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SSC JE Mechanical 07 Jun 2024 Shift 2 Official Paper - 1 (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

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General Intelligence and Reasoning (50 questions)

1

Q, R, S, T, U, and V are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (not necessarily in the same order) . S sits second to the left of R. Q sits third to the right of S. T is not an immediate neighbour of S. U sits to the immediate left of S. How many people are sitting between U and R when counted from the right of R? 

  1. ((a))

    Zero 

  2. ((b))

    Three 

  3. ((c))

    One 

  4. ((d))

    Two 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Zero 

2

Seven people - S, O, L, D, I, E, and R - are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (not necessarily in the same order). O sits fourth to the left of E and R sits third to the right of O. L sits to the immediate left of R and to the immediate right of D. S sits second to the right of R. Who are the immediate neighbours of I?

  1. ((a))

    O and D

  2. ((b))

    O and L

  3. ((c))

    S and E

  4. ((d))

    S and O 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

O and D

3

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

20 − 2 ÷ 4 × 2 + 6 =?

  1. ((a))

    18

  2. ((b))

    20 

  3. ((c))

    22

  4. ((d))

    14

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

18

4

JNHF is related to MQKI in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, HLFD is related to KOIG. To which of the following is FJDB related, following the same logic?

  1. ((a))

    IMGE 

  2. ((b))

    IMEG 

  3. ((c))

    MIGE 

  4. ((d))

    MIEG

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

IMGE 

5

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(17, 68, 8)

(16, 72, 9)

  1. ((a))

    (13, 78, 5) 

  2. ((b))

    (10, 105, 21)

  3. ((c))

    (25, 140, 12)

  4. ((d))

    (11, 109, 13) 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(13, 78, 5) 

6

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements: Some machines are shrugs. All machines are bins. No shrug is a cloth.

Conclusion (I) : No cloth is a machine.

Conclusion (II) : At least some shrugs are bins.

  1. ((a))

    Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow 

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion (I) follows

  3. ((c))

    Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

  4. ((d))

    Only conclusion (II) follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow 

7

Select the pair in which the numbers are related to each other in the same way as are the numbers of the given pairs.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(297, 466)

(342, 511)

  1. ((a))

    (225, 394)

  2. ((b))

    (194, 353)

  3. ((c))

    (116, 292)

  4. ((d))

    (189, 348)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(225, 394)

8

What should come in place of ? in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

BLH, EKF, HJD, KIB, ?

  1. ((a))

    MFX 

  2. ((b))

    MEX 

  3. ((c))

    NHZ

  4. ((d))

    OGY 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

MFX 

9

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(47, 1, 23)

(58, 4, 27)

  1. ((a))

    (50, 14, 16) 

  2. ((b))

    (36, 30, 5)

  3. ((c))

    (64, 5, 12)

  4. ((d))

    (74, 18, 28)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(50, 14, 16) 

11

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

115, 91, 70, 52, 37, ?

  1. ((a))

    25

  2. ((b))

    27 

  3. ((c))

    23

  4. ((d))

    21

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25

12

Anil starts from point A and drives 7 km towards the east. He then takes a left turn, drives 3 km, then turns left, and drives 9 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 3 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 2 km, and stops at point P.

How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach point A again?

(All turns are 90° turns only, unless specified.)

  1. ((a))

    6 km towards the south

  2. ((b))

    8 km towards the east

  3. ((c))

    9 km towards the east

  4. ((d))

    6 km towards the west

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6 km towards the south

13

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements: All roads are speed-breakers. No speed-breaker is a home.

Conclusion 1 : Some roads are homes.

Conclusion 2 : Some homes are speed-breakers.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion (1) follows

  2. ((b))

    Both conclusion (1) and conclusion (2) follow

  3. ((c))

    Only conclusion (2) follows 

  4. ((d))

    None of the conclusions follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion (1) follows

14

CJHF and HOMK are related to each other in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, SZXV and XECA are related to each other. Which of the following is related to DLTR, following the same logic? 

  1. ((a))

    IQYW

  2. ((b))

    IQYX

  3. ((c))

    KQYX 

  4. ((d))

    KQYW

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

IQYW

15

Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the given pattern. 

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

16

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

17

In a certain code language,

‘A + B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’,

‘A − B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,

‘A × B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’,

‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.

How is Z related to V if ‘Z ÷ X − C ÷ V × B + N’?

  1. ((a))

    Mother’s father

  2. ((b))

    Brother 

  3. ((c))

    Father’s father 

  4. ((d))

    Father 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mother’s father

18

‘AC 2’ is related to ‘DF 8’ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical and numerical order. In the same way, ‘IK 5’ is related to ‘LN 125’. To which of the following is ‘QS 7’ related following the same logic? 

  1. ((a))

    SU 343

  2. ((b))

    SY 343

  3. ((c))

    TU 343

  4. ((d))

    TV 343 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

SU 343

19

843 is related to 732 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 632 is related to 521. To which of the following is 357 related following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

  1. ((a))

    240 

  2. ((b))

    246 

  3. ((c))

    340 

  4. ((d))

    346

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

240 

20

CF 9 is related to IL 21 in a certain way. In the same way, MP 29 is related to SV 41. To which of the following is KN 25 related, following the same logic? 

  1. ((a))

    QS 37

  2. ((b))

    LJ 18 

  3. ((c))

    GJ 18 

  4. ((d))

    QT 37

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

QS 37

21

Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.

  1. Elderly
  2. Adolescent
  3. Infant
  4. Adult
  5. Baby
  1. ((a))

    3, 5, 2, 4, 1 

  2. ((b))

    3, 5, 1, 4, 2

  3. ((c))

    4, 5, 1, 3, 2 

  4. ((d))

    1, 5, 2, 3, 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3, 5, 2, 4, 1 

22

What should come in place of ‘?’ in the given series?

147, 206, 124, 183, 101, 160, ?

  1. ((a))

    56 

  2. ((b))

    61 

  3. ((c))

    78 

  4. ((d))

    40 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

56 

23

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below. 

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

24

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order ?

CEH, FHK, IKN, LNQ, ?

  1. ((a))

    OQS 

  2. ((b))

    PQS 

  3. ((c))

    OQT 

  4. ((d))

    PQT

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

OQS 

25

In a certain code language, ‘CAFE’ is coded as ‘3795’ and ‘FIND’ is coded as ‘8634’. What is the code for ‘F’ in the given code language?

  1. ((a))

    3

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    9

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3

26

PARK is related to QCUM in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, STOP is related to TVRR. To which of the following is RAMP related, following the same logic ? 

  1. ((a))

    TCPR 

  2. ((b))

    SCPR 

  3. ((c))

    SCQR 

  4. ((d))

    TCQR 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

TCPR 

27

Select the option in which the numbers share the same relationship as that shared by the given pairs of numbers.

5 : 101

10 : 201

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole number, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed.)

  1. ((a))

    8 ∶ 140

  2. ((b))

    6 ∶ 121 

  3. ((c))

    6 ∶ 120

  4. ((d))

    7 ∶ 50

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8 ∶ 140

28

6 is related to 76 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 8 is related to 102. To which of the following is 15 related following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

  1. ((a))

    198 

  2. ((b))

    193 

  3. ((c))

    190 

  4. ((d))

    197

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

198 

29

Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern. 

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order ?

SJF, NEA, IZV, DUQ, ?

  1. ((a))

    YQL 

  2. ((b))

    YPL 

  3. ((c))

    XPL 

  4. ((d))

    XPM 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

YQL 

31

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series ?

