Official Paper

SSC JE ME Technical Part Official Paper (Held On: 03 Dec, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 70 minutes · with answers · free

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Technical (100 questions)

1

What does the ignition system in a petrol engine produce?

  1. ((a))

    Spark for combustion

  2. ((b))

    Heat for the carburetor

  3. ((c))

    Pressure for injection

  4. ((d))

    Air-fuel mixture

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Spark for combustion

2

What is the mean effective pressure (MEP)?

  1. ((a))

    Net work per cycle divided by displacement volume

  2. ((b))

    Peak cylinder pressure

  3. ((c))

    Exhaust gas pressure

  4. ((d))

    Fuel injection pressure

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Net work per cycle divided by displacement volume

3

Where does steam expand in an impulse turbine?

  1. ((a))

    At the exit

  2. ((b))

    In moving blades

  3. ((c))

    In both fixed and moving blades

  4. ((d))

    Only in the nozzle

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

At the exit

4

Which factor does not affect thermal efficiency in IC engines?

  1. ((a))

    Compression ratio

  2. ((b))

    Heat loss

  3. ((c))

    Ignition timing

  4. ((d))

    Bore size

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Compression ratio

5

Why is compounding done in turbines?

  1. ((a))

    To reduce the turbine cost.

  2. ((b))

    To minimize the casing weight.

  3. ((c))

    To increase steam temperature.

  4. ((d))

    To reduce the rotor speed.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To reduce the turbine cost.

6

What does ideal nozzle flow assume?

  1. ((a))

    Constant velocity

  2. ((b))

    Adiabatic and isentropic flow

  3. ((c))

    Constant enthalpy

  4. ((d))

    Isothermal expansion

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Constant velocity

7

What does turbocharging an engine improve?

  1. ((a))

    Emissions only

  2. ((b))

    Torque only

  3. ((c))

    Volumetric efficiency and power

  4. ((d))

    Cooling

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Emissions only

8

Why is the gas turbine cycle more suitable than I.C. engines for aircraft?

  1. ((a))

    High part-load efficiency

  2. ((b))

    Lower specific power

  3. ((c))

    Lightweight and compact

  4. ((d))

    Better torque characteristics

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

High part-load efficiency

9

What type of mechanism is used in an engine with separate intake and exhaust valves?

  1. ((a))

    Two-stroke cycle

  2. ((b))

    L-head configuration

  3. ((c))

    Port timing

  4. ((d))

    Overhead valve mechanism

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Two-stroke cycle

10

What does the critical pressure ratio in a nozzle depend on?

  1. ((a))

    Inlet pressure

  2. ((b))

    Specific heat ratio

  3. ((c))

    Nozzle length

  4. ((d))

    Friction factor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Inlet pressure

11

A gas turbine produces 4 MW power with 5 kg/s air flow. Find specific work.

  1. ((a))

    400 kJ/kg

  2. ((b))

    800 kJ/kg

  3. ((c))

    600 kJ/kg

  4. ((d))

    1000 kJ/kg

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

400 kJ/kg

12

A flat belt drive runs at a speed of 12 m/s. The tension in the tight side of the belt is 900 N, while the tension in the slack side is 600 N. Determine the power transmitted by the belt drive.

  1. ((a))
    1. 6 kW
  2. ((b))
    1. 5 kW
  3. ((c))
    1. 0 kW
  4. ((d))
    1. 0 kW
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 6 kW
13

The coefficient of friction (μ\mu) for oak tanned leather belts on a cast iron pulley, at the point of slipping is:

  1. ((a))

    μ=0.54−(42.6/(152.6+v))\mu = 0. 54 - (42.6 / (152. 6 + v))

  2. ((b))

    μ=0.64−(42.6/152.6+v)\mu = 0. 64 - (42.6 / 152. 6 + v)

  3. ((c))

    μ=0.54−(42.6/172.6+v)\mu = 0. 54 - (42.6 / 172. 6 + v)

  4. ((d))

    μ=0.54−(42.6/152.6+d)\mu = 0. 54 - (42.6 / 152. 6 + d)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

μ=0.54−(42.6/(152.6+v))\mu = 0. 54 - (42.6 / (152. 6 + v))

14

What is the formula for tearing resistance in rivets?

