Official Paper

SSC JE Mechanical 11 Oct 2023 Shift 2 Official Paper-I (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

Attempt as Timed Mock Test

General Intelligence and Reasoning (50 questions)

1

‘NEST’ is related to ‘PHUW’ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, ‘PWSR’ is related to ‘RZUU’. Which of the following is related to ‘MORG’ using the same logic?

  1. ((a))

    KLOD 

  2. ((b))

    KLPD 

  3. ((c))

    KLQD 

  4. ((d))

    KLPE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

KLOD 

2

Two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

All clothes are jeans.

All jeans are shirts.

Conclusions:

I. All clothes are shirts.

II. At least some shirts are jeans.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion II follows

  2. ((b))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

  3. ((c))

    Only conclusion I follows

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion II follows

3

Point G is 9 m to the west of Point H. Point B is 10 m to the north of Point H. Point A is 18 m to the west of Point B. Point C is 28 m to the north of Point A. Point C is 23 m to the west of Point D. Point E is 18 m to the south of Point D. Point F is 5 m to the west of Point E. What is the distance between Point H and Point F?

  1. ((a))

    20 m

  2. ((b))

    18 m

  3. ((c))

    15 m

  4. ((d))

    10 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20 m

4

Which of the following numbers will replace the question marks (?) in the given series?

523, 513, ?, 496, ?, 483, 478, 474

  1. ((a))

    504, 489 

  2. ((b))

    500, 488

  3. ((c))

    509, 490

  4. ((d))

    510, 490

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

504, 489 

5

‘5 FSH’ is related to ‘10 HUJ’ in a certain way. In the same way, ‘8 STH’ is related to ‘16 UVJ’. Which of the following is related to ‘12 PEP’ using the same logic?

  1. ((a))

    24 MCM 

  2. ((b))

    18 NCN

  3. ((c))

    24 NCN

  4. ((d))

    6 NCN

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

24 MCM 

6

Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.

  1. Infant
  2. Adolescent
  3. Toddler
  4. Adult
  5. Embryo
  1. ((a))

    13254 

  2. ((b))

    14532 

  3. ((c))

    51324 

  4. ((d))

    53142

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

13254 

7

Arrange the following words in a logical and meaningful order.

  1. chapter
  2. sentence
  3. letter
  4. phrase
  5. word
  1. ((a))

    3, 5, 4, 2, 1

  2. ((b))

    3, 4, 2, 1, 5

  3. ((c))

    3, 4, 5, 2, 1

  4. ((d))

    3, 4, 5, 1, 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3, 5, 4, 2, 1

8

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at 'PQ' as shown.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

9

If ‘+’ means ‘–’, ‘–’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’, ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

11 – 42 × 6 ÷ 69 + 27 = ?

  1. ((a))

    106 

  2. ((b))

    127 

  3. ((c))

    119 

  4. ((d))

    131

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

106 

10

Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes.

Sisters, Mothers, Teachers

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

11

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(7, 340, 3)

(4, 63, 1)

  1. ((a))

    (3, 56, 7)

  2. ((b))

    (9, 34, 1)

  3. ((c))

    (3, 23, 4)

  4. ((d))

    (2, 6, 1)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(3, 56, 7)

12

Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary.

  1. Manager
  2. Maintain
  3. Malice
  4. Match
  5. Mark
  1. ((a))

    2, 3, 1, 5, 4 

  2. ((b))

    1, 5, 3, 4, 2 

  3. ((c))

    1, 2, 3, 4, 5 

  4. ((d))

    2, 3, 1, 4, 5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2, 3, 1, 5, 4 

13

Select the option which is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words should be treated as meaningful words, and not related to each other on the basis of number of letters/consonants/vowels in the word.)

Organise : Jumble :: Overseas : ?

  1. ((a))

    Alien

  2. ((b))

    Foreign

  3. ((c))

    Domestic

  4. ((d))

    Abroad

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Alien

14

Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

36 – 5 + 240 ÷ 6 × 17 = 203

  1. ((a))

    × and +

  2. ((b))

    ÷ and +

  3. ((c))

    ÷ and –

  4. ((d))

    – and ×

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

× and +

15

Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series, will complete the series.

R_ML_P_P_ NP R_ML_P_P_LN

  1. ((a))

    PNRMLPNRMP 

  2. ((b))

    PNRMPLNRPM 

  3. ((c))

    PNMRLPNMRP 

  4. ((d))

    NPRMLNPRMP

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

PNRMLPNRMP 

16

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs and balance the given equation.

13 * 64 * 2 * 8 *11 = 18

  1. ((a))
      • × ÷
  2. ((b))

    × ÷ - +

  3. ((c))

    × ÷ + -

  4. ((d))
    • × ÷ -
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
    • × ÷
17

Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the given pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

18

Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary.

  1. Demography
  2. Denial
  3. Demonstrate
  4. Dense
  5. Demolish
  1. ((a))

    1, 5, 3, 4, 2 

  2. ((b))

    1, 3, 5, 2, 4 

  3. ((c))

    1, 5, 3, 2, 4 

  4. ((d))

    1, 5, 2, 3, 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1, 5, 3, 4, 2 

19

Select the option that represents the letters which, when sequentially placed from left to right in the blanks below, will complete the letter series.

_ E N _ _ A E _ D R _ E

  1. ((a))

    A D R N A

  2. ((b))

    R N A D A

  3. ((c))

    D N A A R

  4. ((d))

    N R A D A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A D R N A

20

A is the mother of B.

B is husband of C.

D is father in law of C.

How is A related to D?

  1. ((a))

    Mother 

  2. ((b))

    Wife

  3. ((c))

    Sister

  4. ((d))

    Father

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mother 

21

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

22

In a certain code language, “CTA” is coded as “1203” and “RXB” is coded as “22418”. How will “MQV” be coded in that language?

  1. ((a))

    211419 

  2. ((b))

    211812 

  3. ((c))

    221713 

  4. ((d))

    201614

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

211419 

23

Pointing to a man in a photograph, Rahul said, "He is the father of my father's daughter's daughter." How is the person in the picture related to Rahul?

  1. ((a))

    brother in Law

  2. ((b))

    Brother

  3. ((c))

    Son

  4. ((d))

    Nephew

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

brother in Law

24

Select the option that is related to the fifth term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the fourth term is related to the third term.

18 ∶ 52 ∶∶ 8 ∶ 22 ∶∶ 12 ∶ ?

  1. ((a))

    28 

  2. ((b))

    38 

  3. ((c))

    34 

  4. ((d))

    43

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

28 

25

In a certain code language, 'CARRY' is coded as YRUAC and 'HUMAN' is coded as NAPUH. How will 'NIGHT' be coded in that language?

  1. ((a))

    TGHIN

  2. ((b))

    THKIN 

  3. ((c))

    THJIN 

  4. ((d))

    TGHNI

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

TGHIN

26

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term.

56 ∶ 14 ∶∶ 88 ∶ ? ∶∶ 32 ∶ 11

  1. ((a))

    28

  2. ((b))

    23

  3. ((c))

    15

  4. ((d))

    18

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

28

27

A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

28

Maanvi cycles X km towards the north from her home and then turns right and cycles Y km to reach Point A. She then turns left and cycles for X+Y km to reach her shop. If she cycled for a total of 12 km from her home to her shop, what is the distance between Point A and her shop?

