Official Paper

SSC JE (Electrical Engineering) Official Paper (Held On: 06 Dec, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

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General Intelligence and Reasoning (50 questions)

1

In the following, four roll numbers or centre codes are given. Three share a common pattern or belong to one group, but one is different. Select the odd one out.

440117, 440223, 440398, 400211

  1. ((a))

    440117

  2. ((b))

    440223

  3. ((c))

    440398

  4. ((d))

    400211

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

440117

2

In the following, four roll numbers or centre codes are given. Three share a common pattern or belong to one group, but one is different. Select the odd one out.

540413, 540721, 550329, 540112

  1. ((a))

    540413

  2. ((b))

    540721

  3. ((c))

    550329

  4. ((d))

    540112

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

540413

3

Complete the analogy.

HJ : LN :: TV : ?

  1. ((a))

    ZB

  2. ((b))

    XB

  3. ((c))

    XZ

  4. ((d))

    VX

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ZB

4

Find the missing term in the series:

<br>

C, F, I, L, ?

  1. ((a))

    M

  2. ((b))

    P

  3. ((c))

    N

  4. ((d))

    O

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

M

5

Find the missing term in the series:

<br>

B, H, N, T, ?

  1. ((a))

    Y

  2. ((b))

    Z

  3. ((c))

    A

  4. ((d))

    B

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Y

6

Find the missing number in the series:

<br>

6, 11, 21, 36, ?

  1. ((a))

    51

  2. ((b))

    63

  3. ((c))

    61

  4. ((d))

    56

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

51

7

Find the missing number in the series:

<br>

1, 2, 6, 24, 120, ?

  1. ((a))

    720

  2. ((b))

    600

  3. ((c))

    840

  4. ((d))

    960

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

720

8

Complete the analogy.

Inertia : Motion :: Insulation : ?

  1. ((a))

    Heat

  2. ((b))

    Electricity

  3. ((c))

    Water

  4. ((d))

    Cold

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Heat

9

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others:

Rose, Lotus, Lily, Mango

  1. ((a))

    Mango

  2. ((b))

    Lotus

  3. ((c))

    Lily

  4. ((d))

    Rose

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mango

10

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others:

Bacteria, Virus, Amoeba, Wheat

  1. ((a))

    Bacteria

  2. ((b))

    Wheat

  3. ((c))

    Virus

  4. ((d))

    Amoeba

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bacteria

11

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others:

Parrot, Pigeon, Bat, Crow

  1. ((a))

    Parrot

  2. ((b))

    Pigeon

  3. ((c))

    Bat

  4. ((d))

    Crow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Parrot

12

Find the odd one out in the given semantic series based on the pattern identified.

Rat, Elephant, Monkey, Tiger

  1. ((a))

    Rat

  2. ((b))

    Elephant

  3. ((c))

    Monkey

  4. ((d))

    Tiger

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rat

13

Find the odd one out in the given semantic series based on the pattern identified.

Platinum, Mercury, Copper, Lead

  1. ((a))

    Platinum

  2. ((b))

    Mercury

  3. ((c))

    Copper

  4. ((d))

    Lead

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Platinum

14

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others:

124, 248, 372, 465

  1. ((a))

    124

  2. ((b))

    248

  3. ((c))

    372

  4. ((d))

    465

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

124

15

Four people, A-D, live on floors 1-4. B is on 3; A is on 1; D lives lower than B but not on floor 1.Who lives on floor 4?

  1. ((a))

    C

  2. ((b))

    A

  3. ((c))

    B

  4. ((d))

    D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

C

16

Four friends, Merry, Neel, Olga, and Peter, live on floors 1-4. Merry lives just above Neel. Olga lives just below Peter. Neel does not live on the ground floor (floor 1).

Who lives on floor 3?

  1. ((a))

    Neel

  2. ((b))

    Merry

  3. ((c))

    Olga

  4. ((d))

    Peter

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Neel

17

If PLAY is coded as QMBZ, how is GAME coded?

  1. ((a))

    HBNF

  2. ((b))

    GBNE

  3. ((c))

    HBMF

  4. ((d))

    HAMB

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

HBNF

18

If CLOCK is coded as DMPDL, then WATCH is coded as:

  1. ((a))

    XBVJD

  2. ((b))

    XBUDI

  3. ((c))

    XBUJE

  4. ((d))

    XATJD

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

XBVJD

19

Statement: "The city council will reward citizens who segregate waste at home".

Which assumption is implicit?

  1. ((a))

    Citizens never segregated waste before

  2. ((b))

    Only rewards can make citizens work

  3. ((c))

    Waste collectors will work faster

  4. ((d))

    Waste segregation improves recycling

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Citizens never segregated waste before

20

Statement: "Metro fares will be reduced by 2020% during off-peak hours to manage crowding.

" Which assumption is implicit?

  1. ((a))

    All passengers dislike high fares

  2. ((b))

    Lower fares will shift some passengers to off-peak times

  3. ((c))

    Off-peak metro trains are always empty

  4. ((d))

    Passengers will travel only during peak hours now

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

All passengers dislike high fares

21

Four travellers, E, F, G, and H, travel to a city on 1st, 4th, 7th, and 10th October; H travelled after G, F travelled before G, and E is not the last to travel.

Who travelled on the 10th?

  1. ((a))

    E

  2. ((b))

    F

  3. ((c))

    G

  4. ((d))

    H

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

E

22

Five people - N, R, O, S, and T - travelled to different cities on the 1st, 3rd, 5th, 7th, and 9th of May. R travelled on the 5th. N travelled two days after R. O did not travel before T. S did not go on the 3rd or 5th. T did not travel on the 3rd.

Who travelled on the 9th?

  1. ((a))

    S

  2. ((b))

    R

  3. ((c))

    N

  4. ((d))

    T

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

S

23

Your teammate looks tired after extra work.

What should you say?

  1. ((a))

    "That’s not my problem"

  2. ((b))

    "You work too slowly"

  3. ((c))

    "You should take a short break"

  4. ((d))

    Stay silent

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

"That’s not my problem"

24

A colleague disagrees with your idea in a meeting.

The best response is to:

  1. ((a))

    Defend loudly

  2. ((b))

    Listen and ask clarifying questions

  3. ((c))

    Ignore them

  4. ((d))

    Say they are wrong without reason

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Defend loudly

25

Which one is odd?

2, 6, 12, 20, 31, 42

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    31

  3. ((c))

    42

  4. ((d))

    12

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20

26

The sum of two numbers is 50 and their difference is 10. The larger number is:

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    30

  3. ((c))

    35

  4. ((d))

    25

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20

27

The average age of 8 men increases by 2 years when one is replaced by a new man.

The new man is how many years older than the one replaced?

  1. ((a))

    14

  2. ((b))

    15

  3. ((c))

    16

  4. ((d))

    18

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

14

28

A new person joins your team and looks lost during the first meeting.

What’s the best social response?

  1. ((a))

    Wait for them to speak

  2. ((b))

    Introduce yourself and brief them

  3. ((c))

    Ignore them

  4. ((d))

    Give them extra work immediately

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Wait for them to speak

29

You meet an important client who appears rushed.

What is the correct approach?

  1. ((a))

    Ask them to relax first

  2. ((b))

    Avoid discussing business

  3. ((c))

    Continue with small talk

  4. ((d))

    Greet briefly and get to the main point

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ask them to relax first

30

Using all letters of R E T S A C, which valid English word can be formed?

  1. ((a))

    CREATS

  2. ((b))

    CASTRE

  3. ((c))

    CRATES

  4. ((d))

    SECTOR

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CREATS

31

Sales figures drop sharply after a pricing change and customer complaints rise.

