissions only

108

Why is the gas turbine cycle more suitable than I.C. engines for aircraft?

  1. ((a))

    High part-load efficiency

  2. ((b))

    Lower specific power

  3. ((c))

    Lightweight and compact

  4. ((d))

    Better torque characteristics

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

High part-load efficiency

109

What type of mechanism is used in an engine with separate intake and exhaust valves?

  1. ((a))

    Two-stroke cycle

  2. ((b))

    L-head configuration

  3. ((c))

    Port timing

  4. ((d))

    Overhead valve mechanism

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Two-stroke cycle

110

What does the critical pressure ratio in a nozzle depend on?

  1. ((a))

    Inlet pressure

  2. ((b))

    Specific heat ratio

  3. ((c))

    Nozzle length

  4. ((d))

    Friction factor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Inlet pressure

111

A gas turbine produces 4 MW power with 5 kg/s air flow. Find specific work.

  1. ((a))

    400 kJ/kg

  2. ((b))

    800 kJ/kg

  3. ((c))

    600 kJ/kg

  4. ((d))

    1000 kJ/kg

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

400 kJ/kg

112

A flat belt drive runs at a speed of 12 m/s. The tension in the tight side of the belt is 900 N, while the tension in the slack side is 600 N. Determine the power transmitted by the belt drive.

  1. ((a))
    1. 6 kW
  2. ((b))
    1. 5 kW
  3. ((c))
    1. 0 kW
  4. ((d))
    1. 0 kW
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 6 kW
113

The coefficient of friction (μ\mu) for oak tanned leather belts on a cast iron pulley, at the point of slipping is:

  1. ((a))

    μ=0.54−(42.6/(152.6+v))\mu = 0. 54 - (42.6 / (152. 6 + v))

  2. ((b))

    μ=0.64−(42.6/152.6+v)\mu = 0. 64 - (42.6 / 152. 6 + v)

  3. ((c))

    μ=0.54−(42.6/172.6+v)\mu = 0. 54 - (42.6 / 172. 6 + v)

  4. ((d))

    μ=0.54−(42.6/152.6+d)\mu = 0. 54 - (42.6 / 152. 6 + d)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

μ=0.54−(42.6/(152.6+v))\mu = 0. 54 - (42.6 / (152. 6 + v))

114

What is the formula for tearing resistance in rivets?

  1. ((a))

    pt=(p−d)t.σtpt = (p - d)t.\sigma _t

  2. ((b))

    pt=(p−d)tpt = (p - d)t

  3. ((c))

    pt=(p−0.1d)tpt = (p - 0. 1d)t

  4. ((d))

    pt=(p−0.2d)tpt = (p - 0. 2d)t

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

pt=(p−d)t.σtpt = (p - d)t.\sigma _t

115

A single-strand chain No. 12A is used in a mechanical drive. The driving sprocket has 17 teeth and rotates at 1,000 rpm (neglecting centrifugal force acting on the chain). What factor of safety should be used for the standard power rating?

  1. ((a))

    fs = 2

  2. ((b))

    fs = 11. 73

  3. ((c))

    fs = 3

  4. ((d))

    fs = 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

fs = 2

116

An engine running at 150 r.p.m. drives a line shaft by means of a belt. The engine pulley has a diameter of 750 mm, and the pulley on the line shaft has a diameter of 450 mm. A 900 mm diameter pulley on the line shaft drives a 150 mm diameter pulley keyed to a dynamo shaft.

Find the speed of the dynamo shaft, assuming there is no slip.

  1. ((a))

    1200 r.p.m.

  2. ((b))

    1500 r.p.m.

  3. ((c))

    1300 r.p.m.

  4. ((d))

    1400 r.p.m.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1200 r.p.m.

117

Which one of the following is a positive drive?

  1. ((a))

    Chain drive

  2. ((b))

    V-belt drive

  3. ((c))

    Flat belt drive

  4. ((d))

    Open belt drive

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chain drive

118

What is the efficiency range for a single riveted butt joint?