  1. ((a))

    6 km

  2. ((b))

    7 km

  3. ((c))

    4 km

  4. ((d))

    3 km

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6 km

29

Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)

Ink : Pen :: Paint : ?

  1. ((a))

    Sketch 

  2. ((b))

    Art 

  3. ((c))

    Brush 

  4. ((d))

    Paper

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sketch 

30

Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

ICMS, KDOT, ? , OFSV, QGUW

  1. ((a))

    LEQU 

  2. ((b))

    MERU 

  3. ((c))

    MESU 

  4. ((d))

    MEQU

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

LEQU 

31

Select the figure which will replace the question mark (?) in the given figure to complete the pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

32

Select the option that is related to the fourth term in the same way as the first term is related to the second term and the fifth term is related to the sixth term.

529 ∶ 21 ∶∶ ? ∶ 19 ∶∶ 841 ∶ 27

  1. ((a))

    361 

  2. ((b))

    402 

  3. ((c))

    441 

  4. ((d))

    484

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

361 

33

A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

34

Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

143, 153, 146, ?, 142, 152

  1. ((a))

    145 

  2. ((b))

    144 

  3. ((c))

    156 

  4. ((d))

    155

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

145 

35

Six friends are sitting in a circle facing the centre. Sumit sits second to the right of Amit. Karan is an immediate neighbour of Param. Tony sits third to the right of Amit. Dharam is an immediate neighbour of Amit and Sumit. Karan sits second to the right of Sumit.

Who sits to the immediate left of Amit?

  1. ((a))

    Karan 

  2. ((b))

    Param 

  3. ((c))

    Dharam 

  4. ((d))

    Tony

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Karan 

36

8 friends, Abhay, Bala, Chan, Dev, Emran, Fanny, Geeta and Hema are sitting around a square table such that four of them sit at the corners and the other four sit at the exact centre of the sides. Those sitting at the corners are facing outside while those sitting at the centre of the sides are facing the centre. Dev is sitting third to the right of Geeta and is facing the centre. Emran is third to the left of Chan who is not sitting at the centre of the sides. Only one person sits between Emran and Fanny. Fanny is not Chan’s neighbour. Hema is sitting facing the centre. Abhay is not Fanny’s neighbour. Who is sitting third to the right of Chan?

  1. ((a))

    Geeta 

  2. ((b))

    Bala 

  3. ((c))

    Emran 

  4. ((d))

    Fanny

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Geeta 

37

In a certain code language, ‘CROSS’ is written as ‘66’ and ‘CHART’ is written as ‘90’.

How will ‘SYMBOL’ be written in that language?

  1. ((a))

    93 

  2. ((b))

    76 

  3. ((c))

    88 

  4. ((d))

    82

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

93 

38

Which letter cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?

JIVC, DEXH, XAZM, ?

  1. ((a))

    RWBR

  2. ((b))

    RWCR 

  3. ((c))

    RXCR 

  4. ((d))

    RXBR

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

RWBR

39

In a certain code language, ‘POLISH’ is written as ‘89’ and ‘CLIP’ is written as ‘72’. How will ‘CONTROL’ be written in that language?

  1. ((a))

    92 

  2. ((b))

    99 

  3. ((c))

    89 

  4. ((d))

    106

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

92 

40

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

41

How many squares are there in the given figure?

  1. ((a))

    16

  2. ((b))

    22

  3. ((c))

    20

  4. ((d))

    18

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

16

42

Which letter cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?

LDL, NHJ, PLH, RPF, ?

  1. ((a))

    SSD 

  2. ((b))

    TSD 

  3. ((c))

    STC 

  4. ((d))

    TTD

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

SSD 

43

Select the word pair in which the two given words are related to each other in the same way as the two words of the given pair are related to each other.

(The words should be considered meaningful words, and not related to each other on the basis of number of letters/consonants/vowels in the word.)

Propagate : Disseminate

  1. ((a))

    Rapidity : Inertia

  2. ((b))

    Sublime : Divine

  3. ((c))

    Prompt : Quash

  4. ((d))

    Sacred : Profane

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rapidity : Inertia

44

Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

9 × 182 + 14 ÷ 67 – 33 = 151

  1. ((a))

    - and ×

  2. ((b))

    × and +

  3. ((c))

    ÷ and -

  4. ((d))

    ÷ and +

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

- and ×

45

Select the word-pair in which the two words are related in the same way as are the two words in the given pair.

Yarn : Fabric

  1. ((a))

    Lock : Key

  2. ((b))

    Petrol : Car

  3. ((c))

    Brick : Wall 

  4. ((d))

    Poem : Poet

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lock : Key

46

Which of the following option figures will complete the pattern in the figure given below?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

47

There are seven family members Q, R, S, T, U, V and W. Each are of different ages. R is elder than only three other members. S is younger than V but elder than W, who is the youngest among all. Q is elder than R but younger than U. U is not the eldest among all.

How many family members are there between Q and W?

  1. ((a))

    3

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    1

  4. ((d))

    2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3

48

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

4, 80, 159, 244, 338, ?

  1. ((a))

    434 

  2. ((b))

    443 

  3. ((c))

    444 

  4. ((d))

    433

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

434 

49

Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

(5, 4, 33)

(7, 3, 55)

  1. ((a))

    (11, 7, 135) 

  2. ((b))

    (9, 4, 98) 

  3. ((c))

    (8, 12, 78) 

  4. ((d))

    (14, 5, 260)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(11, 7, 135) 

General Awareness (50 questions)

51

Which of the following is NOT listed in Fundamental Duties? 

  1. ((a))

    To safeguard public property and abjure violence 

  2. ((b))

    To promote the spirit of common dissonance 

  3. ((c))

    To protect and to improve the natural environment

  4. ((d))

    To value and preserve the rich heritage

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To safeguard public property and abjure violence 

52

Which of the following instruments did Sheik Chinna Moulana, a famous instrumentalist from India, play? 

  1. ((a))

    Violin 

  2. ((b))

    Nadhaswaram

  3. ((c))

    Ghatam 

  4. ((d))

    Mridangam

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Violin 

53

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about migration in India?

  1. ((a))

    Migration may be rural to urban.

  2. ((b))

    Migration does not depend on social factors.

  3. ((c))

    It may be urban to rural areas. 

  4. ((d))

    Migration has pull and push factors.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Migration may be rural to urban.

54

The 11th fundamental duty is related to ________.

  1. ((a))

    health 

  2. ((b))

    culture 

  3. ((c))

    environment 

  4. ((d))

    education

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

health 

55

What is Petrology ?

  1. ((a))

    Science of rocks 

  2. ((b))

    Science of minerals

  3. ((c))

    Science of metals 

  4. ((d))

    Science of gases

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Science of rocks 

56

Who classified Indian society into seven classes?

  1. ((a))

    Strabo 

  2. ((b))

    Pliny 

  3. ((c))

    Arian 

  4. ((d))

    Megasthenes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Strabo 

57

Identify the chemical formula for ethyne.

  1. ((a))

    CH4

  2. ((b))

    C2H6

  3. ((c))

    C2H5OH

  4. ((d))

    C2H2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CH4

58

Most of the crops being cereals, required approximately _________ of dietary water footprint. 

  1. ((a))

    74%

  2. ((b))

    83%

  3. ((c))

    28%

  4. ((d))

    50%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

74%

59

Which of statement is NOT correct regarding the earthquake waves?

  1. ((a))

    P-wave can travel through only solid and liquid mediums but not gaseous mediums.