What’s the right first step?

  1. ((a))

    Reduce prices back immediately

  2. ((b))

    Increase advertisements

  3. ((c))

    Fire sales staff

  4. ((d))

    Gather customer feedback and analyse impact

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Reduce prices back immediately

32

A valued client requests a major last-minute change that will delay delivery by a week. What’s the best response?

  1. ((a))

    Reject the request instantly

  2. ((b))

    Explain the impact and negotiate feasible deadlines

  3. ((c))

    Accept change without discussion

  4. ((d))

    Charge a penalty without communication

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Reject the request instantly

33

In a city’s road repair plan, most projects are done in affluent areas, while poorer areas are repeatedly delayed.

Which inference is valid?

  1. ((a))

    Roads in poor areas last longer

  2. ((b))

    Authorities prioritise rich areas

  3. ((c))

    Poorer areas refuse repairs

  4. ((d))

    Rich areas pay more tax

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Roads in poor areas last longer

34

In a university panel, professors from urban backgrounds are given 70% of speaking opportunities at national conferences, though they make up only 40% of the faculty.

Which inference is valid?

  1. ((a))

    Urban professors are more qualified

  2. ((b))

    Selection favours urban professors

  3. ((c))

    Rural professors refuse to speak

  4. ((d))

    Urban professors teach better

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Urban professors are more qualified

35

Company revenue rose 1212% but profit rose only 22%. Which inference is valid?

  1. ((a))

    Costs increased

  2. ((b))

    Sales volume reduced

  3. ((c))

    Product prices rose

  4. ((d))

    Tax rates dropped

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Costs increased

36

A hospital treated 1010% more patients this year than last, but the total medical staff was reduced by 55%. Patient satisfaction ratings remained unchanged.

Which inference is most valid?

  1. ((a))

    Staff productivity per person increased

  2. ((b))

    Hospital reduced treatment quality

  3. ((c))

    Patients waited for less time

  4. ((d))

    Hospital expanded its facilities

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Staff productivity per person increased

37

A colleague frequently interrupts others in meetings.

What should be concluded?

  1. ((a))

    They are confident leaders

  2. ((b))

    They want to help

  3. ((c))

    They lack listening skills

  4. ((d))

    They are shy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

They are confident leaders

38

If a software shows errors only during peak hours, what should be concluded?

  1. ((a))

    Software is faulty

  2. ((b))

    Server overload causes errors

  3. ((c))

    Users are slow

  4. ((d))

    Errors are fake

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Software is faulty

39

Calculate (84÷7−6)×(9+3÷3)(84 \div 7-6) \times (9+3 \div 3).

  1. ((a))

    30

  2. ((b))

    40

  3. ((c))

    50

  4. ((d))

    60

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30

40

If % = division, $ = multiplication, # = subtraction, and @ = addition, then calculate 60 % 5 $ 3 # 12 @ 8.

  1. ((a))

    32

  2. ((b))

    30

  3. ((c))

    28

  4. ((d))

    26

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

32

41

Rahul says, "She is the daughter of my father’s only son".

How is she related to Rahul?

  1. ((a))

    Daughter

  2. ((b))

    Sister

  3. ((c))

    Niece

  4. ((d))

    Cousin

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Daughter

42

Pointing to a woman, Nina said, "She is the wife of my mother’s brother".

How is the woman related to Nina?

  1. ((a))

    Aunt of Nina

  2. ((b))

    Sister of Nina

  3. ((c))

    Mother of Nina

  4. ((d))

    Cousin of Nina

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Aunt of Nina

43

A car covers 240 km in 4 hours.

Find its speed in km/h\text{km/h}.

  1. ((a))

    50

  2. ((b))

    55

  3. ((c))

    65

  4. ((d))

    60

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50

44

A sum amounts to ₹530 in 2 years and ₹585 in 3 years at simple interest. Find the principal.

  1. ((a))

    ₹500

  2. ((b))

    ₹510

  3. ((c))

    ₹420

  4. ((d))

    ₹550

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹500

45

In the following question, two statements are followed by two conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

<br>

Statements:

Some pens are blue.

All blue things are cheap.

<br>

Conclusions:

I. Some pens are cheap.

II. No pen is cheap.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion II follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion I follows

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion II follows

46

In the following question, two statements are followed by two conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

<br>

Statements:

No fruits are vegetables.

Some vegetables are green.

<br>

Conclusions:

I. Some fruits are green.

II. Some vegetables are not fruits.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follows

47

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others:

17, 23, 29, 35

  1. ((a))

    17

  2. ((b))

    23

  3. ((c))

    29

  4. ((d))

    35

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

17

48

Complete the analogy.

BAC : EDF :: GIH : ?

  1. ((a))

    JKL

  2. ((b))

    JMK

  3. ((c))

    LJK

  4. ((d))

    JLK

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

JKL

49

Complete the analogy.

Drought : Famine :: Heavy Rain : ?

  1. ((a))

    Hunger

  2. ((b))

    Flood

  3. ((c))

    Plantation

  4. ((d))

    Storm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hunger

50

The average of 10, 20, and 30 is:

  1. ((a))

    15

  2. ((b))

    20

  3. ((c))

    25

  4. ((d))

    30

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15

General Awareness (50 questions)

51

What is the role of Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) in the Air Quality Index (AQI) calculations?

  1. ((a))

    They are directly measured and reported in the Air Quality Index (AQI).

  2. ((b))

    They contribute to the formation of ground-level ozone.

  3. ((c))

    They primarily affect water quality, not air quality.

  4. ((d))

    They are only relevant in industrial settings.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

They are directly measured and reported in the Air Quality Index (AQI).

52

Who was the first Indian woman to go into space?

  1. ((a))

    Kalpana Chawla

  2. ((b))

    Sunita Williams

  3. ((c))

    Ritu Karidhal

  4. ((d))

    Tessy Thomas

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kalpana Chawla

53

Which initiative is increasingly being emphasized by governments to improve Ease of Doing Business (EoDB) through digital means?

  1. ((a))

    Increased tariffs on digital imports.

  2. ((b))

    Increasing paperwork requirements for online transactions.

  3. ((c))

    Restricting internet access for businesses.

  4. ((d))

    Implementation of national single window systems.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increased tariffs on digital imports.

54

What is the primary goal of the ISRO-developed "Humanoid Vyommitra"?

  1. ((a))

    Assist in lunar soil sampling

  2. ((b))

    Operate payloads on interplanetary missions

  3. ((c))

    Function as a ground-based AI robot for mission control

  4. ((d))

    Simulate human functions in uncrewed Gaganyaan test flights

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Assist in lunar soil sampling

55

Which Article in the Indian Constitution ensures equality before the law?

  1. ((a))

    Article 14

  2. ((b))

    Article 16

  3. ((c))

    Article 19

  4. ((d))

    Article 21

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 14

56

Who has been credited as the Father of the Indian Constitution?

  1. ((a))

    Mahatma Gandhi

  2. ((b))

    Jawaharlal Nehru

  3. ((c))

    Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

  4. ((d))

    Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mahatma Gandhi

57

What are the objectives of the Indian Space Policy 2023?

  1. ((a))

    Abolish all government involvement in space

  2. ((b))

    Merge ISRO with NASA

  3. ((c))

    Provide a regulatory framework to boost private space activities and innovation

  4. ((d))

    Limit private sector entry

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Abolish all government involvement in space

58

The capital city of Russia, a BRICS member state, is _______.

  1. ((a))

    St. Petersburg

  2. ((b))

    Novosibirsk

  3. ((c))

    Vladivostok

  4. ((d))

    Moscow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

St. Petersburg

59

What is the capital city of the BRICS country Brazil?