  1. ((a))

    pt=(p−d)t.σtpt = (p - d)t.\sigma _t

  2. ((b))

    pt=(p−d)tpt = (p - d)t

  3. ((c))

    pt=(p−0.1d)tpt = (p - 0. 1d)t

  4. ((d))

    pt=(p−0.2d)tpt = (p - 0. 2d)t

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

pt=(p−d)t.σtpt = (p - d)t.\sigma _t

15

A single-strand chain No. 12A is used in a mechanical drive. The driving sprocket has 17 teeth and rotates at 1,000 rpm (neglecting centrifugal force acting on the chain). What factor of safety should be used for the standard power rating?

  1. ((a))

    fs = 2

  2. ((b))

    fs = 11. 73

  3. ((c))

    fs = 3

  4. ((d))

    fs = 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

fs = 2

16

An engine running at 150 r.p.m. drives a line shaft by means of a belt. The engine pulley has a diameter of 750 mm, and the pulley on the line shaft has a diameter of 450 mm. A 900 mm diameter pulley on the line shaft drives a 150 mm diameter pulley keyed to a dynamo shaft.

Find the speed of the dynamo shaft, assuming there is no slip.

  1. ((a))

    1200 r.p.m.

  2. ((b))

    1500 r.p.m.

  3. ((c))

    1300 r.p.m.

  4. ((d))

    1400 r.p.m.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1200 r.p.m.

17

Which one of the following is a positive drive?

  1. ((a))

    Chain drive

  2. ((b))

    V-belt drive

  3. ((c))

    Flat belt drive

  4. ((d))

    Open belt drive

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chain drive

18

What is the efficiency range for a single riveted butt joint?

  1. ((a))

    55% to 60%

  2. ((b))

    65% to 70%

  3. ((c))

    70% to 83%

  4. ((d))

    80% to 90%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

55% to 60%

19

In the analysis of collar bearings, which assumption is made under the uniform wear theory?

  1. ((a))

    Pressure is inversely proportional to the radius

  2. ((b))

    Pressure is directly proportional to the radius

  3. ((c))

    Pressure is maximum at the middle

  4. ((d))

    Pressure remains the same across the surface

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pressure is inversely proportional to the radius

20

Which of the following is considered undesirable in a good bearing material?

  1. ((a))

    Low coefficient of friction

  2. ((b))

    High coefficient of friction

  3. ((c))

    High thermal conductivity

  4. ((d))

    Resilience

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Low coefficient of friction

21

Which of the following correctly describes an equipotential line in fluid flow?

  1. ((a))

    The dynamic pressure remains uniform along it

  2. ((b))

    It can be present only in rotational fluid motion

  3. ((c))

    There is no tangential component of velocity along it

  4. ((d))

    It is always perpendicular to the streamlines in the flow field

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The dynamic pressure remains uniform along it

22

The metal removal rate (MRR) equation in turning is: [where D is the average diameter of the workpiece (mm), N is the rotational speed of the workpiece (rpm), f is the feed (mm/rev), d is the depth of cut (mm) t is the cutting time (s)]

  1. ((a))

    πDdNf\pi Dd Nf

  2. ((b))

    DNF/πd\pi d

  3. ((c))

    πfN/d\pi f N / d

  4. ((d))

    πNtd\pi Ntd

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

πDdNf\pi Dd Nf

23

Cutting speed in drilling (V = πDN/1000\pi DN/1000) is in units of: where

D = The diameter of the drill bit, measured in millimeters (mm).

N = The spindle speed (or RPM), measured in revolutions per minute (rev/min)

  1. ((a))

    m/s

  2. ((b))

    m/min

  3. ((c))

    mm/s

  4. ((d))

    mm/min

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

m/s

24

According to the hydrostatic law, what is the rate of increase of pressure in a static fluid?

  1. ((a))

    Constant throughout the fluid, irrespective of density.

  2. ((b))

    Proportional to the depth only.

  3. ((c))

    Equal in all directions and proportional to the fluid’s specific weight and depth.

  4. ((d))

    Dependent on the shape of the container.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Constant throughout the fluid, irrespective of density.

25

Capillary rise is inversely proportional to which parameter, keeping other properties constant?