  2. ((b))

    S-waves is that they can travel only through solid materials.

  3. ((c))

    P-waves move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface.

  4. ((d))

    P-waves are called the primary waves.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

P-wave can travel through only solid and liquid mediums but not gaseous mediums.

60

Beta-carotene, lycopene, lutein and selenium are examples of: 

  1. ((a))

    sources of Vitamin C

  2. ((b))

    antioxidants 

  3. ((c))

    anti-coagulants 

  4. ((d))

    immunosuppressants

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

sources of Vitamin C

61

One may be tempted to treat higher level of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a country as an index of greater well-being of the people of that country. But there are some reasons due to which this may not be correct. Which of the following is NOT one of these reasons?

  1. ((a))

    Level of political awareness

  2. ((b))

    Non-monetary exchanges

  3. ((c))

    Distribution of GDP

  4. ((d))

    Externalities

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Level of political awareness

62

Which of the following classical dance styles is inscribed on the Gopuram of Chidambaram temple?

  1. ((a))

    Mohiniyattam

  2. ((b))

    Kathak 

  3. ((c))

    Kuchipudi 

  4. ((d))

    Bharatnatyam

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mohiniyattam

63

Chilika Lake is a brackish water lagoon, spread over which districts of Odisha state?

  1. ((a))

    Angul, Cuttak and Puri 

  2. ((b))

    Puri, Bhubaneswar and Khurda 

  3. ((c))

    Puri, Khurda and Ganjam

  4. ((d))

    Puri, Cuttack and Ganjam

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Angul, Cuttak and Puri 

64

Who was the leader of Kheda Satyagraha that was launched against the government? 

  1. ((a))

    Mahatma Gandhi 

  2. ((b))

    Sardar Patel 

  3. ((c))

    NG Ranga

  4. ((d))

    Baba Ramchandra

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mahatma Gandhi 

65

Which of the following are NOT antimicrobial drugs?

  1. ((a))

    Antibiotics 

  2. ((b))

    Disinfectants 

  3. ((c))

    Antiseptics 

  4. ((d))

    Antacids

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Antibiotics 

66

Darshana Jhaveri and Devjani Chaliha are best known for their contributions to which of the given styles of Indian dance? 

  1. ((a))

    Bharatanatyam 

  2. ((b))

    Manipuri 

  3. ((c))

    Kuchipudi 

  4. ((d))

    Kathak

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bharatanatyam 

67

In January 2023, who among the following has been appointed as the new Vice-Chief of the Indian Air Force? 

  1. ((a))

    Nagesh Kapoor

  2. ((b))

    Rakesh Kumar Singh Bhadauria 

  3. ((c))

    Sandeep Singh

  4. ((d))

    AP Singh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nagesh Kapoor

68

Martyrdom of revolutionary ___________ took place on 27 February, 1931.

  1. ((a))

    Sachindranath Sanyal

  2. ((b))

    Batukeshwar Dutt 

  3. ((c))

    Chandrashekhar Azad

  4. ((d))

    Bhagat Singh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sachindranath Sanyal

69

 In March 2023, which of the following organisations launched Mission ‘Har Payment Digital’? 

  1. ((a))

    Calcutta Stock Exchange Ltd.  

  2. ((b))

    Reserve Bank of India 

  3. ((c))

    State Bank of India

  4. ((d))

    National Stock Exchange of India Ltd.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Calcutta Stock Exchange Ltd.  

70

According to the Census of India 2011, what was the percentage of Sikh communities in the total population in India? 

  1. ((a))

    0.4% 

  2. ((b))

    79.8% 

  3. ((c))

    1.7%

  4. ((d))

    14.2%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.4% 

71

Which cyber security measure involves verifying the identity of users before granting access to a system or network? 

  1. ((a))

    Firewall configuration

  2. ((b))

    Multi-factor authentication 

  3. ((c))

    Regular software updates 

  4. ((d))

    Network encryption

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Firewall configuration

72

Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India mentions about the abolition of untouchability?

  1. ((a))

    Article 21

  2. ((b))

    Article 16 

  3. ((c))

    Article 17

  4. ((d))

    Article 28

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 21

73

As on 1st February 2023, who among the following is the Chairperson of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)?

  1. ((a))

    Droupadi Murmu

  2. ((b))

    Amit Shah

  3. ((c))

    Rajnath Singh

  4. ((d))

    Narendra Modi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Droupadi Murmu

74

As per Finance Bill 2023, eligible start-ups will be able to set off and carry forward losses incurred during their first ten years of incorporation, even if there has been a change in shareholding, if all shareholders continue during the relevant period. The previous time limit of seven years has been increased to _________. 

  1. ((a))

    13 years

  2. ((b))

    15 years 

  3. ((c))

    12 years

  4. ((d))

    10 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

13 years

75

Which of the following is NOT a commodity money? 

  1. ((a))

    Silver 

  2. ((b))

    Gold 

  3. ((c))

    Copper 

  4. ((d))

    Utensils

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Silver 

76

All England Championships is associated with _______. 

  1. ((a))

    Table tennis

  2. ((b))

    Badminton 

  3. ((c))

    Cricket 

  4. ((d))

    Tennis

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Table tennis

77

The best-known _________ ruler was Prithviraja III who was defeated by an Afghan ruler Sultan Muhammad Ghori in 1192.

  1. ((a))

    Rashtrakuta 

  2. ((b))

    Chahamana 

  3. ((c))

    Pala 

  4. ((d))

    Pratihara

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rashtrakuta 

78

Which of the following is a common condition that develops when a sticky substance called plaque accumulates inside your arteries, causing them to harden and narrow?

  1. ((a))

    Multiple sclerosis

  2. ((b))

    Hyperaldosteronism

  3. ((c))

    Atherosclerosis

  4. ((d))

    Hypervitaminosis

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Multiple sclerosis

79

As per the Budget 2022 announcement, a _______ income tax will be applied on earnings from virtual digital assets like cryptocurrencies.

  1. ((a))

    25%

  2. ((b))

    15% 

  3. ((c))

    30% 

  4. ((d))

    40%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25%

80

Which of the following is an aspartic acid-containing dipeptide sweetener?

  1. ((a))

    Acesulfame K 

  2. ((b))

    Alitame 

  3. ((c))

    Saccharin 

  4. ((d))

    Sucralose

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Acesulfame K 

81

The total number of persons awarded under Jeevan Raksha Padak Series of Awards - 2022, which was announced by the President of India on 25th January 2023, stood at ________.

  1. ((a))

    53

  2. ((b))

    63

  3. ((c))

    43

  4. ((d))

    33

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

53

82

Which of the following pairs of coast and the state in which it is located is INCORRECT? 

  1. ((a))

    Malabar coast – Tamil Nadu

  2. ((b))

    Goan coast – Karnataka

  3. ((c))

    Kathiawar coast – Gujarat

  4. ((d))

    Konkan coast – Maharashtra

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Malabar coast – Tamil Nadu

83

Which of the following metals is present in nature in its free state?

  1. ((a))

    Magnesium 

  2. ((b))

    Calcium 

  3. ((c))

    Platinum 

  4. ((d))

    Zinc 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Magnesium 

84

Which team won the 2022 Durand Cup?

  1. ((a))

    ATK Mohun Bagan 

  2. ((b))

    Goa FC

  3. ((c))

    Bengaluru Football Club

  4. ((d))

    Mumbai City FC

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ATK Mohun Bagan 

85

How much of global trade is carried out through the sea route? 

