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SSC JE (Electrical Engineering) Official Paper (Held On: 04 Dec, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

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General Intelligence and Reasoning (50 questions)

1

In the following, four roll numbers or centre codes are given. Three share a common pattern or belong to one group, but one is different. Select the odd one out.

220112, 240213, 220406, 220519

  1. ((a))

    220112

  2. ((b))

    240213

  3. ((c))

    220406

  4. ((d))

    220519

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

220112

2

In the following, four roll numbers or centre codes are given. Three share a common pattern or belong to one group, but one is different. Select the odd one out.

540205, 540908, 551214, 540603

  1. ((a))

    540205

  2. ((b))

    540908

  3. ((c))

    551214

  4. ((d))

    540603

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

540205

3

Complete the analogy.

G : K :: M : ?

  1. ((a))

    O

  2. ((b))

    R

  3. ((c))

    P

  4. ((d))

    Q

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

O

4

Complete the analogy.

QRS : NOP :: DEF : ?

  1. ((a))

    BKL

  2. ((b))

    ABC

  3. ((c))

    BCD

  4. ((d))

    IJK

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

BKL

5

Complete the analogy.

FJNR : LPSX :: EHQS : ?

  1. ((a))

    KNUY

  2. ((b))

    KOWY

  3. ((c))

    KNVY

  4. ((d))

    KORY

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

KNUY

6

Find the missing term in the series: M, K, I, G, ?

  1. ((a))

    F

  2. ((b))

    H

  3. ((c))

    E

  4. ((d))

    J

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

F

7

Find the missing term in the series:

E, J, O, T, ?

  1. ((a))

    V

  2. ((b))

    W

  3. ((c))

    X

  4. ((d))

    Y

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

V

8

Find the missing number in the series:

100, 90, 80, 70, ?

  1. ((a))

    60

  2. ((b))

    65

  3. ((c))

    75

  4. ((d))

    50

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

60

9

Find the missing number in the series:

2, 3, 5, 8, 13, ?

  1. ((a))

    18

  2. ((b))

    25

  3. ((c))

    23

  4. ((d))

    21

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

18

10

Find the missing number in the series:

2, 6, 15, 31,  ?

  1. ((a))

    50

  2. ((b))

    54

  3. ((c))

    56

  4. ((d))

    58

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50

11

Complete the analogy.

Marathon : Race :: Hibernation : ?

  1. ((a))

    Sleeping

  2. ((b))

    Running

  3. ((c))

    Dream

  4. ((d))

    Inactivity

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sleeping

12

Complete the analogy.

Photosynthesis : Chlorophyll :: Hearing : ?

  1. ((a))

    Bone

  2. ((b))

    Cochlea

  3. ((c))

    Voice

  4. ((d))

    Eardrum

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bone

13

Find the odd one out in the given semantic series based on the pattern identified.

Uncle, Sister, Aunt, Cousin

  1. ((a))

    Uncle

  2. ((b))

    Sister

  3. ((c))

    Aunt

  4. ((d))

    Cousin

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Uncle

14

Four people, M, N, O, and P, live on floors 1-4. M is just above N; O is just below P; N is not on floor 1.

Who lives on floor 3?

  1. ((a))

    N

  2. ((b))

    M

  3. ((c))

    O

  4. ((d))

    P

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

N

15

In a certain code, CREATE is written as DQFZUD.

How is SCHOOL coded?

  1. ((a))

    TIDPMM

  2. ((b))

    TBINPK

  3. ((c))

    TIDPLL

  4. ((d))

    TIDPML

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

TIDPMM

16

If PENCIL is coded as QDOBJK, then how is ERASER coded?

  1. ((a))

    FQBQFQ

  2. ((b))

    FQBQFR

  3. ((c))

    FQBRFQ

  4. ((d))

    FQBQEQ

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

FQBQFQ

17

A sudden spike in hospital visits for food poisoning is reported.

What could be the probable cause?

  1. ((a))

    A major festival with food stalls was recently held

  2. ((b))

    People have started cooking at home more

  3. ((c))

    Restaurants reduced their menu prices

  4. ((d))

    Demand for salads has decreased

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A major festival with food stalls was recently held

18

Four people - T, A, L, and M - visited a city in August on 2, 9, 16, and 23. A did not go at the earliest or latest. M travelled immediately before L. L did not go on the 23rd.

Which person travelled on the 9th?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    L

  3. ((c))

    T

  4. ((d))

    M

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

19

Four students - Nisha, Pratap, Ria, and Simran - travelled to four science labs on June 5th, 10th, 15th, and 20th. Simran went just before Ria. Pratap after Nisha. Simran did not go on the 10th or 15th.

Who went on the 10th?

  1. ((a))

    Simran

  2. ((b))

    Ria

  3. ((c))

    Nisha

  4. ((d))

    Pratap

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Simran

20

A teammate’s idea is not selected.

What’s the best thing to say?

  1. ((a))

    "Your idea was useless"

  2. ((b))

    "It was good, maybe next time"

  3. ((c))

    "Mine was better"

  4. ((d))

    Ignore them

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

"Your idea was useless"

21

During a team task, two members frequently disagree and meetings become unproductive.

What high emotional intelligence approach enhances team function?

  1. ((a))

    Alternate leadership roles and set ground rules for communication

  2. ((b))

    Ignore disagreements and focus on deliverables

  3. ((c))

    Assign one member an extra workload

  4. ((d))

    Remove both members from future meetings

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Alternate leadership roles and set ground rules for communication

22

Arrange as in a dictionary and select the word that comes first:

TABLE, TAB, TABBY, TACKLE

  1. ((a))

    TAB

  2. ((b))

    TABBY

  3. ((c))

    TABLE

  4. ((d))

    TACKLE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

TAB

23

Find the word first in the dictionary:

STONE, STONY, STOP, STORK

  1. ((a))

    STONE

  2. ((b))

    STONY

  3. ((c))

    STOP

  4. ((d))

    STORK

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

STONE

24

Which number will replace the question mark?

4, 9, 19, 39, ?

  1. ((a))

    49

  2. ((b))

    59

  3. ((c))

    69

  4. ((d))

    79

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

49

25

Find the next number: 7, 14, 28, 56, ?

  1. ((a))

    84

  2. ((b))

    100

  3. ((c))

    112

  4. ((d))

    128

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

84

26

A trader marks his goods at 4040% above cost and gives a discount of 1010%.

His profit percent is:

  1. ((a))

    26%

  2. ((b))

    27%

  3. ((c))

    28%

  4. ((d))

    30%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

26%

27

If you forget someone’s name in conversation, the best recovery is:

  1. ((a))

    Avoid using their name

  2. ((b))

    End the conversation quickly

  3. ((c))

    Guess the name

  4. ((d))

    Politely ask them to repeat it

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Avoid using their name

28

Rearrange T E N A N C E into an English word.

  1. ((a))

    CANTEEN

  2. ((b))

    ENACTNE

  3. ((c))

    ANNCEET

  4. ((d))

    NACTENE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CANTEEN

29

Rearrange the letters O M E R D A into a valid English word.

  1. ((a))

    MOARED

  2. ((b))

    ROAMED

  3. ((c))

    DEMARO

  4. ((d))

    DOREAM

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

MOARED

30

You’re leading a team and a member makes repeated minor mistakes.

What is the best decision?

  1. ((a))

    Report to HR at once

  2. ((b))

    Ignore mistakes

  3. ((c))

    Offer guidance and training

  4. ((d))

    Remove them from the project

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Report to HR at once

31

You are overburdened with tasks and deadlines are approaching.

What should you do first?

  1. ((a))

    Work overtime regularly

  2. ((b))

    Take sick leave

  3. ((c))

    Refuse all new tasks

  4. ((d))

    Delegate or prioritise tasks as per urgency

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Work overtime regularly

32

A school has more boys than girls, but the number of teachers teaching boys is fewer.