  1. ((a))

    Surface tension of the liquid

  2. ((b))

    Density of the liquid

  3. ((c))

    Radius of the capillary tube

  4. ((d))

    Contact angle between liquid and tube wall

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Surface tension of the liquid

26

Which of the following instrument-application pairings is incorrect?

  1. ((a))

    Hydrometer - Measurement of specific gravity

  2. ((b))

    Hygrometer - Measurement of atmospheric humidity

  3. ((c))

    Orifice meter - Measurement of flow discharge

  4. ((d))

    Pitot tube - Measurement of fluid viscosity

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hydrometer - Measurement of specific gravity

27

Bernoulli’s equation is based on which of the following assumptions?

  1. ((a))

    The fluid is ideal, compressible and viscous.

  2. ((b))

    The flow is ideal, unsteady and turbulent, with no energy loss.

  3. ((c))

    The fluid is ideal, incompressible and non-viscous, and the flow is steady and along a streamline, with no energy loss.

  4. ((d))

    The pressure is uniform in all directions in a moving fluid, with no energy loss.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The fluid is ideal, compressible and viscous.

28

Which combination of conditions correctly represents an unsteady, compressible, and non-uniform flow?

Nomenclature:

∙\bullet s = spatial coordinate along the streamline

∙\bullet V = velocity along the streamline

∙\bullet t = time

∙\bullet p = fluid density

  1. ((a))

    ∂ρ/∂t=0\partial \rho / \partial t = 0, ∂s/∂V=0\partial s / \partial V = 0

  2. ((b))

    ∂ρ/∂t≠0\partial \rho / \partial t \ne 0, ∂V/∂s≠0\partial V / \partial s \ne 0

  3. ((c))

    ∂p/∂s=0,∂v/∂s=0\partial p / \partial s=0, \partial v / \partial s=0

  4. ((d))

    ∂ρ/∂t=0\partial \rho / \partial t = 0, ∂V/∂s≠0\partial V / \partial s \ne 0

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

∂ρ/∂t=0\partial \rho / \partial t = 0, ∂s/∂V=0\partial s / \partial V = 0

29

Which of the following correctly represents the velocity components of a three-dimensional flow?

  1. ((a))

    u, v = 0, w = f(z)f(z)

  2. ((b))

    u = f(x)f(x), v = f(y)f(y), w = f(z)f(z)

  3. ((c))

    u = f(x)f(x), v = f(x)f(x), w = 0

  4. ((d))

    u = f(x,y)f(x,y), v = 0, w = 0

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

u, v = 0, w = f(z)f(z)

30

A shaper with stroke frequency ff and feed per stroke s, machining width ww, and stroke ll, has a material removal rate:

  1. ((a))

    f × s × w × l

  2. ((b))

    (s × w × 1)/f

  3. ((c))

    f × s × w / 1

  4. ((d))

    f × 1 × w / s

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

f × s × w × l

31

Helical milling increases tool life by:

  1. ((a))

    Allowing more teeth to engage simultaneously

  2. ((b))

    Increasing chip thickness per tooth

  3. ((c))

    Reducing axial thrust

  4. ((d))

    Increasing cutting temperature

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Allowing more teeth to engage simultaneously

32

Centerless grinding obtains tolerance by adjusting:

  1. ((a))

    Regulating wheel speed only

  2. ((b))

    Work rest blade height

  3. ((c))

    Coolant flow

  4. ((d))

    Feed rate only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Regulating wheel speed only

33

Which motion is known as the cutting motion in turning?

  1. ((a))

    Feed motion

  2. ((b))

    Tool rotation

  3. ((c))

    Work rotation

  4. ((d))

    Feed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Feed motion

34

Which of the following operations cannot be performed on a lathe?

  1. ((a))

    Turning

  2. ((b))

    Drilling

  3. ((c))

    Knurling

  4. ((d))

    Broaching

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Turning

35

A fluid is placed between two parallel plates 1 mm apart. The upper plate moves with a a velocity of 1 m/sm/s, and the shear stress is 1 N/m2N/m^2. What is the dynamic viscosity of the fluid?

