Official Paper

SSC JE (Electrical Engineering) Official Paper (Held On: 05 Dec, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

Attempt as Timed Mock Test

General Intelligence and Reasoning (50 questions)

1

In the following, four roll numbers or centre codes are given. Three share a common pattern or belong to one group, but one is different. Select the odd one out.

600319, 601402, 620310, 601213

  1. ((a))

    600319

  2. ((b))

    601402

  3. ((c))

    620310

  4. ((d))

    601213

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

600319

2

In the following, four roll numbers or centre codes are given. Three share a common pattern or belong to one group, but one is different. Select the odd one out.

920818, 921223, 921419, 930101

  1. ((a))

    920818

  2. ((b))

    921223

  3. ((c))

    921419

  4. ((d))

    930101

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

920818

3

Complete the analogy. ABD : CEF :: GIK : ?

  1. ((a))

    HJL

  2. ((b))

    JKL

  3. ((c))

    JLQ

  4. ((d))

    ILM

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

HJL

4

Complete the analogy.

AEIM : BFJN :: CGKO : ?

  1. ((a))

    DHLP

  2. ((b))

    DGJM

  3. ((c))

    DGLN

  4. ((d))

    EIKN

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

DHLP

5

Find the missing term in the series: D, F, I, M, ?

  1. ((a))

    P

  2. ((b))

    Q

  3. ((c))

    R

  4. ((d))

    S

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

P

6

Find the missing term in the series: C, D, F, I, M, ?

  1. ((a))

    R

  2. ((b))

    Q

  3. ((c))

    S

  4. ((d))

    P

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

R

7

Find the missing number in the series: 5, 7, 10, 15, 22, ?

  1. ((a))

    30

  2. ((b))

    31

  3. ((c))

    33

  4. ((d))

    35

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30

8

Find the missing number in the series: 4, 11, 30, 67, ?

  1. ((a))

    128

  2. ((b))

    130

  3. ((c))

    125

  4. ((d))

    121

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

128

9

Complete the analogy.

Odometer : Distance :: Thermometer : ?

  1. ((a))

    Pressure

  2. ((b))

    Temperature

  3. ((c))

    Time

  4. ((d))

    Heat

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pressure

10

Complete the analogy.

Obfuscate : Clarity :: Prevaricate : ?

  1. ((a))

    Honesty

  2. ((b))

    Activity

  3. ((c))

    Intention

  4. ((d))

    Invention

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Honesty

11

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others: Apple, Banana, Litchi, Carrot

  1. ((a))

    Apple

  2. ((b))

    Banana

  3. ((c))

    Litchi

  4. ((d))

    Carrot

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Apple

12

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others: Copper, Gold, Silver, Plastic

  1. ((a))

    Copper

  2. ((b))

    Gold

  3. ((c))

    Silver

  4. ((d))

    Plastic

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Copper

13

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others: Cabbage, Spinach, Potato, Cauliflower

  1. ((a))

    Cabbage

  2. ((b))

    Potato

  3. ((c))

    Spinach

  4. ((d))

    Cauliflower

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cabbage

14

Find the odd one out in the given semantic series based on the pattern identified. Moon, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus

  1. ((a))

    Moon

  2. ((b))

    Jupiter

  3. ((c))

    Saturn

  4. ((d))

    Uranus

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Moon

15

Find the odd one out in the given semantic series based on the pattern identified.

Bureaucracy, Opposition, Cabinet, Media

  1. ((a))

    Bureaucracy

  2. ((b))

    Opposition

  3. ((c))

    Cabinet

  4. ((d))

    Media

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bureaucracy

16

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others:

17, 19, 21, 23

  1. ((a))

    17

  2. ((b))

    19

  3. ((c))

    21

  4. ((d))

    23

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

17

17

Select the option that does NOT belong to the same category as the others: 81, 125, 343, 729

  1. ((a))

    81

  2. ((b))

    125

  3. ((c))

    343

  4. ((d))

    729

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

81

18

Four people, P, Q, R, and S, live on floors 1-4. S is immediately below Q; P is not on floor 4; S is exactly two floors above R. Who lives on floor 1?

  1. ((a))

    S

  2. ((b))

    Q

  3. ((c))

    R

  4. ((d))

    P

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

S

19

Five people, P, Q, R, S, and T, live in the houses 21, 23, 25, 27, 29: R lives just above Q; P is the lowest; S lives above R but not the highest; T is the highest.

Who lives at house 27?

  1. ((a))

    R

  2. ((b))

    S

  3. ((c))

    Q

  4. ((d))

    T

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

R

20

In a certain code, ROSE is written as SPTF, then WORD will be coded as:

  1. ((a))

    XPQD

  2. ((b))

    XPRE

  3. ((c))

    XPRF

  4. ((d))

    XPSE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

XPQD

21

In a certain code, MONDAY is written as NNOCBX. How is FRIDAY coded?

  1. ((a))

    GSJEBZ

  2. ((b))

    GRIEBZ

  3. ((c))

    GSJEBY

  4. ((d))

    GQJCBX

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

GSJEBZ

22

City’s air pollution levels drop sharply over a week. What could be the most probable reason?

  1. ((a))

    All factories doubled production

  2. ((b))

    Citizens bought more air purifiers

  3. ((c))

    Rainfall was delayed this season

  4. ((d))

    Strict vehicle movement restrictions were imposed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

All factories doubled production

23

Statement: "Foreign tourists will be offered free city tour buses on weekends." Which assumption is implicit?

  1. ((a))

    Foreign tourists can travel without guides

  2. ((b))

    Free tours will attract more tourists

  3. ((c))

    Hotels will provide these tours

  4. ((d))

    Weekdays are more popular than weekends

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Foreign tourists can travel without guides

24

Four travellers, V, W, X, and Y, visited cities on 7th, 9th, 11th, and 13th December. X visited before W; Y visited immediately after V; V did not visit on the 7th; W did not visit on the 13th. Who visited on the 11th?

  1. ((a))

    V

  2. ((b))

    W

  3. ((c))

    X

  4. ((d))

    Y

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

V

25

Five friends - D, R, S, T, and K - went to a city on the 2nd, 4th, 6th, 8th, and 10th of August. R went on the 4th. K went on the 10th. T did not go on the 2nd. T went before D. S did not go immediately after R. Who went on the 8th?

  1. ((a))

    S

  2. ((b))

    K

  3. ((c))

    T

  4. ((d))

    D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

S

26

A colleague shares that they made a small mistake at work. What’s the best first reaction?

  1. ((a))

    Criticise them

  2. ((b))

    Laugh about it

  3. ((c))

    Reassure and help fix it

  4. ((d))

    Ignore it

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Criticise them

27

In a team, one member dominates conversations. How do you ensure others’ contributions?

  1. ((a))

    Gently invite others to share views

  2. ((b))

    Stop the person mid-sentence

  3. ((c))

    Ignore the imbalance

  4. ((d))

    Leave the meeting early

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gently invite others to share views

28

A man spends 13\frac{1}{3} of his salary on rent and 15\frac{1}{5} on food. If the salary is ₹30,000, then how much remains?

  1. ((a))

    ₹14,000

  2. ((b))

    ₹16,000

  3. ((c))

    ₹18,000

  4. ((d))

    ₹20,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹14,000

29

Find the missing term: 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, ?

  1. ((a))

    35

  2. ((b))

    37

  3. ((c))

    39

  4. ((d))

    41

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

35

30

If 12 men can reap a field in 8 days working 7 hours/day, then how many hours/day must 16 men work to reap the same field in 6 days?

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    6

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    7

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5

31

In a group, one person dominates the conversation about a shared problem.

How do you involve others?