  1. ((a))

    70%

  2. ((b))

    90%

  3. ((c))

    80%

  4. ((d))

    60%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

70%

86

When did 5G services begin to be offered in India? 

  1. ((a))

    10 August 2021

  2. ((b))

    1 October 2022

  3. ((c))

    19 September 2021

  4. ((d))

    28 September 2022

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10 August 2021

87

Which of the following protocols is used by email clients to send email to mail servers? 

  1. ((a))

    SMTP 

  2. ((b))

    TCP/IP

  3. ((c))

    IMAP 

  4. ((d))

    POP3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

SMTP 

88

Name the Government scheme aimed to benefit women entrepreneurs from backward backgrounds or poor backgrounds. 

  1. ((a))

    Mahila Samriddhi Yojana

  2. ((b))

    Ujjawala 

  3. ((c))

    Beti Bachao Beti Padhao

  4. ((d))

    Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mahila Samriddhi Yojana

89

According to the Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE), in which state of India was the unemployment rate recorded as 34.5%, as of April 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Haryana

  2. ((b))

    Assam

  3. ((c))

    Maharashtra

  4. ((d))

    Andhra Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Haryana

90

Which element was proposed by Glenn T Seaborg in 1955 through the bombardment of a minute amount of a rare, radioactive isotope of Einsteinium with α-particles in a 60-inch cyclotron?

  1. ((a))

    Lawrencium

  2. ((b))

    Nobelium

  3. ((c))

    Mendelevium

  4. ((d))

    Neptunium

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lawrencium

91

The Udyogmandal Canal is a part of which National Waterways?

  1. ((a))

    National Waterways 4

  2. ((b))

    National Waterways 2

  3. ((c))

    National Waterways 3

  4. ((d))

    National Waterways 1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

National Waterways 4

92

Chhajju Khan is one of the founder of which Gharana?

  1. ((a))

    Mewati Gharana

  2. ((b))

    Agra Gharana

  3. ((c))

    Bhendi Bazaar Gharana

  4. ((d))

    Lucknow Gharana

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mewati Gharana

93

What is the respective percentage of CO2, N2, and O2 in the atmosphere?

  1. ((a))

    CO2 = 0.04%, N2 = 20.95%, O2 = 78.08%

  2. ((b))

    CO2 = 0.03%, N2 = 68.08%, O2 = 30.95%

  3. ((c))

    CO2 = 0.08%, N2 = 70.08%, O2 = 29.95%

  4. ((d))

    CO2 = 0.04%, N2 = 78.08%, O2 = 20.95%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CO2 = 0.04%, N2 = 20.95%, O2 = 78.08%

94

The Constitution (87th Amendment) Act, 2003 provided for the delimitation of the constituencies on the basis of the census of __________.

  1. ((a))

    1981

  2. ((b))

    2001

  3. ((c))

    1971

  4. ((d))

    1991

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1981

95

If one goes from Rajasthan in the west to Orissa in the east, what is the correct order of Peninsulas one will come across?

  1. Marwar Plateau

  2. Malwa Plateau

  3. Chhota Nagpur Plateau

  4. Chhattisgarh Plateau

  1. ((a))

    1 - 2 - 4 - 3

  2. ((b))

    3 - 1 - 2 - 4

  3. ((c))

    2 - 3 - 1 - 4 

  4. ((d))

    1 - 2 - 3 - 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 - 2 - 4 - 3

96

Article ________ of the Constitution of India states that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor.

  1. ((a))

    161

  2. ((b))

    163

  3. ((c))

    165

  4. ((d))

    164

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

161

97

What is the name of the organic compound in the given figure?

  1. ((a))

    Tropone

  2. ((b))

    Aniline

  3. ((c))

    Cyclohexene

  4. ((d))

    Benzene

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tropone

98

When was the Indian Association founded?

  1. ((a))

    1871

  2. ((b))

    1875

  3. ((c))

    1876

  4. ((d))

    1874

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1871

99

Which of the following is/are responsible for nasal congestion?

  1. ((a))

    Histamine

  2. ((b))

    Tetracycline

  3. ((c))

    Tranquilizers

  4. ((d))

    Analgesics

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Histamine

100

Which of the following classical dancers won the Padma Shri award in 2022 for the dance form of Kuchipudi?

  1. ((a))

    Birju Maharaj

  2. ((b))

    Gaddam Padmaja Reddy

  3. ((c))

    Hema Malini

  4. ((d))

    Sujata Mohapatra

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Birju Maharaj

Mechanical Engineering (100 questions)

101

The following Temperature – Entropy diagram represents a Refrigeration system operates on the reversed Carnot cycle. The higher temperature of the refrigerant in the system is 35°C and the lower temperature is -15°C. What will be the C.O.P?

  1. ((a))

    4.82

  2. ((b))

    5.16

  3. ((c))

    3.45

  4. ((d))

    2.75

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4.82

102

In the shaping process, the cutting tool moves _________. 

  1. ((a))

    in a parabolic motion

  2. ((b))

    in an elliptical motion

  3. ((c))

    in a circular motion

  4. ((d))

    in a straight line

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

in a parabolic motion

103

An air standard diesel cycle working with a compression ratio of 13 and cut off takes places at 5 % of the stroke volume. The value of cut off ratio will be

  1. ((a))

    1.9 

  2. ((b))

    1.6 

  3. ((c))

    2.3

  4. ((d))

    1.3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1.9 

104

According to the American Society of Mechanical Engineers (ASME), the evaporation of 15.63 kg of water at 100°C per hour from 100°C feedwater in a steam boiler is known as __________.

  1. ((a))

    boiler horsepower

  2. ((b))

    actual evaporation

  3. ((c))

    equivalent evaporation

  4. ((d))

    boiler efficiency

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

boiler horsepower

105

An oil of specific gravity 0.8 is flowing through a pipe. A differential manometer is connected at the two points, say A and B, and shows a difference in the mercury level as 20 cm. What will be the difference between the pressures at the two points? Take density of mercury = 13600 kg/m3 and g = 10 m/s2.

  1. ((a))

    25.6 kN/m2

  2. ((b))

    2560 N/m2

  3. ((c))

    25.6 N/m2

  4. ((d))

    1280 kN/m2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25.6 kN/m2

106

Flow process is used for which of the following systems?

  1. ((a))

    Closed system

  2. ((b))

    Both open and closed systems

  3. ((c))

    Isolated system

  4. ((d))

    Open system

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Closed system

107

A piezometer is connected to a point in a pipe to measure the pressure of water flowing through it. If the piezometer reads 0.4 m, what will be the gauge pressure at that point?

Take atmospheric pressure = 101325 pascals and g = 10 m/s2 

  1. ((a))

    4000 pascals 

  2. ((b))

    105325 pascals

  3. ((c))

    40 kilopascals

  4. ((d))

    97325 pascals

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4000 pascals 

108

Following figure shows which of the following parts of a steam generator?

  1. ((a))

    Safety valve

  2. ((b))

    Blow-off cock

  3. ((c))

    Feed check valve

  4. ((d))

    Steam stop valve

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Safety valve

109

The Energy Gradient line will______. 