  1. ((a))
    1. 001 Ns/m2Ns/m^2
  2. ((b))
    1. 01 Ns/m2Ns/m^2
  3. ((c))

    1 Ns/m2Ns/m^2

  4. ((d))

    10 Ns/m2Ns/m^2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 001 Ns/m2Ns/m^2
36

Which term in the expression for the total (material) acceleration in the x-direction accounts for the unsteadiness of the flow?

  1. ((a))

    u ∂x/∂uu\space \partial x / \partial u

  2. ((b))

    v ∂y/∂vv\space \partial y / \partial v

  3. ((c))

    ∂u/∂t\partial u / \partial t

  4. ((d))

    w ∂w/∂zw\space \partial w / \partial z

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

u ∂x/∂uu\space \partial x / \partial u

37

If the velocity of a rotating shaft is doubled and the clearance remains the same, what happens to the shear stress on the lubricant?

  1. ((a))

    It becomes half

  2. ((b))

    It remains unchanged

  3. ((c))

    It doubles

  4. ((d))

    It quadruples

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It becomes half

38

A shaper machine is used to create ______ surfaces.

  1. ((a))

    Spiral

  2. ((b))

    Curved

  3. ((c))

    Flat

  4. ((d))

    Threaded

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Spiral

39

What is the kind of motion of the tool in a shaper machine?

  1. ((a))

    Circular

  2. ((b))

    Rotary

  3. ((c))

    Oscillatory

  4. ((d))

    Reciprocating

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Circular

40

For an incompressible, irrotational flow, which equation must the velocity potential function satisfy?

  1. ((a))

    Poisson’s equation

  2. ((b))

    Bernoulli’s equation

  3. ((c))

    Navier-Stokes equation

  4. ((d))

    Laplace equation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Poisson’s equation

41

A certain paint shows high resistance to flow on a flat surface but easily flows when brushed. What type of fluid behavior does this illustrate?

  1. ((a))

    Non-Newtonian shear-thinning fluid

  2. ((b))

    Bingham plastic

  3. ((c))

    Newtonian fluid

  4. ((d))

    Ideal fluid

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Non-Newtonian shear-thinning fluid

42

Which of the following heat treatment processes significantly increases the hardness of steel?

  1. ((a))

    Annealing

  2. ((b))

    Cyaniding

  3. ((c))

    Normalizing

  4. ((d))

    Tempering

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Annealing

43

When is the hot working of materials carried out?

  1. ((a))

    Below the recrystallisation temperature.

  2. ((b))

    At the recrystallisation temperature,

  3. ((c))

    Above the recrystallisation temperature.

  4. ((d))

    Working temperature depends upon the physical condition of the workpiece.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Below the recrystallisation temperature.

44

At what temperature is steel typically hot forged?

  1. ((a))

    400∘^\circC

  2. ((b))

    800∘^\circC

  3. ((c))

    1100∘^\circC

  4. ((d))

    1500∘^\circC

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

400∘^\circC

45

In moulding, what is the purpose of a gate?

  1. ((a))

    To cool the mold uniformly

  2. ((b))

    Feed the casting at a constant rate

  3. ((c))

    Avoid cavities

  4. ((d))

    Compensate for shrinkage

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To cool the mold uniformly

46

What does hydrostatic pressure in extrusion process improve?

  1. ((a))

    brittleness

  2. ((b))

    compressive strength

  3. ((c))

    ductility

  4. ((d))

    tensile strength

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

brittleness

47

What is the approximate carbon content indicated by the steel designation C-14?

  1. ((a))
    1. 1%
  2. ((b))
    1. 1 to 0. 18%
  3. ((c))

    1%

  4. ((d))

    1% to 4%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 1%
48

Increasing the percentage of carbon in steel generally leads to a reduction in which property?

  1. ((a))

    Hardness

  2. ((b))

    Ductility

  3. ((c))

    Ultimate strength

  4. ((d))

    Corrosion resistance

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hardness

49

In low-carbon steels, the addition of a small amount of sulfur primarily enhances which of the following properties?

  1. ((a))

    Weldability

  2. ((b))

    Formability

  3. ((c))

    Machinability

  4. ((d))

    Hardenability

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Weldability

50

What is the typical microstructure of hyper-eutectoid steels?