23, 26, 31, 38, 49, ?

  1. ((a))

    61 

  2. ((b))

    59 

  3. ((c))

    62 

  4. ((d))

    60

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

61 

32

In a certain code language,

‘A + B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,

‘A − B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’,

‘A × B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’ and

‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’.

How is B related to T if ‘B + D − G ÷ P × T’?

  1. ((a))

    Sister 

  2. ((b))

    Sister’s daughter

  3. ((c))

    Father’s brother 

  4. ((d))

    Mother’s brother 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sister 

33

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

34

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

61 − 45 × 15 + 5 ÷ 9 = ?

  1. ((a))

    19

  2. ((b))

    14

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    9

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

19

35

How many triangles are there in the given figure?

  1. ((a))

    18

  2. ((b))

    16

  3. ((c))

    14

  4. ((d))

    15

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

18

36

This question consists of a pair of words that have a certain relationship to each other. Select the pair that has the same relationship.

(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters / number of consonants / vowels in the word.)

Pressure : Pascal

  1. ((a))

    Force : Candela 

  2. ((b))

    Frequency : Ohm

  3. ((c))

    Electric Potential : Volt 

  4. ((d))

    Sound : Watt

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Force : Candela 

37

The position of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of the letters in the word 'SALIENT' is arranged in the English alphabetical order ? 

  1. ((a))

    Four 

  2. ((b))

    One 

  3. ((c))

    Two 

  4. ((d))

    Three

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Four 

38

In a certain code language, ‘KNOT’ is coded as ‘3618’ and ‘NOTE’ is coded as ‘6438’. What is the code for ‘E’ in the given code language? 

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    6

  3. ((c))

    1

  4. ((d))

    3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4

39

The position(s) of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of the letters in the word ‘BLANKET‘ is arranged in alphabetical order ? 

  1. ((a))

    One 

  2. ((b))

    Zero 

  3. ((c))

    Three 

  4. ((d))

    Two

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One 

40

SPUR is related to WTYV in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, PMRO is related to TQVS. To which of the following is IFKH related, following the same logic ? 

  1. ((a))

    MJLO 

  2. ((b))

    JMLO 

  3. ((c))

    JMOL 

  4. ((d))

    MJOL

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

MJLO 

41

In a certain code language, ‘MADE’ is coded as ‘3517’ and ‘DOGS’ is coded as ‘2458’. What is the code for ‘D’ in the given language?

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    5

  4. ((d))

    1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2

42

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order ?

FLOY, JPSC, NTWG, RXAK, ?

  1. ((a))

    VBGT 

  2. ((b))

    VBEO 

  3. ((c))

    VOED 

  4. ((d))

    VOBE 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

VBGT 

43

Six friends Abby, Bunny, Chan, Dolly, Emma and Fanny have different weights. Dolly’s weight is an odd number. Dolly is heavier than Emma but not the heaviest. Chan is heavier than Fanny but lighter than Dolly. Chan is not heavier than Emma but is heavier than Fanny and Abby. Abby’s weight is not an odd number. The lightest weight is 45 kilograms and the heaviest weight is 80 kilograms.

If Chan weighs 68 kilograms, which of the following can be the possible weight of Dolly (in kilograms)?

  1. ((a))

    71 

  2. ((b))

    66 

  3. ((c))

    82 

  4. ((d))

    65

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

71 

44

If A means +, B means −, C means × and D means ÷, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation ?

40 B 6 C 7 A 30 D 5 = ?

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5

45

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order ?

DMU, HQY, LUC, PYG, TCK, ?

  1. ((a))

    UBI

  2. ((b))

    YHL 

  3. ((c))

    XGO 

  4. ((d))

    TDL

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

UBI

46

What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘−’ are interchanged ?

84 + 12 × 9 ÷ 13 – 21 = ?

  1. ((a))

    273 

  2. ((b))

    259 

  3. ((c))

    264 

  4. ((d))

    271

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

273 

47

Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.

  1. Eiffel Tower
  2. Europe
  3. Paris
  4. Earth
  5. France
  1. ((a))

    4, 1, 2, 5, 3 

  2. ((b))

    4, 2, 5, 3, 1 

  3. ((c))

    4, 5, 3, 1, 2 

  4. ((d))

    4, 2, 1, 3, 5 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4, 1, 2, 5, 3 

48

Suresh starts from his home and drives 5 km towards the south. He then takes a left turn, drives 6 km, then turns left, and drives 9 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 3 km and finally turns left, then drives 7 km to reach his office.

In which direction is the office with respect to his home?

(All turns are 90° turns only, unless specified.)

  1. ((a))

    North - east 

  2. ((b))

    South - east 

  3. ((c))

    North - west 

  4. ((d))

    West 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

North - east 

49

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order ?

AYH, BWJ, CUL, DSN, ?

  1. ((a))

    EQP 

  2. ((b))

    EPL 

  3. ((c))

    EQS 

  4. ((d))

    FPR

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

EQP 

50

In a certain code language, ‘CARE’ is coded as ‘3195’ and ‘HARE’ is coded as ‘9341’. What is the code for ‘H’ in that language? 

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    9

  3. ((c))

    5

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

General Awareness (50 questions)

51

In which city is the Arun Jaitley Stadium located? 

  1. ((a))

    New Delhi 

  2. ((b))

    Punjab 

  3. ((c))

    Mumbai 

  4. ((d))

    Chennai

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

New Delhi 

52

In September 2023,Skill India Mission introduced a scheme that aims to spread awareness at grass root level about free skill training programmes for youth through robust skill training. What is the name of that scheme ? 

  1. ((a))

    Skills on the Go

  2. ((b))

    Skills on Wheels 

  3. ((c))

    Skills on the Move 

  4. ((d))

    Skill Bus

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Skills on the Go

53

Which part of the cell is responsible for generating the primary energy molecule ATP in eukaryotic animals ?

  1. ((a))

    Endoplasmic reticulum

  2. ((b))

    Cell wall 

  3. ((c))

    Mitochondria 

  4. ((d))

    Vacuoles

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Endoplasmic reticulum

54

All the living and non - living things in a particular area constitute the _________ of the area. 

  1. ((a))

    Food Web 

  2. ((b))

    Ecosystem 

  3. ((c))

    Life Circle

  4. ((d))

    Species

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Food Web 

55

Karnam Malleshwari won a bronze medal at which Olympic games ? 

  1. ((a))

    2000 Sydney 

  2. ((b))

    2004 Athens 

  3. ((c))

    2008 Beijing 

  4. ((d))

    2012 London

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2000 Sydney 

56

In 1527, the Battle of Khanwa was fought between Babur and _______, the ruler of Mewar.

  1. ((a))

    Prithviraj 

  2. ((b))

    Rana Mewari

  3. ((c))

    Rana Pratap

  4. ((d))

    Rana Sanga

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Prithviraj 

57

The first Anglo - Afghan war took place between 1838 - ________. 

  1. ((a))

    1844 

  2. ((b))

    1841 

  3. ((c))

    1842 

  4. ((d))

    1840 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1844 

58

Which of the following Hindustani ragas corresponds to the ‘Mohanam Ragam’ of Carnatic music? 

  1. ((a))

    Aadi 

  2. ((b))

    Bagkauns 

  3. ((c))

    Zilla 

  4. ((d))

    Bhoop

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Aadi 

59

Which type of cell lacks a membrane-bound nucleus?