  1. ((a))

    Rio de Janeiro

  2. ((b))

    São Paulo

  3. ((c))

    Brasilia

  4. ((d))

    Salvador

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rio de Janeiro

60

Which of the following oceans is the third-largest ocean in the world?

  1. ((a))

    Pacific Ocean

  2. ((b))

    Atlantic Ocean

  3. ((c))

    Indian Ocean

  4. ((d))

    Arctic Ocean

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pacific Ocean

61

Which of the following is an expected outcome of the IMEC (India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor) project?

  1. ((a))

    Increased global isolation

  2. ((b))

    Stronger economic ties

  3. ((c))

    Increased global conflict

  4. ((d))

    Reduction of technological advancement

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increased global isolation

62

Which government scheme aims to provide financial assistance to farmers to purchase fertilizers and seeds before each cropping season?

  1. ((a))

    Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana

  2. ((b))

    Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana

  3. ((c))

    Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN)

  4. ((d))

    Soil Health Card Scheme

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana

63

Which government initiative aims to promote energy efficiency and conservation across various sectors in India?

  1. ((a))

    National Solar Mission

  2. ((b))

    National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE)

  3. ((c))

    National Wind Energy Mission

  4. ((d))

    National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

National Solar Mission

64

While the "Smart Cities Mission" aims to improve urban infrastructure and quality of life, it has faced certain criticisms regarding its implementation and impact. Which of the following is a significant and often cited concern about the Smart Cities Mission?

  1. ((a))

    Its overwhelming focus on greenfield projects rather than retrofitting existing urban areas.

  2. ((b))

    Issues of equity and inclusivity, with concerns that the benefits might disproportionately accrue to certain sections of the population and areas within the selected cities.

  3. ((c))

    A lack of technological integration in the planning and execution of smart solutions.

  4. ((d))

    Excessive decentralization of decision-making, leading to a lack of coordination and standardization across cities.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Its overwhelming focus on greenfield projects rather than retrofitting existing urban areas.

65

In which year did Vishwanathan Anand become India’s first Chess Grandmaster?

  1. ((a))

    1988

  2. ((b))

    1987

  3. ((c))

    1991

  4. ((d))

    1993

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1988

66

In which year did India win the Junior Hockey World Cup for the first time?

  1. ((a))

    2001

  2. ((b))

    2005

  3. ((c))

    2016

  4. ((d))

    2021

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2001

67

In which year did the Indian Badminton League start?

  1. ((a))

    2011

  2. ((b))

    2013

  3. ((c))

    2015

  4. ((d))

    2017

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2011

68

In traditional Indian wrestling (Kushti), bouts are often held in which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    Wooden platform

  2. ((b))

    Clay or mud pit

  3. ((c))

    Rubber mat

  4. ((d))

    Grass court

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Wooden platform

69

After a seven-year hiatus, which western Indian state reignited the National Games in 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Rajasthan

  2. ((b))

    Gujarat

  3. ((c))

    Maharashtra

  4. ((d))

    Goa

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rajasthan

70

The 2003 Afro-Asian Games were held in Hyderabad. Which specific sports complex was the primary venue?

  1. ((a))

    Gachibowli Sports Complex

  2. ((b))

    Lal Bahadur Shastri Stadium

  3. ((c))

    Fateh Maidan Sports Complex

  4. ((d))

    Kotla Vijay Bhaskar Reddy Stadium

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gachibowli Sports Complex

71

In which city did Sachin Tendulkar play his last international match in 2013?

  1. ((a))

    Kolkata

  2. ((b))

    Mumbai

  3. ((c))

    Bengaluru

  4. ((d))

    Chennai

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kolkata

72

The Syed Modi International Badminton Championship is held annually in which Indian city?

  1. ((a))

    Lucknow

  2. ((b))

    Hyderabad

  3. ((c))

    Mumbai

  4. ((d))

    Chennai

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lucknow

73

Which region is known for its terracotta temple architecture featuring intricate brick carvings?

  1. ((a))

    Kerala

  2. ((b))

    Punjab

  3. ((c))

    Bengal

  4. ((d))

    Rajasthan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kerala

74

Who built Fatehpur Sikri?

  1. ((a))

    Babur

  2. ((b))

    Akbar

  3. ((c))

    Shah Jahan

  4. ((d))

    Jahangir

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Babur

75

Which famous stepwell in Gujarat is a UNESCO World Heritage Site?

  1. ((a))

    Rani ki Vav

  2. ((b))

    Agrasen ki Baoli

  3. ((c))

    Adalaj ni Vav

  4. ((d))

    Dada Harir Vav

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rani ki Vav

76

The Inheritance of Loss, which won the Man Booker Prize in 2006, was written by:

  1. ((a))

    Jhumpa Lahiri

  2. ((b))

    Arundhati Roy

  3. ((c))

    Kiran Desai

  4. ((d))

    Anita Desai

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jhumpa Lahiri

77

Which Japanese author has been longlisted multiple times for the Nobel Prize but has NOT yet won it?

  1. ((a))

    Haruki Murakami

  2. ((b))

    Yukio Mishima

  3. ((c))

    Kenzaburo Oe

  4. ((d))

    Banana Yoshimoto

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Haruki Murakami

78

Kho-Kho originated in which Indian state?

  1. ((a))

    Tamil Nadu

  2. ((b))

    Maharashtra

  3. ((c))

    Punjab

  4. ((d))

    Gujarat

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tamil Nadu

79

Who was the only Indian woman to win a gold medal at the 2018 Commonwealth Games in table tennis?

  1. ((a))

    Manika Batra

  2. ((b))

    Mouma Das

  3. ((c))

    Sutirtha Mukherjee

  4. ((d))

    Madhurika Patkar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Manika Batra

80

Which of the following Indian chess players defeated Magnus Carlsen in a classical game for the first time in 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Vidit Gujrathi

  2. ((b))

    Arjun Erigaisi

  3. ((c))

    D Gukesh

  4. ((d))

    Rameshbabu Praggnanandhaa

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vidit Gujrathi

81

In which Indian state is the Hornbill Festival, often referred to as the "Festival of Festivals," celebrated?

  1. ((a))

    Arunachal Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Meghalaya

  3. ((c))

    Nagaland

  4. ((d))

    Manipur

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Arunachal Pradesh

82

The tribal festival "Bhagoria" involves a unique form of ____.

  1. ((a))

    snake worship

  2. ((b))

    matchmaking

  3. ((c))

    fire rituals

  4. ((d))

    moon worship

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

snake worship

83

Which law was replaced by the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 ?

  1. ((a))

    Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC)

  2. ((b))

    Indian Evidence Act

  3. ((c))

    Code of Civil Procedure

  4. ((d))

    Indian Penal Code

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC)

84

Which of the following is not covered under the ambit of Uniform Civil Code?

  1. ((a))

    Inheritance

  2. ((b))

    Marriage

  3. ((c))

    Murder

  4. ((d))

    Divorce

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Inheritance

85

What is a major reform introduced under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 regarding electronic evidence?

  1. ((a))

    Electronic evidence is not admissible in criminal trials

  2. ((b))

    Only government data is considered reliable

  3. ((c))

    Screenshots are the only accepted digital form

  4. ((d))

    Electronic records, if properly authenticated, are fully admissible

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Electronic evidence is not admissible in criminal trials

86

Who was the chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) from June 2021 to June 2024?

  1. ((a))

    Justice Arun Kumar Mishra

  2. ((b))

    Justice V Ramasubramanian

  3. ((c))

    Justice Prafulla Chandra Pant

  4. ((d))

    Justice H.L. Dattu

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Justice Arun Kumar Mishra

87

As of May 2024, who was appointed as the Chairperson of the Grappling Committee of India for the Jammu and Kashmir region?