  1. ((a))

    Acknowledge them and invite others’ views

  2. ((b))

    Interrupt and talk over

  3. ((c))

    Wait silently for them to finish

  4. ((d))

    Ask them to stop talking

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Acknowledge them and invite others’ views

32

From the letters L A P N E T, which valid word can be made?

  1. ((a))

    PLANET

  2. ((b))

    PLANTE

  3. ((c))

    PANTLE

  4. ((d))

    PALENT

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

PLANET

33

While shopping, you end up short of money at the counter. What is the best decision?

  1. ((a))

    Argue with the cashier

  2. ((b))

    Leave some items and pay

  3. ((c))

    Ask to take goods on credit

  4. ((d))

    Leave the store angry

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Argue with the cashier

34

After introducing flexible hours, productivity stays the same but employee satisfaction rises. What’s your best decision as HR head?

  1. ((a))

    Cancel flexible hours

  2. ((b))

    Retain a flexible schedule

  3. ((c))

    Reduce pay

  4. ((d))

    Make hours stricter

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cancel flexible hours

35

A university research grant is given mainly to projects led by senior professors, though junior faculty proposals have equal merit scores. Which inference is valid?

  1. ((a))

    Senior professors are favoured

  2. ((b))

    Juniors avoid applying

  3. ((c))

    Only seniors can handle grants

  4. ((d))

    Senior research is cheaper

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Senior professors are favoured

36

Public transport fares fell 1010% and passenger numbers rose 2525%%. Which inference is valid?

  1. ((a))

    Lower fares attracted more passengers

  2. ((b))

    More buses were bought

  3. ((c))

    City traffic reduced

  4. ((d))

    Pollution dropped

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lower fares attracted more passengers

37

Sales of winter clothing dropped 2020%, though winter was colder than usual. Which inference is valid?

  1. ((a))

    Prices increased significantly

  2. ((b))

    Quality improved

  3. ((c))

    People had enough clothing from the previous year

  4. ((d))

    Advertising increased

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Prices increased significantly

38

A store has sales increasing but customer complaints are rising too. What should be inferred?

  1. ((a))

    Sales growth means good service

  2. ((b))

    Complaints are from competitors

  3. ((c))

    Complaints mean problems to fix

  4. ((d))

    Complaints do not matter

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sales growth means good service

39

Online store sales rose 2020%, but customer complaints about delivery time doubled. Which is the most valid judgement?

  1. ((a))

    Sales growth causes delivery issues

  2. ((b))

    Complaints are false

  3. ((c))

    Delivery service improved

  4. ((d))

    Deliveries became faster

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sales growth causes delivery issues

40

Calculate [(225÷15)+(196÷14)]×[(100÷5)−(81÷9)][(225 \div 15)+(196 \div 14)] \times [(100 \div 5)-(81 \div 9)].

  1. ((a))

    319

  2. ((b))

    108

  3. ((c))

    210

  4. ((d))

    421

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

319

41

If @ = multiplication, % = subtraction, $ addition, and # = division, then find the value of 8 @ 5 % 6 $ 10 # 2.

  1. ((a))

    38

  2. ((b))

    37

  3. ((c))

    39

  4. ((d))

    36

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

38

42

A man points to a woman and says, "Her mother is the wife of my father".

How is the woman related to the man?

  1. ((a))

    Cousin

  2. ((b))

    Daughter

  3. ((c))

    Niece

  4. ((d))

    Sibling

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cousin

43

Pointing to a woman, Madan said, "Her son is my father’s only grandson".

How is the woman related to Madan?

  1. ((a))

    Sister of Madan

  2. ((b))

    Aunt of Madan

  3. ((c))

    Wife of Madan

  4. ((d))

    Grandmother of Madan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sister of Madan

44

A clock shows the time as 3:30. What is the angle between the hour and minute hands?

  1. ((a))

    75∘^\circ

  2. ((b))

    90∘^\circ

  3. ((c))

    105∘^\circ

  4. ((d))

    120∘^\circ

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

75∘^\circ

45

A can complete work in 15 days, and B in 20 days. If both work together for 4 days, what fraction of the work remains?

  1. ((a))

    715\frac{7}{15}

  2. ((b))

    815\frac{8}{15}

  3. ((c))

    1115\frac{11}{15}

  4. ((d))

    1315\frac{13}{15}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

715\frac{7}{15}

46

In the following question, two statements are followed by two conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

Statements:

All buses are vehicles.

Some vehicles are cars.

Conclusions:

I. All cars are buses.

II. Some cars are vehicles.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follows

47

In the following question, two statements are followed by two conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

Statements:

All chairs are wooden.

No wooden thing is cheap.

Conclusions:

I. No chair is cheap.

II. All cheap things are wooden.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion II follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion I follows

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion II follows

48

Female employees report higher stress and fewer rest breaks than male employees.

What conclusion can be drawn?

  1. ((a))

    Women tolerate stress better

  2. ((b))

    Women get less rest, possible bias

  3. ((c))

    Job roles differ by gender

  4. ((d))

    Women work harder

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Women tolerate stress better

49

Someone approaches you during break with a complaint about the cafeteria food.

What’s the socially intelligent reaction?

  1. ((a))

    Listen and suggest who to contact

  2. ((b))

    Tell them to stop complaining

  3. ((c))

    Say "It’s not my problem"

  4. ((d))

    Walk away

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Listen and suggest who to contact

50

Evaluate (120÷4−12)×(15−9)(120 \div 4 - 12) \times (15 - 9).

  1. ((a))

    72

  2. ((b))

    48

  3. ((c))

    54

  4. ((d))

    108

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

72

General Awareness (50 questions)

51

How does the World Happiness Report collect data?

  1. ((a))

    Through surveys conducted by Gallup

  2. ((b))

    Through economic indicators only

  3. ((c))

    Through life expectancy data alone

  4. ((d))

    Through perception of corruption surveys

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Through surveys conducted by Gallup

52

How do wildfires heavily impact the Air Quality Index (AQI) levels?

  1. ((a))

    Primarily by increasing SO2SO_2 concentrations.

  2. ((b))

    Primarily by increasing ground-level ozone.

  3. ((c))

    Primarily by increasing particulate matter concentrations.

  4. ((d))

    Wildfires rarely affect the Air Quality Index (AQI) levels.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Primarily by increasing SO2SO_2 concentrations.

53

What is the objective of launching satellites like Cartosat?

  1. ((a))

    Communication

  2. ((b))

    Space exploration

  3. ((c))

    Earth surface imaging

  4. ((d))

    Solar studies

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Communication

54

Which ISRO facility is used for satellite assembly, integration and testing?

  1. ((a))

    URSC, Bengaluru

  2. ((b))

    ISTRAC, Bengaluru

  3. ((c))

    VSSC, Thiruvananthapuram

  4. ((d))

    SHAR, Sriharikota

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

URSC, Bengaluru

55

Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament?

  1. ((a))

    Article 124

  2. ((b))

    Article 126

  3. ((c))

    Article 125

  4. ((d))

    Article 123

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 124

56

What is the aim of IN-SPACe?

  1. ((a))

    Regulating foreign satellites over India

  2. ((b))

    Launching defense satellites

  3. ((c))

    Promoting private participation in the space sector

  4. ((d))

    Training Indian astronauts

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Regulating foreign satellites over India

57

The Chief Justice of India is appointed by :

  1. ((a))

    The President

  2. ((b))

    The Lok Sabha

  3. ((c))

    The Prime Minister

  4. ((d))

    The Parliament

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The President

58

The Palk Strait separates which two South Asian countries?

  1. ((a))

    India and Pakistan

  2. ((b))

    India and Sri Lanka

  3. ((c))

    Bangladesh and Myanmar

  4. ((d))

    Maldives and India

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

India and Pakistan

59

Who proposed the concept of QUAD?

