Official Paper

SSC JE Mechanical 02 Mar 2017 Shift 2 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

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General Intelligence and Reasoning (50 questions)

1

Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

Red : Colour :: French : ?

  1. ((a))

    foreign

  2. ((b))

    language

  3. ((c))

    European

  4. ((d))

    Country

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

foreign

2

Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

Chips : Potatoes :: Soda : ?

  1. ((a))

    Fizz

  2. ((b))

    Bottle

  3. ((c))

    Lemon

  4. ((d))

    Water

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fizz

3

Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

Quadrilateral : Four :: ?

  1. ((a))

    Cylinder : Circle

  2. ((b))

    Cube : Square

  3. ((c))

    Triangle : 180

  4. ((d))

    Hexagon : Six

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cylinder : Circle

4

Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

FGI : HIK :: STV : ?

  1. ((a))

    UVW

  2. ((b))

    VWY

  3. ((c))

    XYZ

  4. ((d))

    UVX

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

UVW

5

Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

Dream : Area :: Frame : ?

  1. ((a))

    Farmer

  2. ((b))

    Ear

  3. ((c))

    Fare

  4. ((d))

    Freer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Farmer

6

Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

Brine : Inert :: Beware : ?

  1. ((a))

    Arenas

  2. ((b))

    Declare

  3. ((c))

    Spare

  4. ((d))

    Area

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Arenas

7

Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

169 : 13 :: 225 : ?

  1. ((a))

    22

  2. ((b))

    25

  3. ((c))

    20

  4. ((d))

    15

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

22

8

Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

159 : 840 :: 345 : ?

  1. ((a))

    654

  2. ((b))

    765

  3. ((c))

    876

  4. ((d))

    987

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

654

9

Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

761 : 928 :: 651 : ?

  1. ((a))

    765

  2. ((b))

    753

  3. ((c))

    807

  4. ((d))

    951

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

765

10

Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives.

  1. ((a))

    kilometres

  2. ((b))

    feet

  3. ((c))

    grams

  4. ((d))

    micrometres

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

kilometres

11

Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives.

  1. ((a))

    pros and cons

  2. ((b))

    dead or alive

  3. ((c))

    null and void

  4. ((d))

    sooner or later

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

pros and cons

12

Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives.

  1. ((a))

    Crayon and Marker

  2. ((b))

    Pen and Eraser

  3. ((c))

    Book and Diary

  4. ((d))

    Pen and Marker

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Crayon and Marker

13

Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives.

  1. ((a))

    OU

  2. ((b))

    YC

  3. ((c))

    IA

  4. ((d))

    EO

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

OU

14

Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives.

  1. ((a))

    Cuisine

  2. ((b))

    Business

  3. ((c))

    Disinterested

  4. ((d))

    Noisiness

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cuisine

15

Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives.

  1. ((a))

    DRGK

  2. ((b))

    WMUI

  3. ((c))

    OHAU

  4. ((d))

    XHTV

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

DRGK

16

Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives.

  1. ((a))

    7531

  2. ((b))

    2468

  3. ((c))

    9753

  4. ((d))

    8642

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7531

17

Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives.

  1. ((a))

    15

  2. ((b))

    25

  3. ((c))

    53

  4. ((d))

    45

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15

18

Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives.

  1. ((a))

    108, 132

  2. ((b))

    114, 156

  3. ((c))

    136, 152

  4. ((d))

    120, 138

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

108, 132

19

In the given series one word/one term/one number is missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

Cremation, Accolade, Maestro, Chrome, ?

  1. ((a))

    Very

  2. ((b))

    Zebra

  3. ((c))

    Virtual

  4. ((d))

    Time

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Very

20

In the given series one word/one term/one number is missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

Toxic, Icon, Onto, Tomorrow,?

  1. ((a))

    Owl

  2. ((b))

    Wet

  3. ((c))

    Rat

  4. ((d))

    Borrow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Owl

21

In the given series one word/one term/one number is missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

age, dire, genre, stumpy, ?

  1. ((a))

    splayed

  2. ((b))

    secretes

  3. ((c))

    preacher

  4. ((d))

    shooed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

splayed

22

In the given series one word/one term/one number is missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

L, J, H, F, ?

  1. ((a))

    E

  2. ((b))

    G

  3. ((c))

    D

  4. ((d))

    I

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

E

23

In the given series one word/one term/one number is missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

eca, fdb, gec, hfd, ?

  1. ((a))

    ige

  2. ((b))

    ieg

  3. ((c))

    gei

  4. ((d))

    egi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ige

24

In the given series one word/one term/one number is missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

XXXXOXO, XXXXOOX, XXXXOOX, XXXOXOX, ?

  1. ((a))

    XOXXOXX

  2. ((b))

    XXXXOXO

  3. ((c))

    XXXXOOX

  4. ((d))

    XXOXXOX

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

XOXXOXX

25

In the given series one word/one term/one number is missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

-2, 1, 5, ?, 16

  1. ((a))

    9

  2. ((b))

    10

  3. ((c))

    11

  4. ((d))

    13

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

9

26

In the given series one word/one term/one number is missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

-10/3, ?, -2/3, 2/3, 2

  1. ((a))

    -2

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    -1/3

  4. ((d))

    1/3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

-2

27

In the given series one word/one term/one number is missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

23, 29, ?, 37, 41

  1. ((a))

    30

  2. ((b))

    33

  3. ((c))

    31

  4. ((d))

    35

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30

28

If a < b, d > c and a < d, which of the following is true?

I. b < c

II. c > a

  1. ((a))

    Only I

  2. ((b))

    Neither I nor II

  3. ((c))

    Only II

  4. ((d))

    Both I and II

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I

29

The weights of five boxes are 10, 30, 40, 70 & 70 kilograms. Which of the following cannot be the total weight (in kilograms) of any combination of these boxes?

  1. ((a))

    190

  2. ((b))

    180

  3. ((c))

    210

  4. ((d))

    200

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

190

30

If the letters Q, B, T, A, U, E & N are numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 & 7 respectively. Select that combination of numbers so that letters arranged accordingly, form a meaningful word.

  1. ((a))

    5617312

  2. ((b))

    5447134

  3. ((c))

    2471563

  4. ((d))

    3242637

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5617312

31

If PROXIMAL is coded as KILCRNZO, then how will WHY be coded as?