  1. ((a))

    55% to 60%

  2. ((b))

    65% to 70%

  3. ((c))

    70% to 83%

  4. ((d))

    80% to 90%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

55% to 60%

119

In the analysis of collar bearings, which assumption is made under the uniform wear theory?

  1. ((a))

    Pressure is inversely proportional to the radius

  2. ((b))

    Pressure is directly proportional to the radius

  3. ((c))

    Pressure is maximum at the middle

  4. ((d))

    Pressure remains the same across the surface

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pressure is inversely proportional to the radius

120

Which of the following is considered undesirable in a good bearing material?

  1. ((a))

    Low coefficient of friction

  2. ((b))

    High coefficient of friction

  3. ((c))

    High thermal conductivity

  4. ((d))

    Resilience

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Low coefficient of friction

121

Which of the following correctly describes an equipotential line in fluid flow?

  1. ((a))

    The dynamic pressure remains uniform along it

  2. ((b))

    It can be present only in rotational fluid motion

  3. ((c))

    There is no tangential component of velocity along it

  4. ((d))

    It is always perpendicular to the streamlines in the flow field

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The dynamic pressure remains uniform along it

122

The metal removal rate (MRR) equation in turning is: [where D is the average diameter of the workpiece (mm), N is the rotational speed of the workpiece (rpm), f is the feed (mm/rev), d is the depth of cut (mm) t is the cutting time (s)]

  1. ((a))

    πDdNf\pi Dd Nf

  2. ((b))

    DNF/πd\pi d

  3. ((c))

    πfN/d\pi f N / d

  4. ((d))

    πNtd\pi Ntd

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

πDdNf\pi Dd Nf

123

Cutting speed in drilling (V = πDN/1000\pi DN/1000) is in units of: where

D = The diameter of the drill bit, measured in millimeters (mm).

N = The spindle speed (or RPM), measured in revolutions per minute (rev/min)

  1. ((a))

    m/s

  2. ((b))

    m/min

  3. ((c))

    mm/s

  4. ((d))

    mm/min

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

m/s

124

According to the hydrostatic law, what is the rate of increase of pressure in a static fluid?

  1. ((a))

    Constant throughout the fluid, irrespective of density.

  2. ((b))

    Proportional to the depth only.

  3. ((c))

    Equal in all directions and proportional to the fluid’s specific weight and depth.

  4. ((d))

    Dependent on the shape of the container.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Constant throughout the fluid, irrespective of density.

125

Capillary rise is inversely proportional to which parameter, keeping other properties constant?

  1. ((a))

    Surface tension of the liquid

  2. ((b))

    Density of the liquid

  3. ((c))

    Radius of the capillary tube

  4. ((d))

    Contact angle between liquid and tube wall

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Surface tension of the liquid

126

Which of the following instrument-application pairings is incorrect?

  1. ((a))

    Hydrometer - Measurement of specific gravity

  2. ((b))

    Hygrometer - Measurement of atmospheric humidity

  3. ((c))

    Orifice meter - Measurement of flow discharge

  4. ((d))

    Pitot tube - Measurement of fluid viscosity

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hydrometer - Measurement of specific gravity

127

Bernoulli’s equation is based on which of the following assumptions?

  1. ((a))

    The fluid is ideal, compressible and viscous.

  2. ((b))

    The flow is ideal, unsteady and turbulent, with no energy loss.

  3. ((c))

    The fluid is ideal, incompressible and non-viscous, and the flow is steady and along a streamline, with no energy loss.

  4. ((d))

    The pressure is uniform in all directions in a moving fluid, with no energy loss.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The fluid is ideal, compressible and viscous.

128

Which combination of conditions correctly represents an unsteady, compressible, and non-uniform flow?