  1. ((a))

    Only pearlite

  2. ((b))

    Mixture of ferrite and pearlite

  3. ((c))

    Mixture of cementite and pearlite

  4. ((d))

    Mixture of ferrite and cementite

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only pearlite

51

Statement (A): A properly welded joint should provide not only sufficient strength but also good ductility.

Statement (R): Welding is a process used only for manufacturing mild steel components.

Which of the following is correct?

  1. ((a))

    Both A and R are correct, and R explains A

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are correct, but R does not explain A

  3. ((c))

    A is correct, but R is incorrect

  4. ((d))

    A is incorrect, but R is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and R are correct, and R explains A

52

Identify the solid-state welding processes from the list below that involve the use of heat from an external source. Processes:

P:Diffusion welding, Q: Friction welding, R: Ultrasonic welding, S: Forge welding

  1. ((a))

    P and R

  2. ((b))

    R and S

  3. ((c))

    Q and S

  4. ((d))

    P and S

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

P and R

53

In the forging process of a connecting rod from bar stock, the operations listed below are performed:

  1. Blocking
  2. Trimming
  3. Finishing
  4. Edging

Which of the following sequences correctly represents the order of operations during forging?

  1. ((a))

    Blocking→Trimming→Finishing→EdgingBlocking \to Trimming \to Finishing \to Edging

  2. ((b))

    Trimming→Finishing→Edging→BlockingTrimming \to Finishing \to Edging \to Blocking

  3. ((c))

    Finishing→Edging→Blocking→TrimmingFinishing \to Edging \to Blocking \to Trimming

  4. ((d))

    Edging→Blocking→Finishing→TrimmingEdging \to Blocking \to Finishing \to Trimming

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Blocking→Trimming→Finishing→EdgingBlocking \to Trimming \to Finishing \to Edging

54

Which of the following combinations of product and manufacturing process is incorrectly matched?

  1. ((a))

    Aluminium alloy piston — High pressure die casting

  2. ((b))

    Jewellery — Investment casting process

  3. ((c))

    Large diameter pipes — Centrifugal casting

  4. ((d))

    Large bells — Loam moulding technique

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Aluminium alloy piston — High pressure die casting

55

What is the dryness fraction of steam in the wet region?

  1. ((a))

    Between 0 and 1

  2. ((b))

    0

  3. ((c))

    1

  4. ((d))

    Greater than 1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Between 0 and 1

56

Bernoulli’s equation in fluid mechanics is based on the principle of conservation of:

  1. ((a))

    Mass

  2. ((b))

    Energy

  3. ((c))

    Momentum

  4. ((d))

    Force

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mass

57

In turbine terminology, the speed factor is defined as the ratio of:

  1. ((a))

    Peripheral velocity of the runner vane to the spouting velocity of water

  2. ((b))

    Whirl velocity to the peripheral velocity of the runner

  3. ((c))

    Flow velocity to the spouting velocity

  4. ((d))

    Absolute velocity of water to its spouting velocity

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Peripheral velocity of the runner vane to the spouting velocity of water

58

Which of the following best describes a Kaplan turbine?

  1. ((a))

    High-head, mixed-flow type

  2. ((b))

    Low-head, axial-flow type

  3. ((c))

    Outward-flow, reaction type

  4. ((d))

    Inward-flow, impulse type

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

High-head, mixed-flow type

59

In which type of flow do the streamline, pathline, and streakline coincide without any geometric differences?

  1. ((a))

    Steady flow

  2. ((b))

    Uniform flow

  3. ((c))

    Laminar flow

  4. ((d))

    Irrotational flow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Steady flow

60

Which of the following conditions correctly characterizes Couette flow?

  1. ((a))

    Steady, incompressible, laminar flow between two fixed parallel plates

  2. ((b))

    Steady, incompressible, laminar flow between one fixed plate and the other moving with a constant velocity

  3. ((c))

    Fully developed turbulent flow through a straight circular pipe

  4. ((d))

    Steady, incompressible, laminar flow through a straight circular pipe

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Steady, incompressible, laminar flow between two fixed parallel plates

61

Which of the following correctly describes the force ratio represented by the Froude number?