  1. ((a))

    DSB

  2. ((b))

    EDC

  3. ((c))

    CDE

  4. ((d))

    BNM

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

DSB

32

In a certain code language, 531 means 'boy is shy', 346 means 'girl is bold', 256 means 'shy or bold'. Find the code for 'or'.

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

33

In a certain code language, '+' represents 'x', '-' represents '+', 'x' represents '÷' and '÷' represents '-'. Find out the answer to the following question.

0.1 + 500 - 240 × 6 = ?

  1. ((a))

    90

  2. ((b))

    10

  3. ((c))

    1.25

  4. ((d))

    108

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

90

34

If A @ B means A is father of B, A # B means A is sister of B and A ! B means A is son of B, then what does E @ F ! G # H mean, if H is a male?

  1. ((a))

    H is brother of E

  2. ((b))

    H is father of E

  3. ((c))

    H is son of E

  4. ((d))

    H is E's wife's brother

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

H is brother of E

35

If 45@23 = 14, 76@22 = 17, then find the value of 55@10 = ?

  1. ((a))

    8

  2. ((b))

    11

  3. ((c))

    15

  4. ((d))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8

36

Which of the following words follow the trend of the given list?

Zonal, Tzars, Wizen, Seize, Waltz, ?

  1. ((a))

    Unitize

  2. ((b))

    Ablaze

  3. ((c))

    Azure

  4. ((d))

    Sanza

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Unitize

37

Which of the following terms follows the trend of the given list?

ABC, BCAB, CABCA, __________.

  1. ((a))

    BCABCA

  2. ((b))

    CABCAB

  3. ((c))

    ABCCBA

  4. ((d))

    ABCABC

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

BCABCA

38

A girl walks 3 km East starting from her home. She then turns South and walks 2 km, then she turns West and walks 7 km, then she turns to her right and walks 2 km. Where is she now from her starting position?

  1. ((a))

    10 km to the West from her home.

  2. ((b))

    4 km to the East from her home.

  3. ((c))

    10 km to the East from her home.

  4. ((d))

    4 km to the West from her home.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10 km to the West from her home.

39

A is standing 6 m to the East of B. A walks 9 m South, then turns to his right and walks 7 m. At the same time, B has walked 3 m West, then he turned South and walked 9 m, then he turned to his left and walked 5 m. Where is B now with respect to the position of A?

  1. ((a))

    B is 12 m to the East of A

  2. ((b))

    B is 3 m to the West of A

  3. ((c))

    B is 3 m to the East of A

  4. ((d))

    B is 12 m to the West of A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

B is 12 m to the East of A

40

In the question two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the mentioned statements.

Statement 1: All huts are made of mud.

Statement 2: Things made of mud are not strong.

Conclusion I: All huts are strong.

Conclusion II: Mud huts are not strong.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Either I or II follows

  3. ((c))

    Neither I nor II follows

  4. ((d))

    Only conclusion II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follows

41

In the question a statement is given, followed by two arguments, I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given arguments, if any, is a strong argument.

Statement: Should teachers be permitted to cane unruly children?

Argument I: No, this will teach them that physical violence is an acceptable means of social behaviour.

Argument II: Yes, children taught in a strict atmosphere are more successful.

  1. ((a))

    only argument II is strong

  2. ((b))

    neither argument I nor II is strong

  3. ((c))

    both argument I and II are strong

  4. ((d))

    only argument I is strong

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

only argument II is strong

42

Which of the following cube in the answer figure cannot be made based on the unfolded cube in the question figure?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

43

Which of the following answer figure patterns can be combined to make the question figure?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

44

Which of the following diagrams represent the relationship between Engineers, Software Engineers and Chemical Engineers?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

45

In the following figure, square represents engineers, triangle represents environmentalists, circle represents lawyers and rectangle represents government officers. Which set of letters represents lawyers who are not environmentalists and government officers who are engineers?

  1. ((a))

    E, F and B

  2. ((b))

    A, E and F

  3. ((c))

    B, A and E

  4. ((d))

    G, F and A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

E, F and B

46

Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

47

From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

48

A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

49

If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50

A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example ‘N’ can be represented by 00, 12 etc and ‘C’ can be represented by 95, 76 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘TYRES’.

MATRIX – I

01234
0NVPRW
1XTNYV
2ZPSXQ
3UZXWU
4YYRNR
<br>

MATRIX – II

56789
5JICEJ
6GGALI
7FCJKD
8EMKJH
9CLEAE
  1. ((a))

    21, 40, 04, 69, 01

  2. ((b))

    12, 13, 41, 55, 69

  3. ((c))

    11, 41, 44, 85, 22

  4. ((d))

    31, 01, 65, 58, 41

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

21, 40, 04, 69, 01

General Awareness (50 questions)

51

Which of the following is not a part of the human stomach?

  1. ((a))

    Cardia

  2. ((b))

    Caecum 

  3. ((c))

    Fundus

  4. ((d))

    Pyloric 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cardia

52

Which of the following white blood cells is a type of agranulocytes?

  1. ((a))

    Neutrophils

  2. ((b))

    Eosinophils

  3. ((c))

    Lymphocytes 

  4. ((d))

    Basophils 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Neutrophils

53

Which of the following is an insectivorous plant?

  1. ((a))

    Pitcher 

  2. ((b))

    Alstonia

  3. ((c))

    Calotropis

  4. ((d))

    Eichhornia

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pitcher 

54

Which of the following represents the correct pathway of water movement in the root?

  1. ((a))

     Epidermis > Endodermis > Cortex > Pericycle > Xylem

  2. ((b))

    Epidermis > Pericycle > Endodermis > Cortex > Xylem

  3. ((c))

    Epidermis > Cortex > Endodermis > Pericycle > Xylem

  4. ((d))

    Epidermis > Pericycle > Cortex > Endodermis > Xylem

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

 Epidermis > Endodermis > Cortex > Pericycle > Xylem

55

Consider the following pairs.

1. 2-Bromopropane(CH3)2C=CHCOCH3
2. Propan-1-amineCH3–CH2–CH2–NH2
3. DichloromethaneCH2Cl2
4. 4-Methylpent-3-en-2-oneCH3-CHBr-CH3
<br>

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

  1. ((a))

    1 and 4 only

  2. ((b))

    3 and 4 only 

  3. ((c))

    2 and 3 only 

  4. ((d))

    2, 3 and 4 only 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 and 4 only

56

What is the IUPAC name of Allyl bromide?