What can be inferred?

  1. ((a))

    Boys get less attention

  2. ((b))

    Girls get equal attention

  3. ((c))

    Number of girls is less

  4. ((d))

    Teachers prefer girls

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Boys get less attention

33

A company’s revenue grew 2020% this year, but the cost of raw materials rose by 3535%, and total expenses rose by 2525%. Last year’s profit margin was 1515%.

Which inference is most valid?

  1. ((a))

    Company broke even

  2. ((b))

    Profit margins stayed the same

  3. ((c))

    Profit margins improved

  4. ((d))

    Profit margins declined

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Company broke even

34

A project was completed before the deadline, but the quality audit found many defects.

What is the best managerial judgement?

  1. ((a))

    Team is highly efficient

  2. ((b))

    Audit criteria were unfair

  3. ((c))

    Project scope was small

  4. ((d))

    Team focused on speed over quality

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Team is highly efficient

35

Evaluate {144÷\div12-6}×\times(54÷\div9+3).

  1. ((a))

    72

  2. ((b))

    60

  3. ((c))

    54

  4. ((d))

    66

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

72

36

Evaluate (80÷5−8)×(12−7)(80 \div 5 - 8) \times (12 - 7).

  1. ((a))

    32

  2. ((b))

    40

  3. ((c))

    25

  4. ((d))

    35

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

32

37

If # = subtraction, =division,@=multiplication,and = division, @ = multiplication, and % = addition, then what is 50 # 20 5 @ 4 % 6?

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    30

  3. ((c))

    40

  4. ((d))

    35

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20

38

A machine costs ₹250000 and depreciates 12% every year. What is its value after 3 years?

  1. ((a))

    170368

  2. ((b))

    172064

  3. ((c))

    180000

  4. ((d))

    175500

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

170368

39

The population of a city increased by 5% annually for 4 years, then dropped by 10% in the 5th year. If the initial population = 200,000200,000, what is the approximate population after 5 years?

  1. ((a))

    242,611

  2. ((b))

    240,000

  3. ((c))

    218,791

  4. ((d))

    243,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

242,611

40

If ’P is the father of Q’ and ’Q is the mother of R’, then how is P related to R?

  1. ((a))

    Uncle

  2. ((b))

    Grandmother

  3. ((c))

    Grandfather

  4. ((d))

    Brother

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Uncle

41

A woman says, "He is the son of my father’s only daughter".

Who is the man to the woman?

  1. ((a))

    Brother

  2. ((b))

    Son

  3. ((c))

    Nephew

  4. ((d))

    Cousin

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Brother

42

The average age of 40 students is 15 years. If the age of the teacher is included, the average becomes 16 years. Find the teacher’s age.

  1. ((a))

    54

  2. ((b))

    55

  3. ((c))

    57

  4. ((d))

    56

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

54

43

In an examination, 6060% % of students passed in Maths, 7070% % in English, and 2020% % failed in both.

Find the percentage who passed in both.

  1. ((a))

    30%

  2. ((b))

    40%

  3. ((c))

    50%

  4. ((d))

    60%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30%

44

In the following question, two statements are followed by two conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

<br>

Statements:

All cats are animals.

Some animals are wild.

<br>

Conclusions:

I. Some cats are wild.

II. All animals are cats.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

  4. ((d))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follows

45

In the following question, two statements are followed by two conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

<br>

Statements:

All trains are fast.

Some fast things are unsafe.

<br>

Conclusions:

I. Some trains are unsafe.

II. All unsafe things are trains.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follows

46

In the following question, two statements are followed by four conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read the conclusions carefully and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

<br>

Statements:

Some X are Y.

Some Y are Z.

<br>

Conclusions:

A. Some X are Z

B. All X are Z

C. No X are Z

D. Cannot say

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Only B

  3. ((c))

    Only C

  4. ((d))

    Only D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

47

In the following question, two statements are followed by four conclusions. You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read the conclusions carefully and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

<br>

Statements:

Some mountains are tall.

All tall things cause shadow.

<br>

Conclusions:

I. Some mountains cause shadow

II. All shadows are caused by mountains

III. No mountain causes shadow

IV. Some shadows are tall

  1. ((a))

    I only

  2. ((b))

    II only

  3. ((c))

    Both I and III

  4. ((d))

    Both I and IV

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I only

48

City’s crime rate dropped 1010% after community policing was introduced.

Which inference is valid?

  1. ((a))

    Police got more funds

  2. ((b))

    Citizens became more cooperative

  3. ((c))

    Criminals left the city

  4. ((d))

    Laws became stricter

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Police got more funds

49

In a public seminar, an attendee asks a long, irrelevant question.

What’s the best moderator response?

  1. ((a))

    Acknowledge and gently return to topic

  2. ((b))

    Tell them it’s irrelevant rudely

  3. ((c))

    Ignore them

  4. ((d))

    Cut them off mid-sentence

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Acknowledge and gently return to topic

50

Calculate the value of (15+24÷3)×(18÷6−1)(15+24\div3)\times(18\div6-1).

  1. ((a))

    46

  2. ((b))

    65

  3. ((c))

    50

  4. ((d))

    60

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

46

General Awareness (50 questions)

51

What is the focus of the Ease of Doing Business (EoDB) index?

  1. ((a))

    Environmental sustainability

  2. ((b))

    Social equality

  3. ((c))

    Regulatory environment for businesses

  4. ((d))

    Technological advancement

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Environmental sustainability

52

Which of the following is known as ’administered prices’?

  1. ((a))

    Prices set based on negotiation between buyers and sellers

  2. ((b))

    Prices set by market forces

  3. ((c))

    Prices set by sellers

  4. ((d))

    Prices set by the central planning authority

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Prices set based on negotiation between buyers and sellers

53

A major Ease of Doing Business (EoDB) challenge in developing countries is:

  1. ((a))

    Over-automation

  2. ((b))

    Currency appreciation

  3. ((c))

    Free trade agreements

  4. ((d))

    Lack of physical infrastructure

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Over-automation

54

What does the "L1" in Aditya-L1 refer to?

  1. ((a))

    Lagrange Point 1

  2. ((b))

    First stage of Sun

  3. ((c))

    Launch vehicle

  4. ((d))

    Light speed zone

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lagrange Point 1

55

What is the purpose of SSLV (Small Satellite Launch Vehicle)?

  1. ((a))

    Monitor black holes

  2. ((b))

    Carry large communication satellites

  3. ((c))

    Launch small satellites on demand

  4. ((d))

    Launch interplanetary missions

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Monitor black holes

56

Which of the following is an example of implicit cost?

  1. ((a))

    Wages to labourers

  2. ((b))

    Rent for the use of own land

  3. ((c))

    Raw material purchase

  4. ((d))

    Interest on borrowed money

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Wages to labourers

57

Which of the following is TRUE about the Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution?

  1. ((a))

    Fundamental Duties are justiciable rights

  2. ((b))

    Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable

  3. ((c))

    The Fundamental Duties are only applicable to non-citizens

  4. ((d))

    The Constitution provides a separate enforcement mechanism for Fundamental Duties

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fundamental Duties are justiciable rights

58

Which body has the power to amend the Constitution of India?

  1. ((a))

    The President

  2. ((b))

    The State Legislative Assemblies

  3. ((c))

    The Supreme Court

  4. ((d))

    The Parliament

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The President

59

Which of the following statements about the Parliament of India is TRUE?

  1. ((a))

    The Lok Sabha is the only house of Parliament

  2. ((b))

    The Lok Sabha is appointed by the President

  3. ((c))

    The President can dissolve the Rajya Sabha

  4. ((d))

    The Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Lok Sabha is the only house of Parliament

60

The first sultan to implement market regulations and price control was:

  1. ((a))

    Alauddin Khalji

  2. ((b))

    Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

  3. ((c))

    Muhammad Bin Tughlaq

  4. ((d))

    Firoz Shah Tughlaq

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Alauddin Khalji

61

Which Sultan of Delhi was NOT of slave origin nor associated with any slave dynasty?