  1. ((a))

    Prokaryotic cell 

  2. ((b))

    Eukaryotic cell 

  3. ((c))

    Animal cell

  4. ((d))

    Plant cell 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Prokaryotic cell 

60

How does the formation of igneous rocks occur? 

  1. ((a))

    Formation through compression 

  2. ((b))

    Formation through volcanic activity 

  3. ((c))

    Formation through weathering 

  4. ((d))

    Formation through sedimentation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Formation through compression 

61

Food rich in carbohydrates (like potatoes) and those rich in fats (like butter) are also known as __________. 

  1. ((a))

    Energy - Giving Food

  2. ((b))

    Main Course

  3. ((c))

    Unsafe Food

  4. ((d))

    Fast Food

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Energy - Giving Food

62

The National Waterway (NW) – 3 is located in which of the following states?

  1. ((a))

    Gujarat 

  2. ((b))

    Andhra Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Kerala 

  4. ((d))

    Maharashtra 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gujarat 

63

A nonstop train moving on a straight track with a uniform acceleration passed station A at a velocity of ‘u’ and reached the next station B at a velocity of ‘5u’. Its average velocity between the given stations is: 

  1. ((a))

    2u 

  2. ((b))

    2.5u

  3. ((c))

    3u 

  4. ((d))

    4u

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2u 

64

Who among the following was one of the co - founders of the Swaraj Party within the Congress to argue for a return to council politics?

  1. ((a))

    Gopal Krishna Gokhale

  2. ((b))

    Rabindranath Tagore

  3. ((c))

    Chittaranjan Das

  4. ((d))

    Mahatma Gandhi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gopal Krishna Gokhale

65

What is the full form of GST? 

  1. ((a))

    Gifts and Services Tax

  2. ((b))

    Goods and Services Tax 

  3. ((c))

    Goods and Sale Tax 

  4. ((d))

    Gifts and Sale Tax

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gifts and Services Tax

66

On 26 July 2023, Tenzing Yangki created history in Arunachal Pradesh by achieving a prestigious UPSC rank and becoming the state's first female __________. 

  1. ((a))

    Revenue Officer 

  2. ((b))

    Education Commissioner 

  3. ((c))

    India Police Service Officer 

  4. ((d))

    Indian Administrative Service Officer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Revenue Officer 

67

Which minister was in the news to launch the country's first crash testing programme 'Bharat NCAP', on 22 August 2023?

  1. ((a))

    Nitin Gadkari 

  2. ((b))

    Raj Nath Singh 

  3. ((c))

    Amit Shah

  4. ((d))

    Ashwini Vaishnaw

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nitin Gadkari 

68

Calcium hydroxide is the chemical name of which of the following saturated aqueous solutions? 

  1. ((a))

    Limewater 

  2. ((b))

    Black Water 

  3. ((c))

    Carbonated water 

  4. ((d))

    Hard water 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Limewater 

69

According to the census of India 2011, which of the following states has the highest density of population per square kilometre?

  1. ((a))

    Uttar Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Maharashtra 

  3. ((c))

    West Bengal

  4. ((d))

    Odisha 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Uttar Pradesh

70

Which white powder, ubiquitous in modern kitchens, combines with acid to produce carbon dioxide?

  1. ((a))

    Sodium phosphate 

  2. ((b))

    Sodium fluoride 

  3. ((c))

    Sodium nitrate

  4. ((d))

    Sodium bicarbonate 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sodium phosphate 

71

Sometimes when heated, solid changes into liquid at normal atmospheric pressure on reaching its melting point. What is the name of the amount of heat required?

  1. ((a))

    Latent heat of diffusion 

  2. ((b))

    Latent heat of fusion

  3. ((c))

    Latent melting point

  4. ((d))

    Latent change of state point

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Latent heat of diffusion 

72

For strengthening the fundamental duties, the Verma Committee identified a few existing acts by which a proper implementation of such duties can be accomplished. Which of the following was NOT referred by him?

  1. ((a))

    Representation of People Act, 1951 

  2. ((b))

    Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 

  3. ((c))

    Unlawful Activities Protection Act, 1967

  4. ((d))

    Wildlife Segregation Act, 1970

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Representation of People Act, 1951 

73

Which of the following set of Articles of the Indian Constitution guarantees different types of freedoms to its citizens? 

  1. ((a))

    Articles 14 – 19

  2. ((b))

    Articles 19 – 22 

  3. ((c))

    Articles 25 – 30 

  4. ((d))

    Articles 32 – 35

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Articles 14 – 19

74

If the government decides to privatise a major public sector industry, what might be an unintended consequence ?  

  1. ((a))

    Potential monopolistic practices

  2. ((b))

    Reduction in corruption

  3. ((c))

    Immediate increase in public revenue 

  4. ((d))

    Enhancement of operational efficiency

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Potential monopolistic practices

75

Which of the following is a shortcut key to undo the last action in many word processors? 

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl + Z 

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl + X 

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + C 

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl + V

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ctrl + Z 

76

How many fundamental duties of citizens have been enumerated by the 42nd Amendment of the Constitution, adopted in 1976?

  1. ((a))

    9

  2. ((b))

    10

  3. ((c))

    11

  4. ((d))

    13

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

9

77

Who is the writer of Indian president's biography 'Droupadi Murmu : From Tribal Hinterlands to Raisina Hill' ?

  1. ((a))

    Kamala Surayya 

  2. ((b))

    Kasturi Ray 

  3. ((c))

    Phoolan Devi 

  4. ((d))

    Mary Kom

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kamala Surayya 

78

In 2010, in which Indian state did the crisis of microfinance happen? 

  1. ((a))

    Karnataka 

  2. ((b))

    Tamil Nadu 

  3. ((c))

    Andhra Pradesh 

  4. ((d))

    Maharashtra 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Karnataka 

79

Rama experiences a drop in temperature as she is getting higher and higher in the mountains while trekking. What could be the cause of this? 

  1. ((a))

    Higher air pressure at altitude 

  2. ((b))

    Rama's fatigue

  3. ((c))

    Less water

  4. ((d))

    Lower air pressure at altitude

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Higher air pressure at altitude 

80

In which year did Louis Pasteur discover that yeast is responsible for producing alcohol from sugar?

  1. ((a))

    1830 

  2. ((b))

    1857 

  3. ((c))

    1891 

  4. ((d))

    1904

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1830 

81

The equipment used to record the intensity of an earthquake is ____________. 

  1. ((a))

    barometer 

  2. ((b))

    seismograph 

  3. ((c))

    pyrometer 

  4. ((d))

    calorimeter 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

barometer 

82

According to the Census 2011 of India, arrange the following metropolitan cities on the basis of population in ascending order?

A. Delhi

B. Mumbai

C. Kolkata

  1. ((a))

    B, C, A

  2. ((b))

    C, A, B 

  3. ((c))

    A, B, C 

  4. ((d))

    B, A, C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

B, C, A

83

Who among the following eminent musicians was born in Bihar ?

  1. ((a))

    Ustad Bismillah Khan

  2. ((b))

    Pandit Ravi Shankar 

  3. ((c))

    Pandit Shivkumar Sharma

  4. ((d))

    Ustad Zakir Hussain 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ustad Bismillah Khan

84

What is the medical term for high blood pressure? 

  1. ((a))

    Hypotension 

  2. ((b))

    Hyperglycemia 

  3. ((c))

    Hypertension 

  4. ((d))

    Hypoglycemia

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hypotension 

85

If ‘G’, ‘M’ and ‘R’ represent the universal gravitation constant, mass of the earth and radius of the earth, respectively, then which of the following is the correct expression for the acceleration due to gravity (g) on the surface of the earth?