  1. ((a))

    Dichloromethane

  2. ((b))

    Tetrachloromethane

  3. ((c))

    2-Chlorobutane

  4. ((d))

    3-Bromopropene

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dichloromethane

57

Formula for Hexamethylene diamine is ________.

  1. ((a))

    NH2(CH2)4NH2

  2. ((b))

    NH2(CH2)6NH2

  3. ((c))

    NH2(CH2)3NH2

  4. ((d))

    NH2(CH2)2NH2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

NH2(CH2)4NH2

58

Which of the following elements is the most electronegative?

  1. ((a))

    Alluminium 

  2. ((b))

    Boron

  3. ((c))

    Gallium 

  4. ((d))

    Thallium 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Alluminium 

59

Which HTML tag is used to make a text bold?

  1. ((a))

    <body>

  2. ((b))

    <b>

  3. ((c))


  4. ((d))

    <None of the above>

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

<body>

60

To easily access commonly used commands and tools in a word processor use the ________ bar.

  1. ((a))

    Home 

  2. ((b))

    Title 

  3. ((c))

    Menu

  4. ((d))

    Tool 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Home 

61

Hareli is the harvest festival of which state?

  1. ((a))

    Assam

  2. ((b))

    Andhra Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Himachal Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Chhattisgarh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Assam

62

 In October 2016, who was sacked as the Chairman of the Tata Sons?

  1. ((a))

    Ratan Tata

  2. ((b))

    Narayan Murthy

  3. ((c))

    Cyrus Mistry

  4. ((d))

    Vishal Sikka

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ratan Tata

63

Which of the following scientists demonstrated that fermentation is caused by the growth of micro-organisms?

  1. ((a))

    Edmund Becquerel

  2. ((b))

    Dmitri Mendeleev

  3. ((c))

    Louis Pasteur

  4. ((d))

    Joseph Priestley

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Edmund Becquerel

64

The line consisting of all the bundles which cost exactly equal to the consumer's income is called the ________ line.

  1. ((a))

    Demand 

  2. ((b))

    Utility

  3. ((c))

    Budget

  4. ((d))

    Indifference 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Demand 

65

 The area under the short run ________ cost curve up to any level of output gives us the total variable cost up to that level.

  1. ((a))

    Average 

  2. ((b))

    Marginal 

  3. ((c))

    Total

  4. ((d))

    Variable 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Average 

66

If price of an article decreases from Rs. 60 to Rs. 50, when quantity demanded increases from 1000 units to 1200 units. Find point elasticity of demand?

  1. ((a))

    -1

  2. ((b))

    1.2

  3. ((c))

    1.5

  4. ((d))

    1.6

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

-1

67

Which ratio is the proportion of the total deposits commercial banks keep as reserves?

  1. ((a))

    Cash Reserve 

  2. ((b))

    Currency Deposit 

  3. ((c))

    Reserve Deposit 

  4. ((d))

    Statutory Liquidity 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cash Reserve 

68

Gross Domestic Product + Net factor income from abroad =

  1. ((a))

    Personal income

  2. ((b))

    Personal Disposable Income

  3. ((c))

    Gross National Product

  4. ((d))

    Net National Product at factor cost

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Personal income

69

Which of the following metals is not used as a catalyst in catalytic converts fitted in automobiles?

  1. ((a))

    Platinum 

  2. ((b))

    Polonium 

  3. ((c))

    Rhodium 

  4. ((d))

    Palladium 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Platinum 

70

Bio-magnification is well established for which of the following pollutants?

  1. ((a))

    Zinc 

  2. ((b))

    Mercury

  3. ((c))

    Copper 

  4. ((d))

    Nickel 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Zinc 

71

All changes in climate and weather take place in which layer of the atmosphere?

  1. ((a))

    Stratosphere 

  2. ((b))

    Mesosphere

  3. ((c))

    Thermosphere

  4. ((d))

    Troposphere

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Stratosphere 

72

Which type of electromagnetic radiation converts oxygen into ozone?

  1. ((a))

    Gamma rays

  2. ((b))

    Cosmic rays 

  3. ((c))

    Infra-red rays 

  4. ((d))

    Ultra-violet rays 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gamma rays

73

Jan Koum is the cofounder of which startup?

  1. ((a))

    Microsoft

  2. ((b))

    Google 

  3. ((c))

    Facebook

  4. ((d))

    Whatsapp

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Microsoft

74

With reference to the interior of the earth consider the following statements.

1] Body waves are generated due to the release of energy at the focus.

2] Denser the material, the lower is the velocity of the Earthquake waves.

3] There are two types of body waves. They are called P and S-waves.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

  1. ((a))

    1 and 2 only 

  2. ((b))

    2 and 3 only 

  3. ((c))

    3 only

  4. ((d))

    1 and 3 only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 and 2 only 

75

Which of the following is a major tectonic plate?

  1. ((a))

    Cocos plate

  2. ((b))

    Arabian plate

  3. ((c))

    Pacific plate

  4. ((d))

    Nazca plate

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cocos plate

76

The mean distance between the Sun and the Earth is approximately _____.

  1. ((a))

    99.6 Million Km

  2. ((b))

    49.6 Million Km

  3. ((c))

    149.6 Million Km

  4. ((d))

    199.6 Million Km

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

99.6 Million Km

77

The process by which soil deposits through compaction turn into rocks is called _____.

  1. ((a))

    lithification

  2. ((b))

    metamorphication

  3. ((c))

    slatification

  4. ((d))

    petrification

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

lithification

78

The Rabi cropping season is from _____.

  1. ((a))

    April – June

  2. ((b))

    June – September

  3. ((c))

    May – August

  4. ((d))

    October – March

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

April – June

79

With reference to India's freedom struggle consider the following statements.

1] Gandhi’s first major public appearance was at the opening of the Banaras Hindu University (BHU) in February 1916.

2] During the Great War of 1914 - 18, the French had instituted censorship of the press and permitted detention without trial.

3] Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place in Amritsar in April 1819.

Which of the above statements are right?

  1. ((a))

    1 and 2 only

  2. ((b))

    2 and 3 only

  3. ((c))

    3 only

  4. ((d))

    1 and 3 only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 and 2 only

80

By the sixth century BC, _____ had established control over major parts of the Assyrian empire.