  1. ((a))

    Balban

  2. ((b))

    Qutb-ud-din Aibak

  3. ((c))

    Jalaluddin Khalji

  4. ((d))

    Iltutmish

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Balban

62

Which article provides for the discretionary power of the Governor in certain legislative matters?

  1. ((a))

    Article 155

  2. ((b))

    Article 161

  3. ((c))

    Article 168

  4. ((d))

    Article 163

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 155

63

Which constitutional authority adjudicates disputes related to the distribution of revenue between the Centre and the States?

  1. ((a))

    The Attorney General

  2. ((b))

    The Supreme Court

  3. ((c))

    The President of India

  4. ((d))

    The Finance Commission

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Attorney General

64

Which Article details the power of the Governor to reserve a state bill for the President’s consideration?

  1. ((a))

    Article 199

  2. ((b))

    Article 202

  3. ((c))

    Article 201

  4. ((d))

    Article 200

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 199

65

Under which Article can the President withhold assent to a state bill and reserve it for his/her consideration?

  1. ((a))

    Article 200

  2. ((b))

    Article 199

  3. ((c))

    Article 201

  4. ((d))

    Article 202

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 200

66

The highest peak in the Himalayas is located in which country?

  1. ((a))

    Nepal

  2. ((b))

    India

  3. ((c))

    Pakistan

  4. ((d))

    Bhutan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nepal

67

Which of these countries does NOT border the Indian Ocean?

  1. ((a))

    India

  2. ((b))

    South Africa

  3. ((c))

    Australia

  4. ((d))

    China

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

India

68

When was Chabahar Port inaugurated?

  1. ((a))

    2015

  2. ((b))

    2016

  3. ((c))

    2017

  4. ((d))

    2018

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2015

69

The "Finance Commission" in India plays a crucial role in fiscal federalism. Which of the following is a primary function of the Finance Commission?

  1. ((a))

    To formulate the annual budget of the central government.

  2. ((b))

    To advise the President on the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States, and the allocation of the States’ share among themselves.

  3. ((c))

    To oversee the monetary policy and regulate the banking sector in India.

  4. ((d))

    To audit the accounts of the Union and the State governments.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To formulate the annual budget of the central government.

70

Consider the following statements regarding the "Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM)" scheme:

I. It aims to promote the use of diesel-based irrigation pumps by providing subsidies.

II. One of its components supports the installation of standalone solar agriculture pumps.

III. It encourages farmers to set up grid-connected solar power plants on their barren lands.

IV. The scheme mandates that farmers sell all the generated solar power back to the grid.

Which of the above statements accurately describe the components and objectives of the PM-KUSUM scheme?

  1. ((a))

    I and III only

  2. ((b))

    II and III only

  3. ((c))

    I, III, and IV only

  4. ((d))

    II, III, and IV only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I and III only

71

The Rajput style of architecture often included chhatris, which are:

  1. ((a))

    Pillared halls for dance performances

  2. ((b))

    Small domed pavilions used as decorative elements

  3. ((c))

    Large gateways to temples or forts

  4. ((d))

    Stepped water tanks for ritual purposes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pillared halls for dance performances

72

In which traditional architectural style are the Buddhist monasteries in Sikkim built?

  1. ((a))

    Persian

  2. ((b))

    Mughal

  3. ((c))

    Tibetan

  4. ((d))

    South Indian Dravidian

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Persian

73

Who wrote Shadow Lines, a novel that received the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1989?

  1. ((a))

    Arundhati Roy

  2. ((b))

    Amitav Ghosh

  3. ((c))

    Vikram Seth

  4. ((d))

    Upamanyu Chatterjee

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Arundhati Roy

74

Which of the following slogans became popular during the Fifth Five-Year Plan in 1974-1978?

  1. ((a))

    Jai Jawan Jai Kisan

  2. ((b))

    Make in India

  3. ((c))

    Digital India

  4. ((d))

    Garibi Hatao

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jai Jawan Jai Kisan

75

The trade policy framework before 1990 can be most accurately described as:

  1. ((a))

    Strongly focused on liberalization and export promotion

  2. ((b))

    Mainly aimed at supporting free trade agreements

  3. ((c))

    Largely influenced by market forces with minimal government interference

  4. ((d))

    Protectionist, inward-looking and characterized by high tariffs and quantitative restrictions

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Strongly focused on liberalization and export promotion

76

In the context of India’s inaugural Five-Year Plan, which foundational infrastructure initiative was accorded topmost strategic priority to establish the prerequisites for future industrial growth?

  1. ((a))

    Construction of dams and irrigation canals

  2. ((b))

    Development of integrated steel plants

  3. ((c))

    Creation of dedicated industrial corridors

  4. ((d))

    Expansion of interstate highway networks

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Construction of dams and irrigation canals

77

Which Austrian author received the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2019, sparking controversy due to his political views?

  1. ((a))

    Elfriede Jelinek

  2. ((b))

    Peter Handke

  3. ((c))

    Thomas Bernhard

  4. ((d))

    Ingeborg Bachmann

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Elfriede Jelinek

78

The Charter Act of 1813 marked a significant change in the British East India Company’s policy by:

  1. ((a))

    Granting the Company a monopoly over all trade with India.

  2. ((b))

    Ending the Company’s trade monopoly in India, except for tea and trade with China.

  3. ((c))

    Allowing the Company to directly administer all territories in India.

  4. ((d))

    Establishing the first Supreme Court in Calcutta.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Granting the Company a monopoly over all trade with India.

79

The nature of land revenue settlements introduced by the British in India had a varying impact across different regions.
Which of the following best explains a key difference between the "Permanent Settlement" and the "Mahalwari Settlement"?

  1. ((a))

    The Permanent Settlement involved periodic revision of revenue demands, while the Mahalwari Settlement fixed revenue in perpetuity.

  2. ((b))

    The Permanent Settlement established direct relationships with individual cultivators, whereas the Mahalwari Settlement involved village communities.

  3. ((c))

    The Permanent Settlement was primarily implemented in the Bombay and Madras Presidencies, while the Mahalwari system was prevalent in Bengal.

  4. ((d))

    The Permanent Settlement aimed to create a landed gentry with proprietary rights, while the Mahalwari system recognized collective ownership at the village level.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Permanent Settlement involved periodic revision of revenue demands, while the Mahalwari Settlement fixed revenue in perpetuity.

80

Which of these changes in Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), improves protection against false testimony?

  1. ((a))

    Legal presumption of falsehood for inconsistent witnesses

  2. ((b))

    Ban on hostile witnesses

  3. ((c))

    Mandatory video recording of key witness depositions

  4. ((d))

    Introduction of polygraph tests

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Legal presumption of falsehood for inconsistent witnesses

81

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, which type of evidence is newly recognized as valid?

  1. ((a))

    Dreams

  2. ((b))

    Digital and electronic records

  3. ((c))

    Oral traditions

  4. ((d))

    Hearsay statements

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dreams

82

How is the burden of proof determined in civil cases?

  1. ((a))

    Always on the plaintiff

  2. ((b))

    Always on the defendant

  3. ((c))

    On the person who asserts a fact

  4. ((d))

    On the investigating officer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Always on the plaintiff

83

As of April 2025, the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India is _____ .

  1. ((a))

    Rajiv Kumar

  2. ((b))

    Sunil Arora

  3. ((c))

    Sushil Chandra

  4. ((d))

    Gyanesh Kumar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rajiv Kumar

84

Who is the chairman of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) as, March 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Ajay Tyagi

  2. ((b))

    Tuhin Kanta Pandey

  3. ((c))

    Subhash Chandra Garg

  4. ((d))

    Madhabi Puri Buch

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ajay Tyagi

85

Who among the following was appointed as a full-time member of NITI Aayog in March 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Sanjay Kumar Mishra

  2. ((b))

    Dr. Jay Bhattacharya

  3. ((c))

    Rajiv Gauba

  4. ((d))

    CS Setty

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sanjay Kumar Mishra

86

Which Indian freedom fighter was known as the Jhansi Rani of Travancore?