  1. ((a))

    Vinod Sharma

  2. ((b))

    Ravi Kant

  3. ((c))

    Saniyaa Kadree

  4. ((d))

    Swati Saxena

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vinod Sharma

88

Who is appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court of India on March 17, 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Joymalya Bagchi

  2. ((b))

    Sanjiv Khanna

  3. ((c))

    Hima Kohli

  4. ((d))

    S. Ravindra Bhat

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Joymalya Bagchi

89

What feature of Kathak distinguishes its footwork technique?

  1. ((a))

    Use of sharp bends and curving body movements

  2. ((b))

    Weight distribution along the horizontal and vertical axis

  3. ((c))

    Extensive use of the toe and ball of the foot

  4. ((d))

    Energetic, expressive free form movement

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Use of sharp bends and curving body movements

90

Which of the following characters in Kathakali represents a noble hero and is depicted with green makeup?

  1. ((a))

    Pacha

  2. ((b))

    Kathi

  3. ((c))

    Kari

  4. ((d))

    Minukku

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pacha

91

Which dance is performed to express love for nature by the Bodo tribe of Assam?

  1. ((a))

    Bihu

  2. ((b))

    Bagurumba

  3. ((c))

    Dhol Cholom

  4. ((d))

    Mayur Nritya

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bihu

92

Which of the given statements is/are CORRECT regarding Uranium exploration in India?

  1. Most of the uranium deposits of India occur in the Dharwar deposits.
  2. Uranium mines are located along the Singhbhum copper belt.
  3. Uranium can be obtained from the monazite sands, which occur in the coastal regions of India.
  1. ((a))

    2 and 3 only

  2. ((b))

    1 and 2 only

  3. ((c))

    1 and 3 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2, and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2 and 3 only

93

Consider the following statements about Coal bed methane (CBM):

  1. India has the largest proven coal reserves in the world and thus holds significant prospects for exploration and exploration of CBM.
  2. It is employed in the manufacturing of cement and methanol and used as compressed natural gas.
  3. The Gondwana sediments of eastern India host all the current CBM-producing blocks.

Which of the statements given above is/are CORRECT?

  1. ((a))

    1 only

  2. ((b))

    2 and 3 only

  3. ((c))

    2 only

  4. ((d))

    3 only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 only

94

Which folk music from Goa is known for its themes of love and historical narratives?

  1. ((a))

    Mando

  2. ((b))

    Bhavageete

  3. ((c))

    Kolattam

  4. ((d))

    Kummi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mando

95

What is the primary use of "Ovi" music in Maharashtra and Goa?

  1. ((a))

    For storytelling during festivals

  2. ((b))

    For performing rituals

  3. ((c))

    For women’s daily chores and celebrations

  4. ((d))

    For political protests

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

For storytelling during festivals

96

Which of the following best describes the main instrument used in "Khongjom Parva" music of Manipur?

  1. ((a))

    Tabla

  2. ((b))

    Flute

  3. ((c))

    Dhol

  4. ((d))

    Mridangam

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tabla

97

Which of the following factors will determine the type of rural settlements in a country?

1 Nature of terrain

2 Social structure

3 Defence

  1. ((a))

    1 and 2 only

  2. ((b))

    2 and 3 only

  3. ((c))

    1 and 3 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2, and 3 only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 and 2 only

98

Which of the following can be classified as an urban agglomeration?

  1. University Campus
  2. Railway Colony
  3. A Military Cantonment
  1. ((a))

    1 and 3 only

  2. ((b))

    3 only

  3. ((c))

    1 and 2 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2, and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 and 3 only

99

What is the name of the portion of the Himalayas located between the Sutlej and Kali rivers?

  1. ((a))

    Punjab Himalayas

  2. ((b))

    Nepal Himalayas

  3. ((c))

    Assam Himalayas

  4. ((d))

    Kumaon Himalayas

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Punjab Himalayas

100

Which of the following states is known as the ’Land of rolling hills’?

  1. ((a))

    Assam

  2. ((b))

    Manipur

  3. ((c))

    Himachal Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Mizoram

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Assam

Electrical Engineering (100 questions)

101

A component whose resistance changes significantly with temperature is called a:

  1. ((a))

    Fixed resistor

  2. ((b))

    Potentiometer

  3. ((c))

    Thermistor

  4. ((d))

    Rheostat

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fixed resistor

102

A circuit contains three resistors: a 10 Ω10\ \Omega resistor in series with a parallel combination of two resistors, 20 Ω20\ \Omega and 30 Ω30\ \Omega. If the total current flowing from the voltage source is 1.5 A1.5\ A, what is the voltage across the 10 Ω10\ \Omega resistor?

  1. ((a))

    30 v

  2. ((b))

    15 v

  3. ((c))

    20 v

  4. ((d))

    45 v

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30 v

103

Which of the following describes the conventional direction of electric current flow?

  1. ((a))

    Perpendicular to the electric field lines

  2. ((b))

    The direction of the magnetic field lines

  3. ((c))

    From negative to positive terminal

  4. ((d))

    From positive to negative terminal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Perpendicular to the electric field lines

104

A number of 200 w/200 V incandescent lamps are connected in parallel to a 200 V supply. How many lamps are needed to consume a total power of 800 W?

  1. ((a))

    8

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8

105

An ideal transformer has a primary voltage (Vp) of 100 V and a turns ratio (Np/Ns) of 2:1. What is the secondary voltage (Vs)?

  1. ((a))

    100 v

  2. ((b))

    200 v

  3. ((c))

    50 v

  4. ((d))

    25 v

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

100 v

106

Which of the following is a key component of a single-phase transformer?

  1. ((a))

    A brush

  2. ((b))

    A core

  3. ((c))

    A commutator

  4. ((d))

    A rotor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A brush

107

What is the relationship between the primary current (Ip) and secondary current (Is) in an ideal step-up transformer?

  1. ((a))

    The relationship depends on the load resistance

  2. ((b))

    The primary current is less than the secondary current (Ip<Is)

  3. ((c))

    The primary current is equal to the secondary current (Ip=Is)

  4. ((d))

    The primary current is greater than the secondary current (Ip>Is)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The relationship depends on the load resistance

108

What happens to the speed of a DC shunt motor if the field current is decreased?

  1. ((a))

    It decreases

  2. ((b))

    It stops completely

  3. ((c))

    It increases

  4. ((d))

    It stays the same

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It decreases

109

What is the yoke of a DC machine?

  1. ((a))

    The outer frame that provides mechanical support and a path for the magnetic flux

  2. ((b))

    The shaft that the rotor rotates on

  3. ((c))

    The field winding of the machine

  4. ((d))

    A part of the commutator that connects to the brushes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The outer frame that provides mechanical support and a path for the magnetic flux

110

In a DC motor, which of Fleming’s rules helps determine the direction of the force (rotation)?

  1. ((a))

    The right-hand thumb rule

  2. ((b))

    Fleming’s Left-Hand Rule

  3. ((c))

    The left-hand thumb rule

  4. ((d))

    Fleming’s Right-Hand Rule

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The right-hand thumb rule

111

In an induction motor, if the rotor bars are broken, what is the likely effect on the motor’s operation?

  1. ((a))

    The motor’s efficiency will increase

  2. ((b))

    The motor’s starting torque will increase.

  3. ((c))

    The motor’s speed will increase

  4. ((d))

    The motor will run with excessive vibration and noise

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The motor’s efficiency will increase

112

In a synchronous generator, what does the speed of the prime mover directly control?