  1. ((a))

    Iranians

  2. ((b))

    Greeks

  3. ((c))

    Romans

  4. ((d))

    Mongols

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Iranians

81

Asoka, arguably the most famous ruler of early India, conquered ________, present - day coastal Orissa.

  1. ((a))

    Pataliputra

  2. ((b))

    Prayaga

  3. ((c))

    Taxila

  4. ((d))

    Kalinga

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pataliputra

82

Ibn Battuta was a ________ who wrote about his travels to India in the fourteenth century.

  1. ((a))

    Persian

  2. ((b))

    Egyptian

  3. ((c))

    Turk

  4. ((d))

    Moroccan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Persian

83

One of the earliest Bhakti movements were led by the Nayanmars, who were devotees of ________.

  1. ((a))

    Shiva

  2. ((b))

    Vishnu

  3. ((c))

    Surya

  4. ((d))

    Brahma

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Shiva

84

Phonograph was invented by which scientist?

  1. ((a))

    Alexander Graham Bell

  2. ((b))

    Thomas Edison

  3. ((c))

    Jagadish Chandra Bose

  4. ((d))

    George Eastman

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Alexander Graham Bell

85

Consider the following pairs.

Event: Time interval (in Seconds)

1] Period of atomic vibrations: 10−15{10^{ - 15}}

2] Period of radio wave: 10−6{10^{ - 6}}

3] Travel time for light from Sun to Earth: 106{10^{ 6}}

4] Revolution period of the moon: 1010{10^{ 10}}

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

  1. ((a))

    1 and 4 only

  2. ((b))

    1 and 2 only

  3. ((c))

    2 and 3 only

  4. ((d))

    2, 3 and 4 only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 and 4 only

86

The correct expression for the time period (T) of a particle of mass (m) performing Simple Harmonic Motion, where k is a constant, is ________.

  1. ((a))

    T = 2π√(k/m)

  2. ((b))

    T = 2π(m/k)2

  3. ((c))

    T = 2π(k/m-k)2

  4. ((d))

    T = 2π√(m/k)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

T = 2π√(k/m)

87

Who has a wavelength range of 700 nm to 400 nm?

  1. ((a))

    X - Rays

  2. ((b))

    Visible light

  3. ((c))

    Microwaves

  4. ((d))

    Radio waves

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

X - Rays

88

How far should the object be placed from a concave mirror of focal length 4.8 cm, when the image is to be obtained at a distance of 12 cm from the mirror?

  1. ((a))

    8 cm

  2. ((b))

    10 cm

  3. ((c))

    12 cm

  4. ((d))

    15 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8 cm

89

The Institution of the Speaker and his role of the Indian Constitution are borrowed from the _____ constitution.

  1. ((a))

    British

  2. ((b))

    French

  3. ((c))

    Irish

  4. ((d))

    Canadian

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

British

90

Which of the following is a characteristic of a Proportional Representation system?

  1. ((a))

    The country is divided into small geographical units called constituencies or districts

  2. ((b))

    Candidate who wins the election may not get majority (50%+1) votes

  3. ((c))

    A party may get more seats than votes in the legislature

  4. ((d))

    Every party gets seats in the legislature in proportion to the percentage of votes that it gets

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The country is divided into small geographical units called constituencies or districts

91

Which of the following is false with reference to the Parliamentary type of executive?

  1. ((a))

    Prime Minister is the head of the Government.

  2. ((b))

    President should be 35 years of age and above. 

  3. ((c))

    The President is usually indirectly elected by the people.

  4. ((d))

    President is accountable to the Legislature.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Prime Minister is the head of the Government.

92

Which of the following subjects is included in the Concurrent List?

  1. ((a))

    Banking

  2. ((b))

    Trade Unions

  3. ((c))

    Agriculture

  4. ((d))

    Police

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Banking

93

Independence of Judiciary means all of the following, except ________.

  1. ((a))

    Executive must not restrain the functioning of the judiciary

  2. ((b))

    Legislature should not interfere with the decision of the judiciary.

  3. ((c))

    Absence of accountability

  4. ((d))

    Judges must be able to perform their functions without fear

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Executive must not restrain the functioning of the judiciary

94

Jwala Gutta is associated with which sport?

  1. ((a))

    Wrestling

  2. ((b))

    Boxing

  3. ((c))

    Badminton

  4. ((d))

    Weightlifting

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Wrestling

95

Who wrote the novel "Angels & Demons"?

  1. ((a))

    Dan Brown

  2. ((b))

    Jonathan Swift

  3. ((c))

    Daniel Defoe

  4. ((d))

    William Shakespeare

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dan Brown

96

Over two - thirds of all named species on earth are ______.

  1. ((a))

    Porifera

  2. ((b))

    Arthopods

  3. ((c))

    Aschelminthes

  4. ((d))

    Ctenophora

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Porifera

97

Which type of epithelium is made of a single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries?

  1. ((a))

    Cuboidal

  2. ((b))

    Columnar

  3. ((c))

    Ciliated

  4. ((d))

    Squamous

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cuboidal

98

Which is the longest bridge in India?

  1. ((a))

    Bandra - Worli Sea Link

  2. ((b))

    Mahatma Gandhi Setu

  3. ((c))

    Vikramshila Setu

  4. ((d))

    Bhupen Hazarika Setu

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bandra - Worli Sea Link

99

Which of the following is a famous Classical Indian dancer?

  1. ((a))

    Amrita Sher Gil

  2. ((b))

    Satish Gujral

  3. ((c))

    Sonal Mansingh

  4. ((d))

    Bhimsen Joshi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Amrita Sher Gil

100

Which of the following is a recipient of the "Ashoka Chakra" award?

  1. ((a))

    Abhijeet Gupta

  2. ((b))

    Hangpan Dada

  3. ((c))

    Akhil Kumar

  4. ((d))

    Sunil Chhetri

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Abhijeet Gupta

General Engineering (100 questions)

101

A body is thrown up at an angle of 45° with a velocity of 100 m/sec so as to describe a parabola. Its vertical velocity on point of return down will be

  1. ((a))

    Zero

  2. ((b))

    130 m/sec

  3. ((c))

    50 m/sec

  4. ((d))

    70.7 m/sec

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Zero

102

When the spring of a watch is wound it possess _____.