  1. ((a))

    Accamma Cherian

  2. ((b))

    Lakshmi N. Menon

  3. ((c))

    A.V. Kuttymalu Amma

  4. ((d))

    Annie Mascarene

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Accamma Cherian

87

Which dance form is commonly performed during the Holi festival in Madhya Pradesh?

  1. ((a))

    Gendi Dance

  2. ((b))

    Dhol Cholom

  3. ((c))

    Matki Dance

  4. ((d))

    Karma Dance

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gendi Dance

88

Which among these is not one of the only four Indian Tennis players to have won a Grand Slam in their careers?

  1. ((a))

    Rohan Bopanna

  2. ((b))

    Vijay Amritraj

  3. ((c))

    Sania Mirza

  4. ((d))

    Leander Paes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rohan Bopanna

89

What was the contribution of the Bhakti movement to Kathak?

  1. ((a))

    It shifted Kathak from temples to courts

  2. ((b))

    It introduced Radha-Krishna themes in dance

  3. ((c))

    It focused solely on rhythmic purity

  4. ((d))

    It led to the development of pure dance techniques

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It shifted Kathak from temples to courts

90

The Hathigumpha inscription talks about which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    The achievements of Kharavela of Kalinga

  2. ((b))

    The reign of Ashoka

  3. ((c))

    The military campaigns of Samudragupta

  4. ((d))

    The religious reforms of Harsha

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The achievements of Kharavela of Kalinga

91

Which pairs are INCORRECTLY matched?

  1. Surkotada - Evidence of horse remains
  2. Manusmriti - Earliest Vedic text
  3. Harappa - Granaries
  1. ((a))

    1 and 2 only

  2. ((b))

    2 only

  3. ((c))

    3 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2, and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 and 2 only

92

The Hazira-Vijaipur-Jagdishpur pipeline does NOT connect, which of the following states?

  1. ((a))

    Gujarat

  2. ((b))

    Madhya Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Uttar Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Jharkhand

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gujarat

93

Which of the given statements is/are INCORRECT regarding coal deposits in India?

  1. Bituminous coal forms the largest deposits of coal in India.
  2. More than 8080% of coal in India is of coking grade, which can be used in the production of steel.
  1. ((a))

    1 only

  2. ((b))

    2 only

  3. ((c))

    Both 1 and 2

  4. ((d))

    Neither 1 nor 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 only

94

With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:

  1. Sand is a ’minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the country.
  2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.
  3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.

Which of the statements given above is/are CORRECT?

  1. ((a))

    1 and 3

  2. ((b))

    2 and 3

  3. ((c))

    3 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2 and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 and 3

95

Which folk music style from Bengal involves songs by mystic performers and emphasizes inner spirituality?

  1. ((a))

    Bhavageete

  2. ((b))

    Baul

  3. ((c))

    Lavani

  4. ((d))

    Pandavani

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bhavageete

96

In Carnatic music, which form of composition typically begins with an alapana (improvised raga exposition) followed by a structured composition?

  1. ((a))

    Varnam

  2. ((b))

    Kriti

  3. ((c))

    Tillana

  4. ((d))

    Ragam-Tanam-Pallavi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Varnam

97

Which of these tribes practice transhumance?

  1. Gujjars
  2. Bakarwals
  3. Bhutiyas
  4. Gaddis
  1. ((a))

    1 and 3 only

  2. ((b))

    1, 2, and 4 only

  3. ((c))

    4 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2, 3, and 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 and 3 only

98

In which of the following states, the highest number of tribal people was recorded in census of India 2011?

  1. ((a))

    Odisha

  2. ((b))

    Rajasthan

  3. ((c))

    Maharashtra

  4. ((d))

    Madhya Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Odisha

99

What causes rainfall in Tamil Nadu and the adjoining part of Andhra Pradesh in the months of November and December?

  1. ((a))

    Norwesters

  2. ((b))

    South East Monsoon

  3. ((c))

    Retreating Monsoon

  4. ((d))

    Tropical Jet Stream

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Norwesters

100

South Andaman and Little Andaman are separated by:

  1. ((a))

    10-degree Channel

  2. ((b))

    Duncan Passage

  3. ((c))

    Grand Channel

  4. ((d))

    Coco Strait

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10-degree Channel

Electrical Engineering (100 questions)

101

Two coupled inductors are connected in series. Their equivalent inductances are measured to be 150 mH and 80 mH for the series-aiding and series-opposing connections, respectively. What is the mutual inductance (M)\left(M\right) between the two inductors?

  1. ((a))

    35 mH

  2. ((b))

    70 mH

  3. ((c))
    1. 5 mH
  4. ((d))
    1. 5 mH
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

35 mH

102

A resistor has color bands of Red, Red, Orange, and Gold. What is the value of the resistor’s resistance and its tolerance?

  1. ((a))

    22 kΩ\Omega(\pm\)5%

  2. ((b))

    220 kΩ\Omega(\pm\)5%

  3. ((c))

    22 kΩ\Omega(\pm\)10%

  4. ((d))

    22 Ω\Omega(\pm\)5%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

22 kΩ\Omega(\pm\)5%

103

What is the key characteristic that distinguishes secondary batteries from primary batteries?

  1. ((a))

    They use a solid electrolyte

  2. ((b))

    They are more expensive to manufacture

  3. ((c))

    They can be recharged

  4. ((d))

    They have a lower voltage output

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

They use a solid electrolyte

104

A battery with an open-circuit voltage of 12 V and an internal resistance of 0. 1 Ω\Omega is connected to a load with a resistance of 1. 9 Ω\Omega. What is the terminal voltage of the battery when it is connected to the load?

  1. ((a))
    1. 2 V
  2. ((b))
    1. 0 V
  3. ((c))
    1. 4 V
  4. ((d))
    1. 6 V
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 2 V
105

In a complex circuit, two parallel branches are connected to a 10 A current source. One branch has a 4 Ω\Omega resistor, and the other has a 6 Ω\Omega resistor. What is the current flowing through the 6 Ω\Omega resistor?

  1. ((a))

    5 A

  2. ((b))

    10 A

  3. ((c))

    6 A

  4. ((d))

    4 A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5 A

106

A motor draws a current of 5 A from a 240 V source for 30 minutes. What is the total energy consumed by the motor in joules?

  1. ((a))

    360000 J

  2. ((b))

    72000 J

  3. ((c))

    2160000 J

  4. ((d))

    1200 J

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

360000 J

107

What is the primary function of a single-phase transformer?

  1. ((a))

    To convert AC power to DC power

  2. ((b))

    To generate AC electrical power

  3. ((c))

    To change the frequency of an AC voltage

  4. ((d))

    To increase or decrease an AC voltage and current

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To convert AC power to DC power

108

Which of the following describes the relationship between the primary and secondary windings in a transformer?

  1. ((a))

    They must have the same number of turns

  2. ((b))

    They are magnetically linked but electrically isolated

  3. ((c))

    They are connected in series

  4. ((d))

    They are electrically connected to each other

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

They must have the same number of turns

109

What is the primary cause of eddy current losses in a transformer core?

  1. ((a))

    The heat generated by the load

  2. ((b))

    The friction between the windings and the core

  3. ((c))

    The resistance of the windings

  4. ((d))

    The changing magnetic flux in the core

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The heat generated by the load

110

In a DC generator, what principle is used to determine the direction of the induced EMF?

  1. ((a))

    The right-hand thumb rule

  2. ((b))

    Ohm’s Law

  3. ((c))

    Fleming’s Right-Hand Rule

  4. ((d))

    Fleming’s Left-Hand Rule

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The right-hand thumb rule

111

In a DC motor, what is ’Back EMF’ (Eb)?