  1. ((a))

    Japanese Prime Minister, Shinzo Abe

  2. ((b))

    Australian Prime Minister, John Howard

  3. ((c))

    Indian Prime Minister, Manmohan Singh

  4. ((d))

    US President, George W. Bush

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Japanese Prime Minister, Shinzo Abe

60

The Quad is generally seen as a counter to the growing influence of which country?

  1. ((a))

    Russia

  2. ((b))

    Brazil

  3. ((c))

    Germany

  4. ((d))

    China

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Russia

61

Chabahar Port is part of which international transport corridor?

  1. ((a))

    INSTC (The International North-South Transport Corridor)

  2. ((b))

    The belt and road initiative

  3. ((c))

    The Trans-Siberian Railway

  4. ((d))

    The Pan-American Highway

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

INSTC (The International North-South Transport Corridor)

62

Which government policy aims to promote the manufacturing of goods in India and attract foreign investment in the manufacturing sector?

  1. ((a))

    Digital India

  2. ((b))

    Make in India

  3. ((c))

    Smart Cities Mission

  4. ((d))

    National Health Policy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Digital India

63

Which government initiative aims to conserve and rejuvenate major rivers in the country?

  1. ((a))

    Namami Gange Programme

  2. ((b))

    National Clean Air Programme

  3. ((c))

    Jal Jeevan Mission

  4. ((d))

    Swachh Bharat Mission

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Namami Gange Programme

64

The "Competition Commission of India (CCI)" is a statutory body established for a specific purpose. Which of the following best describes the primary objective of the CCI?

  1. ((a))

    To promote and regulate foreign trade agreements.

  2. ((b))

    To ensure fair competition in the market and prevent anti-competitive practices.

  3. ((c))

    To oversee the functioning of public sector banks and financial institutions.

  4. ((d))

    To set standards for product quality and consumer safety.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To promote and regulate foreign trade agreements.

65

What is the name of India’s top domestic football competition for states and government institutions?

  1. ((a))

    Durand Cup

  2. ((b))

    Ranji Trophy

  3. ((c))

    Santosh Trophy

  4. ((d))

    I-League

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Durand Cup

66

Which city is Eden Gardens, a famous cricket ground, located in?

  1. ((a))

    Chennai

  2. ((b))

    Mumbai

  3. ((c))

    Kolkata

  4. ((d))

    Bengaluru

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chennai

67

The Guru Gobind Singh Stadium, known for various sports, is located in which city?

  1. ((a))

    Jalandhar

  2. ((b))

    Amritsar

  3. ((c))

    Ludhiana

  4. ((d))

    Patiala

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jalandhar

68

Which Indian golfer was the first to win a European Tour title?

  1. ((a))

    Jeev Milkha Singh

  2. ((b))

    Anirban Lahiri

  3. ((c))

    Arjun Atwal

  4. ((d))

    Shiv Kapur

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jeev Milkha Singh

69

Which cricketing competition is named after a legendary Indian captain and focuses on the one-day format?

  1. ((a))

    Ranji Trophy

  2. ((b))

    Duleep Trophy

  3. ((c))

    Vijay Hazare Trophy

  4. ((d))

    Irani Cup

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ranji Trophy

70

The first Pro Kabaddi League final was played in Mumbai. Which specific indoor stadium hosted the event?

  1. ((a))

    NSCI Dome

  2. ((b))

    Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Indoor Stadium

  3. ((c))

    Brabourne Stadium Indoor Facility

  4. ((d))

    Andheri Sports Complex Indoor Arena

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

NSCI Dome

71

The first IPL final was hosted in which stadium?

  1. ((a))

    Wankhede Stadium, Mumbai

  2. ((b))

    Chinnaswamy Stadium, Bengaluru

  3. ((c))

    DY Patil Stadium, Navi Mumbai

  4. ((d))

    Eden Gardens, Kolkata

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Wankhede Stadium, Mumbai

72

The highest-ever individual score in an ODI by an Indian was achieved in which city?

  1. ((a))

    Mumbai

  2. ((b))

    Kolkata

  3. ((c))

    Bengaluru

  4. ((d))

    Chennai

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mumbai

73

Which of the following is commonly found at the top of a Buddhist stupa, symbolizing enlightenment?

  1. ((a))

    Kalasha

  2. ((b))

    Amalaka

  3. ((c))

    Mandapa

  4. ((d))

    Harmika with a Chhatra

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kalasha

74

The Jagannath Temple at Puri follows which architectural style?

  1. ((a))

    Dravidian

  2. ((b))

    Indo-Saracenic

  3. ((c))

    Vesara

  4. ((d))

    Nagara

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dravidian

75

Which of the following features is the most distinct in the Vesara style of temple architecture?

  1. ((a))

    Tall gopurams

  2. ((b))

    Fusion of Dravidian and Nagara styles

  3. ((c))

    Use of white marble

  4. ((d))

    Curvilinear shikhara

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tall gopurams

76

Which of these authors won the International Booker Prize for a translated work in 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Jhumpa Lahiri

  2. ((b))

    Arundhati Roy

  3. ((c))

    Geetanjali Shree

  4. ((d))

    Anuradha Roy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jhumpa Lahiri

77

Which Booker Prize-winning novel by Hilary Mantel is centered on the rise of Thomas Cromwell in Henry VIII’s court?

  1. ((a))

    Bring Up the Bodies

  2. ((b))

    Wolf Hall

  3. ((c))

    The Mirror and the Light

  4. ((d))

    The Children’s Book

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bring Up the Bodies

78

Which Indian woman athlete won the silver medal in 100m hurdles at the 2023 Asian Games?

  1. ((a))

    Jyothi Yarraji

  2. ((b))

    Hima Das

  3. ((c))

    Dutee Chand

  4. ((d))

    Anju Bobby George

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jyothi Yarraji

79

What does "En Passant" refer to in chess?

  1. ((a))

    King side castling

  2. ((b))

    Capturing a pawn that moved two squares

  3. ((c))

    Double check

  4. ((d))

    Forced draw

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

King side castling

80

When was the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award (now Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award) first awarded?

  1. ((a))

    1985-86

  2. ((b))

    1991-92

  3. ((c))

    1998-99

  4. ((d))

    2010-11

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1985-86

81

In which Indian state is the "Sitalsasthi" festival celebrated to mark the divine marriage of Lord Shiva and Goddess Parvati?

  1. ((a))

    Odisha

  2. ((b))

    Jharkhand

  3. ((c))

    West Bengal

  4. ((d))

    Chhattisgarh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Odisha

82

What is the "Pooram" festival in Kerala famous for?

  1. ((a))

    Fire walking

  2. ((b))

    Decorated elephants and fireworks

  3. ((c))

    Traditional food fairs

  4. ((d))

    Boat races

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fire walking

83

The primary objective of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam is :

  1. ((a))

    To abolish evidence in trials

  2. ((b))

    To modernize and digitize rules of evidence

  3. ((c))

    To increase court fees

  4. ((d))

    To promote oral evidence only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To abolish evidence in trials

84

What is one major benefit expected from implementing the Uniform Civil Code across India?

  1. ((a))

    Legal monopoly of a single religion

  2. ((b))

    Equal rights for all citizens in personal matters

  3. ((c))

    Abolition of the judiciary

  4. ((d))

    Increased religious divisions

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Legal monopoly of a single religion

85

What is considered digital harassment as per the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 ?

  1. ((a))

    Sending unsolicited emails about new services

  2. ((b))

    Downloading software from unofficial websites

  3. ((c))

    Using public Wi-Fi for browsing

  4. ((d))

    Sending threatening or obscene messages to a person over the internet

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sending unsolicited emails about new services

86

Which state became the first in India to implement the ’Right to Health’ Act?