  1. ((a))

    GM / R 

  2. ((b))

    GM / R2 

  3. ((c))

    GM2 / R

  4. ((d))

    GMR2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

GM / R 

86

Select the correct arrangement of the parts of the food canal in humans from the starting point to the ending point. 

  1. ((a))

    The buccal cavity → Oesophagus → Stomach → Large intestine → Small intestine → Rectum → Anus

  2. ((b))

    The buccal cavity → Oesophagus → Stomach → Small intestine → Large intestine → Anus → Rectum

  3. ((c))

    The buccal cavity → Oesophagus → Stomach → Large intestine → Small intestine → Anus → Rectum

  4. ((d))

    The buccal cavity → Oesophagus → Stomach → Small intestine → Large intestine → Rectum → Anus

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The buccal cavity → Oesophagus → Stomach → Large intestine → Small intestine → Rectum → Anus

87

What is the function of the endoplasmic reticulum (ER)?

  1. ((a))

    Lipid synthesis and detoxification 

  2. ((b))

    Protein synthesis

  3. ((c))

    Energy production 

  4. ((d))

    Both (1) and (2)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lipid synthesis and detoxification 

88

Palamu plateau is located in which of the following states? 

  1. ((a))

    Tripura 

  2. ((b))

    Jharkhand 

  3. ((c))

    Telangana 

  4. ((d))

    Karnataka

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tripura 

89

Which Indian state passed the Right to Health (RTH) bill, which guarantees access to equitable healthcare services for all patients in March 2023? 

  1. ((a))

    Tamil Nadu

  2. ((b))

    Gujarat 

  3. ((c))

    Maharashtra 

  4. ((d))

    Rajasthan 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tamil Nadu

90

Why is there a need to encourage Indian farmers to adopt sustainable crops/agricultural systems?

  1. ((a))

    To increase the upfront cost

  2. ((b))

    To meet the current calorie requirements of the population

  3. ((c))

    To draw attention to environmental damage and degradation of ecosystem services

  4. ((d))

    To reduce the use of technology in agriculture

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To increase the upfront cost

91

Which of the following is NOT one of the five outlined pillars of Atmanirbhar Bharat? 

  1. ((a))

    Economy

  2. ((b))

    Infrastructure 

  3. ((c))

    Demand 

  4. ((d))

    Resilience

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Economy

92

What are 'Bullets' in Microsoft Word? 

  1. ((a))

    Characters used for decoration 

  2. ((b))

    Small dots, squares, dashes, or graphics preceding text 

  3. ((c))

    Large circles indicating importance

  4. ((d))

    Highlighted text 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Characters used for decoration 

93

When and where was the Veda Samaj, inspired by the Brahmo Samaj, established? 

  1. ((a))

    Calcutta 1830 

  2. ((b))

    Lahore 1875 

  3. ((c))

    Bombay 1867

  4. ((d))

    Madras 1864

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Calcutta 1830 

94

What balances the atmospheric pressure with equal force so that animals do not crumble under the high pressure exerted on them by the atmosphere? 

  1. ((a))

    Moon’s gravitational pull 

  2. ((b))

    Pressure because of sunlight

  3. ((c))

    Energy produced by the food consumed

  4. ((d))

    Blood Pressure 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Moon’s gravitational pull 

95

5 stones were dropped from the top of a building. They all fell to the ground in straight lines. What can be said about their motion?

  1. ((a))

    They had rectilinear motion

  2. ((b))

    They had curvilinear motion 

  3. ((c))

    They had slow motion

  4. ((d))

    They had gravity free motion

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

They had rectilinear motion

96

'Ama Odisha Nabin Odisha' scheme was implemented by which department in July 2023 by the Odisha Government?

  1. ((a))

    Health and Family Welfare  Department

  2. ((b))

    Housing and Urban Development Department

  3. ((c))

    Panchayati Raj and Drinking Water Department

  4. ((d))

    General Administration Department

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Health and Family Welfare  Department

97

The concept of 'Standard Urban Area (SUA)' was introduced in which census of India? 

  1. ((a))

    Census 1971 

  2. ((b))

    Census 1961

  3. ((c))

    Census 1951 

  4. ((d))

    Census 1981 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Census 1971 

98

Which of the following states has the largest legislative assembly (in terms of number of members) in the country as on 30th September 2023? 

  1. ((a))

    Rajasthan 

  2. ((b))

    Tamil Nadu 

  3. ((c))

    Madhya Pradesh 

  4. ((d))

    Uttar Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rajasthan 

99

Through which of the following body parts does food need to pass before reaching the intestines?

  1. ((a))

    Windpipe → Food pipe

  2. ((b))

    Mouth → Rectum

  3. ((c))

    Oesophagus → Stomach

  4. ((d))

    Stomach → Rectum

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Windpipe → Food pipe

100

Which of the following is NOT a major river basin in India ?

  1. ((a))

    Kalindi 

  2. ((b))

    Narmada 

  3. ((c))

    Krishna 

  4. ((d))

    Tapi 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kalindi 

Mechanical Engineering (100 questions)

101

The bearing surface provided at any position along the shaft (but not at the end of the shaft) to carry the axial thrust, is known as ____________. 

  1. ((a))

    truncated bearing surface 

  2. ((b))

    conical bearing surface

  3. ((c))

    flat bearing surface 

  4. ((d))

    collar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

truncated bearing surface 

102

A quick return motion mechanism used in shaper machine

  1. ((a))

    Maximize the time of forward stroke

  2. ((b))

    Reduce the motion of the machine 

  3. ((c))

    Complete cutting stroke as quickly as possible

  4. ((d))

    Complete return stroke as quickly as possible

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Maximize the time of forward stroke

103

The Zenith carburettor is a type of _________. 

  1. ((a))

    constant - vacuum carburettor

  2. ((b))

    multiple - venturi carburettor 

  3. ((c))

    constant - choke carburettor

  4. ((d))

    multijet carburettor 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

constant - vacuum carburettor

104

Sulphur dioxide refrigerant can be designated as:

  1. ((a))

    R - 727

  2. ((b))

    R - 764 

  3. ((c))

    R - 744 

  4. ((d))

    R - 729

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

R - 727

105

Which of the following is the chemical formula of hydro - carbon refrigerant R - 170? 

  1. ((a))

    C2 H6 

  2. ((b))

    C3 H3 

  3. ((c))

    C3 H6 

  4. ((d))

    C4 H10

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

C2 H6 

106

Which of the following moulding techniques uses a sand and clay mixture as the mould material? 

  1. ((a))

    Green sand moulding 

  2. ((b))

    Shell moulding 

  3. ((c))

    Investment casting

  4. ((d))

    Die casting 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Green sand moulding 

107

Which of the following forced convection evaporator units have a discharge air rate from 60 m/min to 90 m/min?

  1. ((a))

    High velocity cooling forced convection evaporators

  2. ((b))

    Low velocity cooling forced convection evaporators 

  3. ((c))

    Defrosting evaporators

  4. ((d))

    Frosting evaporators

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

High velocity cooling forced convection evaporators

108

Brake power involves determination of the: 

  1. ((a))

    piston indicator 

  2. ((b))

    torque and angular speed of the shaft 

  3. ((c))

    inertia and displacement of the shaft 

  4. ((d))

    pressure and piston displacement

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

piston indicator 

109

Manometric efficiency of a centrifugal pump is defined as the __________. 