Nomenclature:

∙\bullet s = spatial coordinate along the streamline

∙\bullet V = velocity along the streamline

∙\bullet t = time

∙\bullet p = fluid density

  1. ((a))

    ∂ρ/∂t=0\partial \rho / \partial t = 0, ∂s/∂V=0\partial s / \partial V = 0

  2. ((b))

    ∂ρ/∂t≠0\partial \rho / \partial t \ne 0, ∂V/∂s≠0\partial V / \partial s \ne 0

  3. ((c))

    ∂p/∂s=0,∂v/∂s=0\partial p / \partial s=0, \partial v / \partial s=0

  4. ((d))

    ∂ρ/∂t=0\partial \rho / \partial t = 0, ∂V/∂s≠0\partial V / \partial s \ne 0

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

∂ρ/∂t=0\partial \rho / \partial t = 0, ∂s/∂V=0\partial s / \partial V = 0

129

Which of the following correctly represents the velocity components of a three-dimensional flow?

  1. ((a))

    u, v = 0, w = f(z)f(z)

  2. ((b))

    u = f(x)f(x), v = f(y)f(y), w = f(z)f(z)

  3. ((c))

    u = f(x)f(x), v = f(x)f(x), w = 0

  4. ((d))

    u = f(x,y)f(x,y), v = 0, w = 0

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

u, v = 0, w = f(z)f(z)

130

A shaper with stroke frequency ff and feed per stroke s, machining width ww, and stroke ll, has a material removal rate:

  1. ((a))

    f × s × w × l

  2. ((b))

    (s × w × 1)/f

  3. ((c))

    f × s × w / 1

  4. ((d))

    f × 1 × w / s

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

f × s × w × l

131

Helical milling increases tool life by:

  1. ((a))

    Allowing more teeth to engage simultaneously

  2. ((b))

    Increasing chip thickness per tooth

  3. ((c))

    Reducing axial thrust

  4. ((d))

    Increasing cutting temperature

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Allowing more teeth to engage simultaneously

132

Centerless grinding obtains tolerance by adjusting:

  1. ((a))

    Regulating wheel speed only

  2. ((b))

    Work rest blade height

  3. ((c))

    Coolant flow

  4. ((d))

    Feed rate only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Regulating wheel speed only

133

Which motion is known as the cutting motion in turning?

  1. ((a))

    Feed motion

  2. ((b))

    Tool rotation

  3. ((c))

    Work rotation

  4. ((d))

    Feed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Feed motion

134

Which of the following operations cannot be performed on a lathe?

  1. ((a))

    Turning

  2. ((b))

    Drilling

  3. ((c))

    Knurling

  4. ((d))

    Broaching

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Turning

135

A fluid is placed between two parallel plates 1 mm apart. The upper plate moves with a a velocity of 1 m/sm/s, and the shear stress is 1 N/m2N/m^2. What is the dynamic viscosity of the fluid?

  1. ((a))
    1. 001 Ns/m2Ns/m^2
  2. ((b))
    1. 01 Ns/m2Ns/m^2
  3. ((c))

    1 Ns/m2Ns/m^2

  4. ((d))

    10 Ns/m2Ns/m^2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 001 Ns/m2Ns/m^2
136

Which term in the expression for the total (material) acceleration in the x-direction accounts for the unsteadiness of the flow?

  1. ((a))

    u ∂x/∂uu\space \partial x / \partial u

  2. ((b))

    v ∂y/∂vv\space \partial y / \partial v

  3. ((c))

    ∂u/∂t\partial u / \partial t

  4. ((d))

    w ∂w/∂zw\space \partial w / \partial z

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

u ∂x/∂uu\space \partial x / \partial u

137

If the velocity of a rotating shaft is doubled and the clearance remains the same, what happens to the shear stress on the lubricant?

  1. ((a))

    It becomes half

  2. ((b))

    It remains unchanged

  3. ((c))

    It doubles

  4. ((d))

    It quadruples

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It becomes half

138

A shaper machine is used to create ______ surfaces.

  1. ((a))

    Spiral

  2. ((b))

    Curved

  3. ((c))

    Flat

  4. ((d))

    Threaded

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Spiral

139

What is the kind of motion of the tool in a shaper machine?