  1. ((a))

    An induced voltage in the armature that opposes the supply voltage

  2. ((b))

    The voltage drop across the brushes

  3. ((c))

    The external voltage applied to the motor terminals

  4. ((d))

    The voltage across the field winding

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

An induced voltage in the armature that opposes the supply voltage

112

An AC machine that operates as a generator is also known as an:

  1. ((a))

    Chopper

  2. ((b))

    Inverter

  3. ((c))

    Alternator

  4. ((d))

    Rectifier

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chopper

113

What is the purpose of the slip rings and brushes in a synchronous machine?

  1. ((a))

    To provide a path for the AC supply to the stator

  2. ((b))

    To reverse the direction of the current in the armature

  3. ((c))

    To change the speed of the machine

  4. ((d))

    To provide DC excitation current to the rotor winding

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To provide a path for the AC supply to the stator

114

In an AC motor, the difference between the synchronous speed and the actual rotor speed is known as:

  1. ((a))

    The slip

  2. ((b))

    The power factor

  3. ((c))

    The torque

  4. ((d))

    The efficiency

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The slip

115

A single-phase AC motor requires a special mechanism, such as an auxiliary winding and a capacitor, to:

  1. ((a))

    Increase the starting torque

  2. ((b))

    Convert the AC supply to DC

  3. ((c))

    Reduce the running speed

  4. ((d))

    Create a rotating magnetic field

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increase the starting torque

116

A voltage divider circuit has a 20V20 V source and two resistors, R1=100ΩR1=100 \Omega and R2=200ΩR2=200 \Omega. An ideal voltmeter would measure the voltage across R2R2. If a voltmeter with an internal resistance of 1000Ω1000 \Omega is used, what is the percentage error in the measurement?

  1. ((a))

    10

  2. ((b))

    6.25

  3. ((c))
    1. 7
  4. ((d))

    20

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10

117

A galvanometer has a coil resistance of 200 Ω\Omega and a full-scale deflection current of 200 μA\mu A. It is converted into a multi-range ammeter using two shunts, Rsh1=0.02Ω0.02 \Omega and Rsh2=0.2Ω0.2 \Omega. What are the two full-scale current ranges of this ammeter?

  1. ((a))
    1. 2 A and 2. 02 A
  2. ((b))
    1. 5 A and 0. 5 A
  3. ((c))
    1. 0002 A and 0. 2002 A
  4. ((d))

    1 A and 10 A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 2 A and 2. 02 A
118

A current transformer (CT) has a turns ratio of 100:5. If an ammeter connected to the secondary coil reads 4 A, what is the actual current flowing in the primary circuit?

  1. ((a))

    400 A

  2. ((b))

    20 A

  3. ((c))

    80 A

  4. ((d))

    60 A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

400 A

119

Which of the following is a disadvantage of a low power factor?

  1. ((a))

    Increased conductor size for a given load

  2. ((b))

    Improved voltage regulation

  3. ((c))

    More efficient use of power

  4. ((d))

    Reduced transformer rating

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increased conductor size for a given load

120

What is the function of the soft iron core placed inside the coil of a moving coil galvanometer?

  1. ((a))

    To increase the resistance of the coil

  2. ((b))

    To reduce the magnetic field strength

  3. ((c))

    To concentrate the magnetic field lines, making the field radial and strong.

  4. ((d))

    To provide mechanical support to the pointer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To increase the resistance of the coil

121

How should an ammeter be connected in a circuit to measure the current flowing through a component?

  1. ((a))

    Anywhere in the circuit, as long as it’s connected

  2. ((b))

    In series with the component

  3. ((c))

    In parallel with the component

  4. ((d))

    At the power source only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Anywhere in the circuit, as long as it’s connected

122

Why should an ammeter have a very low internal resistance?

  1. ((a))

    To minimize the voltage drop across the ammeter

  2. ((b))

    To increase the total resistance of the circuit

  3. ((c))

    To increase the current flowing through it

  4. ((d))

    To protect the ammeter from high voltage

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To minimize the voltage drop across the ammeter

123

What is the phase angle (Φ\Phi) of a circuit with a power factor of 1?

  1. ((a))

    90∘^\circ

  2. ((b))

    0∘^\circ

  3. ((c))

    180∘^\circ

  4. ((d))

    45∘^\circ

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

90∘^\circ

124

A leading power factor is caused by which type of load?

  1. ((a))

    Inductive loads

  2. ((b))

    Capacitive loads

  3. ((c))

    Resistive loads

  4. ((d))

    Both inductive and capacitive loads

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Inductive loads

125

A load draws 100 kW at a power factor of 0. 85 lagging. The supply voltage is 415 V. If the power factor is improved to 0. 95 lagging, what is the percentage reduction in line current?

  1. ((a))
    1. 5%
  2. ((b))
    1. 2%
  3. ((c))
    1. 6%
  4. ((d))

    20%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 5%
126

A load with an apparent power of 100 kVA and a power factor of 0. 8 lagging has a capacitor bank added in parallel. The new apparent power is 85 kVA. What is the new power factor?

  1. ((a))
    1. 75
  2. ((b))
    1. 94
  3. ((c))
    1. 67
  4. ((d))
    1. 85
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 75
127

What is the phase angle (ϕ\phi) of a series R-L circuit with a resistance of 20Ω\Omega and an inductive reactance of 20Ω\Omega?

  1. ((a))

    0∘^\circ leading

  2. ((b))

    90∘^\circ lagging

  3. ((c))

    45∘^\circ lagging

  4. ((d))

    45∘^\circ leading

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0∘^\circ leading

128

An AC voltage has an average value of 20V20 V. What is the peak voltage if it is a symmetrical triangular wave?

  1. ((a))

    20 V

  2. ((b))

    10 V

  3. ((c))

    40 V

  4. ((d))

    50 V

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20 V

129

Which of the following describes the Room Index (RI) in lighting design?

  1. ((a))

    A measure of the color temperature of the lamp

  2. ((b))

    A factor that accounts for the dirt accumulation on luminaires

  3. ((c))

    A factor that relates the room dimensions to the height of the luminaire

  4. ((d))

    A factor that accounts for the reflected light from room surfaces

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A measure of the color temperature of the lamp

130

Which type of wiring is typically used for providing power to heavy machinery in a small industry?

  1. ((a))

    Single-core PVC insulated wire

  2. ((b))

    Fiber optic cable

  3. ((c))

    Twisted-pair cable

  4. ((d))

    Armoured cable

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Single-core PVC insulated wire

131

According to IE Rule 54, the supply voltage to a consumer is considered low if it does not exceed:

  1. ((a))

    250 v

  2. ((b))

    650 v

  3. ((c))

    50 v

  4. ((d))

    1000 v

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

250 v

132

What is the maximum permissible voltage variation for a low or medium voltage system as specified in IE Rule 54?

  1. ((a))

    ±5\pm5%

  2. ((b))

    ±1\pm1%

  3. ((c))

    ±10\pm10%

  4. ((d))

    ±6\pm6%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

±5\pm5%

133

A consumer requires a maximum earth resistance of 0.5Ω0.5\Omega. The soil resistivity is 80Ωm80\Omega m. How many identical earth rods, each with a resistance of 20Ω20\Omega, must be installed and connected in parallel to achieve this?

  1. ((a))

    10

  2. ((b))

    20

  3. ((c))

    30

  4. ((d))

    40

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10

134

Differential protection of a transformer is a type of:

  1. ((a))

    Distance protection

  2. ((b))

    Phase-to-ground fault protection

  3. ((c))

    Unit protection

  4. ((d))

    Overcurrent protection

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Distance protection

135

The arc quenching in an Oil Circuit Breaker (OCB) is achieved by:

  1. ((a))

    A jet of SF6 gas

  2. ((b))

    A strong magnetic field

  3. ((c))

    Decomposition and vaporization of the oil

  4. ((d))

    Creating a high vacuum

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A jet of SF6 gas

136

When a circuit breaker interrupts a fault current, the transient restriking voltage appears across the breaker contacts. The Rate of Rise of Restriking Voltage (RRRV) is a critical parameter. What primarily determines the RRRV?