  1. ((a))

    ratio of the power available at the impeller to the power at the shaft 

  2. ((b))

    ratio of the actual discharge to the theoretical discharge

  3. ((c))

    difference of the manometric head and the static head

  4. ((d))

    ratio of the manometric head to the head imparted by the impeller 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ratio of the power available at the impeller to the power at the shaft 

110

If ηgs is gross stage efficiency; ηb is blade efficiency and ηn is nozzle efficiency of a steam turbine, then which of the following relations is correct?

  1. ((a))

    ηgs = ηb

  2. ((b))

    ηgs=ηnηb\eta_{\mathrm{gs}}=\frac{\eta_{\mathrm{n}}}{\eta_{\mathrm{b}}}

  3. ((c))

    ηgs=ηbηn\eta_{\mathrm{gs}}=\frac{\eta_{\mathrm{b}}}{\eta_{\mathrm{n}}}

  4. ((d))

    ηgs = ηb × ηn

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ηgs = ηb

111

Which of the following materials is commonly used as a cutting tool material? 

  1. ((a))

    Brass 

  2. ((b))

    Diamond 

  3. ((c))

    Aluminium 

  4. ((d))

    Copper 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Brass 

112

The boiling point of inorganic refrigerant R - 744 is _________. 

  1. ((a))

    -15.8°C 

  2. ((b))

    +33.6°C 

  3. ((c))

    -73.6°C 

  4. ((d))

    +22.4°C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

-15.8°C 

113

The product of the area of the surface and the intensity of pressure at the centroid of the area is called ______.

  1. ((a))

    viscous force 

  2. ((b))

    total pressure 

  3. ((c))

    buoyant force

  4. ((d))

    pressure density

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

viscous force 

114

Which of the following is NOT a type of friction? 

  1. ((a))

    Kinetic friction

  2. ((b))

    Dynamic friction 

  3. ((c))

    Kinematic friction 

  4. ((d))

    Static friction

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kinetic friction

115

In a P - V diagram, if pV = Constant, then the process is called ________.

  1. ((a))

    constant - volume process 

  2. ((b))

    adiabatic process

  3. ((c))

    constant - pressure process

  4. ((d))

    isothermal process 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

constant - volume process 

116

The ignition coil of an IC engine stores the energy in its _____. 

  1. ((a))

    capacitor 

  2. ((b))

    resistor 

  3. ((c))

    magnetic field

  4. ((d))

    electric field

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

capacitor 

117

Determine the torsional rigidity of a hollow shaft of 200 mm external diameter and 150 mm internal diameter. Consider G = 90 GPa.  

  1. ((a))

    10.25 × 1012 N-mm2 

  2. ((b))

    8.72 × 1013 N-mm2

  3. ((c))

    9.66 × 1012 N-mm2

  4. ((d))

    12.46 × 1013 N-mm2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10.25 × 1012 N-mm2 

118

The difference between the total head at the outlet of a centrifugal pump and the total head at the inlet of a centrifugal pump is called ____________. 

  1. ((a))

    static head

  2. ((b))

    manometric head

  3. ((c))

    suction head 

  4. ((d))

    dynamic head

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

static head

119

Which of the following statements is true about the Carnot cycle? 

  1. ((a))

    It involves only two reversible isothermal processes.

  2. ((b))

    It is a reversible cycle.

  3. ((c))

    Its efficiency depends only on the pressure difference between the two reservoirs.

  4. ((d))

    The efficiency of the Carnot cycle is always less than that of any other heat engine operating between the same two temperatures.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It involves only two reversible isothermal processes.

120

In case of a single stage centrifugal compressor, the compression ratio that an impeller can develop is limited to about: 

  1. ((a))

    3.5 

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    3.0 

  4. ((d))

    4.5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3.5 

121

Which shielding gas is commonly used in TIG welding?

  1. ((a))

    Argon 

  2. ((b))

    Hydrogen 

  3. ((c))

    Oxygen 

  4. ((d))

    Carbon dioxide 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Argon 

122

The fully halogenated refrigerants with chlorine (Cl) atom in their molecules are referred to as: 

  1. ((a))

    inorganic refrigerants 

  2. ((b))

    hydro - carbon refrigerants

  3. ((c))

    HCFC refrigerants 

  4. ((d))

    CFC refrigerants

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

inorganic refrigerants 

123

Which of the following is the condition of the maximum discharge of flue gases through a chimney in a steam boiler ?

  1. ((a))

    The maximum discharge of flue gases through a chimney does not depend on the temperature of flue gases in the steam boiler. 

  2. ((b))

    The temperature of flue gases is exactly equal to twice the atmospheric temperature in Kelvin units. 

  3. ((c))

    The temperature of flue gases is equal to the atmospheric temperature in Kelvin units.

  4. ((d))

    The temperature of flue gases is slightly greater than twice the atmospheric temperature in Kelvin units.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The maximum discharge of flue gases through a chimney does not depend on the temperature of flue gases in the steam boiler. 

124

In case of a flat pivot bearing, which of the following options is correct about the sliding friction? 

  1. ((a))

    The sliding friction consideration is along the flat surface of contact between the pivot and the shaft. 

  2. ((b))

    The sliding friction consideration is along the vertical curved surface of contact between the pivot and the shaft. 

  3. ((c))

    There is no sliding friction between the pivot and the shaft.

  4. ((d))

    The sliding friction consideration is along the length of the shaft which is inside the bearing.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The sliding friction consideration is along the flat surface of contact between the pivot and the shaft. 

125

For which of the following fluids is the rate of deformation proportional to the shear stress? 

  1. ((a))

    Milk 

  2. ((b))

    Rice starch 

  3. ((c))

    Blood 

  4. ((d))

    Gasoline

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Milk 

126

Coefficient of discharge (Cd) of a flow - measuring device is defined as the _________.

  1. ((a))

    product of actual discharge and theoretical discharge 

  2. ((b))

    ratio of actual discharge to theoretical discharge 

  3. ((c))

    product of cross - sectional area and velocity

  4. ((d))

    ratio of theoretical discharge to actual discharge

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

product of actual discharge and theoretical discharge 

127

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about atmospheric pressure? 

  1. ((a))

    The equivalent value of atmospheric pressure is 10.3 cm of water. 

  2. ((b))

    Atmospheric pressure varies with altitude. 

  3. ((c))

    Atmospheric pressure is also called barometric pressure.

  4. ((d))

    The atmospheric air exerts normal pressure upon all the surfaces in contact.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The equivalent value of atmospheric pressure is 10.3 cm of water. 

128

The correct relationship between the coefficient of friction (µ) and the angle of friction (ɸ) :is

  1. ((a))

    µ = cot ɸ 

  2. ((b))

    µ = tan ɸ 

  3. ((c))

    µ = sin ɸ

  4. ((d))

    µ = cos ɸ

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

µ = cot ɸ 

129

At absolute zero temperature (T = 0K), the specific enthalpy of an ideal gas is: 

  1. ((a))

    0

  2. ((b))

    1

  3. ((c))

    < 0

  4. ((d))

    infinite

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0

130

When there is a ______, work is transferred over the system boundary in an open system. 

  1. ((a))

    difference in pressure between the system and surroundings

  2. ((b))

    change in the potential energy of the fluid 

  3. ((c))

    difference in datum head between the system and surroundings 

  4. ((d))

    change in the kinetic energy of the fluid

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

difference in pressure between the system and surroundings

131

For the given overall heat transfer coefficient and temperature difference, if the area of evaporator surface increases, then the capacity of evaporator: 

  1. ((a))

    can increase or decrease 

  2. ((b))

    remains constant 

  3. ((c))

    increases 

  4. ((d))

    decreases

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

can increase or decrease 

132

What is the SI unit of surface tension?