  1. ((a))

    Circular

  2. ((b))

    Rotary

  3. ((c))

    Oscillatory

  4. ((d))

    Reciprocating

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Circular

140

For an incompressible, irrotational flow, which equation must the velocity potential function satisfy?

  1. ((a))

    Poisson’s equation

  2. ((b))

    Bernoulli’s equation

  3. ((c))

    Navier-Stokes equation

  4. ((d))

    Laplace equation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Poisson’s equation

141

A certain paint shows high resistance to flow on a flat surface but easily flows when brushed. What type of fluid behavior does this illustrate?

  1. ((a))

    Non-Newtonian shear-thinning fluid

  2. ((b))

    Bingham plastic

  3. ((c))

    Newtonian fluid

  4. ((d))

    Ideal fluid

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Non-Newtonian shear-thinning fluid

142

Which of the following heat treatment processes significantly increases the hardness of steel?

  1. ((a))

    Annealing

  2. ((b))

    Cyaniding

  3. ((c))

    Normalizing

  4. ((d))

    Tempering

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Annealing

143

When is the hot working of materials carried out?

  1. ((a))

    Below the recrystallisation temperature.

  2. ((b))

    At the recrystallisation temperature,

  3. ((c))

    Above the recrystallisation temperature.

  4. ((d))

    Working temperature depends upon the physical condition of the workpiece.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Below the recrystallisation temperature.

144

At what temperature is steel typically hot forged?

  1. ((a))

    400∘^\circC

  2. ((b))

    800∘^\circC

  3. ((c))

    1100∘^\circC

  4. ((d))

    1500∘^\circC

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

400∘^\circC

145

In moulding, what is the purpose of a gate?

  1. ((a))

    To cool the mold uniformly

  2. ((b))

    Feed the casting at a constant rate

  3. ((c))

    Avoid cavities

  4. ((d))

    Compensate for shrinkage

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To cool the mold uniformly

146

What does hydrostatic pressure in extrusion process improve?

  1. ((a))

    brittleness

  2. ((b))

    compressive strength

  3. ((c))

    ductility

  4. ((d))

    tensile strength

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

brittleness

147

What is the approximate carbon content indicated by the steel designation C-14?

  1. ((a))
    1. 1%
  2. ((b))
    1. 1 to 0. 18%
  3. ((c))

    1%

  4. ((d))

    1% to 4%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 1%
148

Increasing the percentage of carbon in steel generally leads to a reduction in which property?

  1. ((a))

    Hardness

  2. ((b))

    Ductility

  3. ((c))

    Ultimate strength

  4. ((d))

    Corrosion resistance

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hardness

149

In low-carbon steels, the addition of a small amount of sulfur primarily enhances which of the following properties?

  1. ((a))

    Weldability

  2. ((b))

    Formability

  3. ((c))

    Machinability

  4. ((d))

    Hardenability

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Weldability

150

What is the typical microstructure of hyper-eutectoid steels?

  1. ((a))

    Only pearlite

  2. ((b))

    Mixture of ferrite and pearlite

  3. ((c))

    Mixture of cementite and pearlite

  4. ((d))

    Mixture of ferrite and cementite

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only pearlite

151

Statement (A): A properly welded joint should provide not only sufficient strength but also good ductility.

Statement (R): Welding is a process used only for manufacturing mild steel components.

Which of the following is correct?

  1. ((a))

    Both A and R are correct, and R explains A

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are correct, but R does not explain A

  3. ((c))

    A is correct, but R is incorrect

  4. ((d))

    A is incorrect, but R is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and R are correct, and R explains A

152

Identify the solid-state welding processes from the list below that involve the use of heat from an external source. Processes:

P:Diffusion welding, Q: Friction welding, R: Ultrasonic welding, S: Forge welding

  1. ((a))

    P and R

  2. ((b))

    R and S

  3. ((c))

    Q and S

  4. ((d))

    P and S

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

P and R

153

In the forging process of a connecting rod from bar stock, the operations listed below are performed:

  1. Blocking
  2. Trimming
  3. Finishing
  4. Edging

Which of the following sequences correctly represents the order of operations during forging?