  1. ((a))

    The output voltage

  2. ((b))

    The output current

  3. ((c))

    The reactive power

  4. ((d))

    The output frequency

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The output voltage

113

Which type of AC motor is also known as a universal motor because it can operate on both AC and DC supplies?

  1. ((a))

    A single-phase induction motor

  2. ((b))

    A synchronous motor

  3. ((c))

    A series-wound motor

  4. ((d))

    A three-phase induction motor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A single-phase induction motor

114

A single-phase AC circuit has a voltage of 230 V, a current of 10 A, and a power factor of 0. 8 lagging. What is the reading of a wattmeter connected to this circuit?

  1. ((a))

    1840 W

  2. ((b))

    1380 W

  3. ((c))

    2300 W

  4. ((d))

    2500 W

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1840 W

115

In the two-wattmeter method for three-phase power measurement, the readings of the two wattmeters are W1=500WW1=500 W and W2=1000WW2=1000 W. What is the power factor of the load?

  1. ((a))
    1. 5 lagging
  2. ((b))

    1 lagging

  3. ((c))
    1. 866 lagging
  4. ((d))
    1. 707 lagging
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 5 lagging
116

A single-phase motor rated for 230V230 V, 50Hz50 Hz, draws 10A10 A at a power factor of 0.80.8 lagging. If a capacitor is connected in parallel to improve the power factor to 0.950.95 lagging, what is the reactive power supplied by the capacitor?

  1. ((a))

    775 VAR

  2. ((b))

    1380 VAR

  3. ((c))

    605 VAR

  4. ((d))

    1151 VAR

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

775 VAR

117

Why should a voltmeter have a very high internal resistance?

  1. ((a))

    To protect the voltmeter from high current

  2. ((b))

    To increase the voltage across the circuit

  3. ((c))

    To increase the total current in the circuit

  4. ((d))

    To minimize the current drawn from the circuit

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To protect the voltmeter from high current

118

Which two coils are the essential components of a typical analog wattmeter?

  1. ((a))

    A current coil and a voltage coil.

  2. ((b))

    An electromagnet and a capacitor

  3. ((c))

    A soft iron core and a permanent magnet

  4. ((d))

    A series coil and a shunt coil

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A current coil and a voltage coil.

119

A system’s power factor is improved from 0.70.7 lagging to 0.90.9 lagging. If the active power is 100100 kW and the voltage is constant, how does the current change?

  1. ((a))

    It decreases

  2. ((b))

    It increases

  3. ((c))

    It becomes zero

  4. ((d))

    It stays the same

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It decreases

120

A single-phase load has an active power of 10 kW and a reactive power of 10 KVAR. What is the phase angle in degrees?

  1. ((a))

    90°

  2. ((b))

    60°

  3. ((c))

    45°

  4. ((d))

    30°

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

90°

121

A motor load of 200 kW at 0. 7 lagging power factor is supplied at 480 V line voltage. Calculate the reduction in line current (in A) if a capacitor bank is installed to improve the power factor to 0. 95 lagging.

  1. ((a))

    77 A

  2. ((b))

    124 A

  3. ((c))

    102 A

  4. ((d))

    90 A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

77 A

122

A three-phase load of 100 kW at 0. 6 lagging power factor is connected to a 400 v line. Calculate the total kVAR of the star-connected capacitor bank required to improve the power factor to 0. 9 lagging.

  1. ((a))
    1. 9 kVAR
  2. ((b))
    1. 4 kVAR
  3. ((c))
    1. 4 kVAR
  4. ((d))

    100 kVAR

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 9 kVAR
123

A fully charged battery stores 3.6 MJ3.6 \text{ MJ} of energy. If it is used to power a 500 W500 \text{ W} device, for how long can the device be powered?

  1. ((a))

    12 hours

  2. ((b))

    2 hours

  3. ((c))

    8 hours

  4. ((d))

    10 hours

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12 hours

124

If a Megger test on a cable’s insulation reads ’near zero’ ohms, what does this indicate?

  1. ((a))

    The insulation is in excellent condition

  2. ((b))

    The Megger is not working properly

  3. ((c))

    There is a short circuit or a faulty insulation

  4. ((d))

    The cable is a very good conductor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The insulation is in excellent condition

125

Which protection scheme is most suitable for detecting faults between the stator windings of a generator?

  1. ((a))

    Reverse power protection

  2. ((b))

    Under-frequency protection

  3. ((c))

    Overcurrent protection

  4. ((d))

    Differential protection

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Reverse power protection

126

In a three-phase power system, which type of relay is best suited for detecting a phase-to-phase fault, where the currents in the affected phases are significantly higher than normal?

  1. ((a))

    Under-frequency relay

  2. ((b))

    Directional earth-fault relay

  3. ((c))

    Differential relay

  4. ((d))

    Overcurrent relay

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Under-frequency relay

127

The ’RG’ in RG-58 or RG-6 coaxial cables is an acronym for what?

  1. ((a))

    Relative Grounding

  2. ((b))

    Radio Grade

  3. ((c))

    Resistance Gauge

  4. ((d))

    Resistive Grounding

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Relative Grounding

128

The velocity factor (VF) of a coaxial cable is a ratio that compares the speed of a signal in the cable to what?

  1. ((a))

    The speed of light in a vacuum

  2. ((b))

    The speed of sound in air

  3. ((c))

    The resonant frequency of the cable

  4. ((d))

    The speed of a signal in a different cable type

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The speed of light in a vacuum

129

What is the primary characteristic that defines a fractional horsepower motor (FHP)?

  1. ((a))

    It is a type of servomotor.

  2. ((b))

    Its power output is less than 1 horsepower

  3. ((c))

    It can be powered by either AC or DC current.

  4. ((d))

    It operates on fractional voltage

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It is a type of servomotor.

130

A servomotor’s ability to maintain a desired position despite external forces is known as:

  1. ((a))

    Back EMF

  2. ((b))

    Holding torque

  3. ((c))

    Starting torque

  4. ((d))

    Running torque

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Back EMF

131

What is the primary function of a transformer’s core?

  1. ((a))

    To increase the resistance of the windings

  2. ((b))

    To dissipate heat from the windings

  3. ((c))

    To provide a low reluctance path for magnetic flux

  4. ((d))

    To provide mechanical support for the windings

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To increase the resistance of the windings

132

When two coils are placed close to each other, a changing current in the first coil will induce a voltage in the second coil. This phenomenon is called:

  1. ((a))

    Self-induction

  2. ((b))

    Magnetic resistance

  3. ((c))

    Eddy current effect

  4. ((d))

    Mutual induction

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Self-induction

133

If the number of turns in an inductor is doubled, and all other factors remain constant, the self-inductance will:

  1. ((a))

    Be quadrupled

  2. ((b))

    Be doubled

  3. ((c))

    Remain the same

  4. ((d))

    Be halved

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Be quadrupled

134

The core of an electromagnet is removed, but the current is kept constant. What happens to the magnetic flux?

  1. ((a))

    It remains the same

  2. ((b))

    It decreases significantly

  3. ((c))

    It increases significantly

  4. ((d))

    It reverses its direction

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It remains the same

135

The total inductance of two series-connected coils with self-inductances L1 and L2 and mutual inductance MM with their fields opposing is:

  1. ((a))

    Leq=(L1−L2)2L_{eq} = \frac{(L_1 - L_2)}{2}

  2. ((b))

    Leq=L1+L2−ML_{eq} = L_1 + L_2 - M

  3. ((c))

    Leq=L1+L2+2ML_{eq} = L_1 + L_2 + 2M

  4. ((d))

    Leq=L1+L2−2ML_{eq} = L_1 + L_2 - 2M

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Leq=(L1−L2)2L_{eq} = \frac{(L_1 - L_2)}{2}

136

In a circuit, a 10Ω10\Omega resistor is connected to the terminals of a network. The Thevenin equivalent circuit is found to be a 20 V20\text{ V} source in series with a 5Ω5\Omega resistor. What is the voltage across the 10Ω10\Omega load?