  1. ((a))

    Kerala

  2. ((b))

    Rajasthan

  3. ((c))

    Tamil Nadu

  4. ((d))

    Punjab

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kerala

87

Who was appointed as the Director General (DG) of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) in 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Rajesh Kumar Singh

  2. ((b))

    Mangi Lal Jat

  3. ((c))

    Trilochan Mohapatra

  4. ((d))

    Sanjay Kumar Mishra

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rajesh Kumar Singh

88

Who is appointed as a full-time member of the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM) in April 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Abhishek Singh

  2. ((b))

    Poonam Gupta

  3. ((c))

    Sanjay Kumar Mishra

  4. ((d))

    Ajay Seth

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Abhishek Singh

89

Which is the earliest recorded evidence of dance poses in ancient India?

  1. ((a))

    The Vedas

  2. ((b))

    Bronze statuette from Mohenjodaro

  3. ((c))

    Inscriptions from the Maurya period

  4. ((d))

    Temples of South India

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Vedas

90

Who is credited with the conception of the Rasleela dance form in Manipur?

  1. ((a))

    King Churachand Singh

  2. ((b))

    King Ranjit Singh

  3. ((c))

    Maharaja Koireng Singh

  4. ((d))

    King Bhagyachandra

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

King Churachand Singh

91

Which 12th^{\text{th}}-century poem by Jayadeva significantly influenced the Odissi dance style?

  1. ((a))

    Ashtapadi

  2. ((b))

    Gita Govinda

  3. ((c))

    Mahabharata

  4. ((d))

    Ramayana

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ashtapadi

92

Which of the following statements is/are related to the benefits of Agroforestry in India?

  1. Increment in soil nutrients through the addition and decomposition of litterfall.
  2. Reduction in the incidence of total crop failure, common to single-cropping or monoculture systems.
  3. Improvement in nutrition and health due to increased quality and diversity of food outputs.
  1. ((a))

    1 and 2 only

  2. ((b))

    2 and 3 only

  3. ((c))

    1 and 3 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2 and 3 only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 and 2 only

93

Temperature is a critical factor in growing this crop as it has no tolerance for frost. Yet, after the plant matures, slightly lower temperatures help increase the amount of sugar in it. Which one of the following crops is described in the passage mentioned above?

  1. ((a))

    Tomatoes

  2. ((b))

    Spinach

  3. ((c))

    Sugarcane

  4. ((d))

    Mustard

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tomatoes

94

Which of the following is a renowned female vocalist from the Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana?

  1. ((a))

    Girija Devi

  2. ((b))

    Ashwini Bhide-Deshpande

  3. ((c))

    Anjanibai Malpekar

  4. ((d))

    Kaushiki Chakraborty

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Girija Devi

95

What does the term ’vadi’ refer to in the context of a raga?

  1. ((a))

    The rhythm of the raga

  2. ((b))

    The most important note in a raga

  3. ((c))

    The composition based on a raga

  4. ((d))

    The melodic ornamentation used in a raga

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The rhythm of the raga

96

In the Natya Shastra, which category of instruments includes the drum and percussion instruments?

  1. ((a))

    Tata Vadya

  2. ((b))

    Sushira Vadya

  3. ((c))

    Avanaddha Vadya

  4. ((d))

    Ghana Vadya

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tata Vadya

97

Which among the following states has the smallest gap in percentage rates between male and female literacy as per 2011 census?

  1. ((a))

    Mizoram

  2. ((b))

    Kerala

  3. ((c))

    Meghalaya

  4. ((d))

    Nagaland

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mizoram

98

According to the Census (2011), which state has the highest number of ST population in India?

  1. ((a))

    Madhya Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Uttar Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Arunachal Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Maharashtra

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Madhya Pradesh

99

’Sorrow of Bengal’ is another name of which of the following rivers?

  1. ((a))

    The Koshi

  2. ((b))

    The Mayurakhi

  3. ((c))

    The Damodar

  4. ((d))

    The Ajay

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Koshi

100

Which of the following statements CORRECTLY defines "farm forestry"?

  1. ((a))

    Planting ecologically friendly crops on farms to protect soil moisture.

  2. ((b))

    Protecting soil moisture by covering it with farm residue.

  3. ((c))

    Planting tree belts for commercial purposes on the margins of agricultural fields.

  4. ((d))

    Promoting eco-friendly techniques in exploitation of forest resource.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Planting ecologically friendly crops on farms to protect soil moisture.

Electrical Engineering (100 questions)

101

The average power consumed by a pure capacitor connected to a sinusoidal a.c. source over one complete cycle is:

  1. ((a))

    Greater than zero

  2. ((b))

    Equal to the peak instantaneous power

  3. ((c))

    Zero

  4. ((d))

    Undefined

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Greater than zero

102

The total energy dissipated as heat in a pure inductor over one complete cycle of an a.c. source is:

  1. ((a))

    The same as that due to a d.c. source of equivalent magnitude

  2. ((b))

    Zero

  3. ((c))

    Half of the peak stored energy

  4. ((d))

    The full amount of energy stored in the magnetic field

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The same as that due to a d.c. source of equivalent magnitude

103

Two coupled inductors have a mutual inductance (M) of 50 mH50 \text{ mH}. When they are connected in series-aiding, their total equivalent inductance is 400 mH400 \text{ mH}. If the self-inductances are equal (L1=L2L1=L2), what is the value of each self-inductance?

  1. ((a))

    200 mH200 \text{ mH}

  2. ((b))

    150 mH150 \text{ mH}

  3. ((c))

    100 mH100 \text{ mH}

  4. ((d))

    250 mH250 \text{ mH}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

200 mH200 \text{ mH}

104

Two resistors with nominal values of 200 Ω200\ \Omega and 300 Ω300\ \Omega are connected in series. Both resistors have a maximum percentage error of 10%. What is the maximum possible percentage error in their total equivalent resistance?

  1. ((a))
    1. 5%
  2. ((b))

    20%

  3. ((c))

    5%

  4. ((d))

    10%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 5%
105

A voltage divider circuit is built with three series resistors: R1=10Ω10 \Omega, R2=20Ω20 \Omega, and R3=30Ω30 \Omega. If the total voltage across the series combination is 12V12 V, what is the voltage across the 20Ω20 \Omega resistor?

  1. ((a))
    1. 0 V
  2. ((b))
    1. 4 V
  3. ((c))
    1. 0 V
  4. ((d))
    1. 0 V
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 0 V
106

In a series RLC circuit, the voltage across the resistor is 60 V, across the inductor is 100 V, and across the capacitor is 20 V. What is the magnitude of the total applied voltage?

  1. ((a))

    100 V

  2. ((b))

    160 V

  3. ((c))

    180 V

  4. ((d))

    120 V

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

100 V

107

In a liquid electrolyte, such as a salt solution, which charged particles are responsible for the flow of electric current?

  1. ((a))

    Both positive and negative ions

  2. ((b))

    Electrons and holes

  3. ((c))

    Protons and electrons

  4. ((d))

    Electrons only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both positive and negative ions

108

A series RC circuit has a resistance of 200 Ω200~\Omega and a capacitance of 100 μF100~\mu F. If it is connected to a \(50Hz\), \(20V\) a.c. source, what is the phase angle between the voltage and the current?

  1. ((a))

    45°

  2. ((b))
    1. 5°
  3. ((c))
    1. 05°
  4. ((d))
    1. 2°
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

45°

109

If a transformer has a primary winding with 200 turns and a secondary winding with 50 turns, what type of transformer is it?

  1. ((a))

    An isolation transformer

  2. ((b))

    A step-up transformer

  3. ((c))

    A variable transformer

  4. ((d))

    A step-down transformer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

An isolation transformer

110

What is the function of the secondary winding in a single-phase transformer?