  1. ((a))

    Heat energy

  2. ((b))

    Kinetic energy

  3. ((c))

    Potential energy

  4. ((d))

    Wound energy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Heat energy

103

When a body falls freely under gravitational force, it possesses ______.

  1. ((a))

    Maximum weight

  2. ((b))

    Minimum weight

  3. ((c))

    No weight

  4. ((d))

    No effect on its weight

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Maximum weight

104

The apparent weight of a man in moving lift is less than his real weight when it is going down with _____.

  1. ((a))

    Uniform speed

  2. ((b))

    An acceleration

  3. ((c))

    Some linear momentum

  4. ((d))

    Retardation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Uniform speed

105

A body is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 980 cm/sec, then the time the body will take to reach the ground will be

  1. ((a))

    1 second

  2. ((b))

    2 second

  3. ((c))

    2.5 second

  4. ((d))

    4 second

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 second

106

The figure below shows a weight of 20 kg suspended at one end of the cord and a force of 30 kg applied at the other end of the cord passing over a pulley. Neglecting the weight of the rope and pulley, the tension in the cord will be

  1. ((a))

    30 kg

  2. ((b))

    20 kg

  3. ((c))

    10 kg

  4. ((d))

    50 kg

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30 kg

107

The weights of 2W and W are connected by an inextensible string and rest on two inclined planes, inclined at 30° and 60° respectively as shown in the figure below. Angle ‘α’ will be equal to

  1. ((a))

    30°

  2. ((b))

    cos-1(1/2)

  3. ((c))

    45°

  4. ((d))

    tan-1[(√3)/2)]

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30°

108

Two rectangular blocks of weight ‘W’ each are connected by a flexible cord and rest upon a horizontal and an inclined plane with the cord passing over a pulley as shown in the figure below. If μ is the coefficient of friction for all continuous surfaces, angle ‘θ’ for motion of system to impede will be

  1. ((a))

    tan θ = μ

  2. ((b))

    tan (θ/2) = μ

  3. ((c))

    tan (2θ) = μ

  4. ((d))

    tan θ = 2μ

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

tan θ = μ

109

The centre of gravity of a (10 × 15 × 5) cm T section (From bottom) will be

  1. ((a))

    7.5 cm

  2. ((b))

    5.0 cm

  3. ((c))

    8.75 cm

  4. ((d))

    7.85 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7.5 cm

110

In simple harmonic motion, acceleration of a particle is proportional to

  1. ((a))

    Rate of change of velocity

  2. ((b))

    Displacement

  3. ((c))

    Velocity

  4. ((d))

    Direction

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rate of change of velocity

111

Rate of change of momentum takes place in the direction ______.

  1. ((a))

    Of motion

  2. ((b))

    Of applied force

  3. ((c))

    Opposite to the direction of applied force

  4. ((d))

    Perpendicular to the direction of motion

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Of motion

112

The work done by a body in moving down a smooth inclined plane in comparison to being dropped vertically downwards from same height will be

  1. ((a))

    More

  2. ((b))

    Less

  3. ((c))

    Equal

  4. ((d))

    Zero in both cases

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

More

113

Rate of change of momentum is proportional to the

  1. ((a))

    Displacement

  2. ((b))

    Velocity

  3. ((c))

    Acceleration

  4. ((d))

    Impressed force

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Displacement

114

Which of the following have same units?

A. Momentum and impulse

B. Stress and pressure

C. Work and kinetic energy

  1. ((a))

    A lone

  2. ((b))

    B alone

  3. ((c))

    C alone

  4. ((d))

    A, B and C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A lone

115

A ball is thrown up. The sum of kinetic and potential energies will be maximum at

  1. ((a))

    Ground

  2. ((b))

    Highest point

  3. ((c))

    In the centre while going up

  4. ((d))

    At all points

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ground

116

Which of the following is not a dimensionless parameter?

  1. ((a))

    Reynolds number

  2. ((b))

    Friction factor 

  3. ((c))

    Pressure coefficient

  4. ((d))

    Kinematic viscosity

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Reynolds number

117

The specific speed of a pump is defined as the speed of a unit of such a size that

  1. ((a))

    It delivers unit discharge at unit head

  2. ((b))

    It delivers unit discharge at unit power

  3. ((c))

    It requires unit power per unit head

  4. ((d))

    It produces unit horsepower with unit head

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It delivers unit discharge at unit head

118

The total energy of each particle at various places in the case of perfect incompressible fluid flowing in continuous stream

  1. ((a))

    Keeps on increasing

  2. ((b))

    Keeps on decreasing

  3. ((c))

    Remains constant

  4. ((d))

    May increase or decrease

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Keeps on increasing

119

Pressure intensifier increases the pressure in proportion to _____. 

  1. ((a))

    Ratio of diameters

  2. ((b))

    Square of ratio of diameters

  3. ((c))

    Inverse ratio of diameters

  4. ((d))

    Square of inverse ratio of diameters

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ratio of diameters

120

Normal depth in open channel flow is the depth of flow corresponding to

  1. ((a))

    Steady flow

  2. ((b))

    Unsteady flow

  3. ((c))

    Laminar flow

  4. ((d))

    Uniform flow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Steady flow

121

Which of the following is not a rotary pump?

  1. ((a))

    Gear

  2. ((b))

    Vane

  3. ((c))

    Screw

  4. ((d))

    Axial

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gear

122

Venturimeter is used to measure flow of fluids in pipe when pipe is

  1. ((a))

    Horizontal

  2. ((b))

    Vertical, flow downwards

  3. ((c))

    Vertical, flow upwards

  4. ((d))

    In any position

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Horizontal

123

Hydraulic accumulator is used for

  1. ((a))

    Accumulating oil

  2. ((b))

    Supplying large quantities of oil for very short duration

  3. ((c))

    Generally high pressures to operate hydraulic machines

  4. ((d))

    Supplying energy when main supply fails

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Accumulating oil

124

Differential manometer is used to measure

  1. ((a))

    Very low pressure

  2. ((b))

    Pressure in pipes, channels etc

  3. ((c))

    Atmospheric pressure

  4. ((d))

    Difference of pressure between two points

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Very low pressure

125

The total pressure force on a plane area is equal to the area multiplied by the intensity of pressure at the centroid, if