  1. ((a))

    lie above the Hydraulic Gradient line

  2. ((b))

    lie below the Hydraulic Gradient line

  3. ((c))

    coincide with pipe axis

  4. ((d))

    coincide with Hydraulic Gradient line

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

lie above the Hydraulic Gradient line

110

A Carnot cycle operates between two temperatures T1 and T2. The efficiency of the cycle is given by η = (T1 − T2) / T1. Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. ((a))

    The efficiency of the Carnot cycle is always equal to that of any other heat engine operating between the same two temperatures. 

  2. ((b))

    The efficiency of the Carnot cycle depends on the working substance used.

  3. ((c))

    The efficiency of the Carnot cycle is always less than that of any other heat engine operating between the same two temperatures.

  4. ((d))

    The efficiency of the Carnot cycle is always greater than that of any other heat engine operating between the same two temperatures.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The efficiency of the Carnot cycle is always equal to that of any other heat engine operating between the same two temperatures. 

111

The dimensional formula of specific gravity is given by:

  1. ((a))

    M2L-3T0

  2. ((b))

    M1L-3T0

  3. ((c))

    M1L-3T-2

  4. ((d))

    M0L0T0

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

M2L-3T0

112

The Molten metal is used in ___________ process

  1. ((a))

    Casting

  2. ((b))

    Deep Drawing

  3. ((c))

    Machining

  4. ((d))

    Forging

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Casting

113

When any gas is heated at constant pressure, its change in volume varies directly with change in absolute temperature. This law is known as ________.

  1. ((a))

    Joule's law

  2. ((b))

    Avogadro's law

  3. ((c))

    Boyle's law

  4. ((d))

    Charles' law

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Joule's law

114

A heat engine operates between a source at 600 K and a sink at 300 K. What is the maximum possible efficiency of the engine according to the Kelvin-Planck statement of the second law of thermodynamics?

  1. ((a))

    50%

  2. ((b))

    67%

  3. ((c))

    33.3%

  4. ((d))

    25%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50%

115

Which of the following statements is correct about a working engine?

  1. ((a))

    Operation of both the flywheel and the governor is intermittent.

  2. ((b))

    Operation of the governor is continuous, whereas operation of the flywheel is more or less intermittent.

  3. ((c))

    Operation of both the flywheel and the governor is continuous.

  4. ((d))

    Operation of the flywheel is continuous, whereas operation of the governor is more or less intermittent.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Operation of both the flywheel and the governor is intermittent.

116

The enthalpy of water is considered as ‘zero’ at _______.

  1. ((a))

    37°C

  2. ((b))

    4°C

  3. ((c))

    100°C

  4. ((d))

    0.01°C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

37°C

117

The frictional resistance in a turbulent flow is independent of the __________.

  1. ((a))

    velocity of fluid

  2. ((b))

    surface roughness

  3. ((c))

    pressure

  4. ((d))

    density of fluid

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

velocity of fluid

118

The function of condenser in refrigeration cooling system is _________.

  1. ((a))

    to give external work to the system

  2. ((b))

    to convert liquid refrigerant into vapour refrigerant

  3. ((c))

    to reject heat out of the system

  4. ((d))

    to give heat into the system

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

to give external work to the system

119

Which of the following machining operations is NOT related to turning?

  1. ((a))

    Boring

  2. ((b))

    Facing

  3. ((c))

    Shaping

  4. ((d))

    External threading

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Boring

120

There are two horizontal pipes in which water is flowing. If we have to find the pressure difference between these two horizontal pipes using an inverted manometer, and two manometric fluids with specific gravities of 13.5 and 0.9 are available, then which manometric fluid will be appropriate?

  1. ((a))

    Fluid with the specific gravity of 13.5

  2. ((b))

    Cannot be predicted

  3. ((c))

    Both the fluids can be used

  4. ((d))

    Fluid with the specific gravity of 0.9

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fluid with the specific gravity of 13.5

121

In a steam boiler, an economiser is used for heating of ________.

  1. ((a))

    flue gases

  2. ((b))

    fuel

  3. ((c))

    feedwater

  4. ((d))

    air

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

flue gases

122

What is the hydraulic radius for a circular pipe running full?

  1. ((a))

    0.5d

  2. ((b))

    0.75d

  3. ((c))

    0.25d

  4. ((d))

    d

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.5d

123

In the thermodynamic system, the primary driving force for mass transfer is __________.

  1. ((a))

    mass difference

  2. ((b))

    pressure difference

  3. ((c))

    concentration difference

  4. ((d))

    temperature difference

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

mass difference

124

Generation of steam in a boiler is an example of an _________.

  1. ((a))

    isobaric process

  2. ((b))

    isothermal process

  3. ((c))

    adiabatic process

  4. ((d))

    isochoric process

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

isobaric process

125

A seamless pipe having a diameter of 600 mm and thickness of 9 mm, contain the fluid under a pressure of 4 MPa, find the longitudinal stress developed in the pipe.

  1. ((a))

    77.7 Mpa

  2. ((b))

    88.8 Mpa

  3. ((c))

    66.6 Mpa

  4. ((d))

    133.3 Mpa

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

77.7 Mpa

126

The mass of water evaporated per unit mass of fuel burnt is termed as _________ steam boilers.

  1. ((a))

    boiler performance of

  2. ((b))

    boiler efficiency of

  3. ((c))

    actual evaporation in

  4. ((d))

    equivalent evaporation in

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

boiler performance of

127

The flow through a capillary tube is an example of ____________ flow.

  1. ((a))

    laminar

  2. ((b))

    turbulent

  3. ((c))

    compressible

  4. ((d))

    transition

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

laminar

128

The energy loss caused by abrupt enlargement is expressed by:

  1. ((a))

    (V1−V22)2 \left(\frac{V_1-V_2}{2}\right)^2

  2. ((b))

    (V1−V22g)2 \left(\frac{V_1-V_2}{2 g}\right)^2

  3. ((c))

    (V1−V2g)2\left(\frac{V_1-V_2}{g}\right)^2

  4. ((d))

    (V1−V22g)2\left(\frac{V_1-V_2}{\sqrt{2 g}}\right)^2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(V1−V22)2 \left(\frac{V_1-V_2}{2}\right)^2

129

In air-conditioning of aeroplanes, using air as a refrigerant, the cycle used is:

  1. ((a))

    reversed Otto cycle

  2. ((b))

    reversed Brayton cycle

  3. ((c))

    Joule cycle

  4. ((d))

    reversed Carnot cycle

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

reversed Otto cycle

130

For internal laminar flow, the variation of shear stress in the radial direction is:

  1. ((a))

    parabolic

  2. ((b))

    hyperbolic

  3. ((c))

    linear

  4. ((d))

    exponential

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

parabolic

131

Which of the following is a water-tube boiler?

  1. ((a))

    Cochran boiler

  2. ((b))

    Lancashire boiler

  3. ((c))

    Cornish boiler

  4. ((d))

    Babcock & Wilcox boiler

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cochran boiler

132

Choose the correct mathematical relation of absolute pressure.

  1. ((a))

    Pabs = Patm + Pguage

  2. ((b))

    Pabs = Patm + 2Pguage

  3. ((c))

    Pabs = Patm - Pguage

  4. ((d))

    Pabs = Patm/Pguage

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pabs = Patm + Pguage

133

Select the correct statement of Lami’s theorem.

  1. ((a))

    If three forces acting on a body are said to be in equilibrium, then each force is directly dependent on sine of the angle between the other two forces.

  2. ((b))

    If three forces are non-coplanar, then each force is directly dependent on sine of the angle between the other two forces.