  1. ((a))

    It creates the main magnetic flux

  2. ((b))

    It is connected to the voltage source

  3. ((c))

    It provides the output voltage to the load

  4. ((d))

    It is used for cooling the transformer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It creates the main magnetic flux

111

If a transformer has a turns ratio (Np/Ns)(N_p/N_s) of 1:1, what is its purpose?

  1. ((a))

    To change the frequency

  2. ((b))

    To step up the voltage

  3. ((c))

    To step down the voltage

  4. ((d))

    To transfer power while providing electrical isolation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To change the frequency

112

Which component of a DC machine is responsible for reversing the direction of current in the armature winding to ensure continuous rotation?

  1. ((a))

    The brushes

  2. ((b))

    The commutator

  3. ((c))

    The field winding

  4. ((d))

    The armature

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The brushes

113

Which of the following describes a separately excited DC machine?

  1. ((a))

    The field winding is not used in the machine

  2. ((b))

    The field winding is connected in series with the armature

  3. ((c))

    The field winding is powered by a separate DC source

  4. ((d))

    The field winding is connected in parallel with the armature

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The field winding is not used in the machine

114

What is the relationship between torque and armature current in a DC motor?

  1. ((a))

    Torque is directly proportional to the armature current

  2. ((b))

    Torque is proportional to the square of the armature current

  3. ((c))

    Torque is inversely proportional to the armature current

  4. ((d))

    Torque is independent of the armature current

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Torque is directly proportional to the armature current

115

A three-phase induction motor has a synchronous speed of 1800 rpm. If the slip is 5%, what is the rotor speed?

  1. ((a))

    1800 rpm

  2. ((b))

    1890 rpm

  3. ((c))

    1710 rpm

  4. ((d))

    90 rpm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1800 rpm

116

What is the term for the speed of the magnetic field rotating in the stator of an AC machine?

  1. ((a))

    Rotor speed

  2. ((b))

    Synchronous speed

  3. ((c))

    Torque speed

  4. ((d))

    Slip speed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rotor speed

117

In a three-phase synchronous generator, what is the purpose of the prime mover?

  1. ((a))

    To create the three-phase magnetic field in the stator

  2. ((b))

    To supply DC power to the rotor windings

  3. ((c))

    To rotate the DC-excited rotor

  4. ((d))

    To regulate the output voltage and frequency

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To create the three-phase magnetic field in the stator

118

What instrument is used to measure the potential difference between two points in an electric circuit?

  1. ((a))

    Voltmeter

  2. ((b))

    Wattmeter

  3. ((c))

    Ohmmeter

  4. ((d))

    Ammeter

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Voltmeter

119

How should a voltmeter be connected to a circuit component to measure the voltage across it?

  1. ((a))

    In series with the component

  2. ((b))

    In a star configuration

  3. ((c))

    In parallel with the component

  4. ((d))

    In a delta configuration

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

In series with the component

120

How should an ammeter be connected to a circuit component to measure the current flowing through it?

  1. ((a))

    In a star configuration

  2. ((b))

    In parallel with the component

  3. ((c))

    In series with the component

  4. ((d))

    In a delta configuration

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

In a star configuration

121

An ammeter with an internal resistance of 0.2 Ω0.2~\Omega measures a current of \(1.5A\) in a circuit. If the circuit’s total resistance is known to be \(10\Omega\) (including the ammeter), what is the true current that would flow if the ammeter were ideal (zero resistance)?

  1. ((a))
    1. 92 A
  2. ((b))
    1. 62 A
  3. ((c))
    1. 46 A
  4. ((d))
    1. 53 A
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 92 A
122

A galvanometer with a resistance of 100 Ω\Omega and a full-scale current of 1 mA is connected to a shunt resistor of 0. 01 Ω\Omega. What is the ammeter’s full-scale range?

  1. ((a))

    100 A

  2. ((b))

    1 A

  3. ((c))
    1. 1 A
  4. ((d))

    10 A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

100 A

123

A synchronous motor can be used to improve a lagging power factor when it is:

  1. ((a))

    Under-excited

  2. ((b))

    Over-excited

  3. ((c))

    Running at low speed

  4. ((d))

    Operating at its rated power

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Under-excited

124

A load has an impedance of 25Ω25\Omega and a resistance of 20Ω20\Omega. What is the power factor of the load?

  1. ((a))
    1. 25
  2. ((b))
    1. 6
  3. ((c))
    1. 8
  4. ((d))

    1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 25
125

A single-phase load draws a current of 50 A from a 220 V, 60 Hz supply at a power factor of 0. 7 lagging. What is the capacitance (in μF\mu F) of a parallel capacitor required to improve the power factor to 0. 9 lagging?

  1. ((a))

    315 μF\mu F

  2. ((b))

    226 μF\mu F

  3. ((c))

    284 μF\mu F

  4. ((d))

    150 μF\mu F

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

315 μF\mu F

126

A star-connected capacitor bank is used to improve the power factor of a load. The capacitance per phase is 100μF100 \mu F. If the supply is 400V,50Hz400 V, 50 Hz, what is the total reactive power (in kVAR) supplied by the bank?

  1. ((a))

    75 kVAR

  2. ((b))

    50 kVAR

  3. ((c))

    5 kVAR

  4. ((d))

    100 kVAR

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

75 kVAR

127

In a Delta (Δ\Delta) connection, what is the phase difference between the line voltage and the phase voltage?

  1. ((a))

    30∘^\circ

  2. ((b))

    120∘^\circ

  3. ((c))

    60∘^\circ

  4. ((d))

    0∘^\circ

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30∘^\circ

128

Which of the following statements is true regarding a balanced three-phase Delta (Δ\Delta) connection?

  1. ((a))

    The phase current is equal to the line current.

  2. ((b))

    The line current is 3\sqrt{3} times the phase current.

  3. ((c))

    The neutral current is zero.

  4. ((d))

    The line voltage is 3\sqrt{3} times the phase voltage.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The phase current is equal to the line current.

129

A 10extkW10 ext{kW}, 400extV400 ext{V}, 3ext−phase3 ext{-phase} induction motor is started using a Star-Delta starter. The motor’s full-load current is 18extA18 ext{A}. The DOL starting current is 55 times the full-load current. What is the starting current drawn from the supply in amperes when the motor is started in star mode?

  1. ((a))

    60extA60 ext{A}

  2. ((b))

    30extA30 ext{A}

  3. ((c))

    18extA18 ext{A}

  4. ((d))

    90extA90 ext{A}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

60extA60 ext{A}

130

A 400VV distribution system has a transformer with a short-circuit impedance of 55%. The transformer rating is 1000kVAkVA. What is the short-circuit current at the transformer’s low voltage terminals in kiloamperes?

  1. ((a))
    1. 95 kAkA
  2. ((b))
    1. 87 kAkA
  3. ((c))
    1. 56 kAkA
  4. ((d))
    1. 73 kAkA
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 95 kAkA
131

What is the key component used to detect the ’balanced’ state of a Wheatstone bridge?

  1. ((a))

    A voltmeter

  2. ((b))

    A battery

  3. ((c))

    An ammeter

  4. ((d))

    A galvanometer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A voltmeter

132

In a common electromechanical energy meter, which component rotates at a speed proportional to the power being consumed?

  1. ((a))

    A braking magnet

  2. ((b))

    A current coil

  3. ((c))

    A voltage coil

  4. ((d))

    An aluminum disc

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A braking magnet

133

What is a common safety precaution to take when using a Megger?

  1. ((a))

    Use the highest voltage setting possible.

  2. ((b))

    Ensure no one is in contact with the conductors being tested

  3. ((c))

    Wear metal gloves.

  4. ((d))

    Stand on a metal ladder

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Use the highest voltage setting possible.