  1. ((a))
    1. 33 V\text{V}
  2. ((b))
    1. 67 V\text{V}
  3. ((c))

    20 V\text{V}

  4. ((d))

    10 V\text{V}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 33 V\text{V}
137

What is the equivalent resistance (RNRN) of a circuit with a short-circuit current of 4A4 A and an open-circuit voltage of 20V20 V?

  1. ((a))
    1. 2Ω\Omega
  2. ((b))

    4Ω\Omega

  3. ((c))

    5Ω\Omega

  4. ((d))

    80Ω\Omega

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 2Ω\Omega
138

In a series RLC circuit, what is the phase relationship between the voltage across the inductor and the voltage across the capacitor?

  1. ((a))

    They are 90∘90^\circ out of phase

  2. ((b))

    They are in phase

  3. ((c))

    They are 180∘180^\circ out of phase

  4. ((d))

    They are 45∘45^\circ out of phase

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

They are 90∘90^\circ out of phase

139

At the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit, what is the effect on the circuit’s impedance?

  1. ((a))

    It becomes purely inductive

  2. ((b))

    It becomes purely capacitive

  3. ((c))

    It becomes maximum

  4. ((d))

    It becomes minimum and purely resistive

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It becomes purely inductive

140

What is the purpose of converting a delta (Δ\Delta) connected load to its equivalent star (YY) connected load?

  1. ((a))

    To simplify circuit analysis for three-phase systems

  2. ((b))

    To reduce the line current

  3. ((c))

    To change the power factor of the load

  4. ((d))

    To increase the total power of the load

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To simplify circuit analysis for three-phase systems

141

How does the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit change if the value of the inductor is increased?

  1. ((a))

    The resonant frequency doubles

  2. ((b))

    The resonant frequency increases

  3. ((c))

    The resonant frequency decreases

  4. ((d))

    The resonant frequency remains the same

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The resonant frequency doubles

142

The power factor of a series RLC circuit is leading. Which of the following conditions must be true for the circuit’s net reactance?

  1. ((a))

    The inductive reactance (XLX_L) is greater than the capacitive reactance (XCX_C)

  2. ((b))

    The total impedance (ZZ) is purely resistive

  3. ((c))

    The inductive reactance (XLX_L) is less than the capacitive reactance (XCX_C)

  4. ((d))

    The inductive reactance (XLX_L) is equal to the capacitive reactance (XCX_C)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The inductive reactance (XLX_L) is greater than the capacitive reactance (XCX_C)

143

A parallel RLC circuit at resonance has a resistance of 50 Ω50\ \Omega. The source current is 10 A10\ A. What is the total voltage of the source?

  1. ((a))

    5000 v

  2. ((b))

    50 v

  3. ((c))

    5 v

  4. ((d))

    500 v

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5000 v

144

A series RLC circuit has an inductive reactance of 50 Ω\Omega and a capacitive reactance of 30 Ω\Omega. What is the net reactance?

  1. ((a))

    30 Ω\Omega (capacitive)

  2. ((b))

    50 Ω\Omega

  3. ((c))

    40 Ω\Omega

  4. ((d))

    20 Ω\Omega (inductive)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30 Ω\Omega (capacitive)

145

A load with a power factor of 0. 9 lagging is connected to a 220 V, 50 Hz supply. The apparent power is 11 kVA. What is the reactive power of the load?

  1. ((a))
    1. 9 kVAR
  2. ((b))
    1. 8 kVAR
  3. ((c))
    1. 4 kVAR
  4. ((d))
    1. 3 kVAR
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 9 kVAR
146

A single-phase AC motor draws a current of 5 A from a 240 V supply with a power factor of 0. 8 lagging. What is the true power consumed by the motor?

  1. ((a))

    600 W

  2. ((b))

    1200 W

  3. ((c))

    960 W

  4. ((d))

    1500 W

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

600 W

147

A three-phase, 400V400 V, 50Hz50 Hz induction motor drive is used to lift a load. The motor has a full-load efficiency of 8585%% and a power factor of 0.80.8 lagging. If the motor lifts a 2000kg2000 kg load at a constant speed of 1.2m/s1.2 m/s, what is the line current drawn by the motor?

  1. ((a))

    25.8A25.8 A

  2. ((b))

    33.6A33.6 A

  3. ((c))

    19.7A19.7 A

  4. ((d))

    49.9A49.9 A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25.8A25.8 A

148

A 75 kVA, 6000/4006000/400 V transformer has an iron loss of 400 W and a full-load copper loss of 800 W. What is the efficiency at full load and a 0. 8 lagging power factor?

  1. ((a))
    1. 10%
  2. ((b))
    1. 80%
  3. ((c))
    1. 50%
  4. ((d))
    1. 03%
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 10%
149

A transformer with a voltage ratio of 220/110 has a secondary resistance of 0.05Ω0.05 \Omega. What is the equivalent secondary resistance referred to the primary side?

  1. ((a))

    0.2Ω0.2 \Omega

  2. ((b))

    0.05Ω0.05 \Omega

  3. ((c))

    0.1Ω0.1 \Omega

  4. ((d))

    0.7Ω0.7 \Omega

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.2Ω0.2 \Omega

150

Two single-phase transformers, Transformer A with a rating of 100 kVA and Transformer B with a rating of 80 kVA, are connected in parallel to supply a total load of 120 kW at a 0. 85 lagging power factor. The per-unit impedance for Transformer A is 0.015+j0.040.015 + j0.04 (on its 100 kVA base), and for Transformer B is 0.02+j0.050.02 + j0.05 (on its 80 kVA base). What is the real power (in kW) shared by each transformer?

  1. ((a))

    A takes 73. 4 kW; B takes 46. 6 kW

  2. ((b))

    A takes 87. 2 kW; B takes 46. 6 kW

  3. ((c))

    A takes 65. 6 kW; B takes 46. 6 kW

  4. ((d))

    A takes 43. 5 kW; B takes 46. 6 kW

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A takes 73. 4 kW; B takes 46. 6 kW

151

A 250 V d.c. shunt generator has an armature resistance of 0.1Ω0.1 \Omega. If the generated EMF is 255 V, what is the armature current?

  1. ((a))

    25 A

  2. ((b))

    50 A

  3. ((c))

    75 A

  4. ((d))

    100 A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25 A

152

A 10 kW10 \text{ kW}, 200 V200 \text{ V} d.c. motor has an efficiency of 8080%. What is the total power input to the motor?

  1. ((a))

    10.25 kW10.25 \text{ kW}

  2. ((b))

    12.5 kW12.5 \text{ kW}

  3. ((c))

    8.75 kW8.75 \text{ kW}

  4. ((d))

    20.5 kW20.5 \text{ kW}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10.25 kW10.25 \text{ kW}

153

A 20 kW, 250 v, 4-pole, d.c. shunt generator has a full-load armature current of 80 A. The armature resistance is 0. 1 Ω\Omega and the field resistance is 125 Ω\Omega. If the rotational losses are 800 W, what is the commercial efficiency of the generator at full load?

  1. ((a))
    1. 70%
  2. ((b))
    1. 10%
  3. ((c))
    1. 60%
  4. ((d))
    1. 10%
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 70%
154

A 3-phase, 60 Hz induction motor has a synchronous speed of 1200 rpm. If the rotor speed is 1140 rpm, what is the slip?