  1. ((a))

    Blocking→Trimming→Finishing→EdgingBlocking \to Trimming \to Finishing \to Edging

  2. ((b))

    Trimming→Finishing→Edging→BlockingTrimming \to Finishing \to Edging \to Blocking

  3. ((c))

    Finishing→Edging→Blocking→TrimmingFinishing \to Edging \to Blocking \to Trimming

  4. ((d))

    Edging→Blocking→Finishing→TrimmingEdging \to Blocking \to Finishing \to Trimming

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Blocking→Trimming→Finishing→EdgingBlocking \to Trimming \to Finishing \to Edging

154

Which of the following combinations of product and manufacturing process is incorrectly matched?

  1. ((a))

    Aluminium alloy piston — High pressure die casting

  2. ((b))

    Jewellery — Investment casting process

  3. ((c))

    Large diameter pipes — Centrifugal casting

  4. ((d))

    Large bells — Loam moulding technique

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Aluminium alloy piston — High pressure die casting

155

What is the dryness fraction of steam in the wet region?

  1. ((a))

    Between 0 and 1

  2. ((b))

    0

  3. ((c))

    1

  4. ((d))

    Greater than 1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Between 0 and 1

156

Bernoulli’s equation in fluid mechanics is based on the principle of conservation of:

  1. ((a))

    Mass

  2. ((b))

    Energy

  3. ((c))

    Momentum

  4. ((d))

    Force

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mass

157

In turbine terminology, the speed factor is defined as the ratio of:

  1. ((a))

    Peripheral velocity of the runner vane to the spouting velocity of water

  2. ((b))

    Whirl velocity to the peripheral velocity of the runner

  3. ((c))

    Flow velocity to the spouting velocity

  4. ((d))

    Absolute velocity of water to its spouting velocity

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Peripheral velocity of the runner vane to the spouting velocity of water

158

Which of the following best describes a Kaplan turbine?

  1. ((a))

    High-head, mixed-flow type

  2. ((b))

    Low-head, axial-flow type

  3. ((c))

    Outward-flow, reaction type

  4. ((d))

    Inward-flow, impulse type

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

High-head, mixed-flow type

159

In which type of flow do the streamline, pathline, and streakline coincide without any geometric differences?

  1. ((a))

    Steady flow

  2. ((b))

    Uniform flow

  3. ((c))

    Laminar flow

  4. ((d))

    Irrotational flow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Steady flow

160

Which of the following conditions correctly characterizes Couette flow?

  1. ((a))

    Steady, incompressible, laminar flow between two fixed parallel plates

  2. ((b))

    Steady, incompressible, laminar flow between one fixed plate and the other moving with a constant velocity

  3. ((c))

    Fully developed turbulent flow through a straight circular pipe

  4. ((d))

    Steady, incompressible, laminar flow through a straight circular pipe

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Steady, incompressible, laminar flow between two fixed parallel plates

161

Which of the following correctly describes the force ratio represented by the Froude number?

  1. ((a))

    Inertia force to gravity force

  2. ((b))

    Inertia force to viscous force

  3. ((c))

    Buoyancy force to inertia force

  4. ((d))

    Buoyancy force to viscous force

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Inertia force to gravity force

162

If the cavitation number sigma σ is zero, identify the statements that accurately describe the situation:

  • Local pressure drops to the vapor pressure.
  • Onset of cavitation occurs.
  • Liquid starts to boil.
  • Cavitation ends.

Choose the correct set of statements from the given options.

  1. ((a))

    i, ii and iv

  2. ((b))

    i, ii and iii

  3. ((c))

    only ii and iii

  4. ((d))

    only i and iii

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

i, ii and iv

163

According to Newton’s third law, how are the action and reaction forces aligned?