  1. ((a))

    Inertia force to gravity force

  2. ((b))

    Inertia force to viscous force

  3. ((c))

    Buoyancy force to inertia force

  4. ((d))

    Buoyancy force to viscous force

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Inertia force to gravity force

62

If the cavitation number sigma σ is zero, identify the statements that accurately describe the situation:

  • Local pressure drops to the vapor pressure.
  • Onset of cavitation occurs.
  • Liquid starts to boil.
  • Cavitation ends.

Choose the correct set of statements from the given options.

  1. ((a))

    i, ii and iv

  2. ((b))

    i, ii and iii

  3. ((c))

    only ii and iii

  4. ((d))

    only i and iii

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

i, ii and iv

63

According to Newton’s third law, how are the action and reaction forces aligned?

  1. ((a))

    At right angles

  2. ((b))

    On different lines of action

  3. ((c))

    Randomly aligned

  4. ((d))

    On the same line of action

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

At right angles

64

At the location where boundary layer separation occurs, which of the following is true?

  1. ((a))

    Density variation is the highest

  2. ((b))

    Shear stress reaches its maximum

  3. ((c))

    Velocity is negative

  4. ((d))

    Shear stress becomes zero

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Density variation is the highest

65

Identify the correct matching between the types of pumps and their typical components/features:

List-I (Types of Pump):

A. Centrifugal pump

B. Gear pump

C. Reciprocating pump

D. Turbine pump

List-II (Features):

  1. Air vessel
  2. Gears
  3. Guide vanes
  4. Rotor with blades

Select the correct code:

  1. ((a))

    A-2, B-4, C-2, D-1

  2. ((b))

    A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

  3. ((c))

    A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

  4. ((d))

    A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A-2, B-4, C-2, D-1

66

If the angle of friction between two surfaces is zero, what will the body experience?

  1. ((a))

    Infinite friction

  2. ((b))

    Zero friction

  3. ((c))

    The force of friction will act normal to the plane

  4. ((d))

    The force of friction will act in the direction of motion

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Infinite friction

67

Forces are called coplanar when all of them acting on body lie in:

  1. ((a))

    One point

  2. ((b))

    One plane

  3. ((c))

    Different planes

  4. ((d))

    Perpendicular planes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One point

68

What is the centroid of a plane figure?

  1. ((a))

    The point of maximum height

  2. ((b))

    Metacentre

  3. ((c))

    The intersection of all diagonals

  4. ((d))

    The center of area of the figure

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The point of maximum height

69

Where is the centre of gravity of a rectangle or a parallelogram located?

  1. ((a))

    At the midpoint of one of its sides

  2. ((b))

    At the intersection point of its diagonals

  3. ((c))

    At one of its vertices

  4. ((d))

    At the center of the base

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

At the midpoint of one of its sides

70

What is the mass of a body that accelerates at a rate of 3 m/s23 \text{ m/s}^2 when a force of 60 N is applied?

  1. ((a))

    20 kg

  2. ((b))

    18 kg

  3. ((c))

    15 kg

  4. ((d))

    12 kg

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20 kg

71

When the wheel of a truck is moving on the road, which of the following correctly represents the relative magnitudes of frictional forces?

  1. ((a))

    Rolling friction >> Static friction >> Kinetic friction

  2. ((b))

    Static friction >> Kinetic friction >> Rolling friction

  3. ((c))

    Static Friction >> Rolling Friction >> Kinetic Friction

  4. ((d))

    Rolling friction >> Kinetic friction >> Static friction

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rolling friction >> Static friction >> Kinetic friction

72

A body is in equilibrium under the action of three forces: 50N50 N, 60N60 N, and an unknown force. The angles between the forces are 60∘60^{\circ}, 75∘75^{\circ}, and 45∘45^{\circ}. Which theorem is applicable to determine the unknown force?

  1. ((a))

    Newton’s Second Law

  2. ((b))

    Varignon’s Theorem

  3. ((c))

    Lami’s Theorem

  4. ((d))

    Parallel Axis Theorem

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Newton’s Second Law

73

A body is acted on by three concurrent forces 10 N, 24 N, and an unknown force F. The forces of 10 N and 24 N act at right angles to each other. If these forces are in equilibrium, what is the magnitude of F?