134

Which protection scheme is generally used for the main protection of a generator?

  1. ((a))

    Overcurrent protection

  2. ((b))

    Differential protection

  3. ((c))

    Under-frequency protection

  4. ((d))

    Over-voltage protection

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Overcurrent protection

135

A 20 MVA, 11 kV generator is protected by a percentage differential relay. The CT ratio is 10005\frac{1000}{5}. The relay has a pickup current of 0. 2 A. The generator is operating at 80% of its rated current. What is the minimum internal fault current in A that will operate the relay, assuming no restraint?

  1. ((a))

    150 A

  2. ((b))

    20 A

  3. ((c))

    100 A

  4. ((d))

    40 A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

150 A

136

What is the standard characteristic impedance of a coaxial cable used for television and cable internet?

  1. ((a))

    100 Ω\Omega

  2. ((b))

    50 Ω\Omega

  3. ((c))

    300 Ω\Omega

  4. ((d))

    75 Ω\Omega

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

100 Ω\Omega

137

If a coaxial cable has an attenuation of 6 dB/100m6 \text{ dB/100m}, what is the signal loss over a 200 meter200 \text{ meter} length of this cable?

  1. ((a))

    2 dB2 \text{ dB}

  2. ((b))

    12 dB12 \text{ dB}

  3. ((c))

    3 dB3 \text{ dB}

  4. ((d))

    6 dB6 \text{ dB}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2 dB2 \text{ dB}

138

A servomotor is primarily used for:

  1. ((a))

    Uncontrolled, variable speed operation

  2. ((b))

    Generating large amounts of power

  3. ((c))

    Continuous high-speed rotation

  4. ((d))

    Closed-loop feedback control of position and speed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Uncontrolled, variable speed operation

139

What is the typical power range for a fractional horsepower motor?

  1. ((a))

    Greater than 1 horsepower

  2. ((b))

    Less than 10 horsepower

  3. ((c))

    Less than 1 horsepower

  4. ((d))

    Between 1 and 5 horsepower

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Greater than 1 horsepower

140

Which of the following is analogous to resistance in a magnetic circuit?

  1. ((a))

    Magnetic Flux (Φ\Phi)

  2. ((b))

    Permeability (μ\mu)

  3. ((c))

    Reluctance (R)

  4. ((d))

    Magnetomotive Force (MMF)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Magnetic Flux (Φ\Phi)

141

The permeability of a material is the product of:

  1. ((a))

    Magnetic flux density and magnetic field intensity

  2. ((b))

    Permeability of free space and relative permeability

  3. ((c))

    Magnetic flux and area

  4. ((d))

    Relative permeability and magnetic field intensity

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Magnetic flux density and magnetic field intensity

142

An air gap in a magnetic circuit will:

  1. ((a))

    Decrease the total reluctance of the circuit

  2. ((b))

    Decrease the MMF required to produce a given flux

  3. ((c))

    Increase the fringing effect

  4. ((d))

    Increase the magnetic flux density

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Decrease the total reluctance of the circuit

143

An inductor with an inductance of 500mH and a resistance of 25Ω\Omega is connected to a DC voltage source. What is the time constant (τ\tau) of the circuit?

  1. ((a))
    1. 5s
  2. ((b))

    2s

  3. ((c))

    20s

  4. ((d))
    1. 02s
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 5s
144

An inductor with an inductance of 10H10H has a current of 5A5A flowing through it. If the current is decreased to 2A2A in 0.1s0.1s, what is the average induced EMF in the inductor?

  1. ((a))

    250V

  2. ((b))

    75V

  3. ((c))

    150V

  4. ((d))

    300V

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

250V

145

Thevenin’s and Norton’s theorems are applicable only to which type of circuits?

  1. ((a))

    Linear, bilateral circuits

  2. ((b))

    Circuits with only dependent sources

  3. ((c))

    Nonlinear circuits

  4. ((d))

    Linear circuits

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Linear, bilateral circuits

146

A circuit has a Thevenin equivalent voltage of 10V10 V and a Thevenin equivalent resistance of 2Ω2\Omega. If a load of 3Ω3\Omega is connected, what is the current flowing through the load?

  1. ((a))

    5 A

  2. ((b))

    2 A

  3. ((c))

    7 A

  4. ((d))

    10 A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5 A

147

What is the average value of a symmetrical sinusoidal waveform over one complete cycle?

  1. ((a))

    Vpeakπ\frac{V_{peak}}{\pi}

  2. ((b))

    Zero

  3. ((c))

    Vpeak2\frac{V_{peak}}{\sqrt{2}}

  4. ((d))

    VpeakV_{peak}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vpeakπ\frac{V_{peak}}{\pi}

148

In a series RLC circuit, what happens to the inductive reactance (XLX_L) And capacitive reactance (XCX_C) As the frequency increases?

  1. ((a))

    XLX_L decreases and XCX_C increases

  2. ((b))

    XLX_L increases and XCX_C decreases

  3. ((c))

    Both XLX_L and XCX_C decreases

  4. ((d))

    Both XLX_L and XCX_C increases

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

XLX_L decreases and XCX_C increases

149

A balanced three-phase motor draws 50 A from a 415 V line. The power factor of the motor is 0. 8 lagging. What is the total reactive power drawn by the motor?

  1. ((a))
    1. 8 kVAR
  2. ((b))
    1. 6 kVAR
  3. ((c))

    36 kVAR

  4. ((d))
    1. 7 kVAR
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 8 kVAR
150

An alternating current has a waveform such that it has a value of ImI_m for a duration of T4\frac{T}{4} and zero for a duration of of 3T4\frac{3T}{4} a full cycle. What is the r.m.s. value of this waveform?

  1. ((a))

    Im3\frac{I_m}{\sqrt{3}}

  2. ((b))

    Im2\frac{I_m}{\sqrt{2}}

  3. ((c))

    Im2\frac{I_m}{2}

  4. ((d))

    0.25 Im0.25 \ I_m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Im3\frac{I_m}{\sqrt{3}}

151

How does the Q-factor of a series RLC circuit relate to the circuit’s bandwidth and selectivity?

  1. ((a))

    A higher Q-factor results in a wider bandwidth and higher selectivity

  2. ((b))

    A higher Q-factor results in a narrower bandwidth and lower selectivity

  3. ((c))

    A higher Q-factor results in a narrower bandwidth and higher selectivity

  4. ((d))

    A higher Q-factor results in a wider bandwidth and lower selectivity

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A higher Q-factor results in a wider bandwidth and higher selectivity

152

A parallel RLC circuit has a resistance of 20Ω20 \Omega, an inductive reactance of 100Ω100 \Omega, and a capacitive reactance of 100Ω100 \Omega. What is the total impedance of the circuit?

  1. ((a))

    0 Ω\Omega

  2. ((b))

    20 Ω\Omega

  3. ((c))

    140 Ω\Omega

  4. ((d))

    10 Ω\Omega

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0 Ω\Omega

153

A full-wave rectified sine wave has a peak value of 100 v. What is its average value?

  1. ((a))
    1. 66 V
  2. ((b))
    1. 7 V
  3. ((c))
    1. 24 V
  4. ((d))
    1. 47 V
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 66 V
154

An electroplating tank containing a zinc sulfate solution is used to deposit a 5μm5 \mu m thick layer of zinc on a metallic component with a surface area of 0.1m20.1 m^2. If the process takes 20minutes20 minutes, what is the current required? The density of zinc is 7140kg/m37140 kg/m^3, and the electrochemical equivalent of zinc is 0.338mg/C0.338 mg/C.