  3. ((c))

    If three forces are not in equilibrium, then each force is inversely proportional to sine of the angle between the other two forces.

  4. ((d))

    If two forces are in equilibrium, then each force is directly proportional to sine of the angle between them.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

If three forces acting on a body are said to be in equilibrium, then each force is directly dependent on sine of the angle between the other two forces.

134

What will be the absolute pressure (approximately) at a point 3 m below the free surface of a liquid having a density of 1530 kg/m3, if the atmospheric pressure is equivalent to 750 mm of mercury? (The specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and density of water is 1000 kg/m3, g = 9.81 m/sec2)

  1. ((a))

    95,648 N/m2

  2. ((b))

    78,560N/m2

  3. ((c))

    1,00,250N/m2

  4. ((d))

    1,45,090 N/m2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

95,648 N/m2

135

What will be the mass density of one litre of a fluid which weighs 9.81 N? (Take g = 9.81 m/sec2)

  1. ((a))

    1000 gm/cm3

  2. ((b))

    100 gm/cm3

  3. ((c))

    100 kg/m3

  4. ((d))

    1000 kg/m3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1000 gm/cm3

136

Match the following.

Halocarbon RefrigerantsExamples
1.Halonsa.R - 32
2.CFCsb.R - 22
3HFCsc.R - 11
4.HCFCsd.R - 10
  1. ((a))

    1 - d; 2 - c; 3 - b; 4 - a

  2. ((b))

    1 - a; 2 - c; 3 - d; 4 - b

  3. ((c))

    1 - d; 2 - a; 3 - c; 4 - b

  4. ((d))

    1 - d; 2 - c; 3 - a; 4 - b

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 - d; 2 - c; 3 - b; 4 - a

137

Under steady state operation of a cone clutch, if semi-cone angle (α) decreases then _____________.

  1. ((a))

    the axial force increases

  2. ((b))

    the torque produced by clutch increases

  3. ((c))

    the torque produced by clutch decreases

  4. ((d))

    does not affect the axial force

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

the axial force increases

138

 In a steam boiler, the actual evaporation is 8 kg of steam per kg of fuel burnt. The heat supplied per kg of water is 2500 kJ/kg. Higher calorific value of fuel is 25,000 kJ/kg. What is the boiler efficiency?

  1. ((a))

    0.75

  2. ((b))

    0.10

  3. ((c))

    0.80

  4. ((d))

    0.25

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.75

139

The pressure at the inlet of a refrigerant compressor is called _________.

  1. ((a))

    discharge pressure

  2. ((b))

    back pressure

  3. ((c))

    suction pressure

  4. ((d))

    critical pressure

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

discharge pressure

140

The air pre-heater increases the temperature of ___________ before it/they enter(s) the furnace.

  1. ((a))

    fuel

  2. ((b))

    flue gases

  3. ((c))

    air

  4. ((d))

    feedwater

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

fuel

141

What is the function of the transfer port inside the engine?

  1. ((a))

    It is the port through which the engine gets the fuel.

  2. ((b))

    It is used to move charge from the crankcase to the cylinder head portion.

  3. ((c))

    It is the port through which scavenging of the gases takes place.

  4. ((d))

    It is used to transfer unburnt fuel to the exhaust port.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It is the port through which the engine gets the fuel.

142

Which of the following is the correct statement relating to the centre of pressure on an immersed surface?

  1. ((a))

    It is the point where the weight of body the acts.

  2. ((b))

    It is the point where the resultant pressure acts.

  3. ((c))

    It is the point where the weight of the body and resultant pressure acts.

  4. ((d))

    It is the point where the normal pressure acts.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It is the point where the weight of body the acts.

143

The pressure responsive element in the Bourdon tube pressure gauge is made of _________.

  1. ((a))

    Inconel

  2. ((b))

    cast iron

  3. ((c))

    aluminium

  4. ((d))

    bronze

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Inconel

144

The term ρV2/2 used in Bernoulli theorem is basically:

  1. ((a))

    dynamic pressure

  2. ((b))

    hydrostatic pressure

  3. ((c))

    static pressure

  4. ((d))

    stagnation pressure

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

dynamic pressure

145

Choose the correct option related to lathe turning operation.

  1. ((a))

    Work piece will rotate

  2. ((b))

    Both tool and work piece will not rotate

  3. ((c))

    Both tool and work piece will rotate

  4. ((d))

    Tool will rotate

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Work piece will rotate

146

The cyclic integral of Q/T for a reversible cycle is equal to zero. This statement is known as _________.

  1. ((a))

    Clausius theorem

  2. ((b))

    the principle of Carathéodory

  3. ((c))

    Rankine theorem

  4. ((d))

    Carnot theorem

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Clausius theorem

147

Which of the following is NOT a type of wet sump lubrication system?

  1. ((a))

    Splash lubrication system

  2. ((b))

    Pump lubrication system

  3. ((c))

    Pressure lubrication system

  4. ((d))

    Mist lubricating system

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Splash lubrication system

148

The highest temperature during the cycle, in a vapour compression refrigeration system, occurs after:

  1. ((a))

    condensation

  2. ((b))

    evaporation

  3. ((c))

    compression

  4. ((d))

    expansion

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

condensation

149

Which impellers are more likely to be clogged if stringy material or solids are pumped?

  1. ((a))

    Cannot be predicted

  2. ((b))

    Open impeller

  3. ((c))

    Semi-open impeller

  4. ((d))

    Closed impeller

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cannot be predicted

150

The correct relation between the modulus of elasticity (E) and modulus of rigidity (G) is:

Given, µ = Poisson’s ratio.

  1. ((a))

    G = 2E(1 + µ)

  2. ((b))

    E = 4G(1 + µ)

  3. ((c))

    E = 2G(1 + µ)

  4. ((d))

    G = 4E(1 + µ)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

G = 2E(1 + µ)

151

The ratio of the energy received by the steam to the energy supplied by the fuel to produce steam in a steam boiler is known as __________.

  1. ((a))

    boiler horsepower

  2. ((b))

    boiler efficiency

  3. ((c))

    equivalent evaporation

  4. ((d))

    actual evaporation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

boiler horsepower

152

In an I.C. engine, when the primary circuit in the coil ignition system breaks, the voltage produced across the secondary terminal is in the range of _______.

  1. ((a))

    80 V to 120 V

  2. ((b))

    2000 V to 5000 V

  3. ((c))

    800 V to 1200 V

  4. ((d))

    8000 V to 12,000 V

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

80 V to 120 V

153

Pressure head of a fluid represents:

  1. ((a))

    energy per unit mass

  2. ((b))

    energy per unit volume

  3. ((c))

    energy per unit length

  4. ((d))

    energy per unit weight

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

energy per unit mass

154

Which of the following does NOT describe the Diesel cycle?

  1. ((a))

    Limited maximum temperature

  2. ((b))

    High compression ratio

  3. ((c))

    Constant volume heat addition

  4. ((d))

    No spark plug needed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Limited maximum temperature

155

An engine is working with temperature limits of 29°C and 229°C. It receives 1000 kW and rejects 429 kW of heat. Possible cycle executed by the engine is

  1. ((a))

    Irreversible cycle

  2. ((b))

    Impossible cycle

  3. ((c))

    Carnot cycle

  4. ((d))

    Reversible cycle

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Irreversible cycle

156

Which turbine is suitable where a large discharge at low head is available?