  1. ((a))

    26 N

  2. ((b))

    40 N

  3. ((c))

    34 N

  4. ((d))

    30 N

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

26 N

74

The direction of limiting friction is ________.

  1. ((a))

    Opposite to the direction in which the body tends to move

  2. ((b))

    Opposite to the direction in which the body moves

  3. ((c))

    In the direction in which the body tends to move

  4. ((d))

    In the direction in which the body moves

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Opposite to the direction in which the body tends to move

75

The resultant of two equal forces P making an angle Φ\Phi is given by:

  1. ((a))

    2P Sin (Φ/2\Phi/2)

  2. ((b))

    2P Cos (Φ/2\Phi/2)

  3. ((c))

    2P tan (Φ/2\Phi/2)

  4. ((d))

    2P cot (Φ/2\Phi/2)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2P Sin (Φ/2\Phi/2)

76

What does Hooke’s Law state?

  1. ((a))

    Stress is directly proportional to strain within the plastic limit

  2. ((b))

    Stress is directly proportional to strain within the elastic limit

  3. ((c))

    Stress is directly proportional to strain at the upper yield point

  4. ((d))

    Stress is directly proportional to strain at the fracture point

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Stress is directly proportional to strain within the plastic limit

77

What is the polar moment of inertia for a solid circular shaft?

(where d is the diameter of the shaft)

  1. ((a))

    πd432\frac{\pi d^4}{32}

  2. ((b))

    πd464\frac{\pi d^4}{64}

  3. ((c))

    πd416\frac{\pi d^4}{16}

  4. ((d))

    πd42\frac{\pi d^4}{2}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

πd432\frac{\pi d^4}{32}

78

In the bending moment diagram, a sagging moment corresponds to which type of beam deformation?

  1. ((a))

    Beam bends into a convex shape

  2. ((b))

    Beam bends into a concave shape

  3. ((c))

    Bell shape

  4. ((d))

    Square shape

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Beam bends into a convex shape

79

The modulus of elasticity is the slope of the stress-strain curve in which region?

  1. ((a))

    Necking region

  2. ((b))

    Fracture

  3. ((c))

    Elastic region

  4. ((d))

    Plastic region

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Necking region

80

What is the variation of shear stress in a circular shaft subjected to pure torsion?

  1. ((a))

    Uniform

  2. ((b))

    Linear

  3. ((c))

    Parabolic

  4. ((d))

    Hyperbola

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Uniform

81

A bar 2 m long stretches by 1 mm under an axial tensile load. What is the strain in the bar?

  1. ((a))
    1. 001
  2. ((b))
    1. 0005
  3. ((c))
    1. 0001
  4. ((d))
    1. 005
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 001
82

A simply supported beam with a span of 6 m carries a uniformly distributed load (UDL) of 8 kN/m. What is the maximum bending moment?

  1. ((a))

    66 kNm66 \text{ kNm}

  2. ((b))

    56 kNm56 \text{ kNm}

  3. ((c))

    36 kNm36 \text{ kNm}

  4. ((d))

    46 kNm46 \text{ kNm}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

66 kNm66 \text{ kNm}

83

What is the relation among the three elastic constants, where E is the elastic modulus, G is the rigidity modulus, and K is the bulk modulus?

  1. ((a))

    E=2G(1+μ\mu)

  2. ((b))

    E=9KG / (G+3k)

  3. ((c))

    E=2G(1-μ\mu)

  4. ((d))

    E=3K(1-2μ\mu)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

E=2G(1+μ\mu)

84

A thin cylindrical shell is subjected to an internal pressure of 3. 5 MPa, with an internal radius of 300 mm and a wall thickness of 15 mm. What is the hoop stress in the cylinder wall?

  1. ((a))

    70 MPa

  2. ((b))

    75 MPa

  3. ((c))

    80 MPa

  4. ((d))

    85 MPa

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

70 MPa

85

What is the formula for elongation (Δ\Delta) of a tapered circular rod subjected to an axial load?

  1. ((a))

    Δ\Delta= 6PL/π\pi E d1 d2

  2. ((b))

    Δ\Delta = 4QL/π\pi E d1 d2

  3. ((c))

    Δ\Delta = 5PL/π\pi E d1 d3

  4. ((d))

    Δ\Delta = 4PL/π\pi E d1 d2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Δ\Delta= 6PL/π\pi E d1 d2

86

The diameter of a circular shaft is increased from 30 mm to 60 mm, while all other conditions remain the same. By what time does its torque-carrying capacity increase?