  1. ((a))
    1. 6 A
  2. ((b))
    1. 8 A
  3. ((c))
    1. 5 A
  4. ((d))
    1. 7 A
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 6 A
155

An electric train with a mass of 100 tons is to accelerate from 20 km/h to 60 km/h in 20 seconds. If the train resistance is a constant 12 N/ton, what is the average tractive effort required during this period?

  1. ((a))
    1. 2 kN
  2. ((b))
    1. 5 kN
  3. ((c))
    1. 8 kN
  4. ((d))
    1. 4 kN
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 2 kN
156

A three-phase transformer has a rating of 200200 kVA. The line voltages are 6.66.6 kV on the primary and 400400 V on the secondary. If the transformer is delta-connected on both sides, what is the phase current on the primary side?

  1. ((a))

    5.85.8 A

  2. ((b))

    10.110.1 A

  3. ((c))

    17.517.5 A

  4. ((d))

    30.330.3 A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5.85.8 A

157

An ideal 50 kVA transformer has a voltage ratio of 1000200\frac{1000}{200} V. If the secondary winding has a load of 200 A, what is the current in the primary winding?

  1. ((a))

    40 A

  2. ((b))

    50 A

  3. ((c))

    100 A

  4. ((d))

    200 A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

40 A

158

A 25 kVA, 2200/220 V, 50 Hz transformer has an efficiency of 98% at full load and 0. 8 power factor. The maximum efficiency occurs at 75% of the full load. What is the core loss of the transformer?

  1. ((a))
    1. 9 W
  2. ((b))
    1. 2 W
  3. ((c))
    1. 5 W
  4. ((d))
    1. 4 W
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 9 W
159

A 240 V d.c. shunt motor has a back EMF of 220 V. The armature resistance is 0. 5 Ω\Omega. What is the armature current?

  1. ((a))

    20 A

  2. ((b))

    40 A

  3. ((c))

    30 A

  4. ((d))

    50 A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20 A

160

A 220 V d.c. shunt motor has a back EMF of 200 V and a line current of 25 A. The field resistance is 100 Ω\Omega. What is the armature resistance?

  1. ((a))
    1. 42 Ω\Omega
  2. ((b))
    1. 88 Ω\Omega
  3. ((c))
    1. 25 Ω\Omega
  4. ((d))
    1. 5 Ω\Omega
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 42 Ω\Omega
161

A 4-pole, 500 V d.c. series generator with a wave-wound armature has 500 conductors. The armature and field resistances are 0. 1 Ω\Omega and 0. 2 Ω\Omega respectively. If the machine runs at 1200 rpm and delivers a full-load current of 60 A, what is the flux per pole? Assume the generator voltage is the same as the terminal voltage.

  1. ((a))
    1. 0259 Wb
  2. ((b))
    1. 0125 Wb
  3. ((c))
    1. 045 Wb
  4. ((d))
    1. 035 Wb
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 0259 Wb
162

A 3-phase, 6-pole, 50 Hz induction motor runs at a slip of 2%. What is its rotor speed?

  1. ((a))

    220 rpm

  2. ((b))

    480 rpm

  3. ((c))

    560 rpm

  4. ((d))

    980 rpm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

220 rpm

163

A 3-phase induction motor is running with a slip of 0. 03. If the synchronous speed is 1000 rpm, what is the rotor speed?

  1. ((a))

    900 rpm

  2. ((b))

    920 rpm

  3. ((c))

    940 rpm

  4. ((d))

    970 rpm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

900 rpm

164

A 3-phase, 6-pole, 50 Hz induction motor has a rotor standstill resistance of 0.2,Ω0.2 , \Omega per phase and a rotor standstill reactance of 1.0,Ω1.0 , \Omega per phase. What is the rotor power factor at a speed of 950 RPM?

  1. ((a))
    1. 196
  2. ((b))
    1. 468
  3. ((c))
    1. 852
  4. ((d))
    1. 9701
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 196
165

A 3-phase, 6-pole, 50 Hz alternator is synchronized to a busbar. What is its synchronous speed in rpm?

  1. ((a))

    500 rpm

  2. ((b))

    750 rpm

  3. ((c))

    1000 rpm

  4. ((d))

    1500 rpm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

500 rpm

166

A permanent magnet DC servomotor is rated for a continuous torque of 1. 5 N⋅\cdotm at 3000 RPM. If the motor efficiency is 85% at this operating point, what is the power input to the motor in watts?

  1. ((a))

    471 W

  2. ((b))

    554 W

  3. ((c))

    558 W

  4. ((d))

    875 W

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

471 W

167

A magnetic circuit consists of a core with a mean path length of 50 cm, a cross-sectional area of 10 cm2cm^2, and a relative permeability of 2500. A coil with 500 turns is wound around the core. What is the required current to generate a flux of 1. 5 ×10−3\times 10^{-3} Wb in the core?

  1. ((a))
    1. 159 A
  2. ((b))
    1. 239 A
  3. ((c))
    1. 477 A
  4. ((d))
    1. 954 A
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 159 A
168

An industrial plant’s total load is 250 kVA at a power factor of 0. 7 lagging. If a 100 kVAR capacitor bank is installed, what is the new overall power factor of the plant?

  1. ((a))
    1. 239
  2. ((b))
    1. 517
  3. ((c))
    1. 724
  4. ((d))
    1. 913
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 239
169

A room of dimensions 12 m ×\times 10 m is to be illuminated to an average illuminance of 200 lux. The lamps have a luminous efficacy of 15 lm/W. If the utilization factor is 0. 6 and the depreciation factor is 0. 75, what is the total wattage of the lamps required?

  1. ((a))

    3200 W

  2. ((b))

    3556 W

  3. ((c))

    4575 W

  4. ((d))

    2490 W

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3200 W

170

A Class-A power amplifier has a quiescent point at VCEQV_{CEQ} =10 V and ICQI_{CQ} =250 mA. What is the maximum possible AC power output from the amplifier, assuming an ideal circuit and a sinusoidal signal?

  1. ((a))
    1. 25 w
  2. ((b))
    1. 75 w
  3. ((c))
    1. 45 w
  4. ((d))
    1. 95 w
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 25 w
171

A three-phase circuit breaker has a rated breaking capacity of 40 kA40 \text{ kA} at 33 kV33 \text{ kV}. What is the symmetrical three-phase short-circuit MVA that the breaker can interrupt?

  1. ((a))
    1. 3 MVA
  2. ((b))
    1. 5 MVA
  3. ((c))
    1. 4 MVA
  4. ((d))
    1. 7 MVA
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 3 MVA
172

A MOSFET has a threshold voltage, VthV_{th} of 1.5V1.5 V. If the gate-to-source voltage VGSV_{GS}, is 4V4 V and the drain current is 5mA5 mA, what is the transconductance (gmg_m) of the transistor?

  1. ((a))

    2 mSmS

  2. ((b))

    3 mSmS

  3. ((c))

    4 mSmS

  4. ((d))

    5 mSmS

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2 mSmS

173

A capacitor filter is used with a full-wave rectifier. The load current is 1 A, and the ripple voltage is 1 V (peak-to-peak). The input frequency is 60 Hz. What is the value of the filter capacitor?

  1. ((a))

    2333 μ\muF

  2. ((b))

    4555 μ\muF

  3. ((c))

    6444 μ\muF

  4. ((d))

    8333 μ\muF

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2333 μ\muF

174

An ideal half-wave rectifier is supplied with a sinusoidal voltage of 10V(rms)10 V (rms). If a capacitor filter is added to the circuit, what is the maximum ripple voltage (peak-to-peak) for a load current of 100mA100 mA and a capacitance of 1000μF1000 \mu F? The supply frequency is 50Hz50 Hz.