  1. ((a))

    Nm2\frac{\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{m}^2}

  2. ((b))

    Unitless

  3. ((c))

    Nm\frac{N}{m}

  4. ((d))

    Nm3\frac{N}{m^3}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nm2\frac{\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{m}^2}

133

Which of the following methods is NOT used for the leakage detection of CFC refrigerants? 

  1. ((a))

    Burning candle 

  2. ((b))

    Soap solution 

  3. ((c))

    Halide torch 

  4. ((d))

    Electronic leak detection device

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Burning candle 

134

The condition of equilibrium states that a stationary body that is subjected to coplanar forces will be in equilibrium if the algebraic sum of all the _____ and the algebraic sum of _____ of all the external forces about any point in their plane is zero. 

  1. ((a))

    external forces; moment 

  2. ((b))

    external forces; couple 

  3. ((c))

    internal forces; couple 

  4. ((d))

    internal forces; moment 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

external forces; moment 

135

What will be the average pressure in plate clutch when the axial force is 4 kN. The inside radius of the contact surface is 50 mm and the outside radius is 100 mm. Assume uniform wear. 

  1. ((a))

    0.17 N/mm2 

  2. ((b))

    17 N/mm2

  3. ((c))

    0.17 N/m2

  4. ((d))

    1.7 N/mm2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.17 N/mm2 

136

According to the second law of thermodynamics, work is said to be _______ and heat is said to be ________. 

  1. ((a))

    high - grade energy; low - grade energy

  2. ((b))

    low - grade energy; high - grade energy 

  3. ((c))

    low - grade energy; low - grade energy 

  4. ((d))

    high - grade energy; high - grade energy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

high - grade energy; low - grade energy

137

In a vapour absorption refrigeration system, heating, cooling and refrigeration take place at the temperatures of 100°C, 20°C and -5°C, respectively. Find the maximum C.O.P. of the system. 

  1. ((a))

    1.5 

  2. ((b))

    2.7 

  3. ((c))

    1.8 

  4. ((d))

    2.3 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1.5 

138

The total pressure acting on any immersed body is independent of:

  1. ((a))

    the angle made by surface with the free surface of liquid 

  2. ((b))

    the depth of C.G. of body from free surface of liquid 

  3. ((c))

    the surface area of body 

  4. ((d))

    the density of liquid

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

the angle made by surface with the free surface of liquid 

139

For ammonia refrigerating systems, the tubes of a shell and tube condenser are made of_______. 

  1. ((a))

    steel

  2. ((b))

    brass 

  3. ((c))

    copper 

  4. ((d))

    aluminium

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

steel

140

In an open channel flow, which device increases the enthalpy of gas using external work transfer?

  1. ((a))

    Turbine 

  2. ((b))

    Boiler 

  3. ((c))

    Compressor 

  4. ((d))

    Motor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Turbine 

141

Pump disassembling is NOT necessary in _________ .

  1. ((a))

    semi - open impellers 

  2. ((b))

    closed impellers 

  3. ((c))

    open impellers 

  4. ((d))

    cannot be predicted

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

semi - open impellers 

142

For a winter air-conditioning system, relative humidity should NOT be more than:

  1. ((a))

    60% 

  2. ((b))

    75%

  3. ((c))

    40%

  4. ((d))

    90%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

60% 

143

Which of the following statements is correct about slotting process?

  1. ((a))

    The workpiece reciprocates horizontally and the tool is fed in. 

  2. ((b))

    Both, tool and workpiece can reciprocate according to the size of slotting machine and workpiece. 

  3. ((c))

    The tool reciprocates vertically and the workpiece is fed into the cutting tool. 

  4. ((d))

    The tool reciprocates horizontally and the workpiece is fed into the cutting tool. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The workpiece reciprocates horizontally and the tool is fed in. 

144

_________ is the machining process that uses a saw blade to remove material from a workpiece. 

  1. ((a))

    Filing 

  2. ((b))

    Drilling 

  3. ((c))

    Turning 

  4. ((d))

    Sawing

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Filing 

145

If ‘u’ is the velocity of the runner and ‘V’ is the velocity of the jet at inlet, what is the condition for the maximum hydraulic efficiency of a Pelton wheel? 

  1. ((a))

    V = 3u 

  2. ((b))

    V = 2u

  3. ((c))

    V = u/2

  4. ((d))

    V = u 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

V = 3u 

146

Free expansion process is _________. 

  1. ((a))

    a reversible process 

  2. ((b))

    initially it is reversible and later it become irreversible 

  3. ((c))

    sometimes reversible and sometimes irreversible 

  4. ((d))

    an irreversible process 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

a reversible process 

147

Consider an air standard cycle in which the air enters the compressor at 1.0 bar and 20°C. The pressure of air leaving the compressor is 3.5 bar and the temperature at the turbine inlet is 600°C. For 1 kg of air, determine the efficiency of the cycle: 

  1. ((a))

    25%

  2. ((b))

    35%

  3. ((c))

    30%

  4. ((d))

    32%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25%

148

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the Cochran boiler? 

  1. ((a))

    The Cochran boiler is a natural circulation type boiler. 

  2. ((b))

    The Cochran boiler is a multi-tubular boiler. 

  3. ((c))

    The Cochran boiler is a vertical boiler.

  4. ((d))

    The Cochran boiler is an externally fired boiler. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Cochran boiler is a natural circulation type boiler. 

149

Which of the following statements is true for magneto ignition system?

  1. ((a))

    It is simpler in construction than coil ignition system. 

  2. ((b))

    The efficiency of the system improves as the engine speed increases. 

  3. ((c))

    More frequent maintenance is required compared to coil ignition system. 

  4. ((d))

    Its intensity of spark is very good even at low speed. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It is simpler in construction than coil ignition system. 

150

The right limb of a simple manometer containing mercury is open to atmosphere. The left limb is connected to a pipe in which a fluid of specific gravity 0.9 is flowing. The centre of the pipe is 12 cm below the level of mercury in the right limb. The difference of mercury level in the two limbs is 20 cm. What is the pressure of fluid in the pipe (take g = 10 m/s2)?

  1. ((a))

    27200 N/m2 

  2. ((b))

    26480 N/m2 

  3. ((c))

    720 N/m2

  4. ((d))

    27920 N/m2 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

27200 N/m2 

151

The ratio of the actual brake thermal efficiency obtained from an engine to the theoretical efficiency of the engine cycle is called:

  1. ((a))

    relative efficiency

  2. ((b))

    scavenging efficiency 

  3. ((c))

    combustion efficiency 

  4. ((d))

    brake thermal efficiency

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

relative efficiency

152

Which of the following equations is based on the fact that the mass flow rate at any section remains constant? 

  1. ((a))

    Steady flow energy equation 

  2. ((b))

    Bernoulli’s equation

  3. ((c))

    Momentum equation

  4. ((d))

    Continuity equation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Steady flow energy equation 

153

Which of the following statements is correct in case of semi - open impeller? 

  1. ((a))

    One side of the impeller vanes is covered with a baseplate. 

  2. ((b))

    Both sides of the impeller vanes are covered with baseplates. 

  3. ((c))

    Both sides of the impeller vanes are covered with crown plates. 