  1. ((a))

    7 times

  2. ((b))

    9 times

  3. ((c))

    8 times

  4. ((d))

    20 times

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7 times

87

A solid shaft with a diameter of 80 mm transmits 300 kW of power at 175 rpm. Calculate the torque transmitted by the shaft.

  1. ((a))

    16370 Nm

  2. ((b))

    17370 Nm

  3. ((c))

    1637 Nm

  4. ((d))

    1670 Nm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

16370 Nm

88

What is the primary function of a Scotch yoke mechanism?

  1. ((a))

    To connect two shafts at an angle

  2. ((b))

    To convert rotary motion into linear motion

  3. ((c))

    To reduce the vibration

  4. ((d))

    To increase the speed of shaft

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To connect two shafts at an angle

89

Flywheel is used in which machine?

  1. ((a))

    Lathe machine

  2. ((b))

    Punching machine

  3. ((c))

    Milling machine

  4. ((d))

    Drilling machine

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lathe machine

90

During the power transmission, the pressure angle of involute profile gear:

  1. ((a))

    Changes during meshing

  2. ((b))

    Changes with speed

  3. ((c))

    Remains constant

  4. ((d))

    Does not changes with speed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Changes during meshing

91

Which type of governor is commonly used in a gramophone?

  1. ((a))

    Hartnell Governor

  2. ((b))

    Pickering Governor

  3. ((c))

    Hartung Governor

  4. ((d))

    Watt Governor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hartnell Governor

92

A brake is considered self-locking if:

  1. ((a))

    The friction angle is less than or equal to the angle of wrap

  2. ((b))

    The friction force is zero

  3. ((c))

    The normal force is zero

  4. ((d))

    The friction angle is greater than the angle of wrap

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The friction angle is less than or equal to the angle of wrap

93

According to Kennedy’s Theorem, for three bodies in relative motion:

  1. ((a))

    There are three fixed points on each body

  2. ((b))

    The product of angular velocities is constant

  3. ((c))

    The three instantaneous centers lie on a straight line

  4. ((d))

    Only two instantaneous centers can be located at a time

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

There are three fixed points on each body

94

The gear train value is equal to:

  1. ((a))

    Speed ratio

  2. ((b))

    Double the speed ratio

  3. ((c))

    Reciprocal of the speed ratio

  4. ((d))

    Half of the speed ratio

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Speed ratio

95

An isochronous governor is characterized by:

  1. ((a))

    The sleeve does not move with speed changes

  2. ((b))

    The same speed for all sleeve positions

  3. ((c))

    No change in speed for any sleeve position

  4. ((d))

    The speed increases linearly with load

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The sleeve does not move with speed changes

96

Which of the following brakes applies force on the brake drum in the axial direction?

  1. ((a))

    Block brake

  2. ((b))

    Shoe brake

  3. ((c))

    Band brake

  4. ((d))

    Cone brake

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Block brake

97

Which type of gear train is commonly used in a clock?

  1. ((a))

    Simple gear train

  2. ((b))

    Epicyclic gear train

  3. ((c))

    Reverted gear train

  4. ((d))

    Planetary gear train

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Simple gear train

98

The interference in involute gears cannot be prevented by:

  1. ((a))

    Decreasing pressure angle

  2. ((b))

    Using stub teeth

  3. ((c))

    Increasing the number of teeth on the pinion

  4. ((d))

    Undercutting the gear teeth

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Decreasing pressure angle

99

An involute gear has a pressure angle of 20° and a contact length of 52.3 mm. What is the length of the arc of contact?

  1. ((a))

    53.21 mm

  2. ((b))

    54.33 mm

  3. ((c))

    55.66 mm

  4. ((d))

    56.23 mm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

53.21 mm

100

In helical gears, axial thrust is:

  1. ((a))

    Zero

  2. ((b))

    Depends upon gear diameter

  3. ((c))

    Caused by the normal component of force

  4. ((d))

    Caused by the tangential component of force

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Zero

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