  1. ((a))

    1%

  2. ((b))

    2%

  3. ((c))

    5%

  4. ((d))

    10%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1%

155

A 3-phase, 6-pole, 50 Hz induction motor has a synchronous speed of 1000 rpm. If the motor runs at 950 rpm, what is the slip?

  1. ((a))

    5%

  2. ((b))

    10%

  3. ((c))

    15%

  4. ((d))

    20%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5%

156

A single-phase, 230V230 V, 50Hz50 Hz induction motor has a main winding impedance of ZM=(6+j8)ΩZ_M=(6+j8) \Omega. A capacitor is connected in series with the auxiliary winding to make its current lead the main winding current by 90∘90^\circ. The auxiliary winding resistance is 10Ω10 \Omega and its inductive reactance is 15Ω15 \Omega. What is the required capacitive reactance?

  1. ((a))
    1. 5 Ω\Omega
  2. ((b))
    1. 5 Ω\Omega
  3. ((c))
    1. 5 Ω\Omega
  4. ((d))
    1. 5 Ω\Omega
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 5 Ω\Omega
157

Two identical DC shunt generators, each with a generated EMF of 240 V and an armature resistance of 0. 1 Ω\Omega, are operating in parallel. If they share a total load current of 150 A equally, what is the terminal voltage of the busbar?

  1. ((a))
    1. 5 V
  2. ((b))
    1. 5 V
  3. ((c))
    1. 5 V
  4. ((d))
    1. 5 V
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 5 V
158

A 220 V DC shunt generator has a full-load current of 60 A and an armature resistance of 0.2 Ω\Omega. The armature reaction reduces the flux per pole by 4%. If the no-load generated EMF is 225 V, what is the full-load terminal voltage?

  1. ((a))

    204 V

  2. ((b))

    216 V

  3. ((c))

    225 V

  4. ((d))

    254 V

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

204 V

159

Two coils are wound on a common magnetic core. The core has a mean path length of 40 cm, a cross-sectional area of 8 cm2^2, and a relative permeability of 3000. Coil 1 has 600 turns, and coil 2 has 200 turns. Assuming perfect coupling between the coils, what is the mutual inductance between them?

  1. ((a))
    1. 142 H
  2. ((b))
    1. 301 H
  3. ((c))
    1. 665 H
  4. ((d))
    1. 904 H
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 142 H
160

An electroplating process is used to deposit a 15μ m15 \mu\ m thick layer of nickel on a component with a surface area of 0.05 m2. The density of nickel is 8900 kg/m3, and its electrochemical equivalent is 0.304 mg/C. If the process is to be completed in 2 hours, what current is required?

  1. ((a))

    3.05 A

  2. ((b))

    6.75 A

  3. ((c))

    12.2 A

  4. ((d))

    15.5 A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3.05 A

161

A resistance furnace with a heating element of 50Ω50 \Omega is used to melt 22 kg of a material. The material has a specific heat capacity of 500 J/(kg⋅K)500 \text{ J}/(\text{kg}\cdot\text{K}) and a latent heat of fusion of 250 kJ/kg250 \text{ kJ/kg}. The furnace operates at 250 V DC250 \text{ V DC}. If the initial temperature is 25∘C25 ^{\circ}\text{C} and the melting point is 800∘C800 ^{\circ}\text{C}, and the furnace efficiency is 8080%, how long will it take to melt the material completely?

  1. ((a))
    1. 5 minutes
  2. ((b))
    1. 25 minutes
  3. ((c))
    1. 6 minutes
  4. ((d))
    1. 5 minutes
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 5 minutes
162

A BJT is biased in a common-emitter configuration. The collector current is 5 mA and the base-to-emitter voltage (VBEV_{BE}) is 0. 7 V. If the common-emitter current gain, β\beta, is 100, what is the base resistance (RBR_B) if the supply voltage is 10 V?

  1. ((a))

    186 kΩ\Omega

  2. ((b))

    246 kΩ\Omega

  3. ((c))

    374 kΩ\Omega

  4. ((d))

    486 kΩ\Omega

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

186 kΩ\Omega

163

A generator is rated at 25 MVA, 11 kV with an impedance of 12%. What is the fault current if a short-circuit occurs at its terminals?

  1. ((a))

    10933 A

  2. ((b))

    13120 A

  3. ((c))

    15496 A

  4. ((d))

    18721 A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10933 A

164

A voltage divider bias circuit for a BJT has R1=47 kΩR_1=47\space k\Omega and R2=10 kΩR_2=10 \space k\Omega. If the supply voltage is 15 V, what is the base voltage, assuming a high input impedance BJT?

  1. ((a))
    1. 63 V
  2. ((b))
    1. 56 V
  3. ((c))
    1. 78 V
  4. ((d))
    1. 82 V
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 63 V
165

A full-wave rectifier has a load resistance of 500 Ω\Omega. The input signal is a sine wave with a peak value of 100 V. What is the average power dissipated in the load?

  1. ((a))

    10 W

  2. ((b))

    12 W

  3. ((c))

    13 W

  4. ((d))

    14 W

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10 W

166

A half-wave rectifier is supplied by a 10 V (rms) AC source with a frequency of 50 Hz. The transformer has a secondary winding resistance of 1 Ω\Omega. The load resistance is 100 Ω\Omega. What is the ripple factor of the output?

  1. ((a))

    1.21

  2. ((b))

    11.21

  3. ((c))

    13.21

  4. ((d))

    2.21

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1.21

167

A Zener diode regulator circuit is designed to provide a constant output voltage of 10 V. The load current is expected to be between 20 mA and 100 mA. The minimum Zener current is 5 mA. The input voltage is 15 V. What is the value of the series resistance required?

  1. ((a))
    1. 2 Ω\Omega
  2. ((b))
    1. 6 Ω\Omega
  3. ((c))
    1. 9 Ω\Omega
  4. ((d))
    1. 3 Ω\Omega
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 2 Ω\Omega
168

A coaxial cable has a characteristic impedance of 50 Ω\Omega and a dielectric constant of 2. 25. What is the ratio of the outer conductor diameter to the inner conductor diameter?

  1. ((a))

    2.4

  2. ((b))

    3.5

  3. ((c))

    4.8

  4. ((d))

    5.6

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2.4

169

A utility company penalizes a customer for operating with a power factor below 0. 85. If a load has a real power of 1500 kW and a reactive power of 1200 kVAR, what is the current power factor?

  1. ((a))
    1. 52 lagging
  2. ((b))
    1. 64 lagging
  3. ((c))
    1. 78 lagging
  4. ((d))
    1. 86 lagging
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 52 lagging
170

Which of the following is a method to reduce the Corona effect in a transmission line?

  1. ((a))

    Using conductors with a smaller diameter

  2. ((b))

    Using bundled conductors

  3. ((c))

    Using a smaller spacing between conductors

  4. ((d))

    Using a single conductor instead of a bundled conductor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Using conductors with a smaller diameter

171

In a medium transmission line, which of the following circuit models is most commonly used?

  1. ((a))

    No-load model

  2. ((b))

    Nominal-T or Nominal-π\pi model

  3. ((c))

    Long line model (Distributed parameters)

  4. ((d))

    Short line model (Lumped resistance and inductance only)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

No-load model

172

Corona power loss increases with:

  1. ((a))

    High air density

  2. ((b))

    Smoothness of the conductor surface

  3. ((c))

    Increase in line voltage

  4. ((d))

    Increase in conductor diameter

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

High air density

173

How does doubling the conductor spacing (D) while keeping the geometric mean radius (r') constant affect the inductance L?