  1. ((a))

    2.0V2.0 V

  2. ((b))

    4.0V4.0 V

  3. ((c))

    6.0V6.0 V

  4. ((d))

    8.0V8.0 V

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2.0V2.0 V

175

A voltage doubler circuit uses two capacitors of 100μF100 \mu F each and is supplied by a 10V(rms)10 V (rms) AC source at 50Hz50 Hz. What is the approximate DC output voltage?

  1. ((a))
    1. 14 V
  2. ((b))
    1. 28 V
  3. ((c))
    1. 94 V
  4. ((d))
    1. 24 V
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 14 V
176

A hydroelectric power station is most suitable for:

  1. ((a))

    Base loads

  2. ((b))

    Intermittent loads

  3. ((c))

    Continuous loads

  4. ((d))

    Peak loads

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Base loads

177

A factory has a load of 150 kW at a power factor of 0. 6 lagging. A capacitor is installed to improve the power factor to 0. 9 lagging. What is the required reactive power of the capacitor in kVAR?

  1. ((a))
    1. 4 kVAR
  2. ((b))
    1. 6 kVAR
  3. ((c))
    1. 8 kVAR
  4. ((d))
    1. 1 kVAR
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 4 kVAR
178

A grounding grid for a substation is 30m times 30m with 5 conductors in each direction. What is the total length of the grid conductors (Lc)?

  1. ((a))

    100 m

  2. ((b))

    200 m

  3. ((c))

    300 m

  4. ((d))

    400 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

100 m

179

What is the primary cause of the Ferranti effect?

  1. ((a))

    Line inductance

  2. ((b))

    Short circuit current

  3. ((c))

    Line capacitance

  4. ((d))

    Line resistance

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Line inductance

180

The skin effect in AC transmission lines is caused by:

  1. ((a))

    The magnetic field produced by the AC current

  2. ((b))

    The resistance of the conductor material

  3. ((c))

    The distributed capacitance of the line

  4. ((d))

    The high voltage of the line

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The magnetic field produced by the AC current

181

The skin effect in AC transmission lines is caused by:

  1. ((a))

    The magnetic field produced by the AC current

  2. ((b))

    The resistance of the conductor material

  3. ((c))

    The distributed capacitance of the line

  4. ((d))

    The high voltage of the line

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The magnetic field produced by the AC current

182

A 33 kV transmission line is operating at a constant voltage. The critical disruptive voltage for Corona is 21. 1 kV. What is the voltage factor, k=VVc\frac{V}{Vc} ?

  1. ((a))
    1. 64
  2. ((b))
    1. 56
  3. ((c))
    1. 94
  4. ((d))
    1. 81
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 64
183

A 200 km long transmission line has a surge impedance of 400Ω400\Omega. What is the total characteristic impedance of the line?

  1. ((a))

    200Ω200\Omega

  2. ((b))

    400Ω400\Omega

  3. ((c))

    600Ω600\Omega

  4. ((d))

    800Ω800\Omega

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

200Ω200\Omega

184

How does increasing the outer conductor diameter (D) of a coaxial cable affect its characteristic impedance, assuming the inner diameter and dielectric constant remain constant?

  1. ((a))

    It decreases

  2. ((b))

    It remains constant

  3. ((c))

    It increases

  4. ((d))

    It is not affected by the diameter

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It decreases

185

A galvanometer has a resistance of 50 Ω\Omega and requires a current of 2 mA for full-scale deflection. What is the series resistance needed to convert it into a voltmeter of range 10 V?

  1. ((a))

    2840 Ω\Omega

  2. ((b))

    4950 Ω\Omega

  3. ((c))

    6720 Ω\Omega

  4. ((d))

    8930 Ω\Omega

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2840 Ω\Omega

186

A Megger indicates a resistance of 50 MΩ\Omega when testing a cable at 1000 V. What is the leakage current?

  1. ((a))

    20 μ\muA

  2. ((b))

    40 μ\muA

  3. ((c))

    60 μ\muA

  4. ((d))

    80 μ\muA

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20 μ\muA

187

The correct expression for the sensitivity of a PMMC type instrument is:

  1. ((a))

    Rm+RsV\frac{R_m + R_s}{V}

  2. ((b))

    Rm×RsV\frac{R_m \times R_s}{V}

  3. ((c))

    Rm+RsV2\frac{R_m + R_s}{V^2}

  4. ((d))

    Rm×RsV2\frac{R_m \times R_s}{V^2}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rm+RsV\frac{R_m + R_s}{V}

188

Provisions applicable to medium, high or extra-high voltage installations have been discussed in:

  1. ((a))

    IE rule 50

  2. ((b))

    IE rule 54

  3. ((c))

    IE rule 51

  4. ((d))

    IE rule 55

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

IE rule 50

189

Which IE rule deals with the cables protected by bituminous materials?

  1. ((a))

    IE rule 39

  2. ((b))

    IE rule 30

  3. ((c))

    IE rule 33

  4. ((d))

    IE rule 73

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

IE rule 39

190

Formulate a solution for a network using Thevenin’s Theorem where two resistors 6Ω6\Omega and 3Ω3\Omega are in series with a 9V9V battery, and a 3Ω3\Omega load is connected across terminals. Find the load current.

  1. ((a))
    1. 5 A
  2. ((b))
    1. 75 A
  3. ((c))

    1 A

  4. ((d))
    1. 5 A
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 5 A
191

Name the law which states that the total current entering a node in an electrical circuit is equal to the total current leaving that node.

  1. ((a))

    Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law

  2. ((b))

    Ohm’s Law

  3. ((c))

    Kirchhoff’s Current Law

  4. ((d))

    Faraday’s Law

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law

192

Which theorem provides a method to find the equivalent current source of any linear circuit?

  1. ((a))

    Thevenin’s

  2. ((b))

    Norton’s

  3. ((c))

    Superposition

  4. ((d))

    Millman’s

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Thevenin’s

193

The main function of a circuit breaker is to:

  1. ((a))

    Carry current only

  2. ((b))

    Break the circuit under fault conditions

  3. ((c))

    Increase circuit current

  4. ((d))

    Reduce supply voltage

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Carry current only

194

Arc is produced in a circuit breaker because:

  1. ((a))

    Current stops instantly

  2. ((b))

    Contacts separate while carrying current

  3. ((c))

    Circuit is open before current zero

  4. ((d))

    Supply voltage is too low

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Current stops instantly

195

Determine why a double earthing system is used in substations.

  1. ((a))

    To increase voltage

  2. ((b))

    To reduce resistance

  3. ((c))

    To improve aesthetics

  4. ((d))

    To reduce fault current

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To increase voltage

196

The ratio of average demand to maximum demand is called:

  1. ((a))

    Load factor

  2. ((b))

    Capacity factor

  3. ((c))

    Diversity factor

  4. ((d))

    Demand factor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Load factor

197

The Ferranti effect is more pronounced when:

  1. ((a))

    Line length increases

  2. ((b))

    Line load increases

  3. ((c))

    Voltage decreases

  4. ((d))

    Power factor increases

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Line length increases

198

A servomotor receives a position feedback signal. This is used to:

  1. ((a))

    Increase voltage

  2. ((b))

    Correct the error between actual and desired position

  3. ((c))

    Change supply frequency

  4. ((d))

    Reduce field current

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increase voltage

199

Which turbine is most suitable for high-head hydro plants?

  1. ((a))

    Kaplan

  2. ((b))

    Francis

  3. ((c))

    Pelton

  4. ((d))

    Cross-flow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kaplan

200

If the friction in a rotating disc-type energy meter increases, the error causes:

  1. ((a))

    Over-reading

  2. ((b))

    Under-reading

  3. ((c))

    No reading change

  4. ((d))

    Random fluctuations

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Over-reading

Attempt this paper under real exam conditions

Timed interface, section switching, instant scoring, and question-by-question analytics — free.

Start Timed Attempt