  1. ((a))

    At right angles

  2. ((b))

    On different lines of action

  3. ((c))

    Randomly aligned

  4. ((d))

    On the same line of action

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

At right angles

164

At the location where boundary layer separation occurs, which of the following is true?

  1. ((a))

    Density variation is the highest

  2. ((b))

    Shear stress reaches its maximum

  3. ((c))

    Velocity is negative

  4. ((d))

    Shear stress becomes zero

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Density variation is the highest

165

Identify the correct matching between the types of pumps and their typical components/features:

List-I (Types of Pump):

A. Centrifugal pump

B. Gear pump

C. Reciprocating pump

D. Turbine pump

List-II (Features):

  1. Air vessel
  2. Gears
  3. Guide vanes
  4. Rotor with blades

Select the correct code:

  1. ((a))

    A-2, B-4, C-2, D-1

  2. ((b))

    A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

  3. ((c))

    A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

  4. ((d))

    A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A-2, B-4, C-2, D-1

166

If the angle of friction between two surfaces is zero, what will the body experience?

  1. ((a))

    Infinite friction

  2. ((b))

    Zero friction

  3. ((c))

    The force of friction will act normal to the plane

  4. ((d))

    The force of friction will act in the direction of motion

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Infinite friction

167

Forces are called coplanar when all of them acting on body lie in:

  1. ((a))

    One point

  2. ((b))

    One plane

  3. ((c))

    Different planes

  4. ((d))

    Perpendicular planes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One point

168

What is the centroid of a plane figure?

  1. ((a))

    The point of maximum height

  2. ((b))

    Metacentre

  3. ((c))

    The intersection of all diagonals

  4. ((d))

    The center of area of the figure

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The point of maximum height

169

Where is the centre of gravity of a rectangle or a parallelogram located?

  1. ((a))

    At the midpoint of one of its sides

  2. ((b))

    At the intersection point of its diagonals

  3. ((c))

    At one of its vertices

  4. ((d))

    At the center of the base

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

At the midpoint of one of its sides

170

What is the mass of a body that accelerates at a rate of 3 m/s23 \text{ m/s}^2 when a force of 60 N is applied?

  1. ((a))

    20 kg

  2. ((b))

    18 kg

  3. ((c))

    15 kg

  4. ((d))

    12 kg

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20 kg

171

When the wheel of a truck is moving on the road, which of the following correctly represents the relative magnitudes of frictional forces?

  1. ((a))

    Rolling friction >> Static friction >> Kinetic friction

  2. ((b))

    Static friction >> Kinetic friction >> Rolling friction

  3. ((c))

    Static Friction >> Rolling Friction >> Kinetic Friction

  4. ((d))

    Rolling friction >> Kinetic friction >> Static friction

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rolling friction >> Static friction >> Kinetic friction

172

A body is in equilibrium under the action of three forces: 50N50 N, 60N60 N, and an unknown force. The angles between the forces are 60∘60^{\circ}, 75∘75^{\circ}, and 45∘45^{\circ}. Which theorem is applicable to determine the unknown force?

  1. ((a))

    Newton’s Second Law

  2. ((b))

    Varignon’s Theorem

  3. ((c))

    Lami’s Theorem

  4. ((d))

    Parallel Axis Theorem

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Newton’s Second Law

173

A body is acted on by three concurrent forces 10 N, 24 N, and an unknown force F. The forces of 10 N and 24 N act at right angles to each other. If these forces are in equilibrium, what is the magnitude of F?

  1. ((a))

    26 N

  2. ((b))

    40 N

  3. ((c))

    34 N

  4. ((d))

    30 N

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

26 N

174

The direction of limiting friction is ________.