  1. ((a))

    Pelton turbine

  2. ((b))

    Francis turbine

  3. ((c))

    Kaplan turbine

  4. ((d))

    Turgo turbine

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pelton turbine

157

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

  1. ((a))

    The value of dryness fraction always lies between 0 and 1.

  2. ((b))

    The value of dryness fraction is 0 for saturated water condition.

  3. ((c))

    The value of dryness fraction is 1 for saturated steam condition.

  4. ((d))

    The value of dryness fraction is greater than 1 for superheated steam condition. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The value of dryness fraction always lies between 0 and 1.

158

A body of weight 100 N is lying on a rough horizontal surface, and the horizontal force of 50 N is applied on the body as shown in the figure, which is just enough to move the body. What will be the coefficient of friction? 

  1. ((a))

    0.4

  2. ((b))

    0.6

  3. ((c))

    0.5

  4. ((d))

    0.3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.4

159

Which of the following is NOT a component of the water-cooling system with radiator?

  1. ((a))

    Condenser

  2. ((b))

    Thermostat

  3. ((c))

    Fan

  4. ((d))

    Centrifugal pump

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Condenser

160

Due to the refinement of grains, mechanical properties such as toughness, ductility, elongation and reduction in the area are improved in ___________ process

  1. ((a))

    Cold working

  2. ((b))

    Hot working

  3. ((c))

    Forming

  4. ((d))

    Joining

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cold working

161

A rectifier is fitted in an ammonia absorption plant to:

  1. ((a))

    remove the unwanted water vapour by heating the vapour mixture

  2. ((b))

    remove the unwanted water vapour by cooling the vapour mixture and condensing the water vapour

  3. ((c))

    superheat ammonia vapour

  4. ((d))

    only remove the unwanted water vapour by cooling the vapour mixture

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

remove the unwanted water vapour by heating the vapour mixture

162

A cyclic heat engine of thermal efficiency 80% does 60 kJ of work per cycle. The heat rejected per cycle will be equal to __________.

  1. ((a))

    15 kJ

  2. ((b))

    48 kJ

  3. ((c))

    75 kJ

  4. ((d))

    20 kJ

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15 kJ

163

The property of tool material to retain its hardness at elevated temperature is known as:

  1. ((a))

    Elasticity

  2. ((b))

    Toughness

  3. ((c))

    Red hardness

  4. ((d))

    Plasticity

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Elasticity

164

The expansion process in a vapour compression refrigeration cycle is a/an ___________.

  1. ((a))

    constant volume process

  2. ((b))

    reversible isothermal process

  3. ((c))

    isenthalpic process

  4. ((d))

    isentropic process

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

constant volume process

165

Which of the following air-cooled condensers are used only in small capacity applications such as domestic refrigerators and room air conditioners?

  1. ((a))

    Base mounted air-cooled condensers

  2. ((b))

    Natural convection air-cooled condensers

  3. ((c))

    Remote air-cooled condensers

  4. ((d))

    Shell and coil condensers

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Base mounted air-cooled condensers

166

The position of centre of pressure depends on which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    Location of object from the free surface

  2. ((b))

    Surface tension of fluid

  3. ((c))

    Weight of the object immersed in liquid

  4. ((d))

    Velocity of liquid

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Location of object from the free surface

167

Find the enthalpy of 1 kg of dry and saturated steam at 10 bar if sensible heat at 10 bar is 762.8 kJ/kg and latent heat of evaporation at 10 bar is 2015.3 kJ/kg.

  1. ((a))

    762.8 kJ

  2. ((b))

    1252.5 kJ

  3. ((c))

    2015.3 kJ

  4. ((d))

    2778.1 kJ

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

762.8 kJ

168

In a mechanical draught system, draught is produced by a _____________.

  1. ((a))

    chimney

  2. ((b))

    blower

  3. ((c))

    pump

  4. ((d))

    chain grate stoker

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

chimney

169

Which of the following milling operations is used to produce a flat surface parallel to the axis of rotation of the cutter?

  1. ((a))

    End milling

  2. ((b))

    Plain milling

  3. ((c))

    Face milling

  4. ((d))

    Profile milling

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

End milling

170

The speed ratio of a compound gear train is defined as _______.

  1. ((a))

    Product of number of teeth on driven shaftsProduct of number of teeth on driver shafts\rm\frac{Product\ of\ number\ of\ teeth\ on\ driven\ shafts} {Product\ of\ number\ of\ teeth\ on\ driver\ shafts}

  2. ((b))

    Product of speed of followersProduct of speed of drivers\rm \frac{Product\ of\ speed\ of\ followers} {Product\ of\ speed\ of\ drivers}

  3. ((c))

    Speed of last followerSpeed of first driver\rm \frac{Speed\ of\ last\ follower} {Speed\ of\ first\ driver}

  4. ((d))

    Product of number of teeth on driver shaftsProduct of number of teeth on driven shafts\rm \frac{Product\ of\ number\ of\ teeth\ on\ driver\ shafts} {Product\ of\ number\ of\ teeth\ on\ driven\ shafts}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Product of number of teeth on driven shaftsProduct of number of teeth on driver shafts\rm\frac{Product\ of\ number\ of\ teeth\ on\ driven\ shafts} {Product\ of\ number\ of\ teeth\ on\ driver\ shafts}

171

Which of the following statements is true about a four-stroke engine in comparison to a two-stroke engine?

  1. ((a))

    Thermal efficiency and part-load efficiency of a four-stroke engine are better than those of a two-stroke engine.

  2. ((b))

    Volumetric efficiency of a four-stroke engine is comparatively low, due to less power output.

  3. ((c))

    Owing to one power stroke in two revolutions, a lighter flywheel is required.

  4. ((d))

    A four-stroke engine only uses the diesel cycle, while a two-stroke engine only uses the Otto cycle.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Thermal efficiency and part-load efficiency of a four-stroke engine are better than those of a two-stroke engine.

172

The behaviour of a material at different stages of loading is represented by a diagram called the _________ diagram.

  1. ((a))

    hysteresis

  2. ((b))

    stress strain

  3. ((c))

    iron carbon

  4. ((d))

    circumferential stress

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

hysteresis

173

If Q1 is the heat rejected to the source and Q2 is the heat extracted from the sink, the coefficient of performance (COP) of a heat pump is given by _______.

  1. ((a))

    Q2Q1−Q2 \frac{Q_2}{Q_1-Q_2}

  2. ((b))

    Q1−Q2Q1 \frac{Q_1-Q_2}{Q_1}

  3. ((c))

    Q1−Q2Q2 \frac{Q_1-Q_2}{Q_2}

  4. ((d))

    Q1Q1−Q2 \frac{Q_1}{Q_1-Q_2}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Q2Q1−Q2 \frac{Q_2}{Q_1-Q_2}

174

If a turbine is working under different heads, the behaviour of the turbine can be easily determined from the values of _______________.

  1. ((a))

    unit quantities

  2. ((b))

    number of vanes

  3. ((c))

    size of runner

  4. ((d))

    blade angles

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

unit quantities

175

The net effect of superheating after compression in vapour compression refrigeration cycle is to have:

  1. ((a))

    decrease in refrigeration effect

  2. ((b))

    low C.O.P

  3. ((c))

    decrease in refrigeration capacity

  4. ((d))

    high C.O. P

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

decrease in refrigeration effect

176

The value of atmospheric pressure in bar is _______________.