A. The area is horizontal

B. The area is vertical

C. The area in inclined

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Only B

  3. ((c))

    Only C

  4. ((d))

    A, B and C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

126

A piece weighing 3 kg in air was found to weigh 2.5 kg when submerged in water. Its specific gravity is

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    7

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

127

The dimensions of coefficient of viscosity are

  1. ((a))

    M1L-1T-1

  2. ((b))

    M1L1T-1

  3. ((c))

    M-1L1T1

  4. ((d))

    M1L-1T1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

M1L-1T-1

128

A liquid compressed in cylinder has a volume of 0.04 m3 at 50 kg/cm2 and a volume of 0.039 m3 at 150 kg/cm2. The bulk modulus of liquid is

  1. ((a))

    400 kg/cm2

  2. ((b))

    4000 kg/cm2

  3. ((c))

    40 × 105 kg/cm2

  4. ((d))

    40 × 106 kg/cm2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

400 kg/cm2

129

Maximum work is done in compressing air when the compression is ____.

  1. ((a))

    Isothermal

  2. ((b))

    Adiabatic

  3. ((c))

    Polytropic

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Isothermal

130

Surface tension ____.

  1. ((a))

    Acts in the plane of the interface normally to any line in the surface

  2. ((b))

    Is also known as capillarity

  3. ((c))

    Is a function of the curvature of the interface

  4. ((d))

    Decrease with fall in temperature

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Acts in the plane of the interface normally to any line in the surface

131

In a static fluid, _______.

  1. ((a))

    linear deformation is small

  2. ((b))

    Resistance to shear stress is small

  3. ((c))

    Only normal stress can exist

  4. ((d))

    Fluid pressure is small

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

linear deformation is small

132

When a piping system is made up primarily of vertically lift and very little pipe friction, the pump characteristic should be _____.

  1. ((a))

    Horizontal

  2. ((b))

    Nearly horizontal

  3. ((c))

    Steep

  4. ((d))

    First rise and then fall

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Horizontal

133

A block of ice floating over water in a vessel slowly melts in it. The water level in the vessel will

  1. ((a))

    Start rising

  2. ((b))

    Start falling

  3. ((c))

    Will remain constant

  4. ((d))

    Will depend on temperature of water

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Start rising

134

Low specific speed of a pump implies that it is

  1. ((a))

    Centrifugal pump

  2. ((b))

    Mixed flow pump

  3. ((c))

    Axial flow pump

  4. ((d))

    Axial flow pump or mixed flow pump

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Centrifugal pump

135

Which of the following pumps is used for pumping viscous fluids?

  1. ((a))

    Centrifugal pump

  2. ((b))

    Screw pump

  3. ((c))

    Reciprocating pump

  4. ((d))

    Jet pump

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Centrifugal pump

136

An impulse turbine is used for ________.

  1. ((a))

    Low head of water

  2. ((b))

    High head of water

  3. ((c))

    Medium head of water

  4. ((d))

    High discharge

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Low head of water

137

An ideal fluid is

  1. ((a))

    Similar to perfect gas

  2. ((b))

    One which obeys Newtons’ law of viscosity

  3. ((c))

    Frictionless and incompressible

  4. ((d))

    Very viscous

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Similar to perfect gas

138

The ratio of power produced by the turbine to the energy actually supplied to the turbine is called ____.

  1. ((a))

    Mechanical efficiency

  2. ((b))

    Hydraulic efficiency

  3. ((c))

    Overall efficiency

  4. ((d))

    Turbine efficiency

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mechanical efficiency

139

Laminar flow occurs in pipes, when Reynolds number ______.

  1. ((a))

    Lies between 2000 – 3000

  2. ((b))

    Lies between 3000 – 4000

  3. ((c))

    Is more than 2000

  4. ((d))

    Is less than 2000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lies between 2000 – 3000

140

Reaction turbines are used for _____

  1. ((a))

    Low head

  2. ((b))

    High head

  3. ((c))

    High head and low discharge

  4. ((d))

    Low head and high discharge

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Low head

141

Specific speed of hydraulic turbine is dependent upon ____.

  1. ((a))

    Speed, power developed and flow

  2. ((b))

    Speed, power developed and effect head

  3. ((c))

    Speed, head and flow

  4. ((d))

    Speed, mean diameter and head

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Speed, power developed and flow

142

The cavitation in reaction type hydraulic turbines is avoided by

A. Using highly polished blade

B. Using stainless steel runner

C. Running the turbine at designed speed

D. Installing the turbine below the tail race level

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    A and B only

  3. ((c))

    B and C only

  4. ((d))

    A, B, C and D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

143

A hydraulic accumulator normally consists of

  1. ((a))

    Two cylinders, two rams and a storage device

  2. ((b))

    A cylinder and a ram

  3. ((c))

    Two co-axial rams and two cylinders

  4. ((d))

    A cylinder, a piston, storage tank and control valve

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Two cylinders, two rams and a storage device

144

Surface tension of water _____.

  1. ((a))

    Increase with decrease in temperature

  2. ((b))

    Decreases with decrease in temperature

  3. ((c))

    Independent of temperature

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increase with decrease in temperature

145

The point in the immersed body through which the resultant pressure of the liquid may be taken to act is known as

  1. ((a))

    Centre of gravity

  2. ((b))

    Centre of buoyancy

  3. ((c))

    Centre of pressure

  4. ((d))

    Metacentre

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Centre of gravity

146

High speed steel should have

A. Wear resistance

B. Hardness

C. Toughness

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Only B

  3. ((c))

    Only C

  4. ((d))

    Both A and B

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

147

18-4-1 high speed steel contains

  1. ((a))

    18% carbon

  2. ((b))

    4% carbon

  3. ((c))

    15% carbon

  4. ((d))

    0.7% carbon

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

18% carbon

148

The essential ingredient of any hardened steel is

  1. ((a))

    Austenite

  2. ((b))

    Pearlite

  3. ((c))

    Martensite

  4. ((d))

    Cementite

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Austenite

149

Steel containing 11% to 14% Chromium and 0.35% carbon is called _____.

  1. ((a))

    Martensitic stainless steel

  2. ((b))

    Ferritic stainless steel

  3. ((c))

    Austenitic stain less steel

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Martensitic stainless steel

150

Steel containing 18% chromium and 8% nickel is called _____.