  4. ((d))

    Impeller vanes are not covered with baseplates. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One side of the impeller vanes is covered with a baseplate. 

154

The area under a P-V diagram represents _________.

  1. ((a))

    the net work done by the system

  2. ((b))

    the heat rejected by the system 

  3. ((c))

    the efficiency of the system

  4. ((d))

    the heat added to the system

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

the net work done by the system

155

In chemical machining, material is removed from the work piece by ___________. 

  1. ((a))

    erosion 

  2. ((b))

    chemical burning

  3. ((c))

    chemical dissolution

  4. ((d))

    chemical evaporation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

erosion 

156

In the P - H diagram of the vapour compression cycle, the compression process is shown by a / an ___________.

  1. ((a))

    inclined straight line with a negative slope

  2. ((b))

    inclined straight line with a positive slope

  3. ((c))

    vertical line 

  4. ((d))

    curved line

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

inclined straight line with a negative slope

157

Which of the following are fire tube boilers? 

  1. ((a))

    Scotch - marine boilers

  2. ((b))

    Loeffler boilers

  3. ((c))

    Stirling boilers

  4. ((d))

    Benson boilers 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Scotch - marine boilers

158

When a system expands freely against vacuum, then work transfer involved is: 

  1. ((a))

    positive 

  2. ((b))

    negative 

  3. ((c))

    either positive or negative

  4. ((d))

    zero

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

positive 

159

What is the purpose of a pattern in the casting pattern procedure? 

  1. ((a))

    To clean the mould before casting 

  2. ((b))

    To pour molten metal into the mould cavity

  3. ((c))

    To create the mould cavity 

  4. ((d))

    To remove the casting from the mould

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To clean the mould before casting 

160

________ is a type of rolling process used in metalworking. 

  1. ((a))

    Hot rolling

  2. ((b))

    Hydroforming 

  3. ((c))

    Injection moulding

  4. ((d))

    Powder metallurgy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hot rolling

161

Which of the following governing methods is used for gas engines? 

  1. ((a))

    Controlled governing

  2. ((b))

    Quantity governing 

  3. ((c))

    Quality governing

  4. ((d))

    Hit - and - miss governing

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Controlled governing

162

Which of the following types of cast iron is the hardest among all?

  1. ((a))

    White cast iron

  2. ((b))

    Ductile cast iron

  3. ((c))

    Brittle cast iron

  4. ((d))

    Gray cast iron

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

White cast iron

163

The data for an impulse steam turbine are given as follows.

(i) Mean blade velocity = 400 m/s

(ii) Absolute velocity of steam at the inlet to the moving blade = 1200 m/s

(iii) Sum of velocities of whirl at the inlet and the outlet of the blade = 1500 m/s

What will be the efficiency of the blade?

  1. ((a))

    0.83

  2. ((b))

    0.42

  3. ((c))

    0.5 

  4. ((d))

    0.67

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.83

164

Which of the following expressions gives the area of flow for a Kaplan turbine ? Where, D = diameter, B = width of vane, D0 = outer diameter of runner, Db = diameter of hub

  1. ((a))

    πD2B

  2. ((b))

    πDB

  3. ((c))

    π4\frac{\pi}{4}(\left(\mathrm{D}0^2-\mathrm{D}{\mathrm{b}}^2\right)\)

  4. ((d))

    π4\frac{\pi}{4}(\left(\mathrm{D}_0^2\right)\)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

πD2B

165

Which of the following statements is / are correct regarding Fire Tube Boilers ? 

  1. In fire tube boilers, the hot gases are inside the tubes and water surrounds the tubes.

  2. Cochran boiler is a type of fire tube boiler.

  3. Stirling boiler is a type of fire tube boiler.

  1. ((a))

    Only 1

  2. ((b))

    2 and 3

  3. ((c))

    1 and 3

  4. ((d))

    1 and 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only 1

166

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the high - pressure and low - water safety alarm in a steam boiler ? 

  1. ((a))

    The high - pressure and low - water safety alarm is a safety mounting against high pressure and low water levels. 

  2. ((b))

    The high - pressure and low - water safety alarm is suitable for a locomotive boiler. 

  3. ((c))

    The high - pressure and low - water safety alarm operates with loud noise.

  4. ((d))

    The high - pressure and low - water safety alarm has two valves.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The high - pressure and low - water safety alarm is a safety mounting against high pressure and low water levels. 

167

Vertical depth of any point below the free surface in a liquid at rest is known as _________ . 

  1. ((a))

    pressure head 

  2. ((b))

    velocity head 

  3. ((c))

    total head 

  4. ((d))

    datum head

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

pressure head 

168

Mention the sequence of points that mild steel material undergoes failure by referring to the stress strain diagram.

  1. ((a))

    Yielding, Elastic Deformation, Necking, Strain Hardening,Fracture 

  2. ((b))

    Yielding, Elastic Deformation, Strain Hardening, Necking,Fracture

  3. ((c))

    Elastic Deformation, Yielding, Strain Hardening, Necking,Fracture 

  4. ((d))

    Elastic Deformation, Strain Hardening, Yielding, Necking,Fracture 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Yielding, Elastic Deformation, Necking, Strain Hardening,Fracture 

169

Which of the following is a requirement of a good ignition system ?

  1. ((a))

    It should have good reproducibility of secondary voltage rise.

  2. ((b))

    It should be as small as possible in size.

  3. ((c))

    It should give good performance at low speed but at high - speed, performance doesn’t matter. 

  4. ((d))

    It should have very low spark duration.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It should have good reproducibility of secondary voltage rise.

170

When a body is immersed in a fluid, upward force exerted by the fluid is equal to the ________. 

  1. ((a))

    volume of water displaced by the body 

  2. ((b))

    density of the Body 

  3. ((c))

    weight of the fluid displaced by the body

  4. ((d))

    weight of the body 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

volume of water displaced by the body 

171

Which part of the lathe has a long shaft with the keyway extending from the feed box across and in front of the bed ? 

  1. ((a))

    Feed rod 

  2. ((b))

    Headstock spindle

  3. ((c))

    Sliding gear shaft 

  4. ((d))

    Lead screw 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Feed rod 

172

In which of the following types of draught is air forced into the boiler under pressure by a fan? 

  1. ((a))

    Steam jet draught 

  2. ((b))

    Natural draught 

  3. ((c))

    Forced draught

  4. ((d))

    Induced draught

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Steam jet draught 

173

A system undergoes a process in which it absorbs 500 J of heat and does 250 J of work. What is the change in the internal energy of the system? 

  1. ((a))

    −750 J

  2. ((b))

    750 J

  3. ((c))

    250 J

  4. ((d))

    −250 J 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

−750 J

174

The continuous injection system usually has a _________. 

  1. ((a))

    vane pump

  2. ((b))

    plunger pump

  3. ((c))

    rotary pump

  4. ((d))

    gear pump

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

vane pump

175

If the indicated power and frictional power of an engine are 100 KW and 25 KW, respectively, then what will be the brake power of the engine? 

  1. ((a))

    50 KW

  2. ((b))

    62.5 KW

  3. ((c))

    75 KW 

  4. ((d))

    125 KW

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50 KW

176

The pressure at any point in a fluid at rest has the same magnitude in all the directions. This fact is known as _________ . 

  1. ((a))

    Pascal’s law 

  2. ((b))

    Newton’s law 

  3. ((c))

    the pressure law 

  4. ((d))

    Bernoulli’s law

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pascal’s law 

177

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the steam separator in a steam boiler?