  1. ((a))

    Opposite to the direction in which the body tends to move

  2. ((b))

    Opposite to the direction in which the body moves

  3. ((c))

    In the direction in which the body tends to move

  4. ((d))

    In the direction in which the body moves

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Opposite to the direction in which the body tends to move

175

The resultant of two equal forces P making an angle Φ\Phi is given by:

  1. ((a))

    2P Sin (Φ/2\Phi/2)

  2. ((b))

    2P Cos (Φ/2\Phi/2)

  3. ((c))

    2P tan (Φ/2\Phi/2)

  4. ((d))

    2P cot (Φ/2\Phi/2)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2P Sin (Φ/2\Phi/2)

176

What does Hooke’s Law state?

  1. ((a))

    Stress is directly proportional to strain within the plastic limit

  2. ((b))

    Stress is directly proportional to strain within the elastic limit

  3. ((c))

    Stress is directly proportional to strain at the upper yield point

  4. ((d))

    Stress is directly proportional to strain at the fracture point

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Stress is directly proportional to strain within the plastic limit

177

What is the polar moment of inertia for a solid circular shaft?

(where d is the diameter of the shaft)

  1. ((a))

    πd432\frac{\pi d^4}{32}

  2. ((b))

    πd464\frac{\pi d^4}{64}

  3. ((c))

    πd416\frac{\pi d^4}{16}

  4. ((d))

    πd42\frac{\pi d^4}{2}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

πd432\frac{\pi d^4}{32}

178

In the bending moment diagram, a sagging moment corresponds to which type of beam deformation?

  1. ((a))

    Beam bends into a convex shape

  2. ((b))

    Beam bends into a concave shape

  3. ((c))

    Bell shape

  4. ((d))

    Square shape

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Beam bends into a convex shape

179

The modulus of elasticity is the slope of the stress-strain curve in which region?

  1. ((a))

    Necking region

  2. ((b))

    Fracture

  3. ((c))

    Elastic region

  4. ((d))

    Plastic region

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Necking region

180

What is the variation of shear stress in a circular shaft subjected to pure torsion?

  1. ((a))

    Uniform

  2. ((b))

    Linear

  3. ((c))

    Parabolic

  4. ((d))

    Hyperbola

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Uniform

181

A bar 2 m long stretches by 1 mm under an axial tensile load. What is the strain in the bar?

  1. ((a))
    1. 001
  2. ((b))
    1. 0005
  3. ((c))
    1. 0001
  4. ((d))
    1. 005
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 001
182

A simply supported beam with a span of 6 m carries a uniformly distributed load (UDL) of 8 kN/m. What is the maximum bending moment?

  1. ((a))

    66 kNm66 \text{ kNm}

  2. ((b))

    56 kNm56 \text{ kNm}

  3. ((c))

    36 kNm36 \text{ kNm}

  4. ((d))

    46 kNm46 \text{ kNm}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

66 kNm66 \text{ kNm}

183

What is the relation among the three elastic constants, where E is the elastic modulus, G is the rigidity modulus, and K is the bulk modulus?

  1. ((a))

    E=2G(1+μ\mu)

  2. ((b))

    E=9KG / (G+3k)

  3. ((c))

    E=2G(1-μ\mu)

  4. ((d))

    E=3K(1-2μ\mu)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

E=2G(1+μ\mu)

184

A thin cylindrical shell is subjected to an internal pressure of 3. 5 MPa, with an internal radius of 300 mm and a wall thickness of 15 mm. What is the hoop stress in the cylinder wall?

  1. ((a))

    70 MPa

  2. ((b))

    75 MPa

  3. ((c))

    80 MPa

  4. ((d))

    85 MPa

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

70 MPa

185

What is the formula for elongation (Δ\Delta) of a tapered circular rod subjected to an axial load?

  1. ((a))

    Δ\Delta= 6PL/π\pi E d1 d2

  2. ((b))

    Δ\Delta = 4QL/π\pi E d1 d2

  3. ((c))

    Δ\Delta = 5PL/π\pi E d1 d3

  4. ((d))

    Δ\Delta = 4PL/π\pi E d1 d2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Δ\Delta= 6PL/π\pi E d1 d2

186

The diameter of a circular shaft is increased from 30 mm to 60 mm, while all other conditions remain the same. By what time does its torque-carrying capacity increase?