  1. ((a))

    It remains the same

  2. ((b))

    It increases by an amount proportional to ln(2)

  3. ((c))

    It increases by a constant amount

  4. ((d))

    It doubles

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It remains the same

174

A three-phase overhead transmission line has a conductor diameter of 1.21.2 cm. The conductors are arranged in a horizontal plane with a spacing of 33 m between adjacent conductors. What is the geometric mean distance (GMD)?

  1. ((a))

    3.783.78 m

  2. ((b))

    5.625.62 m

  3. ((c))

    7.947.94 m

  4. ((d))

    9.469.46 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3.783.78 m

175

A three-phase, 50 Hz50\text{ Hz} transmission line has a capacitance of 15 nF/km15\text{ nF/km} and a length of 100 km100\text{ km}. What is the total charging current at 400 kV400\text{ kV} line-to-line?

  1. ((a))

    87.2 A87.2\text{ A}

  2. ((b))

    108.8 A108.8\text{ A}

  3. ((c))

    188.4 A188.4\text{ A}

  4. ((d))

    209.6 A209.6\text{ A}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

87.2 A87.2\text{ A}

176

A voltmeter with a sensitivity of 1000 Ω\Omega/V is used on its 50 V range. What is the internal resistance of the voltmeter?

  1. ((a))

    50 kΩ\Omega

  2. ((b))

    100 kΩ\Omega

  3. ((c))

    150 kΩ\Omega

  4. ((d))

    200 kΩ\Omega

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50 kΩ\Omega

177

An ammeter of resistance 0.8 Ω\Omega measures a current of 1 A when connected in a circuit. If a shunt of 0.2 Ω\Omega is connected in parallel, what is the new total current in the circuit if the supply voltage remains unchanged?

  1. ((a))

    5 A

  2. ((b))

    10 A

  3. ((c))

    15 A

  4. ((d))

    20 A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5 A

178

A 2000 W heater is used for 2 hours. How much energy is consumed in kilowatt-hours (kWh)?

  1. ((a))

    4 kWh

  2. ((b))

    6 kWh

  3. ((c))

    8 kWh

  4. ((d))

    10 kWh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4 kWh

179

A heater with a resistance of 20 Ω\Omega draws a current of 10 A. What is the voltage across the heater?

  1. ((a))

    200 v

  2. ((b))

    400 v

  3. ((c))

    600 v

  4. ((d))

    800 v

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

200 v

180

A 0-500 V voltmeter has an error of ±5\pm5% of full-scale deflection. If the true voltage is 50 V, then find its range of reading.

  1. ((a))

    25 V to 75 V

  2. ((b))
    1. 5 V to 52. 5 V
  3. ((c))

    0 V to 500 V

  4. ((d))

    0 V to 50 V

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25 V to 75 V

181

Minimum ground clearance of an overhead line for low and medium voltage lines along a street is:

  1. ((a))
    1. 8 m
  2. ((b))

    4 m

  3. ((c))
    1. 5 m
  4. ((d))

    3 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 8 m
182

Earth resistance of any earthing should NOT be more than:

  1. ((a))

    100 ohms

  2. ((b))

    10 ohms

  3. ((c))

    15 ohms

  4. ((d))

    5 ohms

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

100 ohms

183

In casing and capping wiring, the capping is typically made from which material?

  1. ((a))

    PVC plastic

  2. ((b))

    Steel strip

  3. ((c))

    Seasoned wood

  4. ((d))

    Rubber

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

PVC plastic

184

According to the Indian Electricity Rules, the permissible frequency fluctuation range is:

  1. ((a))

    ±3\pm 3%

  2. ((b))

    ±0.5\pm 0. 5%

  3. ((c))

    ±0\pm 0%

  4. ((d))

    ±5\pm 5%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

±3\pm 3%

185

In case of low voltage, variation from the declared voltage should be:

  1. ((a))

    Less than 6%

  2. ((b))

    More than 5%

  3. ((c))

    Less than 2. 5%

  4. ((d))

    More than 2. 5%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Less than 6%

186

Use Norton’s Theorem to find the short-circuit current when Thevenin’s voltage is 12 V and resistance is 6Ω\Omega.

  1. ((a))

    1 A

  2. ((b))

    2 A

  3. ((c))

    3 A

  4. ((d))

    4 A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 A

187

Transmission efficiency is maximum when:

  1. ((a))

    Copper loss = Dielectric loss

  2. ((b))

    Copper loss = Constant loss

  3. ((c))

    Copper loss = Corona loss

  4. ((d))

    Voltage = 00

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Copper loss = Dielectric loss

188

The skin effect increases with:

  1. ((a))

    Decrease in frequency

  2. ((b))

    Increase in frequency

  3. ((c))

    Decrease in diameter

  4. ((d))

    Decrease in current

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Decrease in frequency

189

The bundled conductors in EHV transmission are used to:

  1. ((a))

    Increase corona loss

  2. ((b))

    Reduce corona and reactance

  3. ((c))

    Increase resistance

  4. ((d))

    Increase weight

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increase corona loss

190

What is the need for separate earthing for electronic equipment.

  1. ((a))

    To reduce electromagnetic interference

  2. ((b))

    To reduce current

  3. ((c))

    To increase load

  4. ((d))

    To increase voltage

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To reduce electromagnetic interference

191

Which among these plants has highest efficiency?

  1. ((a))

    Gas turbine

  2. ((b))

    Diesel

  3. ((c))

    Thermal

  4. ((d))

    Combined cycle

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gas turbine

192

If diversity factor increases, the overall generation capacity required:

  1. ((a))

    Increases

  2. ((b))

    Decreases

  3. ((c))

    Remain Same

  4. ((d))

    Becomes Zero

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increases

193

Design a wiring layout for a workshop with 3−phase3-phase machines.

  1. ((a))

    Use single-phase system

  2. ((b))

    Use series connection

  3. ((c))

    Use DC system

  4. ((d))

    Use 3−phase3-phase 4−wire4-wire system

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Use single-phase system

194

In a servo drive, integral control action helps:

  1. ((a))

    Reduce steady-state error

  2. ((b))

    Increase transient overshoot

  3. ((c))

    Increase phase difference

  4. ((d))

    Reduce field current

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Reduce steady-state error

195

In hydroelectric plants, penstock is used for:

  1. ((a))

    Storing water

  2. ((b))

    Carrying water to the turbine

  3. ((c))

    Controlling the turbine speed

  4. ((d))

    Measuring flow rate

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Storing water

196

A shunt with a positive temperature coefficient is used in high DC current measurement. As temperature rises:

  1. ((a))

    Measured current increases

  2. ((b))

    Measured current decreases

  3. ((c))

    Measurement is unaffected

  4. ((d))

    Voltage drops to zero

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Measured current increases

197

Which device stores energy in a magnetic field when current flows through it?

  1. ((a))

    Resistor

  2. ((b))

    Inductor

  3. ((c))

    Capacitor

  4. ((d))

    Relay

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Resistor

198

A capacitor blocks which type of current in a steady-state condition?

  1. ((a))

    AC

  2. ((b))

    DC

  3. ((c))

    Pulsating current

  4. ((d))

    No current

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

AC

199

Which component is designed to oppose sudden changes in current?

  1. ((a))

    Inductor

  2. ((b))

    Resistor

  3. ((c))

    Capacitor

  4. ((d))

    Switch

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Inductor

200

Skin effect in a conductor is more prominent at:

  1. ((a))

    Low frequency

  2. ((b))

    High frequency

  3. ((c))

    DC

  4. ((d))

    Zero resistance

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Low frequency

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