  1. ((a))

    2.01324

  2. ((b))

    0.9874

  3. ((c))

    1.5643

  4. ((d))

    1.01325

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2.01324

177

Modern Francis turbine is as example of:

  1. ((a))

    axial flow turbine

  2. ((b))

    impulse turbine

  3. ((c))

    mixed flow turbine

  4. ((d))

    radial flow turbine

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

axial flow turbine

178

For the same compression ratio, which of the following processes will require the least compression work?

  1. ((a))

    Polytropic process

  2. ((b))

    Isochoric process

  3. ((c))

    Isothermal process

  4. ((d))

    Adiabatic process

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Polytropic process

179

Which of the following statements is correct for compressibility?

  1. ((a))

    Compressibility is reciprocal of bulk modulus

  2. ((b))

    Compressibility is square root of bulk modulus

  3. ((c))

    Compressibility is equal to bulk modulus

  4. ((d))

    Compressibility is square of bulk modulus

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Compressibility is reciprocal of bulk modulus

180

If the mechanical efficiency and hydraulic efficiency of a turbine are 60% and 70%, respectively, then what will be the overall efficiency of the turbine?

  1. ((a))

    60%

  2. ((b))

    65%

  3. ((c))

    42%

  4. ((d))

    70%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

60%

181

In a lubrication method, the oil is kept in the crank case sump and it is splashed by using the end of a connecting rod to various components of the engine. This method is called ________.

  1. ((a))

    pump lubrication

  2. ((b))

    splash lubrication

  3. ((c))

    sump lubrication

  4. ((d))

    pressure lubrication

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

pump lubrication

182

Which thermodynamic property of steam does NOT change in throttling calorimeter?

  1. ((a))

    Enthalpy

  2. ((b))

    Pressure

  3. ((c))

    Temperature

  4. ((d))

    Entropy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Enthalpy

183

For hydraulic turbines, the ratio of overall efficiency and mechanical efficiency is called _________ .

  1. ((a))

    hydraulic efficiency

  2. ((b))

    cannot be predicted

  3. ((c))

    frictional power

  4. ((d))

    volumetric efficiency

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

hydraulic efficiency

184

Natural draft cooling towers are also known as ________.

  1. ((a))

    atmospheric cooling towers

  2. ((b))

    artificial cooling towers

  3. ((c))

    automatic spray cooling towers

  4. ((d))

    mechanical draft cooling towers

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

atmospheric cooling towers

185

Which of following losses fall into the category of major losses?

  1. ((a))

    Head loss due to bend of pipe

  2. ((b))

    Head loss due to sudden contraction

  3. ((c))

    Head loss due to sudden enlargement

  4. ((d))

    Head loss due to friction

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Head loss due to bend of pipe

186

If the specific weight of a fluid is 19620 N/m3, then what will be its specific volume in m3/kg? (Take g = 9.81 m/sec2)

  1. ((a))

    5 × 10-3

  2. ((b))

    0.5 × 10-3

  3. ((c))

    0.5 × 10-5

  4. ((d))

    5 × 10-5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5 × 10-3

187

The friction experienced by the body when the body tends to move is known as:

  1. ((a))

    static friction

  2. ((b))

    sliding friction

  3. ((c))

    dynamic friction

  4. ((d))

    rolling friction

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

static friction

188

A centrifugal pump is running at the speed of 1000 rpm against a head of 40 m. If its speed is changed to 3000 rpm, then it will work against a head of:

  1. ((a))

    80 m

  2. ((b))

    360 m

  3. ((c))

    120 m

  4. ((d))

    40 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

80 m

189

The mass flow is same at inlet and outlet in case of ___________.

  1. ((a))

    isolated system

  2. ((b))

    steady flow process

  3. ((c))

    non-steady flow process

  4. ((d))

    closed system

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

isolated system

190

In an ammonia vapour compression system, the pressure in the evaporator is 2 bar. Ammonia at exit is 0.85 dry and at entry its dryness fraction is 0.19. During compression, the work done per kg of ammonia is 150 kJ. The latent heat and specific volume at 2 bar are 1325 kJ/kg and 0.58 m3/kg, respectively. What will be its C.O.P?

  1. ((a))

    3.82

  2. ((b))

    4.34

  3. ((c))

    6.74

  4. ((d))

    5.83

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3.82

191

The speed ratio for an impulse turbine can be taken as __________.

  1. ((a))

    0.3

  2. ((b))

    0.75

  3. ((c))

    0.6

  4. ((d))

    0.45

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.3

192

Which of the following statements is true for a throttling process?

  1. ((a))

    It is a constant enthalpy process.

  2. ((b))

    It is an isothermal process.

  3. ((c))

    It is a reversible process.

  4. ((d))

    It is an isentropic process.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It is a constant enthalpy process.

193

The value of enthalpy of vaporisation approaches to zero on the saturation curve of water on a temperature entropy diagram:

  1. ((a))

    below critical point

  2. ((b))

    never approaches to zero

  3. ((c))

    at critical point

  4. ((d))

    above critical point

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

below critical point

194

_______ is a metal working process which is an example of forging.

  1. ((a))

    Casting

  2. ((b))

    Welding

  3. ((c))

    Extrusion

  4. ((d))

    Upsetting

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Casting

195

Which of the following is the correct relation for specific speed of turbine?

  1. ((a))

    Specific speed is directly proportional to head under which the turbine is working

  2. ((b))

    Specific speed is directly proportional to square of the head under which the turbine is working

  3. ((c))

    Specific speed is directly proportional to shaft power

  4. ((d))

    Specific speed is directly proportional to square root of shaft power

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Specific speed is directly proportional to head under which the turbine is working

196

Vapour pressure is primarily associated with which phenomenon?

  1. ((a))

    Capillarity

  2. ((b))

    Cavitation

  3. ((c))

    Water hammering

  4. ((d))

    Surging

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Capillarity

197

For a two-stage reciprocating air compressor, the section pressure is 1.6 bar and the delivery pressure is 40 bar. What is the value of the ideal intercooler pressure (in bar)?

  1. ((a))

    9

  2. ((b))

    8

  3. ((c))

    4.56

  4. ((d))

    20.8

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

9

198

The point at which all the three phases – solid, liquid, and vapour co-exist in equilibrium in a p-T diagram is known as ________.

  1. ((a))

    boiling point

  2. ((b))

    triple point

  3. ((c))

    melting point

  4. ((d))

    critical point

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

boiling point

199

The duplex feed pump is:

  1. ((a))

    Centrifugal pump

  2. ((b))

    Single-acting reciprocating pump

  3. ((c))

    Double-acting reciprocating pump

  4. ((d))

    Axial-flow pump

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Centrifugal pump

200

Which of the following statements is true regarding vapour-compression refrigeration system (VCRS)?

  1. ((a))

    Power consumption of VCRS with air cooled condenser is more as compared to that of VCRS with water cooled condenser.

  2. ((b))

    VCRS with both water cooled and air cooled condenser will require same power for same refrigeration effect.

  3. ((c))

    Power consumption of VCRS with air cooled condenser may be lesser or greater than that of VCRS with water cooled condenser.

  4. ((d))

    Power consumption of VCRS with air cooled condenser is less as compared to that of VCRS with water cooled condenser.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Power consumption of VCRS with air cooled condenser is more as compared to that of VCRS with water cooled condenser.

Attempt this paper under real exam conditions

Timed interface, section switching, instant scoring, and question-by-question analytics — free.

Start Timed Attempt