  1. ((a))

    7 times

  2. ((b))

    9 times

  3. ((c))

    8 times

  4. ((d))

    20 times

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7 times

187

A solid shaft with a diameter of 80 mm transmits 300 kW of power at 175 rpm. Calculate the torque transmitted by the shaft.

  1. ((a))

    16370 Nm

  2. ((b))

    17370 Nm

  3. ((c))

    1637 Nm

  4. ((d))

    1670 Nm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

16370 Nm

188

What is the primary function of a Scotch yoke mechanism?

  1. ((a))

    To connect two shafts at an angle

  2. ((b))

    To convert rotary motion into linear motion

  3. ((c))

    To reduce the vibration

  4. ((d))

    To increase the speed of shaft

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To connect two shafts at an angle

189

Flywheel is used in which machine?

  1. ((a))

    Lathe machine

  2. ((b))

    Punching machine

  3. ((c))

    Milling machine

  4. ((d))

    Drilling machine

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lathe machine

190

During the power transmission, the pressure angle of involute profile gear:

  1. ((a))

    Changes during meshing

  2. ((b))

    Changes with speed

  3. ((c))

    Remains constant

  4. ((d))

    Does not changes with speed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Changes during meshing

191

Which type of governor is commonly used in a gramophone?

  1. ((a))

    Hartnell Governor

  2. ((b))

    Pickering Governor

  3. ((c))

    Hartung Governor

  4. ((d))

    Watt Governor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hartnell Governor

192

A brake is considered self-locking if:

  1. ((a))

    The friction angle is less than or equal to the angle of wrap

  2. ((b))

    The friction force is zero

  3. ((c))

    The normal force is zero

  4. ((d))

    The friction angle is greater than the angle of wrap

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The friction angle is less than or equal to the angle of wrap

193

According to Kennedy’s Theorem, for three bodies in relative motion:

  1. ((a))

    There are three fixed points on each body

  2. ((b))

    The product of angular velocities is constant

  3. ((c))

    The three instantaneous centers lie on a straight line

  4. ((d))

    Only two instantaneous centers can be located at a time

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

There are three fixed points on each body

194

The gear train value is equal to:

  1. ((a))

    Speed ratio

  2. ((b))

    Double the speed ratio

  3. ((c))

    Reciprocal of the speed ratio

  4. ((d))

    Half of the speed ratio

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Speed ratio

195

An isochronous governor is characterized by:

  1. ((a))

    The sleeve does not move with speed changes

  2. ((b))

    The same speed for all sleeve positions

  3. ((c))

    No change in speed for any sleeve position

  4. ((d))

    The speed increases linearly with load

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The sleeve does not move with speed changes

196

Which of the following brakes applies force on the brake drum in the axial direction?

  1. ((a))

    Block brake

  2. ((b))

    Shoe brake

  3. ((c))

    Band brake

  4. ((d))

    Cone brake

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Block brake

197

Which type of gear train is commonly used in a clock?

  1. ((a))

    Simple gear train

  2. ((b))

    Epicyclic gear train

  3. ((c))

    Reverted gear train

  4. ((d))

    Planetary gear train

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Simple gear train

198

The interference in involute gears cannot be prevented by:

  1. ((a))

    Decreasing pressure angle

  2. ((b))

    Using stub teeth

  3. ((c))

    Increasing the number of teeth on the pinion

  4. ((d))

    Undercutting the gear teeth

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Decreasing pressure angle

199

An involute gear has a pressure angle of 20° and a contact length of 52.3 mm. What is the length of the arc of contact?

  1. ((a))

    53.21 mm

  2. ((b))

    54.33 mm

  3. ((c))

    55.66 mm

  4. ((d))

    56.23 mm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

53.21 mm

200

In helical gears, axial thrust is:

  1. ((a))

    Zero

  2. ((b))

    Depends upon gear diameter

  3. ((c))

    Caused by the normal component of force

  4. ((d))

    Caused by the tangential component of force

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Zero

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