  1. ((a))

    The resistance of the arc path in the breaker

  2. ((b))

    The magnitude of the fault current

  3. ((c))

    The power factor of the load being interrupted

  4. ((d))

    The inductance and capacitance of the circuit

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The resistance of the arc path in the breaker

137

What is the most common material used for the inner conductor of a coaxial cable, and what is the primary reason for its use?

  1. ((a))

    Silver, for its superior conductivity

  2. ((b))

    Aluminum, for its light weight and low cost

  3. ((c))

    Copper, for its high conductivity and low resistance

  4. ((d))

    Steel, for its low resistance

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Silver, for its superior conductivity

138

An input voltage of 5 V (RMS) is applied to a 50Ω50 \Omega coaxial cable. What is the input power in Watts?

  1. ((a))
    1. 5 w
  2. ((b))
    1. 5 w
  3. ((c))
    1. 0 w
  4. ((d))

    10 w

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 5 w
139

What is the function of an Automatic Voltage Regulator (AVR) in parallel-operated alternators?

  1. ((a))

    To check the phase sequence of the incoming alternator

  2. ((b))

    To adjust the speed of the prime mover for real power sharing

  3. ((c))

    To control the field excitation to maintain a constant terminal voltage

  4. ((d))

    To provide mechanical support to the alternator

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To check the phase sequence of the incoming alternator

140

Which type of fractional motor is commonly found in clocks and small fans due to its simple, rugged construction and low cost?

  1. ((a))

    Universal motor

  2. ((b))

    Shaded-pole induction motor

  3. ((c))

    Permanent magnet DC motor

  4. ((d))

    DC series motor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Universal motor

141

What is the correct formula for Magnetomotive Force (MMF)?

  1. ((a))

    MMF=B⋅AB \cdot A

  2. ((b))

    MMF=μ⋅H\mu \cdot H

  3. ((c))

    MMF=Φ⋅R\Phi \cdot R

  4. ((d))

    MMF=NA\frac{N}{A}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

MMF=B⋅AB \cdot A

142

The inductance (L) of a coil with N turns and magnetic flux Φ\Phi produced by a current I is given by:

  1. ((a))

    L=N⋅IΦL = N \cdot \frac{I}{\Phi}

  2. ((b))

    L=N⋅ΦIL = N \cdot \frac{\Phi}{I}

  3. ((c))

    L=I(N⋅Φ)L = \frac{I}{(N \cdot \Phi)}

  4. ((d))

    L=I⋅ΦNL = I \cdot \frac{\Phi}{N}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

L=N⋅IΦL = N \cdot \frac{I}{\Phi}

143

What is the relationship between permeability (μ\mu), magnetic flux density (BB), and magnetic field intensity (HH)?

  1. ((a))

    μ=B⋅H2\mu = B \cdot H^2

  2. ((b))

    μ=B⋅H\mu = B \cdot H

  3. ((c))

    μ=BH\mu = \frac{B}{H}

  4. ((d))

    μ=HB\mu = \frac{H}{B}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

μ=B⋅H2\mu = B \cdot H^2

144

Which of the following is a characteristic of a servomotor’s operation?

  1. ((a))

    It operates without any need for a power supply

  2. ((b))

    It always rotates at a single, constant speed

  3. ((c))

    It uses a feedback loop to correct for position errors

  4. ((d))

    It moves in discrete, fixed angular steps

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It operates without any need for a power supply

145

A series magnetic circuit has a core reluctance of 5×104A−t/Wb5 \times 10^{4} A-t/Wb and an air gap reluctance of 1.5×105A−t/Wb1.5 \times 10^{5} A-t/Wb. If the magnetic flux is 0.02Wb0.02Wb, what is the total MMF required?

  1. ((a))

    4000A-t

  2. ((b))

    1000A-t

  3. ((c))

    3000A-t

  4. ((d))

    2000A-t

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4000A-t

146

Which of the following describes the depletion region in a P-N junction diode?

  1. ((a))

    A region with an abundance of free electrons and holes

  2. ((b))

    A region where free electrons and holes have recombined, leaving behind immobile ions

  3. ((c))

    A region with a high concentration of free holes

  4. ((d))

    A region with a high concentration of free electrons

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A region with an abundance of free electrons and holes

147

A full-wave bridge rectifier uses how many diodes?

  1. ((a))

    Four

  2. ((b))

    One

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Two

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Four

148

A simple parallel clipper circuit consists of a diode and a resistor. Where is the output taken from?

  1. ((a))

    Across the input source

  2. ((b))

    Across both the resistor and diode in series

  3. ((c))

    Across the diode

  4. ((d))

    Across the resistor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Across the input source

149

If a circuit has a Norton equivalent current of 5 A and a Norton equivalent resistance of 4Ω4 \Omega, what is the Thevenin equivalent voltage?

  1. ((a))

    20 v

  2. ((b))

    30 v

  3. ((c))

    40 v

  4. ((d))

    50 v

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20 v

150

A circuit contains a 10V10 V voltage source, a 5Ω5\Omega resistor, and a 2Ω2\Omega load resistor. What is the Thevenin voltage (VthV_{th}) as seen by the load resistor?

  1. ((a))

    10V10 V

  2. ((b))

    20V20 V

  3. ((c))

    30V30 V

  4. ((d))

    40V40 V

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10V10 V

151

What is the equivalent circuit for Norton’s theorem?

  1. ((a))

    An ideal current source with a series resistor

  2. ((b))

    An ideal current source with a parallel resistor

  3. ((c))

    An ideal voltage source with a parallel resistor

  4. ((d))

    An ideal voltage source with a series resistor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

An ideal current source with a series resistor

152

What is the Thevenin equivalent of an ideal voltage source (VS) with no series resistor?

  1. ((a))

    A voltage source of VS and a series resistor of 0Ω0 \Omega

  2. ((b))

    A voltage source of VS and a series resistor of infinite resistance

  3. ((c))

    A voltage source of 0V0 V and a series resistor of 0Ω0 \Omega

  4. ((d))

    A current source of infinite current and a parallel resistor of 0Ω0 \Omega

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A voltage source of VS and a series resistor of 0Ω0 \Omega

153

What is the equivalent star (Y) impedance for a balanced delta (Δ\Delta) connected load with a phase impedance of 45 Ω\Omega?

  1. ((a))

    45 Ω\Omega

  2. ((b))

    135 Ω\Omega

  3. ((c))

    90 Ω\Omega

  4. ((d))

    15 Ω\Omega

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

45 Ω\Omega

154

A load draws 10 kW of true power and has a reactive power of 7. 5 kVAR. What is the power factor of the load?

  1. ((a))
    1. 25 lagging
  2. ((b))
    1. 6 lagging
  3. ((c))
    1. 8 lagging
  4. ((d))
    1. 75 lagging
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 25 lagging
155

A balanced three-phase delta (Δ\Delta) connected load has a line current of 15 A. What is the phase current?

  1. ((a))
    1. 98 A
  2. ((b))

    15 A

  3. ((c))

    37 A

  4. ((d))
    1. 66 A
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 98 A
156

A 200 W lamp has a luminous efficacy of 15 lm/W. It is used to illuminate a rectangular area of 10 m ×\times 5 m. If the utilization factor is 0. 5 and the depreciation factor is 0. 7, what is the average illuminance on the area?