  1. ((a))

    Martensitic stainless steel

  2. ((b))

    Ferritic stainless steel

  3. ((c))

    Austenitic stainless steel

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Martensitic stainless steel

151

The ultimate strength of steel in tension in comparison to shear is in the ratio of

  1. ((a))

    1: 1

  2. ((b))

    2: 1

  3. ((c))

    3: 2

  4. ((d))

    2: 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1: 1

152

Steel containing pearlite and ferrite is

  1. ((a))

    Tough

  2. ((b))

    Hard

  3. ((c))

    Soft

  4. ((d))

    Ductile

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tough

153

Steel with carbon below 0.8% is called __________.

  1. ((a))

    Eutectoid steel

  2. ((b))

    Hypo-eutectoid steel

  3. ((c))

    Austenite

  4. ((d))

    Hyper-eutectoid steel

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Eutectoid steel

154

Fluidity is greatly influenced by

  1. ((a))

    Carbon content in molten metal

  2. ((b))

    Pouring temperature of molten metal

  3. ((c))

    Inoculation added

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Carbon content in molten metal

155

Hardness of steel depends upon amount of

  1. ((a))

    Pearlite

  2. ((b))

    Ferrite

  3. ((c))

    Cementite

  4. ((d))

    Martensite

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pearlite

156

Which of the following steel key is equally strong in failure by shear and crushing?

  1. ((a))

    Rectangular

  2. ((b))

    Flat

  3. ((c))

    Square

  4. ((d))

    Circular

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rectangular

157

In the flange coupling the two flanges are coupled together by means of bolts fitted in

  1. ((a))

    reamed holes

  2. ((b))

    machined holes

  3. ((c))

    threaded holes

  4. ((d))

    gasketed holes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

reamed holes

158

The sleeve or muff coupling is designed as a ____.

  1. ((a))

    Thin vessel

  2. ((b))

    Thick vessel

  3. ((c))

    Solid shaft

  4. ((d))

    Hollow shaft

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Thin vessel

159

Metal to metal joint is used for applications subjected to ____.

  1. ((a))

    Very high pressure

  2. ((b))

    Very high temperature

  3. ((c))

    Very high pressure and temperature

  4. ((d))

    Severe vibrations

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Very high pressure

160

What is the addendum of a cycloidal gear tooth?

  1. ((a))

    Cycloid

  2. ((b))

    Involute

  3. ((c))

    Epicycloid

  4. ((d))

    Hypocycloid

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cycloid

161

Which type of gear will be used for non-parallel and non-intersecting shafts?

  1. ((a))

    Helical gears

  2. ((b))

    Hypoid gears

  3. ((c))

    Spur gears

  4. ((d))

    Herringbone gears

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Helical gears

162

Welding units operate at what power factor?

  1. ((a))

    0.3

  2. ((b))

    0.6

  3. ((c))

    0.8

  4. ((d))

    0.9

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.3

163

Concentric helical springs should be 

  1. ((a))

    Wound in same direction

  2. ((b))

    Wound with opposite hand helices

  3. ((c))

    Could be wound in any direction

  4. ((d))

    Direction of winding depends on the load to be carried

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Wound in same direction

164

In a horizontal flat belt drive, it is customary to use

  1. ((a))

    Bottom side of the belt as slack side during power transmission

  2. ((b))

    Top side of the belt as the slack side

  3. ((c))

    Crossed-belting

  4. ((d))

    Idler in between

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bottom side of the belt as slack side during power transmission

165

In a V-belt drive, the belt makes contact at ____.

  1. ((a))

    Bottom of pulley

  2. ((b))

    Sides of the groove of pulley

  3. ((c))

    Sides of groove and bottom of pulley

  4. ((d))

    Could make contact anywhere

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bottom of pulley

166

Which type of chain is used in motorcycle?

  1. ((a))

    Bush roller

  2. ((b))

    Silent

  3. ((c))

    Pintle

  4. ((d))

    Ewast

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bush roller

167

In an involute gear, the base circle must be ____.

  1. ((a))

    At root circle

  2. ((b))

    Under root circle

  3. ((c))

    Above root circle

  4. ((d))

    Under pitch circle

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

At root circle

168

Gear teeth are made harder to avoid

  1. ((a))

    Greater compressive stress in bending

  2. ((b))

    Tensile strength

  3. ((c))

    Abrasion

  4. ((d))

    Wear

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Greater compressive stress in bending

169

The distance between the centres of the rivets in adjacent rows of a zigzag riveted joint is known as _____.

  1. ((a))

    Pitch

  2. ((b))

    Back pitch

  3. ((c))

    Diagonal pitch

  4. ((d))

    Diametric pitch

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pitch

170

The safe twisting moment for a compound shaft is equal to the ________.

  1. ((a))

    Maximum calculated value

  2. ((b))

    Minimum calculated value

  3. ((c))

    Mean value

  4. ((d))

    Extreme value

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Maximum calculated value

171

What is the usual quantity of free air taken per person in air conditioning system?

  1. ((a))

    1.2 m3/sec

  2. ((b))

    1.2 m3/min

  3. ((c))

    1.2 m3/hour

  4. ((d))

    6 m3/min

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1.2 m3/sec

172

The total emissivity power is defined as the total amount of radiation emitted by a black body per unit

  1. ((a))

    Temperature

  2. ((b))

    Thickness

  3. ((c))

    Area

  4. ((d))

    Time

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Temperature

173

Sensible heat is the heat needed to

  1. ((a))

    Vaporise water into steam and vice versa

  2. ((b))

    Change the temperature of a liquid or vapour

  3. ((c))

    Convert water into steam and superheat it

  4. ((d))

    Measure dew point temperature

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vaporise water into steam and vice versa

174

The difference between dry bulb and wet bulb temperature increases as _____.

  1. ((a))

    Air becomes wetter

  2. ((b))

    Air becomes drier

  3. ((c))

    Atmospheric temperature rises

  4. ((d))

    Atmospheric temperature decreases

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Air becomes wetter

175

The weight of the water vapour in kg contained in 1 m3 of air-vapour mixture at its total pressure is known as ______.

  1. ((a))

    Degree of saturation

  2. ((b))

    Percent humidity

  3. ((c))

    Humidity ratio

  4. ((d))

    Vapour density

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Degree of saturation

176

Dehumidification is the process of removing moisture from air with dry bulb temperature ______.