  1. ((a))

    Steam separator is provided to collect the water resulting from partial condensation of steam.

  2. ((b))

    Steam separator is also known as steam drier. 

  3. ((c))

    In the steam separator, steam is made to change its direction of flow.

  4. ((d))

    In the steam separator, water separates out from steam due to its greater inertia. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Steam separator is provided to collect the water resulting from partial condensation of steam.

178

Which of the following is NOT a component of a hydroelectric power plant ? 

  1. ((a))

    Surge tank

  2. ((b))

    Tailrace

  3. ((c))

    Condenser 

  4. ((d))

    Penstock

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Surge tank

179

In a vapour compression refrigeration system, the lowest temperature during the cycle is observed after: 

  1. ((a))

    condensation 

  2. ((b))

    expansion 

  3. ((c))

    evaporation 

  4. ((d))

    compression

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

condensation 

180

Under ideal conditions, for a drop of 80 kJ/kg enthalpy, what will be the approximate velocity of steam at the outlet of the nozzle if the inlet velocity of the steam is 2 m/s? 

  1. ((a))

    13 m/s 

  2. ((b))

    410 m/s 

  3. ((c))

    400 m/s

  4. ((d))

    120 m/s

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

13 m/s 

181

The enthalpy of an open system _________. 

  1. ((a))

    increases as energy is added to the system

  2. ((b))

    decreases as energy is added to the system

  3. ((c))

    remains constant

  4. ((d))

    is not a meaningful concept

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

increases as energy is added to the system

182

The value of specific gravity of mercury is ________. 

  1. ((a))

    0.0012 

  2. ((b))

    13.6 

  3. ((c))

    0.136 

  4. ((d))

    1.36

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.0012 

183

In case of two - stroke petrol engines, if exhaust gases do NOT leave the cylinder, then: 

  1. ((a))

    fresh charge gets diluted and efficiency of the engine remains unchanged

  2. ((b))

    fresh charge gets diluted and efficiency of the engine increases 

  3. ((c))

    fresh charge gets diluted and efficiency of the engine decreases 

  4. ((d))

    fresh charge gets diluted and performance of the engine increases 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

fresh charge gets diluted and efficiency of the engine remains unchanged

184

Which of the following is NOT a function of lubricating oils used in refrigerants? 

  1. ((a))

    Decreasing the coolant temperature and hence increasing COP 

  2. ((b))

    Transferring heat from the crank-case to the compressor

  3. ((c))

    Minimising friction

  4. ((d))

    Sealing the gas between the suction and discharge ports 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Decreasing the coolant temperature and hence increasing COP 

185

In a side milling cutter, the angle between the cleared flank of the blade and a tangent to the periphery in a diametral plane passing through the cutting edge is called ________. 

  1. ((a))

    face relief angle 

  2. ((b))

    peripheral clearance angle

  3. ((c))

    face clearance angle 

  4. ((d))

    peripheral relief angle

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

face relief angle 

186

Identify the operation of production of flat vertical surfaces on both sides of a workpiece by using two side milling cutters mounted on the same arbor. 

  1. ((a))

    Straddle milling

  2. ((b))

    Gang milling 

  3. ((c))

    Side milling 

  4. ((d))

    Face milling

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Straddle milling

187

What is the order of temperature generated at the anode during arc generation in electric arc welding? 

  1. ((a))

    4500°C

  2. ((b))

    2000°C 

  3. ((c))

    6000°C

  4. ((d))

    3500°C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4500°C

188

In which of the following turbines, the ends of the blades are welded to disks to form a cage like a hamster cage and instead of the bars, the turbine has the trough - shaped steel blades?

  1. ((a))

    Kaplan turbine 

  2. ((b))

    Cross - flow turbine 

  3. ((c))

    Francis turbine

  4. ((d))

    Pelton turbine

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kaplan turbine 

189

Which of the following assertions holds true when a constant volume of gas is heated? 

  1. ((a))

    The temperature of the gas remains constant 

  2. ((b))

    The work done by the gas is a finite value 

  3. ((c))

    The heat added to the gas is equal to the change in internal energy 

  4. ((d))

    The change in enthalpy of the gas is zero

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The temperature of the gas remains constant 

190

In a single stationary blade type rotary compressor, a blade is set into the slot of a cylinder in such a manner that it always maintains contact with the roller by means of: 

  1. ((a))

    gravity 

  2. ((b))

    centrifugal force

  3. ((c))

    ​cam and follower

  4. ((d))

    spring

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

gravity 

191

Which pressure indicates the difference between the atmospheric pressure and the absolute pressure?

  1. ((a))

    Gauge pressure 

  2. ((b))

    Vacuum pressure 

  3. ((c))

    Local atmospheric pressure 

  4. ((d))

    System pressure

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gauge pressure 

192

Calculate the minimum diameter of the shaft, such that the shearing stress does NOT exceed 50 N/mm2 during torque transmission of 15000 N-m.

  1. ((a))

    98.4 mm

  2. ((b))

    120.6 mm

  3. ((c))

    100.2 mm

  4. ((d))

    115.2 mm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

98.4 mm

193

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the friction factor of Darcy's equation? 

  1. ((a))

    Friction factor is a dimensionless quantity. 

  2. ((b))

    Friction factor value is same for all the flow conditions.

  3. ((c))

    The value of friction factor depends on the Reynolds number of the flow. 

  4. ((d))

    The value of friction factor depends on the roughness condition of the pipe surface.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Friction factor is a dimensionless quantity. 

194

The boiling point of refrigerant R - 13 is __________.

  1. ((a))

    +86.6°C

  2. ((b))

    -107.7°C

  3. ((c))

    -157.5°C

  4. ((d))

    -81.4°C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

+86.6°C

195

In the study of flow of fluid in pipes, total energy line is also known as _______________.

  1. ((a))

    pressure line

  2. ((b))

    piezometric head line

  3. ((c))

    energy gradient line

  4. ((d))

    hydraulic gradient line

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

pressure line

196

Chezy's equation is applicable for: 

  1. ((a))

    transient internal flow

  2. ((b))

    steady open flow 

  3. ((c))

    transient open flow 4.

  4. ((d))

    steady internal flow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

transient internal flow

197

Internal combustion engines have _____. 

  1. ((a))

    low power to weight ratio compared to external combustion engine

  2. ((b))

    lower thermal efficiency than external combustion engine 

  3. ((c))

    high initial cost compared to external combustion engine

  4. ((d))

    higher thermal efficiency than external combustion engine 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

low power to weight ratio compared to external combustion engine

198

Which of the following is an advantage of multistage reciprocating air compressor? 

  1. ((a))

    Mechanical efficiency gets increased

  2. ((b))

    System will be less complicated

  3. ((c))

    High work input

  4. ((d))

    Volumetric efficiency increases for the same pressure ratio

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mechanical efficiency gets increased

199

Which of the following types of steam nozzle is suitable for use when the inlet steam velocity is very low and the outlet steam velocity is desired to be supersonic? 

  1. ((a))

    Divergent nozzle 

  2. ((b))

    Convergent - divergent nozzle

  3. ((c))

    Convergent nozzle 

  4. ((d))

    Divergent - convergent nozzle

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Divergent nozzle 

200

The pressure, which is measured with reference to absolute vacuum pressure is called: 

  1. ((a))

    absolute pressure

  2. ((b))

    gauge pressure 

  3. ((c))

    vacuum pressure 

  4. ((d))

    atmospheric pressure

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

absolute pressure

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