  1. ((a))

    21 lux

  2. ((b))

    30 lux

  3. ((c))

    42 lux

  4. ((d))

    11 lux

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

21 lux

157

An electric locomotive has a total mass of 120 tons. It accelerates from rest to a speed of 80 km/h in 40 seconds on a level track. If the train resistance is a constant 10 N/ton, what is the average power required for the traction system during this period? Assume no other losses.

  1. ((a))
    1. 5 MW
  2. ((b))
    1. 5 MW
  3. ((c))
    1. 75 MW
  4. ((d))
    1. 75 MW
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 5 MW
158

A 250 V d.c. series motor is used for an electric drive. It has a full-load current of 50 A. The armature resistance is 0.15Ω0.15 \Omega and the field resistance is 0.1Ω0.1 \Omega. What is the efficiency of the motor at full load?

  1. ((a))

    85%

  2. ((b))

    90%

  3. ((c))

    80%

  4. ((d))

    95%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

85%

159

A hollow steel pipe of length 2 m, outer diameter 5 cm, and inner diameter 4 cm is used for resistance heating. The resistivity of steel is 40×10−8Ω⋅m40 \times 10^{-8} \Omega \cdot m. If a current of 200 A flows through the pipe, what is the total heat generated in 10 minutes?

  1. ((a))
    1. 5 kJ
  2. ((b))
    1. 1 kJ
  3. ((c))
    1. 84 kJ
  4. ((d))
    1. 75 kJ
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 5 kJ
160

A single-phase transformer has 400 turns on the primary and 1000 turns on the secondary. If the primary voltage is 200 V, what is the secondary voltage?

  1. ((a))

    400 V

  2. ((b))

    500 V

  3. ((c))

    600 V

  4. ((d))

    700 V

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

400 V

161

A transformer with a voltage ratio of 5:15:1 has a primary resistance of 10Ω10 \Omega. What is the equivalent primary resistance referred to the secondary side?

  1. ((a))
    1. 4 Ω\Omega
  2. ((b))
    1. 8 Ω\Omega
  3. ((c))

    1 Ω\Omega

  4. ((d))
    1. 5 Ω\Omega
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 4 Ω\Omega
162

A 10kVA10 kVA, 2400/240V2400/240 V, 50Hz50 Hz single-phase transformer has a core loss of 100W100 W and a full-load copper loss of 200W200 W. It operates for 8 hours at full load and 12 hours at half load, both at a 0.80.8 lagging power factor. The remaining 4 hours are spent on no load. What is the all-day efficiency?

  1. ((a))
    1. 2%
  2. ((b))
    1. 05%
  3. ((c))
    1. 05%
  4. ((d))
    1. 05%
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 2%
163

A 220 v d.c. series generator with a total internal resistance of 0. 3 Ω\Omega delivers a load current of 60 A. What is the generated EMF?

  1. ((a))

    202 v

  2. ((b))

    220 v

  3. ((c))

    230 v

  4. ((d))

    238 v

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

202 v

164

A 20 kW, 200 V d.c. generator has a constant loss of 500 W and a variable loss of 400 W at half load. What is the total loss at full load?

  1. ((a))

    2100 W

  2. ((b))

    1000 W

  3. ((c))

    1100 W

  4. ((d))

    1600 W

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2100 W

165

A d.c. shunt motor runs at 1500 rpm on a 240 V supply, taking an armature current of 20 A. The armature resistance is 0. 5 Ω\Omega. What is the new speed if the motor draws a full-load armature current of 40 A and the field flux remains constant?

  1. ((a))

    1450 rpm

  2. ((b))

    1475 rpm

  3. ((c))

    1435 rpm

  4. ((d))

    1400 rpm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1450 rpm

166

A 3-phase, 4-pole, 60 Hz induction motor has a full-load slip of 55%. What is the frequency of the rotor currents at full load?

  1. ((a))

    3 Hz

  2. ((b))

    6 Hz

  3. ((c))

    9 Hz

  4. ((d))

    12 Hz

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3 Hz

167

A 3-phase, 4-pole, 50 Hz induction motor has a synchronous speed of 1500 rpm. If the motor is operated in plugging mode, what is the slip?

  1. ((a))

    -0.05

  2. ((b))

    1

  3. ((c))

    2

  4. ((d))
    1. 05
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

-0.05

168

The speed of a three-phase induction motor is increased from 900 RPM to 960 RPM by changing the frequency of the supply. If the original frequency was 50 Hz, what is the new frequency, assuming a 6-pole motor?

  1. ((a))
    1. 6 Hz
  2. ((b))
    1. 3 Hz
  3. ((c))
    1. 4 Hz
  4. ((d))
    1. 5 Hz
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 6 Hz
169

A 250 V, 10 kW DC shunt generator has an armature resistance of 0.2 Ω0.2\ \Omega. The shunt field resistance is 100 Ω100\ \Omega. What is the induced EMF at full load?

  1. ((a))
    1. 4 V
  2. ((b))
    1. 3 V
  3. ((c))
    1. 7 V
  4. ((d))
    1. 5 V
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 4 V
170

A 240 V DC servomotor is used in a position control system. The motor’s torque constant is 0.15 N⋅m/A0.15 \text{ N} \cdot \text{m/A} and its back EMF constant is 0.15 V/rad/s0.15 \text{ V/rad/s}. If the motor needs to produce a torque of 0.5 N⋅m0.5 \text{ N} \cdot \text{m} at a speed of 200 rad/s200 \text{ rad/s}, what armature resistance is required to operate under these conditions?

  1. ((a))

    28 Ω\Omega

  2. ((b))

    46 Ω\Omega

  3. ((c))

    63 Ω\Omega

  4. ((d))

    85 Ω\Omega

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

28 Ω\Omega

171

A toroidal core with a mean circumference of 50 cm and a cross-sectional area of 2 cm2cm^2 is wound with 300 turns. If a current of 2. 5 A flows through the coil, what is the magnetic field intensity HH inside the core?

  1. ((a))

    600 A-turns/m

  2. ((b))

    1000 A-turns/m

  3. ((c))

    1500 A-turns/m

  4. ((d))

    3000 A-turns/m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

600 A-turns/m

172

A core with a mean path length of 30 cm and a cross-sectional area of 5cm25cm^2 has a relative permeability of 1500. A coil of 400 turns is wound on the core. What is the self-inductance of the coil?

  1. ((a))
    1. 503 H
  2. ((b))
    1. 854 H
  3. ((c))
    1. 26 H
  4. ((d))
    1. 82 H
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 503 H
173

A 480 V, 60 Hz single-phase load consists of a 10 Ω\Omega resistive element and a 20 mH inductive element connected in parallel. What is the power factor of this combined load?

  1. ((a))
    1. 485
  2. ((b))
    1. 603
  3. ((c))
    1. 707
  4. ((d))
    1. 866
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 485
174

An industrial plant has a total load of 500 kVA at 0. 7 power factor lagging. The plant is supplied by a 480 V, 60 Hz three-phase line. A 200 kVAR capacitor bank is installed to improve the power factor. What is the new apparent power drawn from the supply?

  1. ((a))
    1. 1 kVA
  2. ((b))
    1. 4 kVA
  3. ((c))
    1. 5 kVA
  4. ((d))
    1. 6 kVA
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 1 kVA
175

A distance relay is set to protect a transmission line with an impedance of=(2+j10)Ω(2+j10)\Omega. The relay’s Zone 1 is configured to cover 80% of the line’s impedance. What is the apparent impedance measured by the relay during a three-phase fault at the boundary of Zone 1?

  1. ((a))

    Zmeasured =1+j5 Ω\Omega

  2. ((b))

    Zmeasured =0.4+j2 Ω\Omega

  3. ((c))

    Zmeasured =2+j10 Ω\Omega

  4. ((d))

    Zmeasured =1.6+j8 Ω\Omega

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Zmeasured =1+j5 Ω\Omega

176

A coaxial cable has a velocity factor of 0.660.66. If a signal takes 500ns500 ns to travel from one end to the other, what is the length of the cable?