  1. ((a))

    Increasing

  2. ((b))

    Decreasing

  3. ((c))

    Remaining constant

  4. ((d))

    Changing in any direction

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increasing

177

Spray humidifying is the process of adding moisture to the air by passing it through

A. Chiller

B. Air conditioning plant

C. Washers

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Only B

  3. ((c))

    Only C

  4. ((d))

    A or B

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

178

Dew point is _____.

  1. ((a))

    The temperature at which condensation of steam in saturated air will start

  2. ((b))

    The lowest attainable temperature for a mixture of air and steam 

  3. ((c))

    Dependent on pressure of air

  4. ((d))

    Used in connection with air conditioning

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The temperature at which condensation of steam in saturated air will start

179

Relative humidity is

  1. ((a))

    Something concerned with air conditioning

  2. ((b))

    The ratio of moisture present in air to the capability of air to hold maximum moisture

  3. ((c))

    The ratio of actual humidity to absolute humidity 

  4. ((d))

    Representative of amount of moisture held in air

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Something concerned with air conditioning

180

Cryogenics refers to

  1. ((a))

    refrigeration at low temperate 

  2. ((b))

    thermodynamic analysis at low temperature 

  3. ((c))

    engineering field concerned with equipment in the range of – 150°C to absolute zero 

  4. ((d))

    Refrigeration under vaccum conditions

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

refrigeration at low temperate 

181

Which of the following refrigerating plants required no electricity?

  1. ((a))

    vapour absorption

  2. ((b))

    vapour compression

  3. ((c))

    air-refrigeration

  4. ((d))

    vortex tube

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

vapour absorption

182

A hermetically sealed unit implies ____.

  1. ((a))

    Compressor is sealed

  2. ((b))

    Compressor motor is sealed

  3. ((c))

    Refrigerant cycle sealed 

  4. ((d))

    Compressor and motor are sealed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Compressor is sealed

183

The work required for compression in a closed system increases when the value of ‘n’ (the index of compression) ____.

  1. ((a))

    Increases

  2. ((b))

    Decreases

  3. ((c))

    Remains the same

  4. ((d))

    First increases and then decreases

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increases

184

The value of entropy at 0 K is taken as

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    0

  3. ((c))

    -1

  4. ((d))

    0.5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

185

On a pressure volume diagram, the process line PVn = C (as the value of ‘n’ increases) will _____.

  1. ((a))

    Come closer to y-axis

  2. ((b))

    Come closer to x-axis

  3. ((c))

    Come closer to 45° inclined line

  4. ((d))

    Remain in the same positions

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Come closer to y-axis

186

Calorie is measure of ____.

  1. ((a))

    Specific heat

  2. ((b))

    Quantity of heat

  3. ((c))

    Thermal capacity

  4. ((d))

    Entropy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Specific heat

187

Kelvin Plank’s law deals with the ____.

  1. ((a))

    Conservation of heat

  2. ((b))

    Conservation of work

  3. ((c))

    Conversion of heat into work

  4. ((d))

    Conservation of work into heat

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Conservation of heat

188

Diesel cycle consists of which four processes?

  1. ((a))

    two isothermal and two isentropic

  2. ((b))

    two isentropic and two constant volumes

  3. ((c))

    two isentropic, one constant volume and one constant pressure

  4. ((d))

    two isentropic and two constant pressures

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

two isothermal and two isentropic

189

Gas turbine cycle consists of:

  1. ((a))

    two isothermal and two isentropic

  2. ((b))

    two isentropic and two constant volumes

  3. ((c))

    two isentropic, one constant volume and one constant pressure

  4. ((d))

    two isentropic and two constant pressures

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

two isothermal and two isentropic

190

The heat addition in dual combustion cycle is done at ________?

  1. ((a))

    constant pressure

  2. ((b))

    constant volume

  3. ((c))

    partially at constant volume and partially at constant pressure

  4. ((d))

    constant temperature

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

constant pressure

191

The concept of regeneration is used in which cycles?

  1. ((a))

    Rankine and Stirling

  2. ((b))

    Stirling and Ericsson

  3. ((c))

    Rankine and Ericsson

  4. ((d))

    Stirling and Brayton

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rankine and Stirling

192

A high-speed diesel engine theoretically operates on ________?

  1. ((a))

    constant pressure cycle

  2. ((b))

    constant volume cycle

  3. ((c))

    constant temperature cycle

  4. ((d))

    mixed cycle of constant pressure and constant volume

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

constant pressure cycle

193

The constant pressure gas turbine works on the ________?

  1. ((a))

    Rankine Cycle

  2. ((b))

    Bell – Coleman cycle

  3. ((c))

    Carnot cycle

  4. ((d))

    Brayton cycle

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rankine Cycle

194

All diesel engines except slow speed engines use which cycles?

  1. ((a))

    Diesel

  2. ((b))

    Otto

  3. ((c))

    Joule

  4. ((d))

    Mixed dual

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Diesel

195

What does the second law of thermodynamics define?

  1. ((a))

    entropy

  2. ((b))

    enthalpy

  3. ((c))

    heat

  4. ((d))

    work

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

entropy

196

Air standard of diesel cycle is dependent upon

A. ratio of specific heats

B. Cut off ratio

C. adiabatic compression ratio

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Only B

  3. ((c))

    Only C

  4. ((d))

    A, B and C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

197

The saturation temperature of steam with increase in pressure increases _________.

  1. ((a))

    in a linear form (linearly)

  2. ((b))

    rapidly first and then slowly

  3. ((c))

    slowly first and then rapidly

  4. ((d))

    in an inverse form (inversely)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

in a linear form (linearly)

198

A process occurs spontaneously if its entropy _________.

  1. ((a))

    increases

  2. ((b))

    decreases

  3. ((c))

    remains the same 

  4. ((d))

    becomes zero

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

increases

199

All gases behave ideally under ________.

  1. ((a))

    Vacuum conditions

  2. ((b))

    low pressure conditions

  3. ((c))

    high pressure conditions

  4. ((d))

    high pressure and high temperature conditions

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vacuum conditions

200

A hot short metal is ________.

  1. ((a))

    brittle when cold

  2. ((b))

    brittle when hot

  3. ((c))

    brittle under all conditions

  4. ((d))

    ductile at high temperature

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

brittle when cold

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