  1. ((a))

    99 m

  2. ((b))

    246 m

  3. ((c))

    369 m

  4. ((d))

    487 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

99 m

177

A zener diode regulator circuit has an input voltage of 12 V and a zener voltage of 6 V. The series resistance is 120 Ω\Omega. What is the zener current if the load resistance is 600 Ω\Omega?

  1. ((a))

    10 mA

  2. ((b))

    20 mA

  3. ((c))

    30 mA

  4. ((d))

    40 mA

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10 mA

178

A sine wave with a peak voltage of 5V5 V is applied to a positive series clipper with a DC voltage source of 2V2 V. The diode is silicon with a forward voltage of 0.7V0.7 V. What is the output voltage when the input is 3V3 V?

  1. ((a))

    2.7V2.7 V

  2. ((b))

    4.2V4.2 V

  3. ((c))

    6.9V6.9 V

  4. ((d))

    8.5V8.5 V

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2.7V2.7 V

179

A high Load Factor is economically desirable because it leads to

  1. ((a))

    Lower unit cost of electricity

  2. ((b))

    Lower plant maintenance costs

  3. ((c))

    A greater reserve capacity

  4. ((d))

    Higher unit cost of electricity

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lower unit cost of electricity

180

A high load factor in a power system means:

  1. ((a))

    The power plant is operating efficiently with a consistent load

  2. ((b))

    The total energy generated is low

  3. ((c))

    The maximum demand on the plant is very low

  4. ((d))

    The power plant is often idle and has a lot of reserve capacity

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The power plant is operating efficiently with a consistent load

181

A thermal power plant generates 1500MWh in one day. The maximum demand on the plant is 100MW. Calculate the daily load factor.

  1. ((a))
    1. 5%
  2. ((b))
    1. 5%
  3. ((c))
    1. 5%
  4. ((d))
    1. 5%
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 5%
182

A power plant has a connected load of 500MW, a maximum demand of 400MW, and a load factor of 70%. What is the average load on the plant?

  1. ((a))

    120MW

  2. ((b))

    280MW

  3. ((c))

    440MW

  4. ((d))

    690MW

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

120MW

183

A thermal power plant produces 2500MWh of energy in one day. The maximum demand is 150MW. What is the daily load factor of the plant?

  1. ((a))
    1. 3%
  2. ((b))
    1. 4%
  3. ((c))
    1. 4%
  4. ((d))
    1. 7%
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 3%
184

In a long transmission line, the effect of shunt capacitance and series inductance is considered:

  1. ((a))

    Negligible

  2. ((b))

    Lumped at the middle of the line

  3. ((c))

    Distributed uniformly throughout the line

  4. ((d))

    Lumped at the ends of the line

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Negligible

185

Which of the following factors affects the inductance of a single-phase two-wire transmission line?

  1. ((a))

    The frequency of the current

  2. ((b))

    Resistance of the conductors

  3. ((c))

    The voltage of the line

  4. ((d))

    The spacing between conductors

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The frequency of the current

186

A three-phase distribution system has a line-to-line voltage of 11 kV. What is the line-to-neutral voltage?

  1. ((a))
    1. 84 kV
  2. ((b))
    1. 35 kV
  3. ((c))
    1. 72 kV
  4. ((d))
    1. 62 kV
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 84 kV
187

A 50 Hz transmission line has a capacitance of 10 nF/km. If the line is 150 km long, what is the total capacitive reactance?

  1. ((a))

    2122Ω\Omega

  2. ((b))

    4782Ω\Omega

  3. ((c))

    6948Ω\Omega

  4. ((d))

    8976Ω\Omega

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2122Ω\Omega

188

A single-phase distribution line supplies a load of 10 kW at 230 v with a power factor of 0. 85 lagging. What is the line current?

  1. ((a))
    1. 4 A
  2. ((b))
    1. 6 A
  3. ((c))
    1. 3 A
  4. ((d))
    1. 2 A
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))
  1. 4 A
189

A wattmeter is connected to measure the power in a circuit with a voltage of 230 V and a current of 5 A. If the power factor of the load is 0. 8 lagging, what is the power reading?

  1. ((a))

    575 W

  2. ((b))

    690 W

  3. ((c))

    920 W

  4. ((d))

    1150 W

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

575 W

190

A galvanometer has a resistance of 15 Ω\Omega and gives full-scale deflection for 10 mA\text{mA}. To convert it to a voltmeter reading up to 15 V\text{V}, the required series resistance is:

  1. ((a))

    1485 Ω\Omega

  2. ((b))

    2375 Ω\Omega

  3. ((c))

    3285 Ω\Omega

  4. ((d))

    4795 Ω\Omega

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1485 Ω\Omega

191

A 1000 mA meter has an accuracy of ±2\pm 2%. It’s accuracy while measuring 100 mA will be:

  1. ((a))

    ±2\pm 2%

  2. ((b))

    ±0.2\pm 0. 2%

  3. ((c))

    ±4\pm 4%

  4. ((d))

    ±20\pm 20%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

±2\pm 2%

192

Two resistors, 6 Ω\Omega and 3 Ω\Omega, are connected in parallel. What is the equivalent resistance?

  1. ((a))

    2 Ω\Omega

  2. ((b))

    9 Ω\Omega

  3. ((c))

    4 Ω\Omega

  4. ((d))

    1 Ω\Omega

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2 Ω\Omega

193

Define the law that ensures the algebraic sum of all voltages around any closed loop in a network is zero.

  1. ((a))

    Coulomb’s Law

  2. ((b))

    Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law

  3. ((c))

    Ohm’s Law

  4. ((d))

    Gauss’s Law

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Coulomb’s Law

194

Identify the condition for maximum power transfer from a source to a load in a DC circuit.

  1. ((a))

    Load resistance equals source resistance

  2. ((b))

    Load resistance double source resistance

  3. ((c))

    Load resistance half of source resistance

  4. ((d))

    Load resistance zero

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Load resistance equals source resistance

195

Analyze a circuit using Thevenin’s Theorem. If the open-circuit voltage is 10 V and the equivalent resistance is 5Ω\Omega, what is the Thevenin equivalent?

  1. ((a))

    10 V with 5Ω\Omega in series

  2. ((b))

    5 V with 10Ω\Omega in series

  3. ((c))

    10 V with 2Ω\Omega in parallel

  4. ((d))

    5 V with 2Ω\Omega in series

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10 V with 5Ω\Omega in series

196

Evaluate the impact of lamp placement on illumination uniformity.

  1. ((a))

    Irregular spacing improves uniformity

  2. ((b))

    Regular spacing improves uniformity

  3. ((c))

    Closer spacing reduces uniformity

  4. ((d))

    No impact

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Irregular spacing improves uniformity

197

What is the importance of IE Rules in electrical safety.

  1. ((a))

    Optional guidelines

  2. ((b))

    Mandatory legal framework

  3. ((c))

    For reference only

  4. ((d))

    For design only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Optional guidelines

198

A servo drive shows persistent steady-state error despite high gain. What modification is recommended?

  1. ((a))

    Reduce proportional gain

  2. ((b))

    Add integral control

  3. ((c))

    Reduce supply voltage

  4. ((d))

    Use larger motor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Reduce proportional gain

199

A 50 MW plant operates for 2000 hours per year with an average load of 25 MW. Find the load factor.

  1. ((a))

    25%

  2. ((b))

    40%

  3. ((c))

    50%

  4. ((d))

    60%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25%

200

In a Wheatstone bridge, R1=120Ω, R2=100Ω, R3=150ΩR_1 =120 \Omega , ~R_2 =100 \Omega , ~R_ 3 =150 \Omega What must be R4 for balance?

  1. ((a))

    125 Ω\Omega

  2. ((b))

    180 Ω\Omega

  3. ((c))

    90 Ω\Omega

  4. ((d))

    150 Ω\Omega

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

125 Ω\Omega

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